ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

MIDTERM MEXAMS

NAME OF STUDENT:______________________
LEVEL 1

DATE: _____________
SCORE: _____ /

Whoever can be trusted with very little can also be trusted with much,
and whoever is dishonest with very little will also be dishonest with much! Luke 16:10

PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE: CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER AND WRITE YOUR ANSWERS BEFORE EACH NUMBER.
1. The functions of the skeletal system include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) support and protection
D) blood cell production
B) movement and leverage
E) storage of minerals
C) transport of materials via its fluid matrix
2. In the human body, bones are
A)continuously being recycled and remodeled.
D)capable of changing only during childhood or earlier.
B)flexible and elastic.
E)after childhood, capable of changing only after fractures or
C)lifeless, white, and unchanging.
breaks.
3. The skeletal system helps maintain homeostasis by
A) acting as a calcium buffer and storage site.
D) acting as a blood cell production site.
B) acting as a phosphate buffer and storage site.
E) All of these aid in maintaining homeostasis
C) acting as an energy buffer and storage site.
4. Bones are a type of
A) cartilage.
D) connective tissue.
B) epithelial tissue.
E) multi-cellular membrane.
C) muscle tissue.
5. During growth of a long bone, the site of growth in length is the
A) medullary cavity.
D) endosteum.
B) marrow.
E) periosteum.
C) epiphyseal plate.
6. The outer surface of bone is covered by a connective tissue layer called the
A) lamellae.
D) epiphysis.
B) periosteum.
E) diaphysis.
C) endosteum.
7. A long bone
A) has a medullary cavity in the diaphysis.
D) has an epiphysis at each end.
B) has red marrow and yellow marrow in its cavities.
E) has all of these properties.
C) has endosteum lining the medullary cavity.
8. Compact bone consists of cells called osteocytes located within spaces in the matrix called
A) lamellae.
D) lacunae.
B) haversian canals.
E) medullary cavities
C) canaliculi.
9. The periosteum
A) contains blood vessels and nerves.
D) covers the outer surface of bones.
B) contains osteoblasts.
E) All of these are correct.
C) is composed of dense connective tissue.
10. After _____ (bone forming cells) become completely surrounded by bone matrix, they are called _____ (mature bone cells).
A) osteocytes, osteoblasts
D) osteoblasts, osteocytes
B) osteoblasts, osteoclasts
E) osteocytes, osteoclasts
C) osteoclasts, osteoblasts
11. Which of these bones is a part of the appendicular skeleton?
A) skull
D) clavicle
B) ribs
E) hyoid
C) sternum
12. The joint uniting the parietal and temporal bones is the
A) lambdoid suture.
D) mastoid suture.
B) coronal suture.
E) squamous suture.
C) temporomandibular joint.
13. The two bones of the skull in which teeth are located are the

14.

15.

16.

17.
18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.
26.
27.

A) maxilla and mandible.

D) maxilla and frontal.
B) zygomatic and mandible.
E) frontal and mandible.
C) maxilla and zygomatic.
The palate
A) separates the nasal cavity from the mouth.
D) is formed by the palatine and sphenoid bones.
B) consists of a hard palate and a soft palate.
E) both separates the nasal cavity from the mouth and
C) is a point of attachment for tongue muscles.
consists of a hard palate and a soft palate.
Which of these sections of the vertebral column is matched with its correct number of vertebrae?
A) thoracic 7 vertebrae
D) lumbar 8 vertebrae
B) cervical 12 vertebrae
E) coccygeal 2 vertebrae fused into one coccyx
C) sacral 5 vertebrae fused into one sacrum
Which of these vertebrae is NOT correctly matched with their identifying characteristics?
A) thoracic vertebrae articular facets for ribs
B) lumbar vertebrae transverse foramina in transverse processes
C) atlas articulates with occipital condyles
D) axis allows lateral motion as in shaking one's head "no"
E) sacrum has sacral hiatus and sacral promontory
Quasimodo (The Hunchback of Notre Dame) would have had the primary problem of
A) scoliosis.
C) kyphosis.
B) lordosis.
D)
Epiphysis
The first seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum are called
A) true ribs.
D) sternal ribs.
B) false ribs.
E) Both true ribs and sternal ribs are correct names.
C) floating ribs.
Fibrous joints between the bones of the skull are called
A) sutures.
D) cartilaginous joints.
B) synovial joints.
E) syndesmoses
C) gomphoses.
Which of these joints could be described as a saddle joint?
A) the knee joint
B) the shoulder joint
C) the articular processes between vertebrae
D) the thumb joint
E) the joint between occipital condyles and the atlas
You turn the doorknob clockwise with your right hand to open the door. The movement your hand makes would be called
A) extension.
D) pronation.
B) flexion.
E) supination.
C) adduction
After suffering multiple cervical fractures, Myron Coolheart, IRS agent, was given a choice of which vertebrae to fuse together i.e., he could
leave only one articulation unfused. He decided to choose the fusion that would still allow him to shake his head "no". His choice was to leave
the ___________ unfused.
A) atlas to axis joint
C) articulation between C2 and C3
B) atlas to occipital condyles articulation
D) articulation between C6 and C7
Which of these movements would be needed to bend over and touch your big toe?
A) extension of arms
D) Both extension of forearms and flexion at the waist are
B) extension of forearms
needed.
C) flexion at the waist
E) Both extension of arms and flexion at the waist are needed
A green-stick fracture is one specific example of
A) a comminuted fracture.
D) a compound fracture.
B) an impacted fracture.
E) an oblique fracture.
C) an incomplete fracture.
Vertebrae are best classified as
A) long bones.
C) flat bones.
B) short bones.
D) irregular bones.
Metacarpals and phalanges are best classified as
A) long bones.
C) flat bones.
B) short bones.
D) irregular bones.
The ulna and radius are best classified as
A) long bones.
C) flat bones.
B) short bones.
D) irregular bones.

28. The ribs and sternum are best classified as

A) long bones.
C) flat bones.
B) short bones.
D) irregular bones.
29. The anatomical term for a cavity found in bone is
A) canal or meatus.
D) sinus.
B) fissure.
E) foramen.
C) fossa.
30. A ______________ is the anatomical term for a depression found in bone.
A) canal or meatus
D) sinus
B) fissure
E) foramen
C) fossa
31. A __________ is a term describing a hole found in bone.
A) canal or meatus
D) sinus
B) fissure
E) foramen
C) fossa
32. The anatomical term to describe a tunnel in bone is
A) canal or meatus.
D) sinus.
B) fissure.
E) foramen.
C) fossa.
33. The ____________ is (are) the opening through which the spinal cord passes.
A) articular facets
D) spinous process
B) vertebral canal
E) intervertebral foramina
C) vertebral body
34. There are _______ bones in the human body.
A) 200
D) 412
B) 206
E) 602
C) 400
35. The cells that actively break down osseous tissue are
A) osteoblasts
C) osteoprogenitor cells
B) osteoclasts
D) osteocytes
36. The joint between a tooth and its socket is an example of a __________joint.
A) fibrous
C) synovial
B) cartilaginous
D) Connective
37. __________ joints, a type of synovial joint, move only in one plane.
A) Hinge
D) Pivot
B) Ball and socket
E) Saddle
C) Ellipsoidal
38. __________ is a unique movement that occurs at the thumb as it moves toward the little finger.
A) Pronation
D) Circumduction
B) Eversion
E) Excursion
C) Opposition
39. The major functions of the muscular system include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) body movement
D) respiration
B) prevention of water loss
E) temperature homeostasis
C) maintenance of posture
40. Which of the following is NOT a functional characteristic of skeletal muscle?
A) excitability
D) extensibility
B) elasticity
E) reversibility
C) contractility
41. Contractibility is the ability of skeletal muscle to
A) shorten with force.
D) recoil to their original resting length.
B) lengthen passively.
E) be stretched.
C) respond to a stimulus.
42. Excitability is the ability of skeletal muscle to
A) shorten with force.
D) recoil to their original resting length.
B) lengthen passively.
E) be stretched.
C) respond to a stimulus.
43. Extensibility is the ability of skeletal muscle to
A) shorten with force.
D) be stretched.
B) respond to a stimulus.
E) create heat energy through contraction.
C) recoil to their original resting length.

44. Elasticity is the ability of skeletal muscle to

A) shorten with force.
D) recoil to their original resting length.
B) lengthen passively.
E) generate new collagen fibers.
C) respond to a stimulus.
45. Connective tissue that surrounds the fasciculi is called
A) perimysium.
D) fasciculi.
B) endomysium.
E) microfibrils.
C) fascia.
46. The basic structural and functional unit of skeletal muscle is the
A) fasciculus.
D) sarcomere.
B) fiber.
E) actin myofilament.
C) myofibril.
47. Cardiac muscle
A) is under involuntary control.
D) has no striations.
B) has long, cylindrical cells
E) has all of these characteristics.
C) has many nuclei per cell.
48. Smooth muscle
A) has no distinct sarcomeres.
D) does not develop an oxygen debt.
B) contracts more slowly than skeletal muscle.
E) has all of these characteristics.
C) may be autorhythmic.
49. The biceps brachii muscle and the triceps brachii muscle
A) are synergists.
D) are both antagonists and flexors of the forearm.
B) are antagonists.
E) are both synergists and flexors of the forearm.
C) both flex the forearm.
50. If someone winks at you, they are using their
A) zygomaticus muscles.
D) depressor anguli oris.
B) occipitofrontalis muscle.
E) orbicularis oris.
C) orbicularis oculi.
51. Which of the following muscles are involved in "puckering up" to kiss someone?
A) orbicularis oris
B) buccinator
C) zygomaticus major
D) Both orbicularis oris and buccinator are required to pucker up.
E) Both buccinator and zygomaticus major are required to pucker up.
52. Muscles of mastication include
A) the masseter.
D) the temporalis.
B) the hyoid muscles.
E) both the masseter and the temporalis
C) the pharyngeal constrictors.
53. The primary muscle(s) responsible for elevating the ribs during inspiration is(are)
A) the diaphragm.
D) the internal intercostals.
B) the external intercostals.
E) the erector spinae.
C) the rectus abdominis.
54. A muscle located on either side of the linea alba, which flexes the waist and is crossed by tendinous intersections is the
A) transversus abdominis.
D) rectus abdominis.
B) external intercostal.
E) erector spinae.
C) external abdominal oblique.
55. The major abductor of the upper limb is the
A) trapezius.
D) pectoralis major.
B) latissimus dorsi.
E) biceps brachii.
C) deltoid.
56. A superficial muscle of the posterior compartment of the leg is the
A) tibialis anterior.
D) plantar fascia.
B) peroneus.
E) hanstring group.
C) gastrocnemius.
57. Muscles that work together to cause movement are called
A) origins.
D) antagonists.
B) insertions.
E) prime movers.
C) synergists.
58. The ____________ is a muscle in a group that plays a major role in a desired movement.
A) origin
C) agonist
B) insertion
D) antagonist

E) prime mover
59. The muscle that works in opposition to another muscle is the
A) origin.
D) antagonist.
B) insertion.
E) prime mover.
C) agonist.
60. Muscles are named according to their
A) location or number of heads.
D) size or shape.
B) function or action.
E) Muscles can be named based on all of the above features.
C) origin or insertion point.
61. .All of the following are functions of muscle EXCEPT:
A) body movement
D) maintenance of posture
B) production of red blood cells
E) production of body heat
C) constriction of organs and vessels
62. Respiration refers to
A) gas exchange between blood and tissues.
D) gas exchange between the blood and the tissues.
B) ventilation, the movement of air into and out of the lungs.
E) All of these are parts of respiration.
C) gas exchange between the air in the lungs and blood.
63. The nasal cavity is divided into right and left sides by
A) the conchae.
D) the nasal septum.
B) the paranasal sinuses.
E) the hard palate.
C) external nares.
64. Structures that carry tears from the eyes to the nasal cavity are called
A) nasolacrimal ducts.
D) auditory tubes.
B) internal nares.
E) nasal septa.
C) paranasal sinuses.
65. Which of these problems in the trachea are associated with cigarette smoking?
A) Ciliated epithelium is replaced by squamous epithelium.
D) Irritation and inflammation stimulate the cough reflex.
B) Mucus and debris accumulate in the trachea.
E) All of these events occur in smokers.
C) Respiratory infections are likely because of accumulated
mucus.
66. The pleural cavities
A) lie between the visceral and parietal pleura.
D) are lined with mucous membrane.
B) are filled with pleural fluid.
E) both lie between the visceral and parietal pleura and are
C) are found within the mediastinum.
filled with pleural fluid.
67. Which of these cause an increase in respiration rate?
A) stimulation of pain receptors
D) stress
B) anticipation at the start of exercise
E) All of these will increase respiratory rate.
C) movements of the limbs
68. The air that can be inspired forcefully above normal tidal volume is the
A) tidal volume.
D) residual volume.
B) forced expiratory vital capacity.
E) expiratory reserve volume.
C) inspiratory reserve volume.
69. The _____________ is the volume of air inspired or expired during quiet breathing.
A) tidal volume
D) residual volume
B) forced expiratory vital capacity
E) expiratory reserve volume
C) inspiratory reserve volume
70. The volume of air still remaining after maximum expiration is the
A) tidal volume.
D) residual volume.
B) forced expiratory vital capacity.
E) expiratory reserve volume.
C) inspiratory reserve volume.
71. All of the following are functions of the respiratory system EXCEPT:
A) gas exchange between the blood and air
B) regulation of blood pH by changing blood carbon dioxide levels
C) provides acquired immunity that prevents microorganisms from entering the body
D) air movement past the vocal cord makes sound and speech possible
E) provides innate immunity
72. The right lung has ______ lobes ..
A) 1
C) 4
B) 2
D) 3
73. The process that produces sex cells in both males and females is a special type of cell division called
A) mitosis.
B) meiosis

C) fertilization.
D) duplication.

E) transportation.

74. In humans, all of the cells of the body, except for the sex cells, contain
A) 23 chromosomes.
D) 69 chromosomes.
B) 35 chromosomes.
E) 92 chromosomes.
C) 46 chromosomes.
75. The testes are located in the scrotum, outside the body cavity because
A) they are closer to the penis than they would be in the body cavity.
B) they originally develop in the scrotum.
C) they must be at a lower temperature than the body cavity to produce functional sperm.
D) there is no room in the body cavity.
E) All of these are correct.
76. In the scrotum,
A) cold temperatures cause the cremaster muscle to contract.
B) cold temperatures cause the dartos muscle to contract.
C) warm temperatures cause the testes to descend away from the body.
D) if the testes become too warm or too cold, normal sperm will not develop.
E) All of these are correct statements.
77. Sperm cells normally mature and become able to swim while in the
A) epididymis.
D) ductus deferens.
B) rete testis.
E) seminal vesicles.
C) efferent ductules.
78. The duct formed by the joining of the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicle duct is called the
A) seminal duct.
D) common bile duct.
B) urethra.
E) prostatic duct.
C) ejaculatory duct.
79. The male urethra
A) extends from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body.
B) is a passageway for urine and male reproductive fluids.
C) has numerous mucus-secreting glands.
D) has both an internal and external urinary sphincter along its length.
E) has all of these characteristics.
80. Erection of the penis occurs as a result of
A) contraction of bulbourethral muscles.
D) engorgement of erectile tissue with blood.
B) movement of internal bones.
E) accumulation of fluid within the urethra.
C) accumulation of lymphatic fluid (edema).
81. Two columns of erectile tissue that form the sides and dorsal portion of the penis are called
A) the prepuce.
D) the glans penis.
B) the gubernaculum.
E) the corpus spongiosum.
C) the corpora cavernosa.
82. The prostate gland
A) has a single duct that joins with the ductus deferens to form the ejaculatory duct.
B) surrounds the urethra and ejaculatory duct.
C) has many short ducts that join the urethra.
D) both has a single duct that joins with the ductus deferens to form the ejaculatory duct and surrounds the urethra and ejaculatory duct.
E) both surrounds the urethra and ejaculatory duct and has many short ducts that join the urethra.
83. Which of the male reproductive glands makes the largest contribution (by volume) to the semen?
A) seminal vesicles
D) testes
B) prostate
E) urethra
C) bulbourethral glands
84. The discharge of semen into the urethra is called
A) ejaculation.
D) physiological contracture.
B) emission.
E) coagulation.
C) neutralization.
85. The forceful expulsion of semen from the urethra caused by contraction of smooth muscle in the urethra and skeletal muscle surrounding the
base of the penis is called
A) ejaculation.
D) physiological contracture.
B) emission.
E) coagulation.
C) neutralization.
86. Ovulation occurs in response to _____ secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.

A) FSH
B) estrogen
C) progesterone

D) LH
E) ACTH

87. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into a glandular structure called the
A) mature follicle.
D) corpus albicans.
B) corpus luteum.
E) corpus striatum.
C) corpus cavernosum.
88. Long, thin processes surrounding the openings of the uterine tubes are called
A) theca cells.
D) fimbriae.
B) zona pellucida.
E) cervical extensions.
C) myometria.
89. Part of which of these layers of the uterus is sloughed off during menstruation?
A) endometrium
C) serous layer
B) myometrium
D) peritoneum
90. The vagina
A) is the female organ of copulation.
D) may have its opening covered by the hymen.
B) extends from the uterus to the outside of the body.
E) has all of these characteristics.
C) is a passageway for menstrual flow.
91. Thin, longitudinal folds that border the vestibule are called
A) the labia minora.
D) the labia majora.
B) the hymen.
E) the clinical perineum.
C) the mons pubis.
92. The clitoris
A) contains erectile tissue.
C) is located in the posterior portion of the vestibule.
B) is partly covered by a fold of skin called the prepuce.
D) has few, if any nerve endings.
E) both contains erectile tissue and is partly covered by a fold of skin called the prepuce.
93. In the milk-producing breast, ends of small ducts expand to form secretory sacs called
A) lobules.
D) areola.
B) lobes.
E) areolar glands.
C) alveoli.
94. The first episode of menstrual bleeding is called
A) menopause.
D) the secretory phase.
B) the LH surge.
E) menarche.
C) the proliferative phase.
95. The ____________ produce(s) thin, milky secretions with a high pH in the male reproductive tract.
A) prostate gland
C) seminal vesicles
B) bulbourethral glands
D) testes
96. The ____________ attaches the ovary to the uterus.
A) broad ligament
D) round ligament
B) mesovarium
E) suspensory ligament
C) ovarian ligament
97. In __________ two separate, identical daughter cells are produced and each one has 46 chromosomes.
A) mitosis
C) both mitosis and meiosis
B) meiosis
D) neither mitosis nor meiosis
98. Which of the following male reproductive hormones is NOT correctly paired with its source?
A) gonadotropin releasing hormonehypothalamus
D) testosteronetestes
B) luteinizing hormoneposterior pituitary
E) inhibinsertoli cells
C) follicle stimulating hormoneanterior pituitary
99. Each of the following statements is true, EXCEPT:
A) At the time of birth, the ovaries contain only primary oocytes.
B) All primary oocytes remain in Prophase I until puberty.
C) An ovum will only complete meiosis II if it is fertilized.
D) After ovulation, the cells of the ruptured follicle proliferate and form the corpus luteum.
E) After fertilization, a zygote with 23 chromosomes is formed.
100. Which of the following hormone pairings is incorrect?
A) anterior pituitary high follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) ovulation
B) anterior pituitary high luteinizing hormone (LH) development of secondary sexual characteristics
C) corpus luteum - progesterone growth & vascularization of endometrium
D) ovaries after ovulation estrogen inhibition of FSH
E) placenta human chorionic gonadotropin maintains corpus luteum

PART II : IDENTIFY THE PARTS

A. PARTS OF A LONG BONE
1. A- ____________________
2. B- ____________________
3. C ___________________
4. D-- ___________________
5. E-- ___________________
6. F- _____________________

A
B

B.PARTS OF THE CRANIAL BONES

7. A-____________________
8. B-____________________
9. C- ____________________
10. D- ____________________

C. MUSCLES OF THE FACE

11.
12.
13.
14.
15.

A-_____________________
B-_____________________
C-_____________________
D-_____________________
E-_____________________

D. MUSCLES OF THE LOWER LEG

16. A-______________________
17. B-______________________
18. C- ______________________
19. D- ______________________

E. PARTS OF THE UPPER RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

20. A ______________________
21. B______________________
22. C______________________
23. D______________________
24. E______________________
25. F______________________
26. G______________________

F. PARTS OF THE FEMALE INTERNAL REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

27. A_________________
28. B- ________________
29. C- ________________
30. G- ________________
31. H- _________________

32. I- _________________
33. J- _________________