Free Preparation Cisco 350

Free Preparation Cisco 350-040 Exam Questions and
Answers
[email protected] / March 5, 2014
Cisco 350-040 Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
Which three of these Fibre Channel words are known as primitive signals? (Choose three.)
A. NOS
B. R_RDY
C. CLS
D. LIP
E. IDLE
Answer: B,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
What set of primitive signals is valid for arbitrated loop?
A. NOS, LOS, LR, LRR
B. SOF, EOF, ABTS, ACK
C. LIFA, LIPA, LIHA, LISA
D. LIP, LR, LRR, SOF
E. CLS, OPN, ARB
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
If a Fibre Channel interface is receiving an NOS pattern on its interface, what pattern will the interface be
transmitting?
A. OLS
B. LR
C. LRR
D. IDLE
E. NOS
Answer: A Explanation:
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 4
All of these are functions of LIP except which one?
A. reinitialize a loop
B. allow non disruptive attachment to loop to happen
C. indicate loop receiver failure
D. indicate which port to reset on loop
E. acquire an AL_PA
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which configuration command enables all discovered storage to be available for iSCSI?
A. iscsi virtual-target all
B. iscsi target enable fc
C. fc-target import iscsi
D. enable fc targets dynamic
E. iscsi import target fc
QUESTION NO: 6
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform principal switch selection?
A. RDI
B. DIA
C. EFP
D. ELP
E. ESC
Answer: C Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 7
Which events will trigger a port to start a Link Initialization Protocol procedure? (Choose two.)
A. the power is turned on
B. a LOGO ELS command is received

C. an reset of the interface is performed
D. an interface SHUT command is issued
E. an RSCN is received
Answer: A,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
The Domain Identifier Assigned (DIA) SW_ILS command indicates which two of these? (Choose two.)
A. a principal switch has been selected and the upstream neighbor switch has been assigned a domain
identifier
B. the principal switch selection and address assignment phase has been completed and the fabric is
operational
C. the receiving switch can proceed to request a domain identifier
D. the principal switch selection has been started, but a principal switch has not been identified yet
E. a Request Domain Identifier SW_ILS frame has been received by the principal switch
QUESTION NO: 9
Which two of these are effects of a BF SW_ILS? (Choose two.)
A. It causes a disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
B. It causes a non-disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
C. It causes a new principal switch selection to happen.
D. It causes all the assigned addresses in the fabric to be changed, while avoiding traffic loss by
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holding data traffic.
E. It helps to resolve overlapping domain identifiers.
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of these statements about the R_T_TOV are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is a timer with a default value of 100 ms that is used by the receiver logic to detect loss of
synchronization.
B. It is a timer with a default value of 100 ms that it is used for detecting protocol error conditions.
C. Its values is two times that of E_D_TOV, and it is used as the timeout value for determining when to
reinstate a Recovery_Qualifier.
D. It is negotiated between the N_Port and the fabric during the fabric login as one of the common service
parameters exchanged.
E. It is used to time events occurring on a single link.
Answer: A,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of these statements about the E_D_TOV are correct? (Choose three.)
A. It is a timer with a default value of 100 ms that is used by the receiver logic to detect loss of
synchronization.
B. It is a timer with a default value of two seconds that is used for detecting protocol error conditions.
C. It is a timer used as the timeout value for determining when to reinstate a Recovery_Qualifier.
D. During fabric login, it is negotiated by the N_Port and the fabric as one of the common service
parameters exchanged.
E. It represent a limit on the amount of time within which an action can be taken after the transmission of
consecutive data frames within a single sequence.
Answer: B,D,E Explanation:
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 12
Which three of these are attributes of the 8B/10B encoding scheme used by Fibre Channel? (Choose
three.)
A. facilitates a sufficient number of one-to-zero transitions to enable clock recovery
B. maintains DC balance
C. detects all transmission errors
D. provides variable bit, byte, and word rates
E. generates special characters beyond the eight-bit code space
Answer: A,B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
What is the purpose of the Open Fiber Control system?
A. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.
B. It defines the mechanism by which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
C. It defines a safety mechanism for shutting down laser data links.
D. It defines the distance limitations for different types of lasers.

E. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre Channel links.
QUESTION NO: 14
You have a host that needs to search the fabric for all target devices that support SCSI. What is the D_ID
of the frame to query for this information?
A. 0xFFFFFA
B. 0xFFFFFD
C. 0xFFFFFC
D. 0xFFFFFF
E. 0xFFFFFE
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of these are functions of the principal switch? (Choose two.)
A. to determine if a new switch can join the fabric
B. to assign domain IDs
C. to act as the root in the determination of the Principal Path
D. to determine all FSPF paths
E. to detect zone merge failures

QUESTION NO: 16
You are connecting two existing fabrics. Fabric 1 includes domains 97 and 100. Fabric 2 includes domains
100 and 101. When an ISL is connected between the two fabrics, the new domain IDs for the newly
merged fabric are 97, 100, 101, 102.
What SW_ILS command is generated to allow the switches to accept a new domain ID?
A. BF
B. ESC
C. EFP
D. ELP
E. RCF
QUESTION NO: 17
Which three of these correctly describe the functioning of the TCP slowstart algorithm? (Choose three.)
A. Immediately after the TCP connection has been initiated or after a long period of idle, it makes
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sure that new packets are sent at the same rate at which acknowledges are returned.
B. It slows down the transmission rate of the sender when congestion in the network is detected.
C. It causes a linear growth of the transmitter window size every time an ACK is received.
D. It causes an exponential growth of the transmitter window size every time an ACK is received.
E. It causes a linear drop of the transmitter window size every time an ACK is lost.
Answer: A,B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
What does the TCP fast recovery algorithm do?
A. uses the fast-retransmit algorithm when a missing segment is detected
B. initiates slowstart instead of congestion avoidance after the fast-retransmit algorithm sends what
appears to be the missing segment
C. starts congestion avoidance instead of slowstart after the fast-retransmit algorithm sends what appears
to be the missing segment
D. after a new connection is established with a host on another network, it initializes the congestion
window to one segment, and thereafter increases the congestion window by one segment each time an
ACK is received
QUESTION NO: 19
To which well-known Fibre Channel Services address do FICON-enabled hosts send Query Security
Attribute (QSA) extended link service commands?
A. FF.FF.FA
B. FF.FF.FD
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FE
E. FF.FF.F7
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 20
A mainframe is using a 2-byte link address. What does this definitively indicate?
A. cascaded FICON environment
B. non-cascaded FICON environment
C. QSA frame will be sent during N-port login
D. CUP device is in use
E. Control Unit Image is offline
QUESTION NO: 21
What SCSI command does a target send to an initiator after the initiator sends the target a write
command?
A. Write Ready
B. Status
C. RSCN
D. Transfer Ready
E. B2B Credit Decrement
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
What are the correct configuration commands to enable Cisco SAN-OS FCIP Tape Acceleration and
Read Acceleration for a given FCIP link?
A. interface fcip113 switchport description to-remote-tape-fcip113 switchport trunk mode off switchport
mode E no shutdown switchport trunk allowed vsan 2013 use-profile 113 peer-info ipaddr
192.168.255.106 tape-accelerator read-accelerator flow-control-buffer-size auto
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
ip-compression auto
B. interface fcip113 switchport description to-remote-tape-fcip113 switchport trunk mode off switchport
192.168.255.106 write-accelerator tape-accelerator flow-control-buffer-size auto ip-compression auto
C. interface fcip113 switchport description to-remote-tape-fcip113 switchport trunk mode off switchport
192.168.255.106 write-accelerator tape-accelerator read-accelerator flow-control-buffer-size auto ipcompression auto
D. interface fcip113 switchport description to-remote-tape-fcip113 switchport trunk mode off switchport
192.168.255.106 write-accelerator read accelerator tape-accelerator flow-control-buffer-size auto ipcompression auto
QUESTION NO: 23
What is the maximum number of equal cost paths for FCIP Tape Accelaration when using port channels,
if channel protocol = off?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 16
D. 1
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QUESTION NO: 24
From where and to where are ESS SW_ILS frames addressed?
A. from the management server of a requesting switch to the management server of a responding switch
B. from the name server of a requesting switch to the name server of a responding switch
C. from the domain controller of a requesting switch to the domain controller of a responding switch
D. from the alias server of a requesting switch to the alias server of a responding switch
E. from the time server of a requesting switch to the time server of a responding switch
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of these SCSI commands returns a list of logical unit numbers to which additional commands may
be issued?
A. Read Capacity
B. Test Unit Ready
C. Report LUNs
D. Read
E. Inquiry
QUESTION NO: 26
Which of these SCSI commands is used to determine the device type of a particular logical unit, and also
may include basic information about implemented options and the device product name?
A. Read Capacity
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
B. Test Unit Ready
C. Report LUNs
D. Read
E. Inquiry
QUESTION NO: 27
Which one of these statements is true of the iSCSI initiator task tag?
A. The initiator assigns a task tag to each task it issues.
B. The target assigns a task tag on behalf of the initiator.
C. During the life of the task, this tag does not have to be unique.
D. SCSI may not use this tag as part of the SCSI task identifier.
QUESTION NO: 28
What is the maximum number of iSCSI and iSLB initiators and targets supported by a fabric?
A. 3000, 3000
B. 4000, 5000
C. 6000, 2000
D. 2000, 6000
QUESTION NO: 29
SAN Extension Tuner requires which license feature?
A. SAN_EXTN_OVER_IP
B. ENTERPRISE_PKG
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
C. STORAGE_SERVICES_ENABLER_PKG
D. MAINFRAME_PKG
QUESTION NO: 30
What is the most appropriate mode of compression for an E3 WAN link?
A. mode high
B. mode medium
C. mode low
D. mode 1
E. mode 2
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of these statements about SAN Extension Tuner is correct?
A. The SET configuration is persistent across reboots.
B. The virtual N_Ports created will register FC4 features supported with the name server.
C. Only SCSI read and write commands are implemented.
D. SET cannot be used if iSCSI is enabled.
E. The data pattern used for the data generated between the virtual N_Ports can either be an all-zeros
pattern or all-ones pattern; no other data patterns can be used.
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of these features is supported by the Cisco MDS SAN-OS IPsec feature?
A. Authentication Header (AH)
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B. transport mode
C. security association bundling
D. the per-host security association option in a crypto map

E. AES with 128- or 256-bits encryption using Cipher Block Chaining or counter mode
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
The SAN Device Virtualization feature virtualizes which two of these? (Choose two.)
A. an initiator
B. a LUN
C. a switch
D. a fabric
E. a target
QUESTION NO: 34
What is Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol designed to accomplish?
A. eliminate the single point of failure inherent in static default routed environments
B. provide high availability for Fibre Channel over IP traffic
C. provide support for IPv6
D. reduce the amount of configuration needed for dynamic routing or router discovery protocols
QUESTION NO: 35
Which statements about FCIP Tape Acceleration are correct? (Choose three.)
A. It enables time stamp control on an FCIP interface.
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
B. Cisco MDS switches proxy transfer ready signals to the hosts to start sending data.
C. It uses TCP window management and a sliding window for flow control.
D. It reduces the processing time for each IO by 2 RTT.
E. It increases tape backup speed by compressing data.
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
Which statements about the TCP/IP flow control mechanism are true? (Choose three.)
A. TCP uses a sliding window to control the flow of data end-to-end.
B. The TCP Maximum Window Size (MWS) is the maximum number of frames the sender will allow to be
outstanding at one time without an acknowledgment.
C. The TCP Maximum Window Size (MWS) is the maximum number of bytes the sender will allow to be
outstanding at one time without an acknowledgment.
D. The maximum allowed window size is 1 GB.
E. The maximum allowed window size is 1024 frames.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
The SANTap feature can be provisioned on which MDS hardware?
A. any Generation 2 line card module

B. Storage Services Module
C. Supervisor-1 module
D. Supervisor-1 or Supervisor-2 module
QUESTION NO: 38
Which three of these are optional parameters when configuring iSCSI Server Load Balancing initiator
targets if the target is offline? (Choose three.)
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
A. secondary pWWN
B. LUN mapping
C. VSAN
D. primary pWWN
E. VRRP
QUESTION NO: 39
When configuring iSNS Cloud Discovery, which version of Cisco MDS SAN-OS is required for Cisco
Fabric Services distribution to operate correctly?
A. 2.01(1)
B. 2.0(2)
C. 2.1(1)
D. 3.0(1)
QUESTION NO: 40
Which two of these criteria will allow a Cisco MDS switch to interoperate in interop mode 4? (Choose two.)
A. VSAN WWN must contain McDATA OUI 07:00:70
B. VSAN WWN must contain McDATA OUI 08:00:88
C. static domain IDs should be configured for the range 1-31
D. static domain IDs should be configured for the range 97-127
E. zone members cannot be specified using FC alias
QUESTION NO: 41
On a Cisco MDS 9000 switch configured for legacy switch interop mode 2, which three of these is
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
true when configuring zoning? (Choose three.)
A. zone members must be defined by pWWN
B. zone members must be defined by nWWN
C. zone set and zone names cannot use the $ or - symbols
D. only the active zone set is propagated
E. the default zone policy changes to permit

QUESTION NO: 42
Which of these is the correct VSAN configuration to connect a Cisco MDS switch to a Brocade running in
Native mode with core pid =1?
A. MDS(config-vsan-db)# vsan x interop 1
B. MDS(config-vsan-db)# vsan x interop 2
C. MDS(config-vsan-db)# vsan x interop 3
D. MDS(config-vsan-db)# vsan x interop 4
QUESTION NO: 43
Which features are supported when connecting a Cisco MDS SAN-OS 3.x to a third party switch?
(Choose two.)
A. full zone set distribution
B. active zone set distribution
C. IVR between the interoperability VSAN and a native VSAN
D. trunking between the third party switch and the MDS
E. port channels
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 44
Which three of these statements about PortChannel are correct? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete or change the membership to an automatically created PortChannel.
B. You cannot delete or change the membership of an automatically created PortChannel.
C. When you disable the autocreation feature, all member ports are removed from the automatically
created PortChannel.
D. You can enable or disable the autocreation feature on a per-port basis or for all ports in the switch.
E. Autocreation can be enabled in the local port and disabled on the peer ports and the switch will still be
able to automatically negotiate the PortChannel parameters.
QUESTION NO: 45
Which of these statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 256 VSANs can be configured in a switch.
B. In a switch there is one default VSAN, which is VSAN 1.
C. The isolated VSAN is VSAN 4093.
D. The user specified VSAN ID range is from 1-4092.
Answer: A,B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Which statements about Dynamic Port VSAN Membership (DPVM) are correct? (Choose three.)
A. DPVM configurations are only based on pWWN assignments.
B. DPVM retains the configured VSAN regardless of where a device is connected or moved.
C. DPVM uses Cisco Fabric Services to allow efficient database management and distribution.
D. The DPVM feature overrides any existing static port VSAN membership configuration.
E. DPVM is used to configure zones, IVR zones, or port security features.
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 47
Which statements correctly describe the Cisco MDS port tracking feature? (Choose two.)
A. It monitors and detects failures that cause topology changes only.
B. It monitors and detects failures that cause topology changes and brings down the links connecting the
attached devices.
C. Fiber Channel, VSAN, PortChannel, FCIP, or Gigabit Ethernet ports can be configured as linked ports.
D. Fiber Channel, VSAN, PortChannel, FCIP, or Gigabit Ethernet ports can be configured as tracked
ports.
Answer: B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
Which three of these FICON port configurations are allowed? (Choose three.)
A. switch(config)# ficon slot 3 assign port-numbers 0-15, 48-63
B. switch(config)# ficon slot 3 assign port-numbers 0-15, 0-15
C. switch(config)# ficon slot 3 assign port-numbers 0-63
D. switch(config)# ficon slot 3 assign port-numbers 1-15, 56-64
E. switch(config)# ficon slot 3 assign port-numbers 0-15, 250-253

Answer: A,B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
Which statement is correct?
A. Enhanced mode or native device alias-based configurations are required for interop mode VSANs.
B. Only pWWNs are supported with device aliases.
C. Device aliases are limited to the specified VSAN.
D. When configuring device aliases, any zone member type may be used to specify the end
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device.
QUESTION NO: 50
A customer is using Cisco Fabric Services to distribute device aliases throughout a fabric. When adding a
new Cisco MDS switch to the fabric, which task or tasks must take place on the new switch in order for
the initial device alias distribution to take place?
A. bring up the ISL
B. bring up the ISL, enable the device alias
C. bring up the ISL, enable the device alias, distribute the device alias
D. bring up the ISL, enable the device alias, distribute the device alias, commit the device alias
E. bring up the ISL, enable the device alias, commit the device alias, distribute the device alias
QUESTION NO: 51
The SAN team has preconfigured the VSAN 1 and switch priority on three new switches that will soon be
interconnected via ISLs. After the ISLs were brought up, a principal switch was selected; however, 30
minutes later the principal switch failed and a new one was selected. Given the following information,
which switch was selected to be the initial principal switch and which switch became principal after the
failure?
Switch1: SWWN: 20:22:11:22:33:44:33:11 Configured Switch Priority: 128
Switch2: SWWN: 20:22:11:22:33:44:33:22 Configured Switch Priority: 1
Switch3: SWWN: 20:22:11:22:33:44:33:33 Configured Switch Priority: 128(default)
A. Switch1, Switch2
B. Switch2, Switch3
C. Switch2, Switch1
D. Switch1, Switch3
Answer: C
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Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
If the following command is issued, which of these actions will take place?
switch(config)# no fcdomain domain 18 static vsan 237
A. A BF will be generated.
B. An RCF will be generated.
C. The configured domain ID in VSAN 237 will become 0 preferred.

D. The configured domain ID in VSAN 237 will become 18 preferred.
E. The VSAN will be suspended, because there is no domain ID available.
QUESTION NO: 53
The company you work for has just taken over another smaller company . You have been tasked with
interconnecting your SAN to theirs to migrate their data to your arrays. In speaking with their SAN
administrator, you find that your two SANs have domain IDs that overlap. How can you interconnect these
two SANs while minimizing disruption?
A. change the domain IDs on both fabrics so that they are all unique and then connect ISLs between the
SANs
B. use FCIP with Write Acceleration and IVR version 1 with a transit VSAN to expedite the data transfer
C. use IVR version 1 with Cisco Fabric Services to ensure consistency across the new fabric
D. use IVR NAT with a transit VSAN between the SANs
E. the two fabrics cannot be merged without disruption
QUESTION NO: 54
Refer to the exhibit.
Cisco 350-040 Exam
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
What is wrong with this Create VSAN window from Cisco Fabric Manager?
A. The domain IDs are out of range for FICON.

B. FICON VSANs must be created in suspended mode.
C. FICON VSANs must use srcId/DestId load balancing.
D. FICON VSANs cannot use VSAN 2.
QUESTION NO: 55
A 24-port blade is added to an existing Generation 1 Cisco MDS 9509 switch with Generation 1
supervisors. All ports on the 24-port blade are in shared rate mode. Port 1/1 from an MDS 9216A switch
is connected to port 2/12 on the 24-port blade of the MDS 9509 switch. How many buffer credits are
allocated to port 2/12 on the MDS 9509 switch?
A. 16
B. 64
C. 256
D. none, as the ISL would not come up
Answer: D
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Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
You can upgrade the software on all of these fabric and module switches without any disruptions using
the install all command for the system software images except which one?
A. Cisco MDS 9124 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B. Cisco MDS 9134 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. Cisco MDS 9216 Multilayer Fabric Switch

D. Cisco MDS 9222i Multiservice Modular Switch
E. Cisco Fabric Switch for HP c-Class BladeSystem
QUESTION NO: 57
Cisco 350-040 Exam
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
You have a customer with one switch fabric it is connecting to another switch. Based on this FC analyzer
output, which is the principal switch in this two-switch fabric?
A. the switch that sent the first EFP in the trace
B. the switch that sent the second EFP in the trace
C. the principal switch is selected earlier in the ISL link init process; the EFP frame is not used
D. the principal switch election is identified by the value of the reason code within the frame, which is not
displayed here, so it is not possible to determine
QUESTION NO: 58
On a Cisco MDS switch, when configuring the Call Home feature, which alert group should be configured
in order to receive email-based notifications for software-related events?
A. inventory
B. system
C. test
D. environmental
QUESTION NO: 59
Which of these statements about the port tracking feature are correct (Choose 2)?
A. It is not possible to track multiple ports with this feature.
B. You may use port tracking to track the state of an FCIP interface.
C. Using the interface configuration command port-track force-shut would cause the linked port to remain
down even if the tracked port comes back up.
D. There is no way to use port tracking to monitor a specific VSAN on a TE port, you must track whether
the entire TE port is up or down.
E. Tracked ports and linked ports can be on different Cisco MDS switches.
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 60
Which statement is wrong about device aliases?
A. Device aliases are NOT VSAN-specific.
B. Device aliases can be used only for zoning.
C. By default, device aliases are distributed using Cisco Fabric Services.
D. The device aliases feature is included in the basic Cisco MDS license.
E. The device alias enhanced mode permits a single point of change if a mapping from a pWWN to a
device alias requires changing.
QUESTION NO: 61
When the DPVM feature is enabled on a switch, which of these will result?
A. A switch port can be a member of multiple VSANs.
B. The name server will automatically place the device performing the PLOGI into the correct VSAN.
C. The FC-ID remains the same for a port in a given VSAN.
D. A host or storage device connection preserves its VSAN membership when moved between two
different ports.
E. The pWWNs for the hosts are virtualized so that the storage will always see the same WWN.
QUESTION NO: 62
What is the purpose of NPIV?
A. to assign multiple FC-IDs to a single N_Port
B. to define and bind multiple virtual WWNs (VIs) to a single physical pWWN
C. to allow hosts to be members of different zones
D. to allow FICON virtual tape devices to be used in non-FICON VSANs
E. to create WWN logical redundancy
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Cisco 350-040 Exam

QUESTION NO: 63
In synchronous replication mode, when do I/Os to the remote array have to be acknowledged?
A. never
B. before the I/O is acknowledged locally to the host
C. after a pre-negotiated number of I/Os
D. after the replication is complete
E. when the array is idle
QUESTION NO: 64
Which two statements correctly describe FC-WA? (Choose two.)
A. SSM and 14+2 line cards are required.
B. Each target device must be on the same Cisco MDS as the SSM.
C. Each target can be on the same switch as the SSM, and must be inserted into SSM Fibre Channel
ports.
D. Write acceleration and compression is available with the SSM.
E. FC-WA can be bidirectional.
Answer: C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
Which two of these are used to reduce latency effects in SAN extension? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP-WA
B. FCIP compression
C. FC-WA
D. IPFC-WA
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 66
Which two cards can be used for SAN extension? (Choose two.)
A. IPS-6
B. 14+2
C. SVM
D. supervisor-2
E. 18+4
Answer: B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
On a 24-port line card, each of three ports in a port group has 4 GB dedicated to it. No traffic is present.
What bandwidth is available to the non-dedicated bandwidth ports in the port group?
A. 0
B. 0.8
C. 12.8
D. 3.8
E. 4.8
QUESTION NO: 68
Which three statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology? (Choose three.)
A. Fabric binding must be configured on all the switches.
B. Only one hop (traversing two switches) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be dedicated to FICON traffic.
D. Two-byte link addressing is mandatory.
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
E. Persistent FC-IDs must be enabled.
QUESTION NO: 69
Which of these statements correctly describes the desired number of BB credits for a long-distance link of
100 km?
A. More BB credits will cause excessive delay in handling the larger number of packets.
B. The fewer BB credits there are, the less likely that there will be packet loss in the network.
C. If there are fewer BB credits, the transmission pipe will not be full, so other applications will be able to
get the bandwidth they need.
D. The FC standard defines the number of credits on a long-distance link.
E. The correct number depends on frame size and link speed.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
FC-SP is configured between two Cisco MDS switches. What will happen if the Fibre Channel ports for
MDS1 and MDS2 have both been configured in fc-sp auto-passive mode?
A. the link will be brought down to the invalid attachment state
B. an FC-SP authentication protocol exchange will be performed
C. no FC-SP authentication protocol exchange will be performed (an SW_RJT will be sent)
D. no FC-SP authentication protocol exchange will be performed (no AUTH messages sent)
E. auto-passive mode is not supported
QUESTION NO: 71
You are connecting two existing independent fabrics in VSAN 2. Fabric 1 includes the domains 100 and
101. Fabric 2 includes the domains 100 and 101. All of the switches use the interface configuration below
for all ports used as ISLs. Fabric 1 has an active zone set in VSAN 2 with one
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
zone containing hosts Alpha, Charlie, and Delta, as well as storage devices EMC1 and Hitachi1. Fabric 2
has no active zone set.
What will happen when the fabrics attempt to merge?
MDS9506-B1#
interface fcX/Y
fcdomain rcf-reject vsan 2
switchport mode E
A. the merge will fail because Fabric 2 does not have an active zone set
B. the merge will fail because the domains on Fabric 1 and Fabric 2 overlap
C. the merge will fail because there is not an active zone set on Fabric 2
D. the merge will fail because the interfaces are not configured as trunk-enabled
E. the two fabrics should merge without an issue
QUESTION NO: 72
Which statement most accurately describes how domain ID allocation works on a Cisco MDS switch
configured for multiple VSANs?
A. An MDS switch configured with multiple VSANs must have unique domain IDs configured for each
VSAN that has been defined.
B. Domain IDs must be unique in a VSAN, but the same domain ID can be used for multiple VSANs on a
single switch.
C. VSANs allow duplicate domain IDs to be used in the same VSAN by pairs of switches connected via
ISLs.
D. VSANs have no impact on domain ID allocation. Each switch has one, and only one, domain ID no
matter how many VSANs are configured.
E. Domain IDs must be unique in a VSAN only if static domain IDs are used.
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 73
Which two of these must be unique on a given Cisco MDS switch across multiple VSANs? (Choose two.)
A. domain ID
B. port membership
C. VSAN name
D. allocated FC-ID
E. active zone set name
QUESTION NO: 74
You have enabled the auto creation PortChannel feature on a Cisco MDS 9509 with mixed Generation 1
and Generation 2 line cards. Which of these statements about your MDS switch is FALSE?
A. The maximum possible PortChannel that can be created is 128.
B. If you remove the last member from the automatically created PortChannel, the channel will be
automatically deleted.
C. The channel group mode is assumed to be on.
D. If you disableauto creation, all member ports will be removed from the automatically created
PortChannel.
QUESTION NO: 75
What is the correct command syntax to check currently registered features with Cisco Fabric Services on
a Cisco MDS 9509?
A. show cfs feature
B. show cfs application
C. show cfs peers
D. show cfs status
E. show cfs internal vsan database
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 76
Which of these statements correctly applies the bandwidth fairness feature of MDS Fibre Channel line
card modules?
A. banwidht fairness can only be configured per switch, not per module.
B. It is only supported on 48-port and 24-port 4-Gb/s Fibre Channel switching modules.
C. When enabling or disabling it, you must reload the module for the change to take effect.
D. It is available only if an enterprise license is on the switch.
E. You can only enable it for Generation 1 modules; for Generation 2 modules it is always enabled and
cannot be disabled.
QUESTION NO: 77
Given this trace output, which of these statements is correct?
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
A. BB credits are exchanged in the EFP frames.
B. The attaching HBA is configured to operate in FL mode.
C. This traffic is showing a Class 3 connection.
D. The FC-IDs are invalid for the type of frames depicted in the trace.
E. This traffic is showing the control frames used to bring up an ISL.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
You are working with a customer to configure FICON on a Cisco MDS switch. In order for the customer to
be able to modify the FICON port parameters for the MDS switch from the mainframe, which of these
must occur?
A. It is not possible to alter the MDS FICON port parameter from the mainframe. Mainframe users can
only view and monitor the MDS FICON port parameters. Changes are made via Cisco Fabric Manager,
Cisco Device Manager, or the command-line interface.
B. The customer must install specific software from Cisco on the mainframe that will permit the mainframe
users to send configuration commands to alter the FICON port parameters on the MDS switch.
C. The customer must configure the host port control command under the MDS FICON VSAN.
D. Mainframe users must be explicitly defined on the MDS switch with the role network-admin.
E. In the CUP mainframe device configuration, the HCD parameter must be set to control=yes.
QUESTION NO: 79
Which of these accurately describes FSPF passive interfaces?
A. The Cisco MDS will not send any FSPF frames outbound, even if FSPF frames are seen inbound
B. The Cisco MDS will only send FSPF frames outbound if FSFP frames are seen inbound.
C. The Cisco MDS will not send FCC squelch frames outbound even if FCC is enabled.
D. The FSPF light protocol will be used as opposed to standard FSPF, and must be configured on both
ends.
E. The Cisco MDS will not use the default FSPF hello and dead timers for the FSPF protocol; these
timers must be manually entered on both ends of the link.
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 80
Which of these statements about the Device Alias feature is true?
A. Device aliases are limited to specified VSANs.
B. You can use any zone member type to specify the end devices.
C. Device alias configuration is available to the FCNS, zone, fcping, traceroute, and IVR applications.
D. You can map multiple pWWNs to the same device alias.
E. You can map multiple device aliases to the same pWWN.
QUESTION NO: 81
What license package needs to be installed to enable read-only zones?
A. standard package
B. enterprise package
C. SAN extension over IP
D. no license required
E. Cisco Fabric Manager Server
QUESTION NO: 82
Which two of these statements about Fibre Channel timers are true? (Choose two.)
A. The D_S_TOV and E_D_TOV values cannot be globally changed unless all VSANs in the switch are
suspended.
B. You can configure the Fibre Channel timers on a per-VSAN basis.
C. You can perform a non-disruptive downgrade to any earlier version that does not support per
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Cisco 350-040 Exam

VSAN Fibre Channel timers.
D. The valid range for D_S_TOV is from 1,000 to 10,000 milliseconds.
QUESTION NO: 83
Which two statements correctly describe RCF? (Choose two.)
A. The domain ID list will be cleared.
B. All active sequences are not terminated.
C. All active sequences are terminated.
D. The source address is FF.FF.FA.
E. It is caused by a Build Fabric.
QUESTION NO: 84
Flow control for an FCIP Tape Acceleration read operation (during a restore) is performed by which of
these? (Note: Assume the host is local and the tape drive is remote.)
A. SCSI Transfer Ready command
B. TCP/IP selective acknowledgement
C. remote Cisco MDS switch
D. local Cisco MDS switch
QUESTION NO: 85
Which of these statements regarding IPFC address resolution is correct?
A. Address resolution deals with resolving IP addresses to pWWNs, and pWWNs to Fibre Channel
Port_IDs.
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
B. ARP provides a solution for resolving pWWNs to Fibre Channel Port_IDs.
C. FARP provides a solution for resolving IP addresses to pWWNs (MAC addresses).
D. No mechanism exists to resolve IP addresses directly to Fibre Channel Port_IDs.
QUESTION NO: 86
Which of these are purposes of the iSCSI login? (Choose three.)
A. to enable a TCP connection for iSCSI use
B. to determine QoS (Quality of Service) parameters
C. to negotiate session parameters
D. to mark a connection as belonging to an iSCSI session
E. to probe s Fibre Channel target for LUNs
QUESTION NO: 87
Which of these statements about iSCSI is correct?
A. It requires two TCP connections at all times.

B. It can support a single active session.
C. It requires two UDP connections at all times.
D. It requires a license to be enabled.
QUESTION NO: 88
An iSCSI TCP session can carry which of these? (Choose three.)
A. control messages
B. primitive signals
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
C. iSCSI PDUs
D. primitive sequences
E. SCSI commands
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
A FCIP PortChannel-based load-balancing high-availability configuration has which of these
characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. Each FCIP link must reside in a separate VSAN.
B. All FCIP links in the PortChannel must connect to the same two Cisco MDS switches across SAN
islands.
C. The FCIP links may connect to two different Cisco MDS switches across SAN islands.
D. The Fibre Channel traffic is load-balanced across the FCIP links in the PortChannel.
E. Gigabit Ethernet link-level redundancy ensures a transparent failover if one of the Gigabit Ethernet links
fails.
QUESTION NO: 90
An FSPF-based load-balancing high-availability non-port channel configuration has which two of these
characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. Each FCIP link is a separate ISL or EISL.
B. All FCIP links must connect to the same two Cisco MDS switches across SAN islands.
C. The FCIP links may connect to two different Cisco MDS switches across SAN islands.
D. The Fibre Channel trafficcannotbe load-balanced across the FCIP links.
E. Gigabit Ethernet link-level redundancy ensures a transparent failover if one of the Gigabit Ethernet links
fails.
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 91
Which three of these commands are required in order to enable an iSCSI initiator with the user name
iscsi-user1 and password pa55word to use local database authentication? (Choose three.)
A. iscsi authentication chap
B. aaa authentication iscsi default local
C. username iscsi-user password pa55word

D. username iscsi-user password pa55word iscsi
E. iscsi username iscsi-user password pa55word
QUESTION NO: 92
What does the following Cisco MDS configuration command accomplish?
aaa authentication iscsi default group iscsi-radius-group
A. places user iscsi in the group named iscsi-radius-group
B. enables users listed in the group iscsi-radius-group to use iSCSI
C. places iSCSI initiator iscsi-radius-group into an iSCSI domain
D. enables the MDS to use the AAA servers listed in iscsi-radius-group to authenticate iSCSI initiator
logins
E. Changes the iSCSI login default authentication from TACACS+ to RADIUS
QUESTION NO: 93
You have two Cisco MDS 9509 switches for a FICON connection. FCIP is used between the two switches.
On each switch is one 24-port module, two 32-port modules, and one 48-port module. What is the first
available FICON port number for the FCIP connection on the switches?
A. 136
B. 176
C. 212
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
D. 224
E. 352
QUESTION NO: 94
Both your mainframe and storage are connected to a Cisco MDS switch. If the mainframe cannot
configure a FICON connection to the storage, which three CLI commands will you need to use on the
MDS switch? (Choose three.)
A. host port control
B. port no block
C. host set-timestamp
D. host control switch
E. port no prohibit
QUESTION NO: 95
When implementing the Call Home feature of Cisco MDS switches, which three message format options
are available? (Choose three.)
A. short text
B. SMS
C. HTML
D. formatted text
E. plain text
F. XML
Answer: A,E,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96
When Call Home Configuration Distribution is used, which of these parameters are distributed?
38
Cisco 350-040 Exam
(Choose three.)
A. switch priority
B. sysContact name
C. site contact
D. phone number
E. email distribution list
Answer: C,D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
Which four of these are advantages remote AAA services provided via the RADIUS and TACACS+
protocols have over local AAA services? (Choose four.)
A. It is easier to manage user password lists for each switch in the fabric.
B. AAA servers are already deployed widely across enterprises and can be easily adopted.
C. The accounting log for all switches in the fabric can be centrally managed.
D. It is easier to manage user role mapping for each switch in the fabric.
E. AAA services provide remote management capabilities.
F. SNMP traps can be provided to network monitoring applications.
Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
You have a storage array connected to interface fc2/4 that has LUN masking enabled. You want to be able
to see all the LUNs configured behind this port using the Cisco MDS discover scsi-target local os linux lun
command. What command will give you the pWWN you need to use to configure the storage array so that
the show scsi-target lun command will display the LUNs?
A. show wwn switch
B. show interface fc2/4
C. show scsi-target internal driver
D. show flogi database interface fc 2/4
E. show scsi-target pwwn
Answer: E
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
Which of these can be derived from the output of the following command? (Choose two.)
switch# show islb initiator configured

iSCSI Node name is 10.1.1.2
Member of vsans: 10
Node WWN is 23:02:00:0c:85:90:e3:82
Load Balance MetriC. 100
Number of Initiator Targets: 1
Initiator Target: test-target
Port WWN 01:01:01:01:02:02:02:02
Primary PWWN VSAN 1
Zoning support is enabled
Trespass support is disabled
Revert to primary support is disabled
A. initiator may be a high-volume web server
B. the iSCSI initiators primary VSAN membership is VSAN 1
C. initiator is zoned in 10 VSANs
D. iSLB initiator will not support Trespass
E. the load balance metric is the default value
QUESTION NO: 100
Which statement about enabling fabric binding on Cisco MDS switches is correct?
40
Cisco 350-040 Exam
A. By default, fabric binding is enabled on VSAN 1.
B. The fabric binding feature is only used in FICON VSANs.
C. Fabric binding uses a set of sWWNs and domain IDs.
D. Fabric binding uses a pair of pWWNs and nWWNs.
E. Fabric binding requires activation on a switch-level basis.
QUESTION NO: 101
On which of these are the feature licenses on a Cisco MDS switch based?
A. the switch serial number
B. a valid license PAK number that came with the purchased license
C. the supervisor serial number
D. the version of Cisco MDS SAN-OS and the chassis serial number
E. the switch WWN
QUESTION NO: 102
What must be eliminated to make migration of storage with a HP-UX host non-disruptive?
A. Changes to the persistent FC-ID configuration on the host
B. Change the FC-ID of the host port nWWN
C. Change the FC-ID of the host port pWWN

D. Change the FC-ID of the target port pWWN
E. Change the FC-ID of the switch pWWN
QUESTION NO: 103
What must be eliminated to make migration of storage with a Windows 2003 server that has a redundant
connection to two separate fabrics non-disruptive?
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
A. change the FC-ID of the target ports
B. change the FC-ID assigned to the hosts initiators
C. change the FC-ID assigned to the storage target ports
D. change the assigned FC-ID to the switch WWN
E. the migration of storage with a Windows 2003 server is always non-disruptive
QUESTION NO: 104
In the configuration interface gigabitethernet 2/3.100, what does the 100 refer to?
A. EtherChannel number
B. logical number with no specific meaning
C. port channel number
D. VLAN number
E. VSAN number
QUESTION NO: 105
NASB eliminates which of these?
A. tape drives
B. media servers
C. master servers
D. all tape backup applications
QUESTION NO: 106
IP ACLs can be applied to all of these except which one?
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
A. a VSAN interface
B. a Gigabit Ethernet interface
C. only one member in a port channel group
D. the management interface
QUESTION NO: 107
Fibre Channel QoS configurations on a switch require which of these? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI flows between end devices need to be configured
B. QoS needs to be enabled on the MDS switches
C. zone sets need to be reactivated after QoS is enabled
D. FCC needs to be enabled on the Cisco MDS switches
E. QoS needs to be enabled on the FCIP interface, if present
QUESTION NO: 108
If an MDS switch has GigE interfaces, then which of these statements about the IP addressing of the
GigE and the mgmt0 interfaces is true?
A. Both the mgmt0 and GigE interfaces on the switch can be in the same subnet.
B. The mgmt0 and GigE interfaces need to be in different subnets and must have static routes configured
for proper functioning of the switch.
C. The mgmt0 and GigE interfaces need to be in different subnets.
D. Both the mgmt0 and GigE interfaces can be on the same subnet as long there exists an explicit route
between them.
QUESTION NO: 109
Which three of these must be configured before a new FCIP tunnel can be configured? (Choose
43
three.)
A. Fibre Channel interfaces

B. GigE interfaces
C. Mgmt 0 interfaces
D. an FCIP profile
E. an FCIP interface
Answer: B,D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 110
ip route 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.33 interface gigabitethernet 1/2
The above statement represents which of these routes?
A. a host route for the IP address 10.1.1.1 using interface GigE 1/2 as the default gateway
B. a network route for the IP address 10.1.1.1 using interface GigE 1/2 as the default gateway
C. a host route for the IP address 10.1.1.1 using interface GigE 1/2 and the IP address 172.16.2.33 as the
default gateway
D. a network route for the IP address 10.1.1.1 using interface GigE 1/2 and the IP address 172.16.2.33 as
the default gateway
QUESTION NO: 111
Cisco 350-040 Exam
44
Cisco 350-040 Exam
What is the host-bandwidth-to-storage-bandwidth oversubscription for this fabric?

A. 10:1
B. 1:10
C. 5:6
D. 1:12
E. 12:1
QUESTION NO: 112
AAA protocols (TACACS+, RADIUS) can be used to authenticate or authorize all of these except which
one?
A. Telnet and console access
B. SSH
C. RBAC
D. DH-CHAP for fabric security
E. CUP
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 113
Which three of these are valid Cisco MDS user login authentication methods? (Choose three.)
A. Active Directory
B. NIS
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
E. TACACS+ and Active Directory
Answer: C,D,E Explanation:
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 114
Which three of these are benefits of virtualizing storage arrays? (Choose three.)
A. the ability to seamlessly move one LUN to another LUN without impacting the host
B. the ability to seamlessly increase the size of a LUN without impacting the host
C. the ability to seamlessly reduce the size of a LUN without impacting the host
D. the ability to virtualize multiple storage arrays
E. the ability to seamlessly migrate applications between hosts with no disruption
QUESTION NO: 115
Storage virtualization can occur at which three levels? (Choose three.)
A. array
B. LUN
C. target
D. initiator
E. file system
Answer: A,B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 116
Which three of these are required in order to obtain long-term trending information? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Fabric Manager standalone
B. Cisco Fabric Manager Server
C. a Cisco Fabric Manager Server license exclusively on the seed switch
D. a Cisco Fabric Manager Server license on all switches
E. web GUI only
F. web GUI
Answer: B,D,F Explanation:
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 117
The Cisco Fabric Manager Server web GUI can do which two of these? (Choose two.)
A. manage switches
B. modify configurations on switches
C. poll switches for flow statistics and display performance data
D. display switch inventory information
Answer: C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 118
You have a fully redundant end-to-end SAN infrastructure. The infrastructure includes dual fabrics with
redundant supervisors. Which of these identifies other attributes the infrastructure has?
A. dual-attached storage target ports and dual-attached hosts with no multipathing software
B. dual-attached storage target ports and dual attached hosts with multipathing software
C. dual-attached storage target ports and single-HBA-attached hosts with multipathing software
D. port channels between the two fabrics, one storage target port, and dual-attached hosts with
multipathing software
QUESTION NO: 119
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
Given this output from a Cisco MDS 9513 switch, which is the correct combination of line cards (model
and order of no-poweroff) when adding new cards to the chassis?
A. 48-port, 16-port, 12-port
B. 16-port, 12-port, 48-port
C. 12-port, 16-port, 32-port
D. 12-port, 32-port, 16-port
E. 16-port, 32-port, 12-port
QUESTION NO: 120
For this switch, which line card or cards are allowed and, if more than one is allowed, in what order must
they be installed?
A. SSM
B. SSM, 14+2
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
C. 16-port line card, SSM
D. 32-port line card, SSM
E. SSM, 16-port line card
QUESTION NO: 121
Which is the system-defined CLI variable?
A. $(DATE)
B. $(TIMESTAMP)
C. $(HOSTNAME)
D. $(BOOTPATH)
E. $(MGMT0)
QUESTION NO: 122
What is used for in-band management of Cisco MDS switches?
A. FCIP
B. Fibre Channel
C. IP over Fibre Channel
D. VRRP
QUESTION NO: 123
Which protocol is supported on Cisco MDS GigE ports to allow the creation of Subinterfaces?
A. TCP
B. UDP
49
C. 802.1a
D. 802.3
E. 802.1q
QUESTION NO: 124
Which of these describe how Cisco Traffic Analyzer is used on a Cisco MDS switch? (Choose two.)
A. to monitor IP traffic
B. to monitor Fibre Channel host initiator traffic

C. to monitor Fibre Channel storage target port traffic
D. to analyze Fibre Channel network usage
E. to integrate with ntop and provide real-time traffic analysis
Answer: D,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 125
What is the best method of creating a highly available iSCSI infrastructure?
A. multipathing, VRRP, ISLB
B. Active-Active storage, dynamic port tracking, DPV
C. PortChannel, EtherChannel, iSCSI proxy mode
D. VSAN, EtherChannel
E. VRRP, dynamic port tracking
QUESTION NO: 126
Cisco 350-040 Exam
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
In order to achieve 13:1 oversubscription in this design, how many 1-GB hosts can be attached to the
fabric?
A. 12
B. 26
C. 39
D. 52
E. 104
QUESTION NO: 127
Which of these frames can be transmitted across an FCIP Link?
A. primitive signal
B. primitive sequence
C. Class 1 Fibre Channel frame
D. Extended Link Service frame
QUESTION NO: 128
A host has just been implicitly logged off a fabric. Which two of these are possible primitive sequences
that the host either transmitted or received? (Choose two.)
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
A. NOS
B. LRR
C. OLS
D. LR
E. LIP
QUESTION NO: 129
Your application is very sensitive to performance fluctuation, both in the read phase and in the write
phase. At the same time, you want to have some redundancy in your system to avoid data loss in case of
a disk failure. Which solution would you deploy?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 0+1
D. RAID 5
E. JBOD
QUESTION NO: 130
Which of these commands will allow you to capture a Cisco MDS SAN-OS Fibre Channel trace to a file?
A. fcanalyzer local capture bootflash:
B. fcanalyzer local write volatile:trace1
C. fcanalyzer local write bootflash:trace1
D. fctrace local
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 131
Which of these special characters is used to identify an ordered set from a data word in Fiber Channel
FC-1?
A. SOF
B. K28.5
C. CLS
D. D28.5
E. Idle
QUESTION NO: 132
All data has been migrated from an old storage array to a new one, and now the old one has been
disconnected from your SAN. The array was zoned with three hosts. What is the FC frame that those
three hosts will receive, which notifies them that the old storage array is no longer available?
A. BF
B. RSCN
C. ELS-SCR
D. RES
E. RNC
QUESTION NO: 133

Which of these steps are correct when operating in an interop mode 4 VSAN?
A. Assign domain IDs to the switches in the interop mode 4 VSAN that are in the 1-97 range.
B. Configure the VSAN WWN in the interop mode 4 VSAN to contain the OUI value 08:00:88.
C. Configure the first byte of the persistent FC-IDs with an offset of 97 with respect to the domain ID value
of the switch that the device is attached to.
D. Configure the switch WWN of each Cisco MDS in the interop mode 4 VSAN with the first three bytes
set to 10:00:88.
E. Configure persistent FC-IDs with the first byte in the 96-127 range.
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 134
You are planning to use DWDM to connect two data center SANs that are located 200 km apart from each
other. The Cisco MDS ports will be configured with 256 BB credits. These data centers will need
connectivity for disaster recovery purposes and will be using full Fibre Channel frame sizes of 2112 bytes.
Given these design parameters, can a default 2 Gb/s Cisco MDS TE_Port be used for connectivity, and
why or why not?
A. no, because the configured buffer-to-buffer credits are not sufficient at this distance with a speed of
2Gb/s per TE link and full Fibre Channel frame sizes
B. no, because the maximum speed that could be configured on these ISLs at this distance and with full
Fibre Channel frames is 1 Gb/s.
C. no, unless you have buffer-to-buffer spoofing enabled on the optical switch
D. yes, the number of credits configured on the card is enough to support full rate speed
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 135
Which of these statements best describes how VSANs and zones work together to enforce traffic
segregation in a SAN?
A. Zoning segregates traffic at the source and destination ports via ACLs.
B. Multicast traffic can span across zones and VSANs.
C. Traffic belonging to two different VSANs can never coexist on an ISL, but traffic belonging to two zones
can.
D. In a VSAN, all zones must be of the same kind (pWWN or Domain and Port).
E. Protocols like zoning, routing, and name services are centralized per switch, not per VSAN or per zone.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 136
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
Which of these iSCSI initiator configurations is supported on a Cisco MDS switch?
A. A mix of static and dynamic initiators can be used.
B. Either static or dynamic initiators can be used (not mixed).
C. A mix of static and dynamic initiators is allowed only if initiators all use only pWWNs.
D. The static and dynamic mix is allowed only if an iSCSI license is installed, since it is an added-value
feature.
E. The static and dynamic mix is allowed only if the ENTERPRISE_PKG license is installed, since it is an
added-value feature.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 137
Which Fibre Channel header field indicates the upper layer protocol carried inside?
A. F_CTL
B. R_CTL
C. DF_CTL
D. CS_CTL
E. TYPE
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 138
Which primitive sequence is the correct response when a port receives a Link Reset?
A. NOS
B. OLS
C. LR
D. LRR
E. R_RDY
Answer: D
Explanation:
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Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 139
Which well-known address are frames sent to when registering FC node capabilities?
A. FF.FF.FA
B. FF.FF.FB
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FD
E. FF.FF.FE
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 140
When you create an interop mode 4 VSAN, which OUI do you need to insert into the VSAN WWN for
proper configuration?
A. 88:00:88
B. 80:80:80
C. 00:80:88
D. 00:0d:ec
E. 08:00:88
F. 88:08:08
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 141
You can convert an automatically created port channel to a user-configured port channel by performing
which of these actions?
A. Save the current configuration to NVRAM.
B. Enter the command port-channel <channel group number> persistent while in configuration mode.
C. Enter the command channel-group <channel group number> on each of the interfaces in the
automatically created port channel while in interface configuration mode.
D. Enter the command port-channel <channel group number> persistent while in EXEC mode.
E. None; it is impossible to change from an automatically created port channel to a user-configured port
channel.
56
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 142
Which two of these statements are correct given the following Cisco MDS configuration information?
(Choose two.)
ivr fcdomain database autonomous-fabric-num 2 vsan 61
native-autonomous-fabric-num 3 native-vsan 61 domain 65

pwwn 10:00:00:e0:69:f0:46:14 fcid 0410001
A. Domain 065 will be used in AFID 3 VSAN 61 to represent devices from AFID 2 VSAN 61.
B. The real device with pWWN 10:00:00:0e:69:f0:46:14 resides in AFID 3 ,VSAN 61.
C. The real device with pWWN 10:00:00:0e:69:f0:46:14 resides in AFID 2 ,VSAN 61.
D. This switch must have IVR NAT enabled in configuration mode.
E. The domain ID where the real device with pWWN 10:00:00:0e:69:f0:46:14 resides can be determined
from these configuration statements.
QUESTION NO: 143
Cisco 350-040 Exam
57
Cisco 350-040 Exam
Which of these is the minimum combination of modules at each site that will support this solution,
including the requirement that non-disruptive upgrades be fully supported at both sites?
A. One16-port module, one 32-port module, and two 18/4 modules
B. Three16-port modules and two IPS-8 modules
C. Three16-port modules and one 18/4 module
D. Two32-port modules and two 18/4 modules
E. One16-port module, one 32-port module, and two 14/2 modules
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 144
You have an environment with a single Cisco MDS 9509 switch connected to five remote MDS 9509
switches via FCIP. What is the minimum number of 14/2 cards needed to avoid a loss of site-to-site
connectivity due to any single 14/2 card failing at any of the locations?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 12
D. 15
E. 20
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 145
What is the default domain ID allocation method for a Cisco MDS switch?
A. static
58
Cisco 350-040 Exam
B. persistent
C. principal
D. T11 mode
E. configured
F. preferred
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 146
Which two of these statements about PMTU are correct? (Choose two.)
A. PMTU is the minimum MTU in the IP network between the two endpoints of the FCIP link.
B. PMTU discovery, when enabled, prevents IP fragmentation by informing upper layers of the maximum
PDU size before fragmentation can begin.
C. PMTU discovery is accomplished by setting the Dont Fragment bit in the TCP header.
D. PMTU initially sends out a continuous stream of ICMP echoes of increasing size until it receives back
an ICMP message with the fragmentation required.
QUESTION NO: 147
Which two of these statements about TCP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. TCP is said to be connection-oriented.
B. TCP does not require acknowledgement of every single byte it sends.
C. If TCP misses an acknowledgement, it will immediately tear down the connection to make sure the
upper layer protocol is aware that it needs to retransmit the segment, on the assumption that it was lost in
transit.
D. The TCP sender will keep bytes sent in a buffer until an acknowledgement is received.
E. The TCP MSS includes both the header and maximum payload.
Answer: A,D Explanation:

59
Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 148
What is the grace period for using the FCIP feature without installing the FCIP license file?
A. 60 days from when the FCIP feature is first enabled
B. 120 days from when the FCIP feature is enabled, but the grace period countdown stops when the FCIP
feature is disabled
C. 60 days from when the FCIP feature is enabled, but the grace period countdown stops when the FCIP
feature is disabled
D. 60 days from when the first line card supporting FCIP is installed in the switch
E. 120 days from when the FCIP feature is first enabled, and the countdown continues even when the
FCIP feature is disabled
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 149
Which two of these options correctly describe the functions of IP access lists on a Cisco MDS switch?
(Choose two.)
A. ACLs are processed sequentially from top to bottom.
B. If you apply an ACL to an interface before creating the ACL, no packets will be dropped because the
ACL is empty.
C. ACLs can only be applied to the management, Gigabit Ethernet, and ISCSI interfaces.
D. You can add a port to a port channel even if an ACL has been configured on it, and it will be exported
to all the other members of the port channel.
E. An ACL contains an implicit deny all at the end, even if not explicitly configured with that statement.
F. When the ip access-group test command is entered in configuration mode under the mgmt 0
interface, it will apply the ACL to inbound packets only.
QUESTION NO: 150
Which RAID level provides dual parity?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
60
Cisco 350-040 Exam
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
QUESTION NO: 151
Which of these is true of RAID level 5?
A. Parity is kept on a separate disk.
B. It uses block-level striping.
C. It uses byte-level striping.
D. Disks cannot be striped.
E. Disks need to be mirrored.

QUESTION NO: 152
Which two of these are characteristics of the Cisco MDS Data Mobility Manager feature? (Choose two.)
A. non-disruptively inserts itself into the initiator-target path
B. allows you to migrate one 10-GB LUNs onto a 21-GB LUN
C. allows you to migrate one 15-GB LUN into two 10-GB LUNs
D. migrates a disk partition from one LUN to another
E. erases the source LUN after migration
QUESTION NO: 153
Cisco MDS supports Quality of Service based on which of these?
A. zones
61
Cisco 350-040 Exam
B. FLOGI
C. FCIP links
D. ISLs
E. N_Ports
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 154
What is the purpose of the FICON CUP?
A. communicate between an IBM mainframe and storage
B. provide out-of-band management of a switch by the mainframe
C. define storage peripheral devices to an IBM mainframe
D. provide management of the switch using the IBM System/390 I/O operations console
E. provide redundancy between multiple mainframe sysplexes
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 155
In which two of these ways can you configure multiple tunnels on a single Gigabit Ethernet interface on a
Cisco MDS 9000 IP Storage Services Module or Multiprotocol Service Module blade? (Choose two.)
A. use different VSANs
B. use different VLANs to use subinterfaces on the Gigabit Ethernet interface
C. use different TCP ports
D. configure VRRP on the Gigabit Ethernet interface
E. use different UDP ports
QUESTION NO: 156
In which two of these situations will a fabric zone merge failure occur between fabric A and fabric
62
Cisco 350-040 Exam
B? (Choose two.)
A. the zone in fabric A contains two members, but the same zone in Fabric B contain two different
members
B. a zone in fabric A contains two members and the same zone in Fabric B contains three members
C. the active zone set in fabric A has more zones than the active zone set in fabric B
D. a zone set name is different in the two fabrics
E. a zone name in fabric A is different from a zone name in fabric B, but the zone members in the two
zones are the same
QUESTION NO: 157
Which three of these statements identify the main differences between SONET and DWDM? (Choose
three.)
A. DWDM is based on FDM, where SONET is based on TDM.
B. DWDM is based on TDM, where SONET is based on FDM.
C. SONET has more overhead.
D. SONET is relatively cheaper than DWDM.
E. DWDM provides more bandwidth over a single fiber than SONET.
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 158

What will a port do when it is in Cisco MDS FC-SP auto-active functionality mode?
A. actively listen for, but not initiate, authentication
B. ignore FC-SP authentication if the remote end is in auto-passive mode
C. initiate FC-SP authentication after ESC if the other end is configured for auto-active mode
D. initiate FC-SP authentication with the TACACS server by default
E. use the default behavior of having no authentication
Answer: C
Explanation:
63
Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 159
There are three different roles on a Cisco MDS switch. Role1 belongs to engineering and allows the
commands show, debug, and configure. Role2 belongs to system administration and only allows show
commands; it denies configure and debug commands. Role3 belongs to development and allows access
only to VSAN 4. User1 belongs to Role1, Role2, and Role3. Which set of commands can User1 access?
Choose the best answer.
A. show commands in VSAN 4
B. show, configure, and debug commands in all VSANs
C. show, debug, and configure commands in VSAN 4
D. show commands in all VSANs
E. show, debug, and configure commands only for VSAN-related features, and exclusively in some
VSANs
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 160
For which two of these line cards is a software upgrade disruptive on all ports on the line card? (Choose
two.)
A. 16-port Generation 1 1/2 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
B. Multiprotocol Service Module (14/2)
C. Cisco MDS 9000 Storage Service Module running ISAPI, DMM, or FC write acceleration software
D. 24-port Generation 2 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
QUESTION NO: 161
64
Cisco 350-040 Exam
The fabric containing Switch A (MDS 9513) is merging with the fabric containing Switch B (MDS 9222i).
Which switch will become the principal switch, and why?
A. Switch A, because its switch WWN is lower
B. Switch B, because its switch WWN is higher
C. Switch B, because its switch priority is lower
D. Switch A, because its switch priority is higher

E. not enough information has been given
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 162
You have a host with an HBA that can only be an N_Port. The Cisco MDS port was configured to connect
to an F_Port. During the link initialization between the host and the MDS port, which three primitive
sequences were used in the link initialization between the host and the MDS port? (Choose three.)
A. Not Operational Sequence
B. Receiver Ready
C. Loop Initialization
D. Link Reset Response
E. Link Reset
Answer: A,D,E Explanation:
65
Cisco 350-040 Exam
QUESTION NO: 163
You connect an ISL link between Switch 1 and Switch 2. Which SW_ILS will be used to select the
principal switch?
A. ELP
B. ESC
C. EFP
D. RDI
E. DIA
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 164
Host_A, Host_B, and Target_1 are all connected to a Cisco MDS fabric. When Target_1 was
disconnected from the MDS switch, Host_A received an RSCN from the switch, but Host_B did not. What
is one possible reason why Host_B did not receive an RSCN, but Host_A did?
A. Host_B did not send an SCR to the name server
B. Host_B did not send an RSCN to the fabric controller
C. Target_1 did not send an RSCN to the name server
D. Host_B did not send an SCR to the fabric controller
E. targets receive RSCNs by default, but hosts do not
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 165
Which two of these statements about persistent FC-IDs for IVR are correct? (Choose two.)
A. IVR persistent FC-IDs must be configured using the port WWN, and device aliases are not permitted.
B. Using persistent FC-IDs for some of the IVR devices while using automatic allocation for others is not
supported.
C. You can configure two types of database entries for persistent IVR FC-IDs, virtual domain entries and
virtual FC-ID entries.
D. IVR NAT must be enabled for you to be able to use IVR persistent FC-IDs.
66
Cisco 350-040 Exam
Answer: C,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 166
In order to successfully enable Call Home, which one of these needs to be performed?
A. The enterprise license must be installed.
B. The SMARTnet contract number must be set to a valid state for your switch.
C. The snmp-server contact name value must be defined.
D. The callhome site-id value must be defined.
E. The snmp-server location value must be defined.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 167
A customer environment has two separate fabrics, each with one Cisco MDS 9513 switch that has two
VSANs configured on it (10 and 20). CFS is enabled for IVR on both fabrics. An IVR topology allows the
communication of devices in VSAN 10 and 20 in each fabric separately. The customer now connects the
fabrics with a trunking port channel that can only trunk VSAN 10.
What is the impact on the SAN design?
A. VSAN 20 merges.
B. The merge will result in a single active IVR zone set.

C. VSAN 10 will merge and the full zone set database will merge.
D. VSAN 20 is not carried on the port channel, as it is not allowed. Therefore, VSAN 20 will not merge and
this causes dual IVR active zone sets to remain in place.
E. The ISL will become isolate because the IVR topologies are different.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 168
Which two of these statements about the Cisco MDS SAN-OS FCIP Tape Acceleration feature are
67
Cisco 350-040 Exam
correct? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS SAN-OS provides Tape Write and Read Acceleration.
B. Cisco MDS SAN-OS provides increased performance of data delivery to the remote FCIP-connected
tape drives by using only compression over the WAN.
C. After receiving all the data, the host-side switch enabled for FCIP tape acceleration proxies the
successful completion of the SCSI WRITE operation.
D. FCIP Tape Acceleration can be used with multi-link port channels.
E. WRITE FILEMARKS operations are proxied by the host-side switch enabled for FCIP Tape
Acceleration.
Answer: A,C
68

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Free Preparation Cisco 350-040 Exam Questions and

Cisco 350-040 Exam

B. a LOGO ELS command is received

D. It defines the distance limitations for different types of lasers.

E. to detect zone merge failures

D. the per-host security association option in a crypto map

A. any Generation 2 line card module

E. the default zone policy changes to permit

E. switch(config)# ficon slot 3 assign port-numbers 0-15, 250-253

C. The configured domain ID in VSAN 237 will become 0 preferred.

A. The domain IDs are out of range for FICON.

C. Cisco MDS 9216 Multilayer Fabric Switch

Cisco 350-040 Exam

Cisco 350-040 Exam

A. It requires two TCP connections at all times.

C. username iscsi-user password pa55word

switch# show islb initiator configured

C. Change the FC-ID of the host port pWWN

A. Fibre Channel interfaces

What is the host-bandwidth-to-storage-bandwidth oversubscription for this fabric?

Answer: C,D Explanation:

B. to monitor Fibre Channel host initiator traffic

QUESTION NO: 133

native-autonomous-fabric-num 3 native-vsan 61 domain 65

Answer: A,D Explanation:

E. Disks need to be mirrored.

QUESTION NO: 158

D. Switch A, because its switch priority is higher

B. The merge will result in a single active IVR zone set.

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