Digital Communication Test Question Set 1

1) In uniform quantization process

a. The step size remains same
b. Step size varies according to the values of the input signal
c. The quantizer has linear characteristics
d. Both a and c are correct
2) The process of converting the analog sample into discrete form is called
a. Modulation
b. Multiplexing
c. Quantization
d. Sampling
3) The characteristics of compressor in -law companding are
a. Continuous in nature
b. Logarithmic in nature
c. Linear in nature
d. Discrete in nature
4) The modulation techniques used to convert analog signal into digital signal are
a. Pulse code modulation
b. Delta modulation
c. Adaptive delta modulation
d. All of the above
5) The sequence of operations in which PCM is done is
a. Sampling, quantizing, encoding
b. Quantizing, encoding, sampling
c. Quantizing, sampling, encoding
d. None of the above
6) In PCM, the parameter varied in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating signal is
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. None of the above
7) One of the disadvantages of PCM is
a. It requires large bandwidth
b. Very high noise
c. Cannot be decoded easily
d. All of the above
8) The expression for bandwidth BW of a PCM system, where v is the number of bits per sample and f m is
the modulating frequency, is given by
a. BW vfm
b. BW vfm
c. BW 2 vfm
d. BW 1/2 vfm
9) The error probability of a PCM is
a. Calculated using noise and inter symbol interference
b. Gaussian noise + error component due to inter symbol interference
c. Calculated using power spectral density
d. All of the above

10) In Delta modulation,

a. One bit per sample is transmitted
b. All the coded bits used for sampling are transmitted
c. The step size is fixed
d. Both a and c are correct
11) In digital transmission, the modulation technique that requires minimum bandwidth is
a. Delta modulation
b. PCM
c. DPCM
d. PAM
12) In Delta Modulation, the bit rate is
a. N times the sampling frequency
b. N times the modulating frequency
c. N times the nyquist criteria
d. None of the above
13) In Differential Pulse Code Modulation techniques, the decoding is performed by
a. Accumulator
b. Sampler
c. PLL
d. Quantizer
14) DPCM is a technique
a. To convert analog signal into digital signal
b. Where difference between successive samples of the analog signals are encoded into n-bit data streams
c. Where digital codes are the quantized values of the predicted value
d. All of the above
15) DPCM suffers from
a. Slope over load distortion
b. Quantization noise
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
16) The noise that affects PCM
a. Transmission noise
b. Quantizing noise
c. Transit noise
d. Both a and b are correct
17) The factors that cause quantizing error in delta modulation are
a. Slope overload distortion
b. Granular noise
c. White noise
d. Both a and b are correct
18) Granular noise occurs when
a. Step size is too small
b. Step size is too large
c. There is interference from the adjacent channel
d. Bandwidth is too large

19) The crest factor of a waveform is given as a. 2Peak value/ rms value
b. rms value / Peak value
c. Peak value/ rms value
d. Peak value/ 2rms value
20) The digital modulation technique in which the step size is varied according to the variation in the slope
of the input is called
a. Delta modulation
b. PCM
c. Adaptive delta modulation
d. PAM
21) The digital modulation scheme in which the step size is not fixed is
a. Delta modulation
b. Adaptive delta modulation
c. DPCM
d. PCM
22) In Adaptive Delta Modulation, the slope error reduces and
a. Quantization error decreases
b. Quantization error increases
c. Quantization error remains same
d. None of the above
23) The number of voice channels that can be accommodated for transmission in T1 carrier system is
a. 24
b. 32
c. 56
d. 64
24) The maximum data transmission rate in T1 carrier system is
a. 2.6 megabits per second
b. 1000 megabits per second
c. 1.544 megabits per second
d. 5.6 megabits per second
25) T1 carrier system is used
a. For PCM voice transmission
b. For delta modulation
c. For frequency modulated signals
d. None of the above
26) Matched filter may be optimally used only for
a. Gaussian noise
b. Transit time noise
c. Flicker
d. All of the above
27) Characteristics of Matched filter are
a. Matched filter is used to maximize Signal to noise ratio even for non Gaussian noise
b. It gives the output as signal energy in the absence of noise
c. They are used for signal detection
d. All of the above

28) Matched filters may be used

a. To estimate the frequency of the received signal
b. In parameter estimation problems
c. To estimate the distance of the object
d. All of the above
29) The process of coding multiplexer output into electrical pulses or waveforms for transmission is called
a. Line coding
b. Amplitude modulation
c. FSK
d. Filtering
30) For a line code, the transmission bandwidth must be
a. Maximum possible
b. As small as possible
c. Depends on the signal
d. None of the above
31) Regenerative repeaters are used for
a. Eliminating noise
b. Reconstruction of signals
c. Transmission over long distances
d. All of the above
32) Scrambling of data is
a. Removing long strings of 1's and 0's
b. Exchanging of data
c. Transmission of digital data
d. All of the above
33) In polar RZ format for coding, symbol '0' is represented by
a. Zero voltage
b. Negative voltage
c. Pulse is transmitted for half the duration
d. Both b and c are correct
34) In a uni-polar RZ format,
a. The waveform has zero value for symbol '0'
b. The waveform has A volts for symbol '1'
c. The waveform has positive and negative values for '1' and '0' symbol respectively
d. Both a and b are correct
35) Polar coding is a technique in which
a. 1 is transmitted by a positive pulse and 0 is transmitted by negative pulse
b. 1 is transmitted by a positive pulse and 0 is transmitted by zero volts
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
36) The polarities in NRZ format use
a. Complete pulse duration
b. Half duration
c. Both positive as well as negative value
d. Each pulse is used for twice the duration

37) The format in which the positive half interval pulse is followed by a negative half interval pulse for
transmission of '1' is
a. Polar NRZ format
b. Bipolar NRZ format
c. Manchester format
d. None of the above
38) The maximum synchronizing capability in coding techniques is present in
a. Manchester format
b. Polar NRZ
c. Polar RZ
d. Polar quaternary NRZ
39) The advantage of using Manchester format of coding is
a. Power saving
b. Polarity sense at the receiver
c. Noise immunity
d. None of the above
40) Alternate Mark Inversion (AMI) is also known as
a. Pseudo ternary coding
b. Manchester coding
c. Polar NRZ format
d. None of the above

Digital Signal Processing Test Questions Set - 1

1) The interface between an analog signal and a digital processor is
a. D/A converter
b. A/D converter
c. Modulator
d. Demodulator
2) The speech signal is obtained after
a. Analog to digital conversion
b. Digital to analog conversion
c. Modulation
d. Quantization
3) Telegraph signals are examples of
a. Digital signals
b. Analog signals
c. Impulse signals
d. Pulse train
4) As compared to the analog systems, the digital processing of signals allow
1) Programmable operations
2) Flexibility in the system design
3) Cheaper systems
4) More reliability
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
5) The Nyquist theorem for sampling
1) Relates the conditions in time domain and frequency domain
2) Helps in quantization
3) Limits the bandwidth requirement
4) Gives the spectrum of the signal
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
6) Roll-off factor is
a. The bandwidth occupied beyond the Nyquist Bandwidth of the filter
b. The performance of the filter or device
c. Aliasing effect
d. None of the above
7) A discrete time signal may be
1) Samples of a continuous signal
2) A time series which is a domain of integers
3) Time series of sequence of quantities
4) Amplitude modulated wave
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct

c. 1 and 3 are correct

d. All the four are correct
8) The discrete impulse function is defined by
a. (n) = 1, n 0
= 0, n 1
b. (n) = 1, n = 0
= 0, n 1
c. (n) = 1, n 0
= 0, n 1
d. (n) = 1, n 0
= 0, n 1
9) DTFT is the representation of
a. Periodic Discrete time signals
b. Aperiodic Discrete time signals
c. Aperiodic continuous signals
d. Periodic continuous signals
10) The transforming relations performed by DTFT are
1) Linearity
2) Modulation
3) Shifting
4) Convolution
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
11) The DFT is preferred for
1) Its ability to determine the frequency component of the signal
2) Removal of noise
3) Filter design
4) Quantization of signal
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
12) Frequency selectivity characteristics of DFT refers to
a. Ability to resolve different frequency components from input signal
b. Ability to translate into frequency domain
c. Ability to convert into discrete signal
d. None of the above
13) The CooleyTukey algorithm of FFT is a
a. Divide and conquer algorithm
b. Divide and rule algorithm
c. Split and rule algorithm
d. Split and combine algorithm
14) FFT may be used to calculate
1) DFT

2) IDFT
3) Direct Z transform
4) In direct Z transform
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
15) DIT algorithm divides the sequence into
a. Positive and negative values
b. Even and odd samples
c. Upper higher and lower spectrum
d. Small and large samples
16) The computational procedure for Decimation in frequency algorithm takes
a. Log2 N stages
b. 2Log2 N stages
c. Log2 N2 stages
d. Log2 N/2 stages
17) The transformations are required for
1) Analysis in time or frequency domain
2) Quantization
3) Easier operations
4) Modulation
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct

18) The s plane and z plane are related as

a. z = esT
b. z = e2sT
c. z = 2esT
d. z = esT/2
19) The similarity between the Fourier transform and the z transform is that
a. Both convert frequency spectrum domain to discrete time domain
b. Both convert discrete time domain to frequency spectrum domain
c. Both convert analog signal to digital signal
d. Both convert digital signal to analog signal
20) The ROC of a system is the
a. range of z for which the z transform converges
b. range of frequency for which the z transform exists
c. range of frequency for which the signal gets transmitted
d. range in which the signal is free of noise
21) The several ways to perform an inverse Z transform are
1) Direct computation
2) Long division
3) Partial fraction expansion with table lookup
4) Direct inversion

a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
22) The anti causal sequences have ______ components in the left hand sequences.
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
23) For an expanded power series method, the coefficients represent
a. Inverse sequence values
b. Original sequence values
c. Negative values only
d. Positive values only
24) The region of convergence of x/ (1+2x+x2) is
a. 0
b. 1
c. Negative
d. Positive

25) The IIR filter designing involves

a. Designing of analog filter in analog domain and transforming into digital domain
b. Designing of digital filter in analog domain and transforming into digital domain
c. Designing of analog filter in digital domain and transforming into analog domain
d. Designing of digital filter in digital domain and transforming into analog domain
26) For a system function H(s) to be stable
a. The zeros lie in left half of the s plane
b. The zeros lie in right half of the s plane
c. The poles lie in left half of the s plane
d. The poles lie in right half of the s plane
27) IIR filter design by approximation of derivatives has the limitations
1) Used only for transforming analog high pass filters
2) Used for band pass filters having smaller resonant frequencies
3) Used only for transforming analog low pass filters
4) Used for band pass filters having high resonant frequencies
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
28) The filter that may not be realized by approximation of derivatives techniques are
1) Band pass filters
2) High pass filters
3) Low pass filters
4) Band reject filters
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 4 are correct

c. 2 and 3 are correct

d. All the four are correct
29) In direct form for realisation of IIR filters,
1) Denominator coefficients are the multipliers in the feed forward paths
2) Multipliers in the feedback paths are the positives of the denominator coefficients
3) Numerator coefficients are the multipliers in the feed forward paths
4) Multipliers in the feedback paths are the negatives of the denominator coefficients
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct

30) The direct form II for realisation involves

1) The realisation of transfer function into two parts
2) Realisation after fraction
3) Product of two transfer functions
4) Addition of two transfer functions
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
31) The cascade realisation of IIR systems involves
1) The transfer function broken into product of transfer functions
2) The transfer function divided into addition of transfer functions
3) Factoring the numerator and denominator polynomials
4) Derivatives of the transfer functions
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 3 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
32) The advantage of using the cascade form of realisation is
1) It has same number of poles and zeros as that of individual components
2) The number of poles is the product of poles of individual components
3) The number of zeros is the product of poles of individual components
4) Over all transfer function may be determined
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
33) Which among the following represent/s the characteristic/s of an ideal filter?
a. Constant gain in passband
b. Zero gain in stop band
c. Linear Phase Response
d. All of the above
34) FIR filters ________
A. are non-recursive

B. do not adopt any feedback

C. are recursive
D. use feedback
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
35) In tapped delay line filter, the tapped line is also known as ________
a. Pick-on node
b. Pick-off node
c. Pick-up node
d. Pick-down node
36) How is the sensitivity of filter coefficient quantization for FIR filters?
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. Unpredictable
37) Decimation is a process in which the sampling rate is __________.
a. enhanced
b. stable
c. reduced
d. unpredictable
38) Anti-imaging filter with cut-off frequency c = / I is specifically used _______ upsampling process for
the removal of unwanted images.
a. Before
b. At the time of
c. After
d. All of the above
39) Which units are generally involved in Multiply and Accumulate (MAC)?
a. Adder
b. Multiplier
c. Accumulator
d. All of the above
40) In DSP processors, which among the following maintains the track of addresses of input data as well as
the coefficients stored in data and program memories?
a. Data Address Generators (DAGs)
b. Program sequences
c. Barrel Shifter
d. MAC

Digital Signal Processing Test Questions Set - 2

1) The cost of the digital processors is cheaper because
a. Processor allows time sharing among a number of signals
b. The hardware is cheaper
c. Require less maintenance
d. Less power consumption
2) The operations that may be performed on vectors in Euclidean Space are
1) Inner product, distance between vectors
2) Norm of a vector, orthogonal vectors
3) Orthonormal functions
4) Vector division
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
3) The norm or length of a signal is given by
a. The square of the energy of the signal
b. The square root of the energy of the signal
c. The inverse of the energy of the signal
d. The cube root of the energy of the signal
4) The principle of Gram-Schmidt Orthogonalization (GSO) states that, any set of M energy signals can be
expressed as
a. Summation of N ortho normal basis functions, where N M.
b. Linear combinations of N ortho normal basis functions, where N M.
c. Product of logarithmic combinations of N ortho normal basis functions, where N M.
d. Product of inverse squares of N ortho normal basis functions, where N M.
5) A signal x[n] is anti symmetric or odd when
a. x[-n] = x[n] x[n]
b. x[n] = -x[n]
c. x[n] = [x[n]]2
d. x[-n] = -x[n]
6) Time shifting of discrete time signal means
a. y[n] = x[n-k]
b. y[n] = x[-n-k]
c. y[n] = -x[n-k]
d. y[n] = x[n+k]
7) Time reversal of a discrete time signal refers to
a. y[n] = x[-n+k]
b. y[n] = x[-n]
c. y[n] = x[-n-k]
d. y[n] = x[n-k]
8) Causal systems are the systems in which
a. The output of the system depends on the present and the past inputs
b. The output of the system depends only on the present inputs
c. The output of the system depends only on the past inputs
d. The output of the system depends on the present input as well as the previous outputs

9) The basic properties of DFT includes

1) Linearity
2) Periodicity
3) Circular symmetry
4) Summation
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c. 1 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
10) Padding of zeros increases the frequency resolution.
a. True
b. False
11) Circular shift of an N point is equivalent to
a. Circular shift of its periodic extension and its vice versa
b. Linear shift of its periodic extension and its vice versa
c. Circular shift of its aperiodic extension and its vice versa
d. Linear shift of its aperiodic extension and its vice versa
12) The circular convolution of two sequences in time domain is equivalent to
a. Multiplication of DFTs of two sequences
b. Summation of DFTs of two sequences
c. Difference of DFTs of two sequences
d. Square of multiplication of DFTs of two sequences
13) For the calculation of N- point DFT, Radix -2 FFT algorithm repeats
a. 2(N Log2 N) stages
b. (N Log2 N)2/2 stages
c. (N Log2 N)/2 stages
d. (N Log2(2 N))/2 stages
14) Radix - 2 FFT algorithm performs the computation of DFT in
a. N/2Log2 N multiplications and 2Log2 N additions
b. N/2Log2 N multiplications and NLog2 N additions
c. Log2 N multiplications and N/2Log2 N additions
d. NLog2 N multiplications and N/2Log2 N additions
15) The overlap save method is used to calculate
a. The discrete convolution between a sampled signal and a finite impulse response (FIR) filter
b. The discrete convolution between a sampled signal and an infinite impulse response (IIR) filter
c. The discrete convolution between a very long signal and a finite impulse response (FIR) filter
d. The discrete convolution between a very long signal and a infinite impulse response (IIR) filter
16) Overlap-Add Method Deals with principles that
a. The linear convolution of a discrete-time signal of length L and a discrete-time signal of length M produces a
discrete-time convolved result of length L + M - 1
b. The linear convolution of a discrete-time signal of length L and a discrete-time signal of length M produces a
discrete-time convolved result of length L + M
c. The linear convolution of a discrete-time signal of length L and a discrete-time signal of length M produces a
discrete-time convolved result of length 2L + M - 1
d. The linear convolution of a discrete-time signal of length L and a discrete-time signal of length M produces a
discrete-time convolved result of length 2L + 2M - 1
17) ROC does not have

a. zeros
b. poles
c. negative values
d. positive values
18) Damping is the ability of a system
a. To support oscillatory nature of the systems transient response
b. To oppose the continuous nature of the system's transient response
c. To oppose the oscillatory nature of the system's transient response
d. To support the discrete nature of the system's transient response
19) The condition for a system to be causal is
a. All poles of its transfer function must be left half of s-plane
b. All poles of its transfer function must be right half of s-plane
c. All zeros of its transfer function must be right half of s-plane
d. All zeros of its transfer function must be left half of s-plane
20) The condition for a system to be stable is
a. All poles of its transfer function lie on the left half of s-plane
b. All poles of its transfer function must be right half of s-plane
c. All zeros of its transfer function must be right half of s-plane
d. All zeros of its transfer function must be left half of s-plane
21) Partial fraction method involves
a. Allotting coefficients
b. Dividing the numerator by denominator to get fractions
c. Dividing single fraction into parts
d. None of the above
22) The factors formed for partial fraction are a combination of
1) Linear factors
2) Irreducible quadratic factors
3) Square roots
4) Cube roots
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct

23) For a partial fraction method to be followed,

1) The degree of the numerator must be more than the degree of the denominator.
2) The factors formed for partial fraction are a combination of Linear factors and Irreducible quadratic
factors.
3) The degree of the numerator must be less than the degree of the denominator.
4) The factors formed for partial fraction are a combination of Linear factors and Square roots.
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
24) The partial fraction of x2+1/x(x-1)2 is

a. 1/ (x-1) + 2/(x-1)2 - 1/x

b. 1/ (x-1) + 2/(x-1)2 - 3/x
c. 1/ (x-1) + 2/(x-1)2 - 3/x2
d. 1/ (x+1) + 2/(x+1)2 - 1/x
25) The impulse invariant method is obtained by
a. Sampling the impulse response of an equivalent analog filter
b. Taking backward difference for the derivative
c. Mapping from s-domain to z-domain
d. Approximation of derivatives
26) The transformation technique in which there is one to one mapping from s-domain to z-domain is
a. Approximation of derivatives
b. Impulse invariance method
c. Bilinear transformation method
d. Backward difference for the derivative
27) The frequency warping is referred as
1) lower frequencies in analog domain expanded in digital domain
2) lower frequencies in digital domain expanded in analog domain
3) non linear mapping
4) compression of higher frequencies
a. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 2 and 4 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
28) The magnitude response of Butterworth filter has
1) Flat stop band
2) Flat pass band
3) Tapering pass band
4) Tapering stop band
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2 and 4 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
29) In the cascaded form of realisation, the polynomials are factored into
a. a product of 1st-order and 2nd-order polynomials
b. a product of 2nd-order and 3rd-order polynomials
c. a sum of 1st-order and 2nd-order polynomials
d. a sum of 2nd-order and 3rd-order polynomials
30) Parallel form of realisation is done in
a. High speed filtering applications
b. Low speed filtering applications
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
31) A partial-fraction expansion of the transfer function in Z-1 leads to
a. The parallel form II structure
b. The parallel form I structure
c. Cascaded structure
d. None of the above

32) A direct partial-fraction expansion of the transfer function in Z leads to

a. The parallel form II structure
b. The parallel form I structure
c. Cascaded structure
d. None of the above
33) Basically, group delay is the delayed response of filter as a function of ________.
a. Phase
b. Amplitude
c. Frequency
d. All of the above
34) A filter is said to be linear phase filter if the phase delay and group delay are _______
a. High
b. Moderate
c. Low
d. Constant
35) Which among the following has/have a provision to support an adaptive filtering mechanism?
a. IIR
b. FIR
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
36) Which is/are the correct way/s for the result quantization of an arithmetic operation?
a. Result Truncation
b. Result Rounding
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
37) In direct form realization for an interpolator, which among the following generates an intermediate
signal?
a. Upsampler
b. Downsampler
c. Anti-imaging filter
d. Anti-aliasing filter
38) To change the sampling rate for better efficiency in two or multiple stages, The decimation and
interpolation factors must be _________unity.
a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
d. None of the above
39) Which address/es is/are generated by Program Sequences?
a. Data Address
b. Instruction Address
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
40) In DAGs, which register/s provide/s increment or step size for index register especially during the
register move?
a. Index Register
b. Length & Base Register

c. Modify Register
d. All of the above

Digital Signal Processing Test Questions Set - 3

1) Two vectors a, b are orthogonal if
a. <a,b> = 0
b. <a,b> = <a,b>
c. <a,b> = 1
d. <a,b> = - <a,b>
2) One dimensional signal is a function of

a. Multiple independent variables

b. Single independent variable
c. Multiple dependent variables
d. Single dependent variable
3) Superposition of signals in a linear system refers to the
a. Output that is product of all the signals
b. Output that is sum of all the signals
c. Output that is of highest amplitude of all the signals
d. Output that is of largest spectrum of all the signals
4) The scaling of a sequence x[n] by a factor is given by
a. y[n] = [x[n]]2
b. y[n] = x[n2]
c. y[n] = x[n]
d. y[n] = x[n]x[-n]
5) DFT is applied to
a. Infinite sequences
b. Finite discrete sequences
c. Continuous infinite signals
d. Continuous finite sequences
6) The filtering is performed using DFT using
1) Limited size or blocks of data
2) Small memory size
3) Large memory size
4) Large segments of data
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1 and 2 are correct
d. All the four are correct
7) In Overlap-Add Method with linear convolution of a discrete-time signal of length L and a discrete-time
signal of length M, for a length N, zero padding should be of length
a. L, M > N
b. L, M = N
c. L, M < N
d. L, M < N2
8) Discrete cosine transforms (DCTs) express a function or a signal in terms of
a. Sum of cosine functions oscillating at different frequencies
b. Sum of cosine functions oscillating at same frequencies
c. Sum of cosine functions at different sampling intervals
d. Sum of cosine functions oscillating at same sampling intervals
9) A system is said to be unstable if
a. None of the poles of its transfer function is shifted to the right half of s-plane
b. At least one zero of its transfer function is shifted to the right half of s-plane
c. At least one pole of its transfer function is shifted to the right half of s-plane
d. At least one pole of its transfer function is shifted to the left half of s-plane
10) A system is said to be marginally unstable if
a. None of its zeros of its transfer function lies on the j axis of s-plane
b. At least one zero of its transfer function lies on the j axis of s-plane

c. None of its poles of its transfer function lies on the j axis of s-plane
d. At least one pole of its transfer function lies on the j axis of s-plane
11) The nonlinear difference equations are solved using
a. Iterative method
b. Cobweb model
c. Phase diagram
d. Power series method
12) Correlation is used for
1) Computation of average power in waveforms
2) Climatography
3) Identification of binary code word in PCM systems
4) Quantization
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
13) The Chebyshev filters have
1) Flat pass band
2) Flat stop band
3) Equiripple pass band
4) Tapering stop band
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2 and 4 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
14) The Elliptic filters have
1) Flat pass band
2) Flat stop band
3) Equiripple pass band
4) Equiripple stop band
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 3 and 4 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
15) The effects caused due to finite word lengths are
1) Coefficient quantization error
2) Adder overflow limit cycle
3) Round off noise
4) Limit cycles
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
16) The error in the filter output that results from rounding or truncating calculations within the filter is
called

a. Coefficient quantization error

b. Adder overflow limit cycle
c. Round off noise
d. Limit cycles
17) Consider the assertions given below. Which among them is an advantage of FIR Filter?
a. Necessity of computational techniques for filter implementation
b. Requirement of large storage
c. Incapability of simulating prototype analog filters
d. Presence of linear phase response
18) For a linear phase filter, if Z1 is zero then what would be the value of Z1-1 or 1/ Z1?
a. Zero
b. Unity
c. Infinity
d. Unpredictable
19) In FIR filter design, which among the following parameters is/are separately controlled by using Kaiser
window?
a. Order of filter (M)
b. Transition width of main lobe
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
20) Which window function is also regarded as 'Raised-cosine window'?
a. Hamming window
b. Hanning window
c. Barlett window
d. Blackman window
21) In Barlett window, the triangular function resembles the tapering of rectangular window sequence
_______ from the middle to the ends.
a. linearly
b. elliptically
c. hyperbolically
d. parabolically
22) In Gibb's phenomenon, the ringing effect is predominantly present near the ______ .
a. bandgap
b. bandedge
c. bandwidth
d. bandshell
23) How is/are the roundoff errors reduced in the digital FIR filter?
a. By representation of all products with double-length registers
b. By rounding the results after acquiring the final sum
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
24) In linear phase realization, equal valued coefficients are taken common for reducing the requisite
number of ________.
a. adders
b. subtractors
c. multipliers
d. dividers

25) Which filters exhibit their dependency upon the system design for the stability purpose?
a. FIR
b. IIR
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
26) In FIR filters, which among the following parameters remains unaffected by the quantization effect?
a. Magnitude Response
b. Phase Characteristics
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
27) In the frequency response characteristics of FIR filter, the number of bits per coefficient should be
_________in order to maintain the same error.
a. Increased
b. Constant
c. Decreased
d. None of the above
28) In cascade form of realization, how many bits should be used to represent the FIR filter coefficients in
order to avoid the quantization effect on filter coefficients?
a. 5 to 10
b. 12 to 14
c. 20 to 24
d. 28 to 40
29) Consider the assertions (steps) given below. Which among the following is a correct sequence of
designing steps for the sampling rate converters?
A. Computation of decimation/interpolation factor for each stage.
B. Clarification of anti-aliasing / anti-imaging filter requirements.
C. Designing of filter at each stage.
D. Calculation of optimum stages of decimation/ interpolation yielding maximum efficient implementation.
a. A, B, C, D
b. C, A, D, B
c. D, A, B, C
d. B, D, A, C
30) For designing a multirate LPF with passband 0 to 50 Hz, stopband 60 to 280 Hz, stopband deviation
0.001, passband deviation 0.01 and sampling frequency (f s) = 400 Hz, what would be the value of normalized
transition width?
a. 0.025 Hz
b. 1.25 Hz
c. 1.50 Hz
d. 2.6 Hz
31) In polyphase filters, the subfilters which share a common delay line results in the reduction of the
storage requirement by factor ______
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
32) How is the operating level of sampling rate for the subfilters involved in the polyphase filters?
a. Low
b. Moderate

c. High
d. None of the above
33) In polyphase filter, which kind of realization is/are adopted for three subfilters possessing coefficients?
a. Cascade
b. Parallel
c. Direct
d. All of the above
34) How is the sampling rate conversion achieved by factor I/D?
a. By increase in the sampling rate with (I)
b. By filtering the sequence to remove unwanted images of spectra of original signal
c. By decimation of filtered signal with factor D
d. All of the above

35) Program Sequence plays a crucial role in maintaining the track of ___________
a. Program counter increment
b. Conditional branching & looping
c. Subroutine & interrupt handling
d. All of the above
36) In DSP Processor, what kind of queuing is undertaken/executed through instruction register and
instruction cache?
a. Implicate
b. Explicate
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
37) In TMS 320 C6x processor architecture, which functional unit is adopted for transferring the data from
register to and from control register?
a. L2
b. M2
c. S2
d. D2
38) In TMS 320 C6x processor architecture, which operation/s is/are performed by 'M' functional unit?
a. Bit expansion
b. Bit interleaving & deinterleaving
c. Rotation & Variable shifting
d. All of the above
39) In C6X processor, which external device/s get/s acquire/s an interface support by EMIF peripheral?
a. Synchronous burst
b. Asynchronous devices
c. Externally shared memory devices
d. All of the above
40) Which peripheral on C 6 X processor allows buffering of serial samples in memory by port
automatically & especially with an assistance of EDMA controller?
a. Boot Loader
b. HPI
c. EMIF
d. McBSP

Mobile Communication Test Questions Set 1

1) The modulation technique used for mobile communication systems during world war II was
a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. ASK
d. FSK
2) ----------- introduced Frequency Modulation for mobile communication systems in 1935.
a. Edwin Armstrong
b. Albert Einstein
c. Galileo Galilei
d. David Bohm
3) The early FM push-to-talk telephone systems were used in
a. Simplex mode
b. Half duplex mode
c. Full duplex mode
d. None of the above
4) DECT stands for
a. Digital European Cellular Telex
b. Digitized Emergency Cellular Telephone
c. Digital European Cordless Telephone
d. Digital European Cellular Telephone
5) World's first cellular system was developed by
a. Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)
b. Bellcore and Motorola

c. AT&T Bell Laboratories

d. Qualcomm
6) Paging systems were based on
a. Simplex systems
b. Half duplex systems
c. Full duplex systems
d. None of the above
7) Paging systems could be used to
a. Send numeric messages
b. Send alphanumeric messages
c. Voice message
d. All of the above
8) Garage door opener is a
a. Transmitter
b. Receiver
c. Transceiver
d. None of the above
9) Carrier frequency of a TV remote control is in the range
a. of Infra red
b. < 100 MHz
c. < 1 GHz
d. < 2 GHz
10) Half duplex system for communication has
a. Communication in single direction
b. Communication in single direction at a time
c. Communication in both directions at the same time
d. None of the above
11) MIN stands for
a. Mobile Identification Number
b. Mobile Internet
c. Mobility In Network
d. None of the above
12) The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is
a. MSC
b. Roamer
c. Hand off
d. Forward channel
13) PCN is
a. Wireless concept of making calls
b. For receiving calls
c. Irrespective of the location of the user
d. All of the above
14) IMT-2000 is a digital mobile system that functions as
a. Pager
b. Cordless
c. Low earth orbit satellites
d. All of the above

15) The 2G cellular network uses

a. TDMA/FDD
b. CDMA/FDD
c. Digital modulation formats
d. All of the above
16) NADC is a 2G standard for
a. TDMA
b. CDMA
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
17) 2G CDMA standard - cdma one supports up to
a. 8 users
b. 64 users
c. 32 users
d. 116 users
18) 2G standards support
a. Limited internet browsing
b. Short Messaging Service
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
19) The 2G GSM technology uses a carrier separation of
a. 1.25 MHz
b. 200 KHz
c. 30 KHz
d. 300 KHz
20) 3G W-CDMA is also known as
a. UMTS
b. DECT
c. DCS-1800
d. ETACS

21) Commonly used mode for 3G networks is

a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. TDD
d. FDD
22) The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is
a. 5MHz
b. 2MHz
c. 500KHz
d. 100KHz
23) CDMA2000 1xEV provides high speed data access with channel allocation of
a. 5 MHz
b. 50 MHz
c. 1.25 MHz
d. 4 MHz

24) In TD-SDMA, there is a frame of _____milliseconds and the frame is divided into _____ time slots.
a. 5, 7
b. 7, 5
c. 2, 5
d. 5, 2
25) The interference between the neighboring base stations is avoided by
a. Assigning different group of channels
b. Using transmitters with different power level
c. Using different antennas
d. All of the above
26) Radio capacity may be increased in cellular concept by
a. Increase in radio spectrum
b. Increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
27) The shape of the cellular region for maximum radio coverage is
a. Circular
b. Square
c. Oval
d. Hexagon
28) Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because
a. It uses the maximum area for coverage
b. Fewer number of cells are required
c. It approximates circular radiation pattern
d. All of the above
29) Centre excited hexagonal cells use
a. Sectored directional antennas
b. Omni directional antennas
c. Yagi uda antennas
d. None of the above
30) Spectrum Efficiency of a cellular network is
a. The traffic carried by whole network
b. The traffic carried per cell divided by the bandwidth of the system and the area of a cell
c. Expressed in Erlang /MHz /km2
d. Both b and c
e. Both a and c
31) The advantage of using frequency reuse is
a. Increased capacity
b. Limited spectrum is required
c. Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
d. All of the above
32) The strategies acquired for channel assignment are
a. Fixed
b. Dynamic
c. Regular
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c

33) In a fixed channel assignment strategy, if all the assigned channels are occupied, the call
a. Gets transferred to another cell
b. Gets blocked
c. Is kept on waiting
d. All of the above
34) In a fixed channel assignment strategy
a. Each cell is assigned a predetermined set of frequencies
b. The call is served by unused channels of the cell
c. The call gets blocked if all the channels of the cell are occupied
d. All of the above
35) In a dynamic channel assignment strategy,
a. Voice channels are not permanently assigned
b. The serving base station requests for a channel from MSC
c. MSC allocates the channel according to the predetermined algorithm
d. All of the above
36) Advantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is
a. Blocking is reduced
b. Capacity of the system is increased
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
37) Disadvantage of using Dynamic channel assignment is
a. More storage required
b. Calculations and analysis is increased
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
38) In Dynamic channel assignment, any channel which is being used in one cell can be reassigned
simultaneously to another cell in the system at a reasonable distance.
a. True
b. False
39) In Handoff
a. Process of transferring the call to the new base station
b. Transfers the call
c. New channel allocation is done
d. All of the above
40) Delay in handoffs is caused due to
a. Week signal conditions
b. High traffic conditions
c. Un availability of the channel
d. All of the above

Mobile Communication Test Questions Set 2

1) Inter system Handoffs are done
a. When mobile station moves in two cellular systems with different MSC
b. When mobile station moves between two cellular systems

c. When mobile station receives more power from other base station than the serving base station
d. All of the above
2) When a fraction of assigned channel is reserved for handoffs, it is
a. Guard channel concept
b. Fixed channel assignment
c. Dynamic channel assignment
d. None of the above
3) While handoffs, the termination of call may be avoided by
a. Providing Guard channel
b. Queuing of handoffs
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
4) Dwell time is the time for
a. A call within the cell
b. Hand off
c. Waiting for channel allocation
d. None of the above
5) Dwell time depends upon
a. Interference
b. Distance between the subscriber and the base station
c. Propagation of call
d. All of the above
6) In Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO), the handoff takes place when
a. The power received by the mobile station from other base station is more than the serving base station
b. The channel allocated is not available
c. The mobile station has no signal
d. All of the above
7) Mobile Assisted Handoff (MAHO) provides
a. Faster handoffs
b. Suitability for frequent handoffs
c. MSC need not monitor the signal strength
d. All of the above
8) Trunking in a cellular network refers to
a. Termination of a call
b. Spectrum unavailability
c. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
d. All of the above
9) When all of the radio channels are in use in a trunking system
a. The user is blocked
b. The access to the system is denied
c. The queue may be provided
d. All of the above
10) Umbrella cell approach
a. Uses large and small cells
b. Uses different antenna heights
c. Is used for high speed users with large coverage area and low speed users with small coverage area
d. All of the above

11) Interference in cellular systems is caused by

a. Two base stations operating in same frequency band
b. Two calls in progress in nearby mobile stations
c. Leakage of energy signals by non cellular systems into cellular frequency band
d. All of the above
12) Interference in frequency bands may lead to
a. Cross talk
b. Missed calls
c. Blocked calls
d. All of the above
13) Co-channel reuse ratio depends upon
a. Radius of the cell
b. Distance between the centers of the co channel cells
c. Frequency allocation of nearest cells
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
14) Increase in Co- channel reuse ratio indicates
a. Better transmission quality
b. Larger capacity
c. Low co-channel interference
d. Both a and c
e. Both a and b
15) Grade of service refers to
a. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
b. Ability of a user to access trunked system during busy hour
c. Two calls in progress in nearby mobile stations
d. High speed users with large coverage area
16) Traffic intensity is expressed in
a. Erlangs /MHz /km2
b. Erlangs
c. / sec
d. dB/sec
17) The techniques used to improve the capacity of cellular systems are
a. Splitting
b. Sectoring
c. Coverage zone approach
d. All of the above
18) Distributed antenna systems are used at
a. Transmitters of mobile systems
b. Transmitters of base stations
c. Inputs and outputs of repeaters
d. Receivers of mobile stations
19) Antenna down tilting refers to
a. Focusing radio energy towards ground
b. Decreasing the strength of antenna
c. Decreasing the S/N ratio at the antenna input
d. All of the above

20) Diffraction, at high frequencies, depends upon

1. Geometry of the object
2. Polarization of the incident wave
3. Amplitude of the incident wave
4. Frequency of the incident wave
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
21) The rainbow pattern seen on a CD is an example of
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
d. None of the above
22) Fresnel Reflection Coefficient is a factor of
1. Polarization of the wave
2. Properties of the material at which reflection occurs
3. Angle of incidence of wave
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. All the three are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
23) When a wave falls on a perfect conductor
a. Wave is partially reflected and partially transmitted
b. All incident energy is reflected back without loss of energy
c. Part of energy gets absorbed
d. Both a and c
24) Brewster angle is the angle at which
a. No reflection occurs at the first medium
b. Reflection coefficient is zero
c. The wave gets refracted in the direction of source
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
25) Fading is caused due to
1. Multi path propagation
2. Obstacles
3. Frequency variations at the source
4. Variation in amplitude and phase at receiver
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
26) Coherence time refers to
a. Time required to attain a call with the busy base station
b. Time required for synchronization between the transmitter and the receiver
c. Minimum time for change in magnitude and phase of the channel
d. None of the above

27) Fading due to shadowing is

a. Fading due to large obstructions
b. Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
c. Small coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
28) Deep fade is
1. Strong destructive interference
2. Drop in signal to noise ratio
3. Temporary failure of message transfer
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
29) Doppler spread refers to
a. Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel
b. Temporary failure of message transfer
c. Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints
d. All of the above
30) Friis free space equation
1. Is an expression for noise power
2. Is a function of transmitting and receiving antenna gain
3. Depends upon the distance between transmitting and receiving antenna
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
31) The free space model of propagation refers to
1. Unobstructed line of sight between the transmitter and receiver
2. Satellite communication systems and Microwave line of sight radio links
3. Propagation along the ground surface
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
32) According to Friis free space equation
1. Received power falls with square of the distance between the transmitter and receiver
2. Increases with square of the distance between the transmitter and receiver
3. Received power increases with gains of transmitting and receiving antennas
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. All the three are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
33) EIRP is

1. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power

2. Maximum radiated power available by the transmitter
3. A factor of power and gain of transmitter
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. All the three are correct
d. 2 and 3 are correct
34) Spread spectrum modulation involves
1. PN sequence for modulation
2. Large bandwidth
3. Multiple users
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
35) PN sequence at the decoder acts as a locally generated carrier at the receiver and decodes the signal
using
a. Correlator
b. Adder
c. Frequency divider
d. PLL
36) In spread spectrum technique, the multiple users are assigned with
a. Same spectrum and same PN code
b. Same spectrum and different PN code
c. Different spectrum and different PN code
d. Different spectrum and same PN code
37) Advantage of using Spread Spectrum modulation is/are
1. Interference rejection capability
2. Frequency planning is not required
3. Resistance to multipath fading
4. ISI is lesser
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
38) Direct sequence spread spectrum demodulation uses
a. DPSK
b. FSK
c. ASK
d. QPSK

39) Fast hopping is

a. More than one frequency hop during each symbol
b. Hopping rate greater than or equal to information symbol rate
c. One or more symbols transmitted between frequency hops
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c

40) Slow frequency hopping refers to

a. One or more symbols transmitted in time interval between frequency hops
b. More than one frequency hop during each symbol
c. Hopping rate greater than or equal to information symbol rate
d. Both a and c are correct

Mobile Communication Test Questions Set 3

1) Probability of outage refers to
a. Noise developed at the receiver
b. Number of bit errors during transmission
c. Signal to noise ratio
d. All of the above
2) The digital modulation technique used in frequency selective channels is
a. FSK
b. ASK
c. BPSK
d. QPSK

3) Working of Adaptive Equalizers include

a. Training
b. Tracking
c. Modulation
d. Both a and b
e. All a, b and c are correct
4) The time span for which the equalizer converges depends upon
1. Equalizer algorithm
2. Equalizer structure
3. Rate of change of multipath radio channel
4. Amplitude of signal
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
5) The Linear Equalizer may be implemented as
a. FIR filter
b. Lattice filter
c. Low pass filter
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
6) Linear equalizer is also known as
a. Transversal filter
b. Lattice filter

c. Low pass filter

d. None of the above
7) The methods used for non linear equalization are
a. Decision Feedback Equalization
b. Maximum Likelihood Symbol Detection
c. Maximum Likelihood Sequence Estimation
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. None of the above
8) The performance of algorithms for Adaptive Equalization are given by
1. Rate of convergence
2. Computational complexity
3. Numerical properties
4. Frequency change
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All are correct
9) Computational complexity of an algorithm refers to the
a. Number of operations for one iteration of algorithm
b. Inaccuracies in the mathematical analysis
c. Noise produced during one complete iteration of algorithm
d. All of the above
10) The algorithms acquired for adaptive equalization are
1. Zero forcing algorithm
2. Least mean squares algorithm
3. Recursive least squares algorithm
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. None of the above
11) Fractionally spaced equalizer acts as
a. Matched filter
b. Equalizer
c. Demodulator
d. Both a and b
e. All a, b and c are correct
12) Diversity employs the decision making at
a. Transmitter
b. Receiver
c. Transmitter and receiver
d. Communication channel
13) The diversity schemes are based on
1. Time diversity

2. Frequency diversity
3. Space diversity
4. Polarization diversity
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
14) In time diversity
a. Multiple versions of signals are transmitted at different time instants
b. The signal is transmitted using multiple channels
c. Signal is transmitted with different polarization
d. All of the above
15) RAKE receiver is
1. Several sub receivers
2. Several correlators
3. Fingers
4. Equalization based
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
16) The RAKE receiver involves the steps
a. Correlator, estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, bit decision
b. Estimation of transmitted signal, correlator, demodulation, bit decision
c. Estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, correlator, bit decision
d. Estimation of transmitted signal, demodulation, bit decision, correlator
17) Search window of a RAKE receiver is
a. Frequency band of the channel
b. Range of the time delays
c. Range of noise
d. All of the above
18) Speech Coders are categorized on the basis of
a. Signal compression techniques
b. Frequency of signal
c. Bandwidth of the signal
d. All of the above
19) Waveform coders and Vocoders are the types of
a. Speech coders
b. Modulation technique
c. Frequency translation methods
d. Channel allocation for transmission
20) PCM, DPCM, DM, ADPCM are the types of
a. Vocoders
b. Waveform coders
c. Channel allocation for transmission
d. All of the above
21) Speech coding technique that is independent of the source is

a. Vocoders
b. Waveform coders
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
22) Advantage of using waveform coders is
1. Independent of the signal source
2. Less complexity
3. Suitable for noisy environments
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
23) The type of frequency domain coding that divides the speech signal into sub bands is
a. Waveform coding
b. Vocoders
c. Block transform coding
d. Sub-band coding
24) The speech coding technique that is dependent on the prior knowledge of the signal is
a. Waveform coders
b. Vocoders
c. Sub band coding
d. Block transform coding
25) The steps involved in Channel vocoders for speech transmission are
a. Envelope detection, sampling, encoding, multiplexing
b. Sampling, Envelope detection, encoding, multiplexing
c. Envelope detection, encoding, sampling, multiplexing
d. Sampling, Envelope detection, multiplexing, encoding
26) Vocal tract cepstral coefficients and excitation coefficients are separated by
a. Samplers
b. Linear filters
c. Encoders
d. Multiplexers
27) In voice excited vocoders, PCM transmission helps in transmission of
a. High frequency bands of speech
b. Low frequency bands of speech
c. Multiplexed signals
d. Modulated signals
28) Linear predictive coders are based on the principle that
1. Current signal sample is obtained from linear combination of past samples
2. Current signal sample is independent of past samples
3. These are time domain vocoders
4. They are among low bit rate vocoders
a. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct

29) Multi pulse excited LPC includes

1. Multiple pulses per period
2. Minimization of weighted mean square error
3. Better speech quality
4. Pitch detection is not required
a. 1 and 4 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct
30) In residual excited LPC,
a. The residue of subtraction of generated and original signal is quantized at the transmitter
b. Pitch detection is not required
c. Multiple pulses per period
d. Coder and decoders have predetermined set of codes
31) The speech sequence in GSM Codec consists of
a. Pre emphasis, segmentation, windowing, filtering
b. Windowing, Pre emphasis, segmentation, filtering
c. Pre emphasis, windowing, segmentation, filtering
d. Pre emphasis, segmentation, filtering, windowing

32) The windowing technique used for speech coding in GSM Codec is
a. Blackman window
b. Welch window
c. Cosine window
d. Hamming window
33) The received signal at the GSM speech decoder is passed through
a. STP filter
b. LTP filter
c. Quantizer
d. PLL
34) In GSM Codec, the bits encoded for forward error correction are
a. Ia bits
b. Ib bits
c. II bits
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
35) The speech coders are selected on the basis of
1. Robustness to transmission errors
2. Cell size
3. Type of modulation technique used
4. Distance between the transmitter and receiver
a. 1 and 4 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct

36) FDMA is the division of

a. Time
b. Phase
c. Spectrum
d. Amplitude
37) Guard band is
a. The small unused bandwidth between the frequency channels to avoid interference
b. The bandwidth allotted to the signal
c. The channel spectrum
d. The spectrum acquired by the noise between the signal
38) Cable television is an example of
a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. CDMA
d. SDMA
39) In FDMA,
1. Each user is assigned unique frequency slots
2. Demand assignment is possible
3. Fixed assignment is possible
4. It is vulnerable to timing problems
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d. All four are correct

40) FDMA demand assignment uses

1. Single channel per carrier
2. Multi channel per carrier
3. Single transmission in one time slot
4. Multi transmission in one time slot
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d. All four are correct

Mobile Communication Test Questions Set 4

1) The advantages of FDMA over TDMA includes
1. Division is simpler
2. Propagation delays are eliminated
3. Cheaper filters with less complicated logic functions
4. Linearity
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct
2) TDMA is a multiple access technique that has
a. Different users in different time slots
b. Each user is assigned unique frequency slots
c. Each user is assigned a unique code sequence
d. Each signal is modulated with frequency modulation technique
3) In TDMA, the user occupies the whole bandwidth during transmission
a. True
b. False
4) TDMA allows the user to have

a. Use of same frequency channel for same time slot

b. Use of same frequency channel for different time slot
c. Use of same time slot for different frequency channel
d. Use of different time slot for different frequency channels
5) GSM is an example of
a. TDMA cellular systems
b. FDMA cellular systems
c. CDMA cellular systems
d. SDMA cellular systems
6) TDMA is employed with a TDMA frame that has preamble. The preamble contains Address of base
station and subscribers
1. Synchronization information
2. Frequency allotted
3. Coded sequence
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct
7) CDMA is
1. Spread spectrum technology
2. Using same communication medium
3. Every user stays at a certain narrowband channel at a specific time period
4. Each user has unique PN code
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All four are correct
8) Global Positioning System uses
a. CDMA
b. TDMA
c. SDMA
d. FDMA
9) CDMA is advantageous over other Spread Spectrum techniques for
1. The privacy due to unique codes
2. It rejects narrow band interference
3. Resistance to multi path fading
4. Its ability to frequency reuse
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
10) The wide band usage in CDMA helps in
1. Increased immunity to interference
2. Increased immunity to jamming
3. Multiple user access
4. Different spectrum allocation in different time slots

a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
11) The advantages of using a CDMA technique over other spread spectrum techniques are
1. Increased capacity
2. Easier handoff
3. Better measure of security
4. Multiple users occupy different spectrum at a time
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
12) FHMA is
1. Spread spectrum technology
2. Using same communication medium
3. Every user has assigned unique frequency slot
4. Each user has unique PN code
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
13) OFDM is a technique of
1. Encoding digital data
2. Multiple carrier frequencies
3. Wide band digital communication
4. 4G mobile communication
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
14) Advantages of using OFDM include
1. Avoids complex equalizers
2. Low symbol rate and guard interval
3. Avoids ISI
4. Multiple users at same frequency
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
15) The troubles that OFDM faces over other spread spectrum techniques are
1. Sensitivity to Doppler shift
2. Frequency synchronization problems
3. Time synchronization problems
4. Low efficiency due to guard intervals

a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d. All the four are correct
16) The guard interval is provided in OFDM
a. To eliminate the need of pulse shaping filter
b. To eliminate ISI
c. High symbol rate
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
17) Packet radio refers to
a. Multiple users on single channel
b. Single user on multiple channels as per demand
c. Multiple users on multiple channels at different time slots
d. Multiple users with coding techniques
18) Disadvantages of packet radio are
a. Induced delays
b. Low spectral efficiency
c. Large spectrum required
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
19) Pure ALOHA is a
a. Random access protocol
b. Scheduled access protocol
c. Hybrid access protocol
d. Demand access protocol
20) The increase in number of users in PURE ALOHA causes
a. Increase in delay
b. Increase in probability of collision
c. Increase in spectrum
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
21) SDMA technique employs
a. Smart antenna technology
b. Use of spatial locations of mobile units within the cell
c. More battery consumption
d. Both a and b are correct
e. Both b and c are correct
22) The advantage of using SDMA over other spread spectrum technique is
a. Mobile station battery consumption is low
b. Reduced spectral efficiency
c. Increased spectral efficiency
d. Both a and b are correct
e. Both a and c are correct

23) The increased capacity of SDMA is due to

a. Focused signal transmitted into narrow transmission beams
b. Smart antennas pointing towards mobile stations

c. Use of different frequencies at same time slot

d. Both a and b are correct
e. Both a and c are correct
24) Coherence time is
a. Directly proportional to Doppler spread
b. Indirectly proportional to Doppler spread
c. Directly proportional to square of Doppler spread
d. Directly proportional to twice of Doppler spread
25) Types of small scale fading, based on Doppler spread are
a. Fast fading
b. Frequency non selective fading
c. Flat fading
d. Frequency selective fading
26) Flat fading or frequency nonselective fading is a type of
a. Multipath delay spread small scale fading
b. Doppler spread small scale fading
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
27) In Frequency Selective Fading, the
a. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is less than bandwidth of transmitted channel
b. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is more than bandwidth of transmitted channel
c. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is equal to bandwidth of transmitted channel
d. None of the above
28) If coherence time of the channel is smaller than the symbol period of the transmitted signal, it is
a. Fast fading
b. Slow fading
c. Frequency selective fading
d. Frequency non selective fading
Answer

Explanation

Related Ques

29) The power delay profile helps in determining

a. Excess delay
b. rms delay spread
c. Excess delay spread
d. All of the above
30) Coherence bandwidth is
a. Channel that passes all spectral components with equal gain
b. The bandwidth of modulated signal
c. Channel that passes all spectral components with linear phase
d. Both a and c
e. Both a and b
31) Small scale multipath propagation is caused due to waves with
1. Different propagation delays
2. Different amplitudes
3. Different phase

a. 1 and 2 are correct

b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
32) The effects of small scale multipath propagation are
1. Changes in signal strength
2. Random frequency modulation
3. Time dispersion
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
33) Impulse response of a multipath channel is determined by the fact that
a. Mobile radio channel may be modeled as linear filter
b. Impulse response is time varying
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
34) The received signal from a multipath channel is expressed as
a. Convolution of transmitted signal and impulse response
b. Addition of transmitted signal and impulse response
c. Subtraction of transmitted signal and impulse response
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
35) Direct RF pulse system helps in calculating
a. Impulse response in frequency domain
b. Impulse response in phase domain
c. Power delay of the channel
d. All of the above
36) The techniques used for small scale multipath measurements are
1. Direct RF pulse system
2. Spread spectrum sliding correlator channel sounding
3. Frequency domain channel sounding
a. 1 and 2 are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct