AIR LAW

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

PRACTICE EXAMINATION PAPER 2

1.

It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. How
would ATC describe the state of the runway in this situation?
a.
b.
c.
d.

2.

What information concerning contaminants on an aerodrome is reported by SNOWTAM?

a.
b.
c.
d.

3.

It must not be green

It must be clearly visible from 300M AAL
It must be clearly visible from all parts of the manoeuvring area
It indicates that VFR operations are in progress

Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been subject
to unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other
bays?
a.

b.
c.
d.
5.

Clear ice, rime ice and snow

Light snow, heavy snow and blizzard
Snow, ice and standing water
Wet snow, dry snow and frozen snow

What is the principle requirement of a signals area on an aerodrome?

a.
b.
c.
d.

4.

Wet
Damp
Not dry
Braking action poor

50m
100 m
150 m
200 m

What colour is taxiway centre line markings?

a.
b.
c.
d.

White
Green
Yellow
Green/yellow

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6.

What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

a.
b.
c.
d.

7.

What do alternating yellow/green centreline lights of a taxiway indicate?

a.
b.
c.
d.

8.

White
Red
Green
A contrasting colour from the aircraft stand markings

Do all runways require centreline markings?

a.
b.
c.
d.

11.

One of three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway

Occulting yellow 'guard' lights
A red marker board either side of the taxiway
A red light stop bar

What colour are apron safety lines?

a.
b.
c.
d.

10.

An ILS/MLS sensitive area

A fast tum off lane
Special care required whilst taxiing
Runway proximity

What marks a runway holding position?

a.
b.
c.
d.

9.

The threshold
A temporary displaced threshold
A displace threshold
1000 ft from the end zone

No, only paved runways

No, only runways over 50 m wide
No, only instrument runways
Yes, but temporary grass runways may be exempt if less than 1200m long

Which of the following has had a significant effect on the role and importance of aeronautical
information and flight data?
a.
b.
c.
d.

ICAO
The introduction of RNAV , RNP and computer systems
The speed of aeroplanes
The increased use of upper airspace

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12.

At least how many days in advance of the effective date must AlRAC infonnation be
distributed?
a.
b.
c.
d.

13.

A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the infonnation is of operational significance

provided they would not have ..... days prior notification. What number of days correctly fills
the space?

a.
b.
c.
d.
14.

Notification of no smoking areas

Volcanic activity
Predicted volcanic eruptions
Aerodromes closed by volcanic ash contamination

On a runway with a length of2500 m, how far is the aiming point from the threshold?
a.
b.
c.
d.

16.

3
5
7
9

What is an ASHTAM used for?

a.
b.
c.
d.

15.

14
28
42
60

150 m
250 m
300 m
400m

On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how many pairs of touchdown zone markings are
required?
a.
b.
c.
d.

6
5
4
3

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17.

F or planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This consists

of two elements: A number, and a letter. What does the number relate to?
a.
b.
c.
d.

18.

Which would you expect to find on a taxiway, at the closest point to a runway?
a.
b.
c.
d.

19.

30m
at the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
60m
A distance equal to twice the width of the runway

Crash/rescue (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical characteristics

of the type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. The categories are 1 - 10. Upon what are the
categories based?
a.
b.
c.
d.

21.

A stopbar
A pattern A runway holding position
Cat I holding point
A taxiway/runway intersection sign

For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a 'runway vacated' sign
positioned?
a.
b.
c.
d.

20.

Load classification number

Single wheel loading classification
Crash/Rescue category
Take-off distance required for an aeroplane

Length and max take-off mass

Max number of passengers and crew
Overall length and fuselage width
Max landing mass and max number of passengers

What is the ICAO bird strike information system called?

a.
b.
c.
d.

IBSI
IBIS
IRIS
BSIS

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22.

An obstacle that is required to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome where night operations
are carried out, is 180 m high. How is it to be lit?
a.
b.
c.
d.

23.

How is a paved pre-threshold area which is not suitable for use by aircraft, marked?
a.
b.
c.
d.

24.

Passport and visa

Passport and confirmation of inclusion on the general declaration passenger manifest
No more than would be required if the person arrived by ship or train
Passport, visa and any necessary health documentation (vaccination certificates etc .. )

What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate (CMC)?

a.
b.
c.
d.

26.

By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold

By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold
By a yellow X
By white crosses evenly spaced

What documentation is required by persons travelling by air, for entry into a state?
a.
b.
c.
d.

25.

High intensity white flashing lights

Red flashing lights
Steady (non flashing) red lights
A combination of red lights every 50 m and high intensity flashing white at 90 m and
180m.

To permit aircrew temporary residence in en route countries

To allow flight crew to be exempt customs, health and immigration formalities at an enroute aerodrome
To replace the crew member's licence
To provide identification of aircrew

When are Search and Rescue facilities are to be provided in the airspace of a state?
a.
b.
c.
d.

From 2 hours before until 2 hours after any flight enters/leaves the airspace
On a 24 hour basis
When a state of emergency has been declared
When the authority of the state deems necessary

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27.

28.

Which of the following are Emergency/SAR frequencies?

1.

121.500Mhz;

a.
b.
c.
d.

All of them
1,2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only

2182 Khz;

4.

406Mhz

121.500 Mhz and 131.800 Mhz

123.456 Mhz and 121.500 Mhz
121.500 Mhz and the company VHF frequency
125.000Mhz (Shanwick long range VHF) and 121.500 Mhz

Require assistance
Negative
Affirmative
Require medical assistance

You are flying over the NAT region when you intercept a distress call. You record the message,
get a bearing on it from the ADF, and tell Shanwick. The radio operator at Shanwick tells you
to standby. What should you consider doing whilst awaiting instructions?
a.
b.
c.
d.

31.

3.

What is the meaning of this SAR visual signal when used by survivors on the ground?
z
a.
b.
c.
d.

30.

243.000Mhz;

If you are flying over the NAT region and maintaining a Selcal watch on HF, which freq(s)
would you set on the VHF boxes?
a.
b.
c.
d.

29.

2.

Make a general call on 121.500 asking other aeroplanes to assist

Proceed to the position given in the distress message
Call your operator and advise him that you are now on SAR duty and will need to divert
to the nearest aerodrome at the end of your duty
Descend to low level and carry out a surface search for ships

250/0 of the runway of a runway is covered witll standing water. How would ATC describe the
state of the runway?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Water patches
Flooded
Damp
Wet

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32.

What is the vertical separation minima applied in designated airspace subject to a regional air
navigation agreement below FL41 O?
a.
b.
c.
d.

33.

Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum
track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the
other aircraft's level?
a.
b.
c.
d.

34.

Vertical separation is also to be applied

Lateral separation of 15 nm is to be maintained at all times
The tracks are required to diverge by 30 thereafter
Tracks are to continue diverging by 15 until the required lateral separation is achieved

What track divergence angle is required immediately after take off to allow a departure interval
of one minute between successive departures from the same runway to be achieved?
a.
b.
c.
d.

36.

15 and a distance of 15 nm or more

15 and a distance of 15 Km or more
30 and a distance of 15 nm or more
30 and a distance of 15 Km or more

Aircraft entering Oceanic airspace from domestic airspace are required to be laterally separated
by flying tracks separated by 15 and at a distance of 15nm or more from the same VOR. What
is the additional proviso to this case?
a.
b.
c.
d.

35.

1000 ft
2000 ft
500 ft
1500 ft

10
15
30
45

If two aeroplanes are departing from the same runway on the same track, and the second intends
to climb through the level of the preceding one; what separation must be applied?
a.
b.
c.
d.

5 minutes
3 minutes
10 nm
5nm

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37.

For a separation of 2 minutes to be applied between successive departures on the same track,
what is the required speed difference?
a.
b.
c.
d.

38.

Yes
No
Yes providing the cloud ceiling is greater than 500 ft
Yes providing the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground

What type of air traffic service is provided in class F airspace?

a.
b.
c.
d.

41.

Wing span of 35m or more

Four turbo jet engines
Take off mass of 145000 kg
245 passenger seats

According to JAR OPS, if the ground visibility is reported as 1000 metres, can a special VFR
flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone?
a.
b.
c.
d.

40.

The preceding aircraft must be 20kts faster than the following aircraft
The preceding aircraft must be 40kts faster than the following aircraft
The preceding aircraft must be 50kts faster than the following aircraft
The preceding aircraft must be 60kts faster than the following aircraft

What classifies an aeroplane as 'heavy' for wake turbulence separation?

a.
b.
c.
d.

39.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

Air traffic advisory service to IFR flights and flight information to VFR
Air traffic advisory to all participating IFR traffic and flight information to others
Radar advisory service to participating traffic and flight information where no radar is
available
Air traffic control to participating traffic and advisory ATe to .all other

What is required for aircraft flying IFR in advisory airspace but not electing to use the air traffic
advisory service?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Keep clear of all notified advisory routes

Fly at VFR flight levels
File a flight plan
Maintain a good look out for other IFR traffic using the service

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42.

An IFR flight not in receipt of an advisory service wishes to cross an advisory route. What
procedure shall be used to cross the route?
a.
b.
c.
d.

43.

The aircraft reporting his position as a range and bearing from the radar head
Observation of a SSR squawk
Observation on radar of a tum made by the aircraft
Aircraft compliance with an instruction to squawk ident

Which of the following is true concerning radar separation minimum?

a.
b.
c.
d.

47.

AlOOOO
Al5678
Al7700
Al7777

Which of the following is an approved method of identifying a contact on radar as an aeroplane

to which a service is to be given?
a.
b.
c.
d.

46.

Check the serviceability of the radar system

Confirm the serviceability of the aeroplane SSR system
Carry out a mode C check against the aircraft pressure altimeter
Radar identify the aeroplane and inform the pilot

Which of the following is NOT a valid SSR mode A squawk?

a.
b.
c.
d.

45.

Cross at an intermediate level i.e FL 75; FL95 etc ..

Cross at 90 to the centre line at the appropriate IFR level
Cross at 90 to the centre line at the appropriate VFR level
Such crossings are only to be made at the base of the airway

What is an air traffic controller, using radar to provide the service, required to do prior to
providing an aircraft with A TC based on the radar information?
a.
b.
c.
d.

44.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

May be reduced to 3 nm if radar capabilities permit

Never less than 5 nm
The minimum is not defined, it depend~ upon wake turbulence category
May be reduced to 2.5 nm if 1000 ft vertical separation is also maintained

A MEDIUM wake turbulence category aircraft is following a HEAVY category aircraft on a

radar vectored approach to land. What is the minimum radar separation to be applied?
a.
b.
c.
d.

5nm
4 nm providing 1000 ft vertical separation also maintained
6 nm until the speed of the heavy is reduced below wake turbulence threshold
There is no specified minimum for this case
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48.

ILS CAT 111111 operations are being carried out on parallel runways. When is wake turbulence
separation to be applied?
a.
b.
c.
d.

49.

Resume position reports

Squawk standby
Squawk Al2000
Leave controlled airspace

If you are flying a surveillance radar approach (non-precision), what information must the radar
controller pass to you?
a.
b.
c.
d.

52.

5nm
3nm
2.25 nm
2.5 nm

You are flying IFR in controlled airspace and are advised that radar service is terminated. What
must you do?
a.
b.
c.
d.

51.

At all times
When the runways are physically separated by 850 m
If one aircraft is required to cross behind another within 1000 ft
When aircraft are approaching the same runway within 1000 ft vertically of each other

If radar separation of 5 nm during vectoring is being applied, what is the closest an aircraft may
be vectored to the boundary of the radar vectoring area?

a.
b.
c.
d.
50.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

Your distance from touchdown and observed deviation from the glide path
Distance from touchdown and advisory height information
Range and bearing from touchdown and when you are at MDH
Distance to run to your MDH and deviation from the extended centre line

What is to be given consideration in deciding the minimum altitude in radar vectoring areas
(RVA)?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Not flying below the minimum safe altitude (MSA) in the RVA
Minimising activation of ground proximity warnings
Procedures to keep the aircraft clear of areas where GPWS warnings would occur
Disabling the GPWS system to prevent level busts due to automatic responses to
warnIngs

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53.

Which of the following defines a visual approach?

a.
b.
c.
d.

54.

When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is

subsequently maintained
An approach made under VFR using instrument height and track guidance
Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC
The circling portion of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which
the landing is to be made

What is the only item permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting system
within 60 m of the centre line?
a.
b.
c.
d.

55.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

An ILS or MLS azimuth (centreline guidance) antenna

A fixed object not more than 45 ft high
The ILS glidepath antenna
The aerodrome boundary security fence

What colour are runway edge lights?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Blue
Yellow
Red
White

56.

Where a runway has a displaced threshold what colour are the edge lights between the end of
the runway and the displaced threshold, showing in the direction of the approach?
a.
Blue
b.
White
c.
Red
d.
Green

57.

Are runway edge lights required to show all round (omni-directionally)?

a.
b.
c.
d.

58.

No, only in the direction of the approach

Yes where they are intended to provide guidance during circling
No, they are only required to show in azimuth in both runway directions
Yes but not vertically (limited to 15 above the horizontal)

Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Fixed; uni-directional; red

Fixed, omni-directional; red
Fixed; uni-directional; green
Fixed; omni-directional; green

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59.

What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an
RVR of approximately 400 m?
a.
b.
c.
d.

60.

b.
c.
d.

They are used as traffic lights on aerodromes to control vehicles in poor ground
visibility
They are used specifically to indicate "stop here" to non radio traffic in IMC conditions
They are positioned at all taxi-holding positions for runways when RVR is less than
350m
At runway entrances to prevent vehicular movement in RVR equal to or less than 550m

What is/are required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and the runway is
intended to be used in RVR conditions less than 550m?
a.
b.
c.
d.

63.

Approach lighting (such that it does not dazzle the pilot taking off)
Red centre line lighting
Green/yellow alternating taxiway lights
Unidirectional green lights

Generally, when and where are stop bars provided?

a.

62.

Edge lighting and centre line lighting

Centre line lighting
Edge lighting
None

Where a runway has a displaced threshold and the whole of the runway is used for take-off,
which of the following can be used to indicate the centre of the runway from the end to the
displaced threshold?
a.
b.
c.
d.

61.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

Traffic lights
Taxi guidance systems
Ground movement radar
Runway guard lights

The main instrument runway at an aerodrome is 1875 m long. What is the radius of the
Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ)?
a.
b.
c.
d.

2nm
2.5 nm
5nm
sufficient for the protection of aerodrome traffic

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64.

Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima?

a.
b.
c.
d.

65.

A scheduled air service

A commercial air operation
An air transport undertaking
An airline

What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the
relevant DH or MDH?
a.
b.
c.
d.

68.

Apron
Ramp
Stands
Parking Bays

What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision offlights for the purpose
of public transport of passengers or cargo?
a.
b.
c.
d.

67.

Cloud base and ground visibility for take off

Cloud ceiling and ground visibility for take off
Cloud base and RVR for take off
Cloud ceiling and RVR for take off.

What is the name of the part of an aerodrome used for the positioning of aircraft for the
embarkation/disembarkation of passengers?
a.
b.
c.
d.

66.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

Glide path
Final approach
Approach to landing
Go around/Missed approach

Where a final approach fix (F AF) is specified for a non-precision approach procedure, what is
the minimum obstacle clearance fixed margin that is applied for all aircraft?
a.
b.
c.
d.

75 m (247 ft)
90 m (295 ft)
100 m (316 m)
120 m (400 ft)

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69.

For a non-precision approach, what is (normally) the maximum distance the Final Approach Fix
(F AF) can be from the threshold of the landing runway?
a.
b.
c.
d.

70.

AtDH/MDH

At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost

At the missed approach point
Over the threshold of the instrument runway

If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument procedure can the approach be
continued?
a.
b.
c.
d.

74.

30
45
60
90

Where does the missed approach procedure start?

a.
b.
c.
d.

73.

For obstacle clearance

For runways less than 1875m length
For noise abatement
In RVR less than 800m

What is the maximum permitted intercept angle between the initial approach track and the
intermediate approach track for a precision instrument approach?
a.
b.
c.
d.

72.

19 Km (10 nm)
28 Km (15 nm)
38 Km (20 nm)

When is a glide path in excess of 3.5 not to be used?

a.
b.
c.
d.

71.

9 Km(5 nm)

Yes, but DH now becomes MDH

Yes, but the non-precision criteria must be complied with
It depends if the descent on the GP has, already been initiated
Yes if the flight is in VMC

Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
a.
b.
c.
d.

This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted

It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment
Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high
MOC
Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance and a high rate of descent

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75.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle.

Under what circumstances is this is permitted?
a.
b.
c.
d.

76.

At what height is visual circling carried out?

a.
b.
c.
d.

77.

DR for the instrument (non landing) runway

OCR for the aerodrome
MDR for the approach (non landing) runway
OCR for the runway on which it is intended to land

Offset join (sector 2)

Reverse direct (sector 3)
Teardrop procedure (sector 2)
Sector 1 (parallel)

You are required to carry out a sector 2 (offset) joining procedure to a holding pattern. What is
the required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top the fix towards the
outbound end?
a.
b.
c.
d.

79.

VM(C)
VM( C)
VM(C)
VM(C)

A holding pattern is established on a fix position with an inbound heading of 180 mag. You are
approaching the fix from the southwest. What type of joining procedure is required?
a.
b.
c.
d.

78.

Flight visibility of 1500 m or more and cloud ceiling of 850ft or more

The obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach areas
The obstacle lies on the other side of the aerodrome from the threshold of the landing
runway
The obstacle height for that obstacle is not more than 10% higher than the OCR
calculated without consideration of that obstacle

20
30
45
60

It is normal for holding procedures at 14 000 ft and below to include an outbound leg of 1 minute
duration. Row long is the outbound leg above 14 000 ft?

a.
b.
c.
d.

1V2 minutes
2 minutes
2V2 minutes
not specified

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80.

How much obstacle clearance is guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm outside of the
holding area) of a holding pattern?
a.
b.
c.
d.

81.

840 ft
360 ft
160ft
450 ft

The QNH is 1040 Mb and you are flying over the sea at 800 ft. What (assuming the TIAlt is
MSL) would your flight level be?
a.
b.
c.
d.

84.

Yes
No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance
Yes even where DME is used the maximum length is always a time
No, where GIS is less than 65kts, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long

The QNH at an aerodrome is 985Mb. The transition altitude is 3000 ft. How deep is the
transition layer? (Assume 1 Mb = 30 ft)
a.
b.
c.
d.

83.

300 m (1000 ft) (2000 ft in mountainous areas)

150 m (500 ft)
90 m (300 ft)
nil

Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
a.
b.
c.
d.

82.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

FL 10
FLO
FL -10
You have no intention of flying over the Dead Sea, therefore the question is totally
academic!

After setting 1013 Mb at the transition altitude you have to climb 350 ft to the transition level
(FL 40) which is the level you intend to fly en-route. Whilst climbing you are asked to report
you vertical position. How would you do this?
a.
b.
c.
d.

As a height above the transition altitude

As an altitude AMSL
As a FL with respect to the standard pressure setting of 1013 Mb
Tell the air traffic controller that you are already at FL 40 (it will take a short time to get
there anyway!)

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85.

Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude?

a.
b.
c.
d.

86.

d.

When taxi clearance is given

When the ATe clearance is delivered
When start clearance is given
When take off clearance is given

The height of the altimeter above the reference point

The altitude of the position of the aeroplane plus the height of the altimeter
The vertical displacement of the altimeter with respect to the highest point on the
aerodrome
The specified height of the main Apron

When parallel runway operations are in progress and reduced radar separation of3 nm between
approaching aeroplanes is maintained what type of operations are being carried out?
a.
b.
c.
d.

89.

The calculated height should be rounded down to the nearest 1000 ft

The transition altitude shall not be less than 3000 ft
The transition altitude must allow 1000 ft clearance above the top of the aerodrome
traffic zone

Within a certain tolerance, what is an altimeter required to read?

a.
b.
c.

88.

It can be a general altitude applicable to all aerodromes in a state

When is the QNH to be communicated to aircraft prior to take off?

a.
b.
c.
d.

87.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

Mode 1
Mode 2
Mode 3
Mode 4

Two aeroplanes are approaching to land on parallel runways on independent parallel approaches
and one drifts into the No Transgression Zone (NTZ). What would the monitoring radar
controller be required to do?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Advise the transgressing aircraft to break-off the approach and go around

Order the transgressing aircraft to climb immediately
Pass instructions to manoeuvre the threatened aircraft on the adjacent approach
Give instructions to the transgressing aircraft to tum away from the other traffic

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90.

Where does the NTZ extend from and to?

a.
b.
c.
d.

91.

A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air

Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist
NOT AM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded
Airspace of defined dimensions where activities dangerous to flight may exist

Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility?

a.
b.
c.
d.

94.

A flight under IFR and in accordance with an Air Operators Certificate

A flight which is subject to an ATC clearance
A flight in controlled airspace in IFR or VFR
A flight by a manned aeroplane

What defines a danger area?

a.
b.
c.
d.

93.

From the final approach fix to end of the nearest runway

From the start of the farthest glide path to the touchdown point of the first runway
From the point at which 1000 ft separation is reduced between aircraft to the threshold
of the nearer runway
From the runway threshold to the point at which both aircraft are established on the
centre line of the runways

What is a controlled flight?

a.
b.
c.
d.

92.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlit objects by day and
lit objects by night
Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation
The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the airwith reference to
atmospheric conditions
The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aeroplane

When does night exist?

a.
b.
c.
d.

During the hours of darkness

From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise
From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil
twilight
During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6 below the horizon

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95.

In order to fly as pilot-in-command for commercial air transport, you must hold a type rating on
the type of aeroplane you are required to fly. What must you pass to achieve the type rating?
a.
b.
c.
d.

96.

b.
c.
d.

Rapid tum off lane

High speed exit lane
Rapid exit taxiway
Acute angle exit

What type of airspace is normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of
one or more major aerodromes?
a.
b.
c.
d.

99.

Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is
required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the
requirements of IFR
A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without
compliance with IFR

What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow
aeroplanes to tum off at higher speeds than would be permitted at a right angled tum on to a
normal taxiway?
a.
b.
c.
d.

98.

A skill test including oral examinations as required

A proficiency check including oral examinations as required
Theoretical knowledge tests both written and oral
A flying performance check and written (or oral) examination

Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

a.

97.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

Control Zone (CTR)

Terminal Manoeuvring Area (TMA)
Terminal Control Area (TMA)
Special Rules Area (SRA)

Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic?

a.
b.
c.
d.

All the traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome

All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of the
aerodrome
Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit
Any traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone

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100.

PRACTICE EXAMINATION

What is defined as: 'A control area or portion thereof established in the fonn of a corridor
equipped with radio navigation aids'?
a.
b.
c.
d.

A tenninal manoeuvring area

An upper air route
An airway
A SVFR entry/exit corridor

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PRACTICE EXAMINATION

Answer Sheet for Practice Paper 2

A

26

51

76

27

52

77

28

53

78

29

54

79

30

55

80

31

56

81

32

57

82

33

58

83

34

59

84

10

35

60

85

11

36

61

86

12

37

62

87

13

38

63

88

14

39

64

89

15

40

65

90

16

41

66

91

17

42

67

92

18

43

68

93

19

44

69

94

20

45

70

95

21

46

71

96

22

47

72

97

23

48

73

98

24

49

74

99

25

50

75

100

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PRACTICE EXAMINATION

PRACTICE EXAMINATION 2 - DEBRIEF

t/

Reference

13.11.1

26

18.3.1

13.6.8

27

14.7.2

t/ Reference

t/

Reference

t/

Reference

51

12.12.6

76

7.9.3

A 18.7.1

52

12.8.2

77

7.11.5a

28

A OP

53

11.3.3.3

78

7.11.5b

14.6.2

29

18.6.6.2

54

15.2.2

79

7.11.6

14.9.1

30

18.6.2d

55

15.3.6.2

80

7.11.8

14.8.5

31

A 13.11.2

56

15.3.6.2

81

7.11.6

15.4.2.1

32

A 10.1.4

57

15.3.6.2

82

7.12.6

14.9.3

33

58

15.3.8

83

7.12.5

14.9.1

34

D 10.2.2.4b

59

15.3.6/9

84

7.12.6

10

14.8.3

35

D 11.2.2.3a

60

15.3.9.1

85

7.12.4

11

13.1.1

36

A 11.2.2.3c

61

15.4.3

86

7.12.7

12

13.7.1

37

11.2.2.3b

62

15.4.5.1a

87

7.12.8b

13

13.6.7

38

12.5.1a

63

Defpl-6

88

7.13.1a(ii)

14

13.6.9

39

12.4.7

64

Defpl-6

89

7.13.3

15

14.8.6.1

40

12.14.1

65

14.2

90

Fig 7.13.3

16

14.8.7.1

41

12.14.3

66

Defpl-8

91

Defpl-12

17

14.2.3

42

12.14.3

67

Defpl-9

92

Defpl-12

18

6.9.3.11

43

D 12.7.1

68

7.5.6

93

Defpl-14

19

15.5.3

44

B Radio

69

7.7.5.1

94

Defpl-17

20

16.4.3

45

D 12.7.2.1f

70

7.5.10

95

5.6.1

21

16.5.3

46

A 12.10.4

71

7.7.3

96

Defpl-18

22

Fig 16.2

47

A 12.10.5

72

7.8.2

97

14.5.6

23

Fig 14.8a

48

12.10.5c

73

7.7.5.3

98

Def pl-20

24

17.2.1

49

12.8.3c

74

7.7.4

99

Def pl-6

25

17.3.2

50

A 12.7.4.2

75

7.9.2

100

Defpl-8

10.2.2.1b2

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