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Answer key JEE Main - 2016 (Code-E)

Date : 03-04-16

Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics
Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans.
1
1
16
4
31 Bonus 46
1
61
3
76
2
2
2 or 4 17
4
32
3
47
2
62
4
77
4
3
3
18
1
33
4
48
2
63
1
78
3
4
4
19
3
34
1
49
2
64
2
79
4
5
1
20
3
35
4
50
3
65
4
80
2
6
4
21
1
36
3
51
4
66
4
81
1
Bonus
7
1
22
4
37
3
52
2
67
82
3
8
2
23
3
38
4
53
2
68
2
83
2
9
1
24
1
39
2
54
3
69
2
84
4
10
4
25
2
40
3
55
2
70
3
85
4
11
3
26
4
41
4
56
4
71
2
86
2
12
1
27
1
42
3
57
4
72
2
87
4
13
3
28
1
43
3
58
3
73
3
88
3
14
3
29
1
44
4
59
2
74
2
89
4
15
4
30 2 or 4 45
1
60
2
75
2
90
3

IIT JEE MAIN-2016 (CODE-E)

PART-A PHYSICS
1.

A student measures the time period of 100 oscillations of a simple pendulum four times. The data set is 90s,
91s, 95s and 92s. If the minimum division in the measuring clock is 1s, then the reported mean time should
be
(1) 92 2 s

(2) 92 5.0 s

(3) 92 1.8 s

(4) 92 3 s

(1)

2.

A particle of mass m is moving along the side of a square of side 'a', with a uniform speed v in the x-y plane
as shown in the figure :
y

ca
de
m
y

Ans.

a
D
C
v
a v
v a
v
A
B
a
R
45

Which of the following statements is false for the angular momentum L about the origin?
mv
2

Rk when the particle is moving from A to B.

ra
nt
A

(1) L

ak when the particle is moving from C to D.

(2) L mv
2

ak when the particle is moving from B to C.

(3) L mv
2

(4) L

mv
2

Rk when the particle is moving from D to A.

(2) or (4) or Both

3.

A point particle of mass m, moves along the uniformly rough track PQR as shown in the figure. The coefficient
of friction, between the particle and the rough track equals . The particle is released from rest, from the point
P and it comes to rest at a point R. The energies, lost by the ball, over the parts, PQ and QR, of the track,
are equal to each other, and no energy is lost when particle changes direction from PQ to QR. The values of
the coefficient of friction and the distance x(= QR), are, respectively close to

Vi
b

Ans.

h = 2m

30
Horizontal Surface

Ans.

(1) 0.2 and 6.5 m

(3)

(2) 0.2 and 3.5 m

R
Q

(3) 0.29 and 3.5 m

(4) 0.29 and 6.5 m

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[2]

4.

A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1m 1000 times. Assume
that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated. How much fat will he use up
considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up? Fat supplies 3.8 107 J of energy per kg which
is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate. Take : g = 9.8 ms2.
(1) 2.45 103 kg
(2) 6.45 103 kg
(3) 9.89 103 kg
(4) 12.89 103 kg

Ans.

(4)

5.

A roller is made by joining together two cones at their vertices O. It is kept on two rails AB and CD which are
placed asymmetrically (see figure), with its axis perpendicular to CD and its centre O at the centre of line

ca
de
m
y

joining AB and CD (see figure). It is given a light push so that it starts rolling with its centre O moving parallel
to CD in the direction shown. As it moves, the roller will tend to
D

6.

(2) Turn right

(4) Turn left and right alternately

A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height 'h' from the earth's surface (radius of earth R; h << R). The
minimum increase in its orbital velocity required, so that the satellite could escape from the earth's gravitational
field, is close to : (Neglect the effect of atmosphere).
(1)

ra
nt
A

Ans.

(1) Turn left

(3) Go straight
(1)

2gR

(2)

gR

(3)

gR / 2

(4)

gR ( 2 1)

Ans.

(4)

7.

A pendulum clock loses 12s a day if the temperature is 40C and gains 4s a day if the temperature is 20C.
The temperature at which the clock will show correct time, and the co-efficient of linear expansion () of the
metal of the pendulum shaft are respectively :
(2) 60C ; = 1.85 104 / C
(4) 55C ; = 1.85 102 / C

Vi
b

(1) 25C ; = 1.85 105 / C

(3) 30C ; = 1.85 103 / C
Ans.

(1)

8.

An ideal gas undergoes a quasi static, reversible process in which its molar heat capacity C remains
constant. If during this process the relation of pressure P and volume V is given by PVn = constant, then n in
given by (Here CP and CV are molar specific heat at constant pressure and constant volume, respectively) :
CP
(1) n C
V

Ans.

C CP
(2) n C C
V

CP C
(3) n C C
V

C CV
(4) n C C
P

(2)

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9.

'n' moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process A B as shown in the figure. The maximum temperature of
the gas during the process will be

P
2P0

A
B

P0
V0
9 P0 V0
4nR

(2)

3 P0 V0
2nR

(3)

9 P0 V0
2nR

(4)

9 P0 V0
nR

ca
de
m
y

(1)

2V0

Ans.

(1)

10.

A particle performs simple harmonic motion with amplitude A. Its speed is trebled at the instant that it is at
a distance

(1)

2A
from equilibrium position. The new amplitude of the motion is
3

A
41
3

(2) 3A

(3) A 3

(4)

7A
3

(4)

11.

A uniform string of length 20 m is suspended from a rigid support. A short wave pulse is introduced at its
lowest end. It starts moving up the string. The time taken to reach the support is (Take : g = 10 ms2)

ra
nt
A

Ans.

(1) 2 2 s

(2) 2s

(3) 2 2 s

(4)

2s

Ans.

(3)

12.

The region between two concentric spheres of radii 'a' and 'b', respectively (see figure), has volume charge
density

A
, where A is a constant and r is the distance from the centre. At the centre of the spheres is
r

Vi
b

a point charge Q. The value of A such that the electric field in the region between the spheres will be
constant, is

(1)
Ans.

Q
2a

a
Q

(2)

2(b 2 a 2 )

2Q

(3)

(a 2 b 2 )

(4)

2Q
a 2

(1)

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[4]

13.

A combination of capacitors is set up as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the electric field, due to a
point charge Q (having a charge equal to the sum of the charges on the 4 F and 9 F capacitors), at a point
distant 30 m from it, would equal

3F
4F

2F

9F
+

(1) 240 N/C

(2) 360 N/C

ca
de
m
y

8V
(3) 420 N/C

(4) 480 N/C

Ans.

(3)

14.

The temperature dependence of resistances of Cu and undoped Si in the temperature range 300-400 K, is
best described by
(1) Linear increase for Cu, linear increase for Si
(2) Linear increase for Cu, exponential increase for Si

15.

Two identical wires A and B, each of length '', carry the same current I. Wire A is bent into a circle of radius
R and wire B is bent to form a square of side 'a'. If BA and BB are the values of magnetic field at the centre of

ra
nt
A

Ans.

(3) Linear increase for Cu, exponential decrease for Si

(4) Linear decrease for Cu, linear decrease for Si
(3)

BA
the circle and square respectively, then the ratio B is
B
2
(1)
8

(2)

2
(3)
16

16 2

(4)

(4)

16.

Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A and B are given below :

Vi
b

Ans.

Ans.

8 2

(A)

(B)

These materials are used to make magnets for electric generators, transformer core and electromagnet
core. Then it is proper to use
(1) A for electric generators and transformers
(2) A for electromagnets and B for electric generators
(3) A for transformers and B for electric generators
(4) B for electromagnets and transformers
(4)

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17.

An arc lamp requires a direct current of 10 A at 80 V to function. If it is connected to a 220 V (rms), 50 Hz AC

supply, the series inductor needed for it to work is close to
(1) 80 H
(2) 0.08 H
(3) 0.044 H

(4) 0.065 H

Ans.

(4)

18.

Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per quantum in the order of increasing energy :
A : Blue light
B : Yellow light
C : X-ray
D : Radiowave

Ans.

(1) D, B, A, C
(1)

(2) A, B, D, C

(3) C, A, B, D

19.

An observer looks at a distance tree of height 10 m with a telescope of magnifying power of 20. To the

ca
de
m
y

observer the tree appears :

(1) 10 times taller
(2) 10 times nearer

(4) B, A, D, C

(3) 20 times taller

(4) 20 times nearer

Ans.

(3)

20.

The box of a pin hole camera, of length L, has a hole of radius a. It is assumed that when the hole is
illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wavelength the spread of the spot (obtained on the opposite wall of
the camera) is the sum of its geometrical spread and the spread due to diffraction. The spot would then have
its minimum size (say bmin) when :
(1) a

2 2
2
and bmin

L
L

2 2
(2) a L and bmin

(4) a

ra
nt
A

(3) a L and bmin 4L

2
and bmin 4L
L

Ans.

(3)

21.

Radiation of wavelength , is incident on a photocell. The fastest emitted electron has speed v. If the wavelength
is changed to

3
, the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be
4

1/ 2

1/ 2

4
(2) v
3

1/ 2

4
(3) v
3

1/ 2

3
(4) v
4

Vi
b

4
(1) v
3

Ans.

(1)

22.

Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40 minutes, respectively. Initially, the
samples have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed numbers of A and B nuclei will
be
(1) 1 : 16
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 5 : 4
(4)

Ans.

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[6]

23.

If a, b, c, d are inputs to a gate and x is its output, then, as per the following time graph, the gate is
d
c
b
a

Ans.

(1) NOT
(3)

(2) AND

24.

Choose the correct statement

ca
de
m
y

(3) OR

(4) NAND

(1) In amplitude modulation the amplitude of the high frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to
the amplitude of the audio signal.

25.

Ans.

A screw gauge with a pitch of 0.5 mm and a circular scale with 50 divisions is used to measure the thickness
of a thin sheet of Aluminium. Before starting the measurement, it is found that when the two jaws of the screw
gauge are brought in contact, the 45th division coincides with the main scale line and that the zero of the
main scale is barely visible. What is the thickness of the sheet if the main scale reading is 0.5 mm and the
25th division coincides with the main scale line?
(1) 0.75 mm
(2) 0.80 mm
(3) 0.70 mm
(4) 0.50 mm
(2)
A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f is air. The pipe is dipped vertically in water so that
half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now

Vi
b

26.

ra
nt
A

Ans.

(2) In amplitude modulation the frequency of the high frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to
the amplitude of the audio signal.
(3) In frequency modulation the amplitude of the high frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to
the amplitude of the audio signal.
(4) In frequency modulation the amplitude of the high frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion to
the frequency of the audio signal.
(1)

(1)

f
2

(2)

3f
4

(3) 2f

(4) f

Ans.

(4)

27.

A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 100 gives a full scale deflection, when a current of 1 mA is
passed through it. The value of the resistance, which can convert this galvanometer into ammeter giving a full
scale deflection for a current of 10A, is
(1) 0.01
(2) 2
(3) 0.1
(4) 3
(1)

Ans.

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[7]

28.

In an experiment for determination of refractive index of glass of a prism by i , plot, it was found that a ray
incident at angle 35, suffers a deviation of 40 and that it emerges at angle 79. In that case which of the
following is closest to the maximum possible value of the refractive index?

Ans.

(1) 1.5
(1)

(2) 1.6

29.

Identify the semiconductor devices whose characteristics are given below, in the order (a), (b), (c), (d) :

(3) 1.7

(a)

30.

Illuminated
(c)

Intensity
of light

(d)

(1) Simple diode, Zener diode, Solar cell, Light dependent resistance
(2) Zener diode, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance, Solar cell
(3) Solar cell, Light dependent resistance, Zener diode, Simple diode
(4) Zener diode, Solar cell, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance
(1)

For a common emitter configuration, if and have their usual meanings, the incorrect relationship between
and is
(1)

1 1
1

(2)

(3)

(4)

1 2

(2) or (4) or Both

Vi
b

Ans.

ra
nt
A

Ans.

(b)

Resistance

I
dark

ca
de
m
y

(4) 1.8

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[8]

PART-B CHEMISTRY
31.

At 300 K and 1 atm, 15 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon requires 375 mL air containing 20% O2 by volume for
complete combustion. After combustion the gases occupy 330 mL. Assuming that the water formed is in
liquid form and the volumes were measured at the same temperature and pressure, the formula of the
hydrocarbon is :
(1) C3H6

(2) C3H8

(3) C4H8

(4) C4H10

Ans.

Bonus

32.

Two closed bulbs of equal volume (V) containing an ideal gas initially at pressure pi and temperature T1 are
connected through a narrow tube of negligible volume as shown in the figure below. The temperature of one

T1

T1
pi,V

T1T2
(1) pi T T
1 2

ca
de
m
y

of the bulbs is then raised to T2. The final pressure pf is :

T1

pi,V

T1
(2) 2pi T T
2
1

T2

pf ,V

T2
(3) 2pi T T
2
1

pf ,V

T1T2
(4) 2pi T T
2
1

(3)

33.

A stream of electrons from a heated filament was passed between two charged plates kept at a potential
difference V esu. If e and m are charge and mass of an electron, respectively, then the value of h/ (where
is wavelength associated with electron wave) is given by :

ra
nt
A

Ans.

(1) meV

(2) 2meV

(3)

meV

Ans.

(4)

34.

The species in which the N atom is in a state of sp hybridization is :

(1) NO 2

(2) NO 2

(3) NO3

(4)

2meV

(4) NO2

(1)

35.

The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are 393.5 and 283.5 kJ mol1, respectively.
The heat of formation (in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is :
(1) 110.5
(2) 676.5
(3) 676.5
(4) 110.5
(4)

Vi
b

Ans.

Ans.
36.

Ans.

18 g glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g water. The vapor pressure of water (in torr) for this aqueous
solution is :
(1) 7.6
(2) 76.0
(3) 752.4
(4) 759.0
(3)

37.

The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction A + B

Ans.

four species were 1 M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L1) will be :
(1) 0.182
(2) 0.818
(3) 1.818
(4) 1.182
(3)

C + D is 100. If the initial concentration of all the

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[9]

38.

Galvanization is applying a coating of :

Ans.

(1) Pb
(4)

39.

Decomposition of H2O2 follows a first order reaction. In fifty minutes the concentration of H2O2 decreases

(2) Cr

(3) Cu

(4) Zn

from 0.5 to 0.125 M in one such decomposition. When the concentration of H2O2 reaches 0.05 M, the rate of
formation of O2 will be :
(1) 6.93 102 mol min1
(3) 2.66 L min1 at STP

(2) 6.93 104 mol min1

(4) 1.34 102 mol min1

(2)

40.

For a linear plot of log (x/m) versus log p in a Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which of the following statements is correct ? (k and n are constants)

ca
de
m
y

Ans.

(1) Both k and 1/n appear in the slope term.

(2) 1/n appears as the intercept.
(3) Only 1/n appears as the slope.
(4) log (1/n) appears as the intercept.
Ans.

(3)

41.

Which of the following atoms has the highest first ionization energy ?
(1) Rb
(2) Na
(3) K
(4)

42.
Ans.
43.

Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth floatation method ?
(1) Magnetite
(2) Siderite
(3) Galena
(4) Malachite
(3)
Which one of the following statements about water is FALSE ?
(1) Water is oxidized to oxygen during photosynthesis.
(2) Water can act both as an acid and as a base.
(3) There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen bonding in the condensed phase.
(4) Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal water.
(3)

Vi
b

Ans.
44.

(4) Sc

ra
nt
A

Ans.

The main oxides formed on combustion of Li, Na and K in excess of air are, respectively :
(1) Li2O, Na2O and KO2
(3) Li2O2, Na2O2 and KO2

(2) LiO2, Na2O2 and K2O

(4) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2

Ans.

(4)

45.

The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated nitric acid respectively, produces :
(1) N2O and NO2
(2) NO2 and NO
(3) NO and N2O
(4) NO2 and N2O

Ans.

(1)

46.

The pair in which phosphorous atoms have a formal oxidation state of +3 is :

(1) Orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous acids.
(2) Pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids.
(3) Orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids.
(4) Pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids.
(1)

Ans.

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47.

Which of the following compounds is metallic and ferromagnetic ?

(1) TiO2
(2) CrO2
(3) VO2

Ans.

(2)

48.

The pair having the same magnetic moment is :

[At. No. : Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27]
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [CoCl4]2
(3) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)6]2+

(4) MnO2

(2) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(H2O)6]2+

(4) [CoCl4]2 and [Fe(H2O)6]2+

(2)

49.

Which one of the following complexes shows optical isomerism ?

(1) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(2) cis[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(3) trans[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl

ca
de
m
y

Ans.

(4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl

Ans.

(en = ethylenediamine)
(2)

50.

The concentration of fluoride, lead, nitrate and iron in a water sample from an underground lake was found to

Ans.

be 1000 ppb, 40 ppb, 100 ppm and 0.2 ppm, respectively. This water is unsuitable for drinking due to high
concentration of :
(1) Fluoride
(2) Lead
(3) Nitrate
(4) Iron
(3)

Ans.

The distillation technique most suited for separating glycerol from spent-lye in the soap industry is :
(1) Simple distillation
(2) Fractional distillation
(3) Steam distillation
(4) Distillation under reduced pressure
(4)

52.

The product of the reaction given below is :

ra
nt
A

51.

1. NBS/h
X
2. H2O/K2CO3

Vi
b

OH

(1)

(2)

Ans.

(2)

53.

The absolute configuration of

CO2H

(3)

(4)

(3) (2S, 3S)

(4) (2R, 3R)

CO2H
H

OH

Cl
CH3

Ans.

is :
(1) (2R, 3S)
(2)

(2) (2S, 3R)

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54.

2-chloro-2methylpentane on reaction with sodium methoxide in methanol yields :

CH3
(a) C2H5CH2C OCH3

(b) C2H5CH2C = CH2

CH3

CH3

Ans.
56.

Ans.
57.

Ans.
58.

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (c) only

(4) (a) and (b)

The reaction of propene with HOCl (Cl2 + H2O) proceeds through the intermediate :
(1) CH3 CH+ CH2 OH
(2) CH3 CH+ CH2 Cl
(3) CH3 CH(OH) CH2+
(4) CH3 CHCl CH2+
(2)

ca
de
m
y

55.

CH3

In the Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction, the number of moles of NaOH and Br2 used per mole of
amine produced are :
(1) One mole of NaOH and one mole of Br2.
(2) Four moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2.
(3) Two moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2.
(4) Four moles of NaOH and one mole of Br2.
(4)
Which of the following statements about low density polythene is FALSE ?
(1) Its synthesis requires high pressure.
(2) It is a poor conductor of electricity.
(3) Its synthesis requires dioxygen or a peroxide initiator as a catalyst.
(4) It is used in the manufacture of buckets, dust-bins etc.
(4)

ra
nt
A

Ans.

(1) All of these

(3)

(c) C2H5CH = C CH3

Thiol group is present in :

(1) Cytosine
(2) Cystine
(3)

59.

Which of the following is an anionic detergent ?

(1) Sodium stearate

Vi
b

Ans.

(3) Cysteine

(4) Methionine

(2) Sodium lauryl sulphate

Ans.

(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

(2)

(4) Glyceryl oleate

60.

The hottest region of Bunsen flame shown in the figure below is :

region 4
region 3
region 2
region 1

Ans.

(1) region 1
(2)

(2) region 2

(3) region 3

(4) region 4

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[12]

PART-C MATHEMATICS
1
If f(x) + 2f = 3x, x 0, and S = {x R : f(x) = f(x)} ; then S :
x

(1) is an empty set

(3) contains exactly two elements
Ans.

(3)

62.

A value of for which

(1)

(2) contains exactly one element

(4) contains more than two elements

2 3i sin
is purely imaginary, is :
1 2i sin

(2)

ca
de
m
y

61.

(3) sin1 4

Ans.

(4)

63.

The sum of all real values of x satisfying the equation

( x 2 5x 5) x

64.

Ans.

(1) 3
(1)

= 1 is :
(2) 4

Ans.
66.

Ans.

(3) 6

(4) 5

5a b
If A = 3
and A adj A = A AT , then 5a + b is equal to :
2

(1) 1
(2)

(2) 5

The system of linear equations

x + y z = 0
x y z = 0
x + y z = 0
has a non-trivial solution for :
(1) infinitely many values of .
(3) exactly two values of
(4)

Vi
b

65.

4 x 60

ra
nt
A

Ans.

(4) sin1

(3) 4

(4) 13

(2) exactly one value of

(4) exactly three values of

If all the words (with or without meaning) having five letters, formed using the letters of the word SMALL and
arranged as in a dictionary ; then the position of the word SMALL is :
(1) 46th
(2) 59th
(3) 52nd
(4) 58th
(4)
n

67.

Ans.

2 4
If the number of terms in the expansion of 1 2 , x 0, is 28, then the sum of the coefficients of all
x x

the terms in this expansion, is :

(1) 64
(2) 2187
Bonus

(3) 243

(4) 729

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[13]

68.

If the 2nd, 5th and 9th terms of a non-constant A.P. are in G.P., then the common ratio of this G.P., is :
(1)

8
5

(2)

4
3

(3) 1

Ans.

(2)

69.

If the sum of the first ten terms of the series

2

(4)

7
4

3
2
1
4
16
1 + 2 + 3 + 42 + 4 + .........., is
m, then m is equal to :
5
5
5
5
5

70.

(2) 101

Let p = lim 1 tan 2 x

x 0
(1) 2

1
2x

(3) 100

(4) 99

ca
de
m
y

Ans.

(1) 102
(2)

then log p is equal to :

(2) 1

(3)

1
2

(4)

Ans.

(3)

71.

For x R, f(x) = |log2 sinx| and g(x) = f(f(x)), then :

(1) g is not differentiable at x = 0
(2) g(0) = cos(log2)

72.

1 sin x

Consider : f(x) = tan1 1 sin x

(3) , 0
6

(4) , 0
4

Vi
b

(2)

, x 0, 2 . A normal to y = f(x) at x = 6 also passes through the point:

2
(2) 0,
3

(1) (0, 0)
Ans.

(4) g is differentiable at x = 0 and g(0) = sin(log2)

ra
nt
A

Ans.

(3) g(0) = cos(log2)

(2)

1
4

73.

Ans.

A wire of length 2 units is cut into two parts which are bent respectively to form a square of side = x units and
a circle of radius = r units. If the sum of the areas of the square and the circle so formed is minimum, then:
(1) 2x = ( + 4)r
(2) (4 )x = r
(3) x = 2r
(4) 2x = r
(3)

74.

The integral

(1)

Ans.

2x12 5 x 9

(x

x 3 1)3

x5
+C
(x x 3 1)2
5

(2)

dx is equal to :

x10
2( x 5 x 3 1)2

(3)

x5
2( x 5 x 3 1)2

(4)

x10
2( x 5 x 3 1)2

where C is an arbitrary constant

(2)

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[14]

1/ n

75.

lim (n 1)(n 2)......3n

n
n 2n

(1)

18
e

(2)

is equal to :

27
e

(3)

(4) 3 log3 2

e2

Ans.

(2)

76.

The area (in sq. units) of the region {(x, y) : y2 2x and x2 + y2 4x, x 0, y 0} is :
(2)

8
3

(3)

4 2
3

(4)

2 2

2
3

ca
de
m
y

4
3

(1)
Ans.

(2)

77.

If a curve y = f(x) passes through the point (1, 1) and satisfies the differential equation, y (1 + xy) dx = xdy,
1
then f is equal to :
2

(1)

2
5

(2)

4
5

(3)

2
5

(4)

4
5

(4)

78.

Two sides of a rhombus are along the lines, x y + 1 = 0 and 7x y 5 = 0. If its diagonals intersect at
(1, 2), then which one of the following is a vertex of this rhombus ?

ra
nt
A

Ans.

(1) (3, 9)

(2) (3, 8)

1 8
(3) ,
3 3

10 7
,
(4)
3 3

Ans.

(3)

79.

The centres of those circles which touch the circle, x2 y2 8x 8y 4 = 0, externally and also touch the
x-axis, lie on :

Vi
b

(1) a circle
(3) a hyperbola

(2) an ellipse which is not a circle

(4) a parabola

Ans.

(4)

80.

If one of the diameters of the circle, given by the equation, x2 + y2 4x + 6y 12 = 0, is a chord of a circle
S, whose centre is at (3, 2), then the radius of S is :
(1) 5 2

(2) 5 3

(3) 5

(4) 10

Ans.

(2)

81.

Let P be the point on the parabola, y2 = 8x which is at a minimum distance from the centre C of the circle,
x2 + (y + 6)2 = 1. Then the equation of the circle, passing through C and having its centre at P is :
(1) x2 + y2 4x + 8y + 12 = 0
(2) x2 + y2 x + 4y 12 = 0
(3) x2 + y2

Ans.

x
+ 2y 24 = 0
4

(4) x2 + y2 4x + 9y + 18 = 0

(1)

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[15]

82.

The eccentricity of the hyperbola whose length of the latus rectum is equal to 8 and the length of its conjugate
axis is equal to half of the distance between its foci, is :
(1)

4
3

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans.

(3)

83.

The distance of the point (1, 5, 9) from the plane x y + z = 5 measured along the line x = y = z is :
10

(1) 3 10

(2) 10 3

(3)

(4)

(2)

84.

If the line,

Ans.

(1) 26
(4)

85.

Let a , b and c be three unit vectors such that a b c =

ca
de
m
y

Ans.

z4
x3
y2
=
=
lies in the plane, x + my z = 9, then 2 + m2 is equal to :
3
2
1

(2) 18

(3) 5

(4) 2

3
4

ra
nt
A

then the angle between a and b is :

(1)

20
3

(2)

(3)

2
3

3
b c . If b is not parallel to c ,
2

(4)

5
6

(4)

86.

If the standard deviation of the numbers 2, 3, a and 11 is 3.5, then which of the following is true?
(1) 3a2 26a + 55 = 0
(2) 3a2 32a + 84 = 0
(3) 3a2 34a + 91 = 0
(4) 3a2 23a + 44 = 0

Ans.

(2)

87.

Let two fair six-faced dice A and B be thrown simultaneously. If E1 is the event that die A shows up four, E2
is the event that die B shows up two and E3 is the event that the sum of numbers on both dice is odd, then

Vi
b

Ans.

Ans.
88.

Ans.

which of the following statements is NOT true ?

(1) E1 and E2 are independent
(3) E1 and E3 are independent
(4)

(2) E2 and E3 are independent

(4) E1, E2 and E3 are independent

If 0 x < 2, then the number of real values of x, which satisfy the equation
cosx + cos2x + cos3x + cos4x = 0, is :
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9
(3)

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[16]

89.

A man is walking towards a vertical pillar in a straight path, at a uniform speed. At a certain point A on the
path, he observes that the angle of elevation of the top of the pillar is 30. After walking for 10 minutes from
A in the same direction, at a point B, he observes that the angle of elevation of the top of the pillar is 60.
Then the time taken (in minutes) by him, from B to reach the pillar , is :
(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 20
(4)

90.

The Boolean Expression (p ~ q) q (~p q) is equivalent to :

(1) ~ p q
(2) p q
(3) p q

Ans.

(3)

(4) 5

(4) p ~ q

Vi
b

ra
nt
A

ca
de
m
y

Ans.

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[17]