Section 1

SubSection I-A : Number of questions = 10

Note: Questions 1 to 10 carry one mark each.
Directions for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions independently of each other.
1.

2.

3
3
3
3
If x = 16 + 17 + 18 + 19 , then x divided by 70 leaves a remainder of
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 69
(4) 35

A chemical plant has four tanks (A, B, C and D), each containing 1000 litres of a chemical. The
chemical is being pumped from one tank to anther as follows.
From A to B @ 20 litres/minute
From C to A @ 90 litres/minute
From A to D @ 10 litres/minute
From C to D @ 50 litres/minute
From B to C @ 100 litres/minute
From D to B @ 110 litres/minute
Which tank gets emptied first, and how long does it take (in minutes) to get empty after pumping
starts?
(1) A, 16.66
(2) C, 20
(3) D, 20
(4) D, 25

3.

Two identical circles intersect so that their centers, and the points at which they intersect, form a
square of side 1 cm. The area in sq. cm of the portion that is common to the two circles is
(1)

4.

(2)

1
2

(3)

(4)

2 1

A jogging park has two identical circular tracks touching each other, and a rectangular track enclosing the two circles. The edges of the rectangles are tangential to the circles. Two friends, A and B,
start jogging simultaneously form the point where one of the circular tracks touches the smaller side
of the rectangular track. A jogs along the rectangular track, while B jogs along the two circular
tracks in a figure of eight. Approximately, how much faster than A does B have to run, so that they
take the same time to return to their starting point?
(1) 3.88%
(2) 4.22%
(3) 4.44%
(4) 4.72%

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5.

In a chess competition involving some boys and girls of a school, every student had to play exactly
one game with every other student. It was found that in 45 games both the players were girls, and in
190 games both were boys. The number of games in which one player was a boy and the other was
a girl is
(1) 200
(2) 216
(3) 235
(4) 256

Directions for questions 6 and 7: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Ram and Shyam run a race between points A and B, 5 km apart, Ram starts at 9 a.m from A at a speed
of 5 km/hr, reaches B, and returns to A at the same speed, Shyam starts at 9:45 a.m. from A at a speed
of 10 km/hr, reaches B and comes back to A at the same speed.
6.

7.

At what time do Ram and Shyam first meet each other?

(1) 10 a.m
(2) 10:10 a.m
(3) 10:20 a.m

(4) 10:30 a.m.

At what time does Shyam over take Ram?

(1) 10:20 a.m
(2) 10:30 a.m

(4) 10:50 a.m

(3) 10:40 a.m

Directions for questions 8 to 10: Answer the questions independently of each other.

8.

If R =

3065 2965
3064 + 2964

(1) 0 < R 0.1

, then
(2) 0.1 < R 0.5

(3) 0.5 < R 1.0

(4) R > 1.0

9.

What is the distance in cm between two parallel chords of lengths 32 cm and 24 cm in a circle of
radius 20 cm?
(1) 1 or 7
(2) 2 or 14
(3) 3 or 21
(4) 4 or 28

10.

For which value of k does the following pair of equations yield a unique solution of x such that the
solution is positive?

x2 y2
2

=0
2

(x k) + y = 1
(1) 2

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(2) 0

(3)

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(4) 2

CAT PAPER 2005

SubSection I-B : Number of questions = 20

Note: Questions 11 to 30 carry two marks each.
11.

Let n! = 1 2 3 n for integer n 1. If p = 1! + (2 2!) + (3 3!) + + (10 10!), then

p + 2 when divided by 11! Leaves a remainder of
(1) 10
(2) 0
(3) 7
(4) 1

12.

Consider a triangle drawn on the X-Y plane with its three vertices of (41, 0), (0, 41) and (0, 0), each
vertex being represented by its (X, Y) coordinates. The number of points with integer coordinates
inside the triangle (excluding all the points on the boundary) is
(1) 780
(2) 800
(3) 820
(4) 741

13.

The digits of a three-digit number A are written in the reverse order to form another three-digit
number B. If B > A and B-A is perfectly divisible by 7, then which of the following is necessarily true?
(1) 100 < A < 299
(2) 106 < A < 305
(3) 112 < A < 311
(4) 118< A < 317

14.

If a1 = 1 and an+1 3an + 2 = 4n for every positive integer n, then a100 equals
(1) 399 200

(2) 399 + 200

(3) 3100 200

(4) 3100 + 200

15.

Let S be the set of five-digit numbers formed by digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, using each digit exactly once
such that exactly two odd position are occupied by odd digits. What is the sum of the digits in the
rightmost position of the numbers in S?
(1) 228
(2) 216
(3) 294
(4) 192

16.

The rightmost non-zero digits of the number 302720 is

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 7

17.

Four points A, B, C and D lie on a straight line in the X-Y plane, such that AB = BC = CD, and the
length of AB is 1 metre. An ant at A wants to reach a sugar particle at D. But there are insect
repellents kept at points B and C. the ant would not go within one metre of any insect repellent. The
minimum distance in metres the ant must traverse to reach the sugar particle is
(1) 3 2

18.

(4) 9

(2) 1 +

(3)

4
3

(4) 5

x
y
If x y and y > 1, then the value of the expression logx + logy can never be
x
y
(1) 1

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(2) 0.5

(3) 0

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19.

For a positive integer n, let pn denote the product of the digits of n and sn denote the sum of the
digits of n. The number of integers between 10 and 1000 for which pn + sn = n is
(1) 81
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) 9

20.

Rectangular tiles each of size 70 cm by 30 cm must be laid horizontally on a rectangular floor of

size 110 cm by 130 cm, such that the tiles do not overlap. A tile can be placed in any orientation so
long as its edges are parallel to the edges of the floor. No tile should overshoot any edge of the floor.
The maximum number of tiles that can be accommodated on the floor is
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

21.

In the X-Y plane, the area of the region bounded by the graph x + y + x y = 4 is
(1) 8

22.

(2) 12

(3) 16

(4) 20

In the following figure, the diameter of the circle is 3 cm. AB and MN are two diameters such that
MN is perpendicular to AB. In addition, CG is perpendicular to AB such that AE:EB = 1:2, and DF
is perpendicular to MN such that NL:LM = 1:2. The length of DH in cm is

M
C

A
D

B
F

G
N

(1) 2 2 1

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(2)

(2

2 1
2

(3)

(3

2 1
2

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(4)

(2

2 1
3

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23.

Consider the triangle ABC shown in the following figure where BC = 12 cm, DB = 9 cm, CD = 6 cm
and BCD = BAC

D
9
6
B

12

What is the ratio of the perimeter of ADC to that of the BDC?

(1)

24.

7
9

(2)

8
9

(3)

6
9

(4)

5
9

P, Q, S and R are points on the circumference of a circle of radius r, such that PQR is an equilateral
triangle and PS is a diameter of the circle. What is the perimeter of the quadrilateral PQSR?

(1) 2r 1 + 3

(2) 2r 2 + 3

(3) r 1 + 5

(4) 2r + 3

25.

Let S be a set of positive integers such that every element n of S satisfies the conditions
I. 1000 n 1200
II. every digit in n is odd
Then how many elements of S are divisible by 3?
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 12

26.

Let x = 4 + 4 4 + 4 ...to inf inity . Then x equals

(1) 3

27.

13 1

(2)
2

13 + 1
(3) 2

(4) 13

Let g(x) be a function such that g(x + 1) + g(x 1) = g(x) for every real x. Then for what value of p is
the relation g(x+p) = g(x) necessarily true for every real x?
(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 6

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28.

A telecom service provider engages male and female operators for answering 1000 calls per day. A
male operator can handle 40 calls per day whereas a female operator can handle 50 calls per day.
The male and the female operators get a fixed wage of Rs. 250 and Rs. 300 per day respectively. In
addition, a male operator gets Rs. 15 per call he answers and female operator gets Rs. 10 per call
she answers. To minimize the total cost, how many male operators should the service provider
employ assuming he has to employ more than 7 of the 12 female operators available for the job?
(1) 15
(2) 14
(3) 12
(4) 10

29.

Three Englishmen and three Frenchmen work for the same company. Each of them knows a secret
not known to others. They need to exchange these secrets over person-to-person phone calls so
that eventually each person knows all six secrets. None of the Frenchmen knows English, and only
one Englishman knows French. What is the minimum number of phone calls needed for the above
purpose?
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 9
(4) 15

30.

A rectangular floor is fully covered with square tiles of identical size. The tiles on the edges are white
and the tiles in the interior are red. The number of white tiles is the same as the number of red tiles.
A possible value of the number of tiles along one edge of the floor is
(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 16

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Section I1
SubSection II-A : Number of questions = 10
Note: Questions 31 to 40 carry one mark each.
Directions for questions 31 to 34: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.
A game of strategy, as currently conceived in game theory, is a situation in which two or more players
make choices among available alternatives (moves). The totality of choices determines the outcomes of
the game, and it is assumed that the rank order of preferences for the outcomes is different for different
players. Thus the interests of the players are generally in conflict. Whether these interests are diametrically opposed or only partially opposed depends on the type of game.
Psychologically, most interesting situations arise when the interests of the players are partly coincident
and partly opposed, because then one can postulate not only a conflict among the players but also inner
conflicts within the players. Each is torn between a tendency to cooperate, so as to promote the common
interests, and a tendency to compete, so as to enhance his own individual interests.
Internal conflicts are always psychologically interesting. What we vaguely call interesting psychology is
in very great measure the psychology of inner conflict. Inner conflict is also held to be an important
component of serious literature as distinguished from less serious genres. The classical tragedy, as well
as the serious novel reveals the inner conflict of central figures. The superficial adventure story on the other
hand, depicts only external conflict; that is, the threats to the person with whom the reader (or viewer)
identifies stem in these stories exclusively from external obstacles and from the adversaries who create
them. On the most primitive level this sort of external conflict is psychologically empty. In the fisticuffs
between the protagonists of good and evil, no psychological problems are involved or, at any rate, none are
depicted in juvenile representations of conflict.
The detective story, the adult analogue of a juvenile adventure tale, has at times been described as a
glorification of intellectualized conflict. However, a great deal of the interest in the plots of these stories is
sustained by withholding the unraveling of a solution to a problem. The effort of solving the problem is in
itself not a conflict if the adversary (the unknown criminal) remains passive, like Nature, whose secrets the
scientist supposedly unravels by deduction. If the adversary actively puts obstacles in the detectives path
toward the solution, there is genuine conflict. But the conflict is psychologically interesting only to the
extent that it contains irrational components such as a tactical error on the criminals part or the detectives
insight into some psychological quirk of the criminal or something of this sort. Conflict conducted in a
perfectly rational manner is psychologically no more interesting than a standard Western. For example,

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Tic-tac-toe, played perfectly by both players, is completely devoid of psychological interest. Chess may be
psychologically interesting but only to the extent that it is played not quite rationally. Played completely
rationally, chess would not be different from Tic-tac-toe.
In short, a pure conflict of interest (what is called a zero-sum game) although it offers a wealth of interesting
conceptual problems, is not interesting psychologically, except to the extent that its conduct departs from
rational norms.
31.

According to the passage, internal conflicts are psychologically more interesting than external
conflicts because
(1) internal conflicts, rather than external conflicts, form an important component of serious literature
as distinguished from less serious genres.
(2) only juveniles or very few adults actually experience external conflict, while internal conflict is
more widely prevalent in society.
(3) in situations of internal conflict, individuals experience a dilemma in resolving their own preferences
for different outcomes.
(4) there are no threats to the reader (or viewer) in case of external conflicts.

32.

Which, according to the author, would qualify as interesting psychology?

(1) A satisticians dilemma over choosing the best method to solve an optimization problem.
(2) A chess players predicament over adopting a defensive strategy against an aggressive opponent.
(3) A mountaineers choice of the best path to Mt. Everest from the base camp.
(4) A finance managers quandary over the best way of raising money from the market.

33.

According to the passage, which of the following options about the application of game theory to a
conflict-of-interest situation is true?
(1) Assuming that the rank order of preferences for options is different for different players.
(2) Accepting that the interests of different players are often in conflict.
(3) Not assuming that the interests are in complete disagreement.
(4) All of the above.

34.

The problem solving process of a scientist is different from that of a detective because
(1) scientists study inanimate objects, while detectives deal with living criminals or law offenders.
(2) scientists study known objects, while detectives have to deal with unknown criminals or law
offenders
(3) scientists study phenomena that are not actively altered, while detectives deal with phenomena
that have been deliberately influenced to mislead.
(4) scientists study psychologically interesting phenomena, while detectives deal with adult
analogues of juvenile adventure tales.

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Directions for questions 35 to 37: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form
a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
35.

A. Similarly, turning to caste, even though being lower caste is undoubtedly a separate cause of
disparity, its impact is all the greater when the lower-caste families also happen to be poor.
B. Belonging to a privileged class can help a woman to overcome many barriers that obstruct
women from less thriving classes.
C. It is the interactive presence of these two kinds of deprivation being low class and being female
that massively impoverishes women from the less privileged classes.
D. A congruence of class deprivation and gender discrimination can blight the lives of poorer women
very severely.
E. Gender is certainly a contributor to societal inequality, but it does not act independently of
class.
(1) EABDC
(2) EBDCA
(3) DAEBC
(4) BECDA

36.

A. What identity is thus defined by contrast, divergence with the West becomes central.
B. Indian religious literature such as the Bhagavad Gita or the Tantric texts, which are identified as
differing from secular writings seen as western, elicits much greater interest in the West than
do other Indian writings, including Indias long history of heterodoxy.
C. There is a similar neglect of Indian writing on non-religious subjects, from mathematics, epistemology and natural science to economics and linguistics.
D. Through selective emphasis that point up differences with the West, other civilizations can, in
this way, be redefined in alien terms, which can be exotic and charming, or else bizarre and
terrifying, or simply strange and engaging.
E. The exception is the Kamasutra in which western readers have managed to cultivate an interest.
(1) BDACE
(2) DEABC
(3) BDECA
(4) BCEDA

37.

A.
B.
C.
D.

This is now orthodoxy to which I subscribe up to a point.

It emerged from the mathematics of chance and statistics.
Therefore the risk is measurable and manageable.
The fundamental concept: Prices are not predictable, but the mathematical laws of chance can
describe their fluctuations.
E. This is how what business schools now call modern finance was born.
(1) ADCBE
(2) EBDCA
(3) ABDCE
(4) DCBEA

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Directions for questions 38 to 40: In each questions, the word at the top of the table is used in four
different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
38.

Near
(1) I got there just after you left a near miss!
(2) She and her near friend left early.
(3) The war led to a near doubling of oil prices.
(4) They came near to tears seeing the plight of the victims.

39

Hand
(1) I have my hand full, I cannot do it today.
(2) The minister visited the jail to see the breach at first hand
(3) The situation is getting out of hand here!
(4) When the roof of my house was blown away, he was willing to lend me a hand.

40.

For
(1) He has a great eye for detail.
(2) We are waiting for the day.
(3) I cant bear for her to be angry.
(4) It couldnt be done for ever

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SubSection II-B : Number of questions = 20

Note: Questions 41 to 60 carry two mark each.
Directions for questions 41 to 48: Each of the two passages given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Passage I
Crinoline and croquet are out. As yet, no political activists have thrown themselves in front of the royal
horse on Derby Day. Even so, some historians can spot the parallels. It is a time of rapid technological
change. It is a period when the dominance of the worlds superpower is coming under threat. It is an epoch
when prosperity masks underlying economic strain. And, crucially, it is a time when policy-makers are
confident that all is for the best in the best of all possible worlds. Welcome to the Edwardian Summer of the
second age of globalisation.
Spare a moment to take stock of whats been happening in the past few months. Lets start with the oil
price, which has rocketed to more than $65 a barrel, more than double its level 18 months ago. The
accepted wisdom is that we shouldnt worry our little heads about that, because the incentives are there for
business to build new production and refining capacity, which will effortlessly bring demand and supply
back into balance and bring crude prices back to $25 a barrel. As Tommy Copper used to say, just like
that.
Then there is the result of the French referendum on the European Constitution, seen as thick-headed
luddites railing vainly against the modern world. What the French needed to realize, the argument went,
was that there was no alternative to the reforms that would make the country more flexible, more competitive, more dynamic. Just the sort of reforms that allowed Gate Gourmet to sack hundreds of its staff at
Heathrow after the sort of ultimatum that used to be handed out by Victorian mill owners. An alternative
way of looking at the French non is that our neighbours translate flexibility as youre fired.
Finally, take a squint at the United States. Just like Britian a century ago, a period of unquestioned
superiority is drawing to a close. China is still a long way from matching Americas wealth, but it is growing
at a stupendous rate and economic strength brings geo-political clout. Already, there is evidence of a new
scramble for Africa as Washington and Beijing compete for oil stocks. Moreover, beneath the surface of the
US economy, all is not well. Growth looks healthy enough, but the competition from China and elsewhere
has meant the worlds biggest economy now imports far more that it exports. The US is living beyond its
means, but in this time of studied complacency a current account deficit worth 6 perfect of gross domestic
product is seen as a sign of strength, not weakness.

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In this new Edwardian summer, comfort is taken from the fact that dearer oil has not had the savage
inflationary consequences of 1973-1974, when a fourfold increase in the cost of crude brought an abrupt
end to a postwar boom that had gone on uninterrupted for a quarter of a century. True, the cost of living has
been affected by higher transport costs, but we are talking of inflation at 2.3 per cent and not 27 per cent.
Yet the idea that higher oil prices are of little consequence is fanciful. If people are paying more to fill up
their cars it leaves them with less to spend on everything else, but there is a reluctance to consume less.
In the 1970s unions were strong and able to negotiate large, compensatory pay deals that served to
intensify inflationary pressure. In 2005, that avenue is pretty much closed off, but the abolition of all the
controls on credit that existed in the 1970s means that households are invited to borrow more rather than
consume less. The knock-on effects of higher oil prices are thus felt in different ways through high levels
of indebtedness, in inflated asset prices, and in balance of payments deficits.
There are those who point out, rightly, that modern industrial capitalism has proved mightily resilient these
past 250 years, and that a sign of the enduring strength of the system has been the way it apparently
shrugged off everything a stock market crash, 9/11, rising oil prices that have been thrown at it in the
half decade since the millennium. Even so, there are at least three reasons for concern. First, we have
been here before. In terms of political economy, the first era of globalisation mirrored our own. There was a
belief in unfettered capital flows, in free migration. Eventually, though, there was a backlash, manifested in
a struggle between free traders and protectionists, and in rising labour militancy.
Second, the world is traditionally as its most fragile at times when the global balance of power is in flux. By
the end of the nineteenth century, Britains role as the hegemonic power was being challenged by the rise
of the United States, Germany, and Japan while the Ottoman and Hapsburg empires were clearly in rapid
decline. Looking ahead from 2005, it is clear that over the next two or three decades, both China and India
which together account for half the worlds population will flex their muscles.
Finally, there is the question of what rising oil prices tell us. The emergence of China and India means
global demand for crude is likely to remain high a t a time when experts say production is about to top out.
If supply constraints start to bite, any decline in the prices are likely to be short-term cyclical affairs
punctuating a long upward trend.
41.

By the expression Edwardian Summer, the author refers to a period in which there is
(1) unparalleled luxury and opulence.
(2) a sense of complacency among people because of all-round prosperity.
(3) a culmination of all-round economic prosperity.
(4) an imminent danger lurking behind economic prosperity.

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42.

What, according to the author, has resulted in a widespread belief in the resilence of modern
capitalism?
(1) Growth in the economies of Western countries despite shocks in the form of increase in levels
of indebtedness and inflated asset prices.
(2) Increase in the prosperity of Western countries and China despite rising oil prices.
(3) Continued growth of Western economies despite a rise in terrorism, an increase in oil prices and
other similar shocks.
(4) The success of continued reforms aimed at making Western economies more dynamic,
competitive and efficient.

43.

Which of the following best represents the key argument made by the author?
(1) The rise in oil prices, the flux in the global balance of power and historical precedents should
make us question our belief that the global economic prosperity would continue.
(2) The belief that modern industrial capitalism is highly resilient and capable of overcoming shocks
will be belied soon.
(3) Wildspread prosperity leads to neglect of early signs of underlying economic weakness,
manifested in higher oil prices and a flux in the global balance of power.
(4) A crisis is imminent in the West given the growth of countries like China and India and the
increase in oil prices.

44.

What can be inferred about the authors view when he states As Tommy Cooper used to say just
like that?
(1) Industry has incentives to build new production and refining capacity and therefore oil prices
would reduce.
(2) There would be a correction in the price levels of oil once new production capacity is added.
(3) The decline in oil prices is likely to be short-term in nature.
(4) It is not necessary that oil prices would go down to earlier levels.

Passage II
While complex in the extreme, Derridas work has proven to be a particularly influential approach to the
analysis of the ways in which language structures our understanding of ourselves and the world we inhabit,
an approach he termed deconstruction. In its simplest formulation, deconstruction can be taken to refer to
a methodological strategy which seeks to uncover layers of hidden meaning in a text that have been denied
or suppressed. The term text, in this respect, does not refer simply to a written form of communication,
however. Rather, texts are something we all produce and reproduce constantly in our every day social
relations, be they spoken, written or embedded in the construction of material artifacts. At the heart of
Derridas deconstructive approach is his critique of what he perceives to be the totalitarian impulse of the
Enlightenment pursuit to bring all that exists in the world under the domain of representative language, a
pursuit he refers to as logocentrism. Logocentrism is the search for a rational language that is able to know

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and represent the world and all its aspects perfectly and accurately. Its totalitarian dimension, for Derrida
at least, lies primarily in its tendency to marginalize or dismiss all that does not neatly comply with its
particular linguistic representations, a tendency that, throughout history, has all too frequently been manifested in the form of authoritarian institutions. Thus logocentrism has, in its search for the truth of absolute
representation, subsumed difference and oppressed that which it designates as its alien other. For Derrida,
western civilization has been built upon such a systematic assault on alien cultures and ways of life,
typically in the name of reason and progress.
In response to logocentrism, deconstruction posits the idea that the mechanism by which this process of
marginalization and the ordering of truth occurs is through establishing systems of binary opposition.
Oppositional linguistic dualisms, such as rational/irrational, culture/nature and good/bad are not, however,
construed as equal partners as they are in, say, the semiological structuralism of Saussure. Rather, they
exist, for Derrida, in a series of hierarchical relationships with the first term normally occupying a superior
position. Derrida defines the relationship between such oppositional terms using the neologism diffrance.
This refers to the realization that in any statement, oppositional terms differ from each other (for instance,
the difference between rationality and irrationality is constructed through oppositional usage), and at the
same time, a hierarchical relationship is maintained by the deference of one term to the other (in the
positing of rationality over irrationality, for instance). It is this latter point which is perhaps the key to
understanding Derridas approach to deconstruction.
For the fact at any given time one term must defer to its oppositional other, means that the two terms are
constantly in a state of interdependence. The presence of one is dependent upon the absence of absentpresence of the other, such as in the case of good and evil, whereby to understand the nature of one, we
must constantly relate it to the absent term in order to grasp its meaning. That is, to do good, we must
understand that our act is not evil for without that comparison the term becomes meaningless. Put simply,
deconstruction represents an attempt to demonstrate the absent-presence of this oppositional other, to
show that what we say or write is in itself not expressive simply of what is present, but also of what is
absent. Thus, deconstruction seeks to reveal the interdependence of apparently dichotomous terms and
their meanings relative to their textual context; that is, within the linguistic power relations which structure
dichotomous terms hierarchically. In Derridas own words, a deconstructive reading must always aim at a
certain relationship, unperceived by the writer, between what he commands and what he does not command of the patterns of a language that he uses. [It] attempts to make the not-seen accessible to sight.
Meaning, then, is never fixed or stable, whatever the intention of the author of a text. For Derrida, language
is a system of relations that are dynamic, in that all meanings we ascribe to the world are dependent not
only on what we believe to be present but also on what is absent. Thus, any act of interpretation must refer
not only to what the author of a text intends, but also to what is absent from his or her intention. This insight
leads, once again, to Derridas further rejection of the idea of the definitive authority of the intentional agent
or subject. The subject is decentred; it is conceived as the outcome of relations of diffrance. As author of
its own biography, the subject thus becomes the ideological fiction of modernity and its logocentric philosophy,

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one that depends upon the formation of hierarchical dualisms, which repress and deny the presence of the
absent other. No meaning can, therefore, even be definitive, but is merely an outcome of a particular
interpretation.
45.

According to the passage, Derrida believes that:

(1) Reality can be construed only through the use of rational analysis.
(2) Language limits our construction of reality
(3) A universal language will facilitate a common understanding of reality.
(4) We need to uncover the hidden meaning in a system of relations expressed by language.

46.

To Derrida, logocentrism does not imply:

(1) A totalitarian impulse.
(2) A domain of representative language.
(3) Interdependence of the meanings of dichotomous terms.
(4) A strategy that seeks to suppress hidden meanings in a text.

47.

According to the passage, Derrida believes that the system of binary opposition
(1) represents a prioritization or hierarchy.
(2) reconciles contradictions and dualities.
(3) weakens the process of marginalization and ordering of truth.
(4) deconstructs reality.

48.

Derrida rejects the idea of definitive authority of the subject because

(1) interpretation of the text may not make the unseen visible.
(2) the meaning of the text is based on binary opposites.
(3) the implicit power relationship is often ignored.
(4) any act of interpretation must refer to what the author intends.

Directions for questions 49 to 52: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last
sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose that one that completes the paragraph in the
most appropriate way.
49.

The audiences for crosswords and sudoku, understandably, overlap greatly, but there are differences, too. A crossword attracts a more literary person, while sudoku appeals to a keenly logical
mind. Some crossword enthusiasts turn up their noses at sudoku because they feel it lacks depth.
A good crossword requires vocabulary, knowledge, mental flexibility and sometimes even a sense of
humor to complete. It touches numerous areas of life and provides an Aha! or two along the way.
__________
(1) Sudoku, on the other hand, is just a logical exercise, each one similar to the last.
(2) Sudoku, incidentally, is growing faster in popularity than crosswords, even among the literati.
(3) Sudoku, on the other hand, can be attempted and enjoyed even by children.
(4) Sudoku, however, is not exciting in any sense of the term.

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50.

Most firms consider expert individuals to be too elitist, temperamental, egocentric, and difficult to
work with. Force such people to collaborate on a high-stakes project and they just might come to
fisticuffs. Even the very notion of managing such a group seems unimaginable. So most organizations fall into default mode, setting up project teams of people who get along nicely.
__________
(1) The result, however, is disastrous
(2) The result is mediocrity.
(3) The result is creation of experts who then become elitist.
(4) Naturally, they drive innovations.

51.

Federers fifth grand slam win prompted a reporter to ask whether he was the best ever. Federer is
certainly not lacking in confidence, but he wasnt about to proclaim himself the best ever. The best
player of this generation, yes, he said. But nowhere close to ever. Just look at the records that
some guys have. Im a minnow.
__________
(1) His win against Agassi, a genius from the previous generation, contradicts that.
(2) Sampras, the king of an earlier generation, was as humble.
(3) He is more than a minnow to his contemporaries.
(4) The difference between the best of this generation and the best ever is a matter of perception.

52.

Thus the end of knowledge and the closing of the frontier that it symbolizes is not a looming crisis
at all, but merely one of many embarrassing fits of hubris in civilizations long industry. In the end, it
will pass away and be forgotten. Ours is not the first generation to struggle to understand the
organizational laws of the frontier, deceive itself that it has succeeded, and go to its grave having
failed.
__________
(1) One would be wise to be humble.
(2) But we might be the first generation to actually reach the frontier.
(3) But we might be the first generation to deal with the crisis.
(4) However, this time the success is not illusory.

Directions for questions 53 to 56: Each question consists of four sentences on a topic. Some sentences
are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Select the option that indicates the grammatically correct
and appropriate sentence(s).
53.

A. When virtuoso teams begin their work, individuals are in and group consensus is out.
B. As project progresses, however, the individual stars harness themselves to the product of the
group.
C. Sooner or later, the members break through their own egocentrism and become a plurality with
single-minded focus on the goal.
D. In short, they morph into a powerful team with a shared identity.
(1) A&C
(2) A&D
(3) B&D
(4) A, C&D

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54.

A. Large reductions in the ozone layer, which sits about 15-30 km above the Earth, take place each
winter over the polar regions, especially the Antarctic, as low temperatures allow the formation
of stratospheric clouds that assist chemical reactions breaking down ozone.
B. Industrial chemicals containing chlorine and bromine have been blamed for thinning the layer
because they attack the ozone molecules, making them to break apart.
C. Many an offending chemicals have now been banned.
D. It will still take several decades before these substances have disappeared from the atmosphere.
(1) D
(2) B&D
(3) A&D
(4) A&C

55.

A. The balance of power will shift to the East as China and India evolve.
B. Rarely the economic ascent of two still relatively poor nations has been watched with such a
mixture of awe, opportunism, and trepidation.
C. Postwar era witnessed economic miracles in Japan and South Korea, but neither was populous
enough to power worldwide growth or change the game in a complete spectrum of industries.
D. China and India, by contrast, posses the weight and dynamism to transform the 21st-century
global economy.
(1) A, B&C
(2) A&D
(3) C
(4) C&D

56.

A. People have good reason to care about the welfare of animals.

B. Ever since Enlightenment, their treatment has been seen as a measure of mankinds humanity.
C. It is no coincidence that William Wilberforce and Sir Thomas Foxwell Buxton, two leaders of the
movement to abolish the slave trade, helped found the Royal Society for the Prevention of
Cruelty to Animals in 1820s.
D. An increasing number of people go further: mankind has a duty not to cause pain to animals that
have the capacity to suffer.
(1) A&D
(2) B
(3) A&C
(4) C&D

Directions for questions 57 to 60: Each of the following questions has a paragraph with one italicized
word that does not make sense. Choose the most appropriate replacement for that word from the options
given below the paragraph.
57.

Intelligent design derives from an early 19th-century explanation of the natural world given by an
English clergyman, William Paley. Paley was the populariser of the famous watchmaker analogy.
Proponents of intelligent design are crupping Paleys argument with a new gloss from molecular
biology.
(1) destroying
(2) testing
(3) resurrecting
(4) questioning

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58.

Women squat, heads covered, beside huge piles of limp fodder and blunk oil lamps, and just about
all the cows in the three towns converge upon this spot. Sinners, supplicants and yes, even scallywags
hand over a few coins for a crack at redemption and a handful of grass.
(1) shining
(2) bright
(3) sputtering
(4) effulgent

59.

It is klang to a sensitive traveler who walks through this great town, when he sees the streets, the
roads and cabin doors crowded with beggars, mostly women, followed by three, four, or six children,
all in rags and importuning every passenger for alms.
(1) amusing
(2) irritating
(3) disgusting
(4) distressing

60.

Or there is the most fingummy diplomatic note on record: when Philip of Macedon wrote to the
Spartans that, if he came within their borders, he would leave not one stone of their city, they wrote
back the one word If.
(1) witty
(2) rude
(3) simple
(4) terse

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Section III
SubSection III-A : Number of questions = 10
Note: Questions 61 to 70 carry one mark each.
Directions for questions 61 to 64: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
A management institute was established on January 1, 2000 with 3, 4, 5, and 6 faculty members in the
Marketing, Organisational Behaviour (OB), Finance, and Operations Management (OM) areas respectively, to start with. No faculty member retired or joined the institute in the first three months of the year
2000. In the next four years, the institute recruited one faculty member in each of the four areas. All these
new faculty members, who joined the institute subsequently over the years, were 25 years old at the time
of their joining the institute. All of them joined the institute on April 1. During these four years, one of the
faculty members retired at the age of 60. The following diagram gives the area-wise average age (in terms
of number of completed years) of faculty members as on April 1 of 2000, 2001, 2002, and 2003.
55
52.5
51.5
50.5
50

50.2

49.33

49

2000

47.8

2001

46

46

45
45

45

2002
45

45

44

2003

44
43

40
Marketing

61.

OB

Finance

From which area did the faculty member retire?

(1) Finance
(2) Marketing
(3) OB

OM

(4) OM

62.

Professors Naresh and Devesh, two faculty members in the Marketing area, who have been with the
Institute since its inception, share a birthday, which falls on 20th November. One was born in 1947
and the other one in 1950. On April 1 2005, what was the age of the third faculty member, who has
been in the same area since inception?
(1) 47
(2) 50
(3) 51
(4) 52

63.

In which year did the new faculty member join the Finance area?
(1) 2000
(2) 2001
(3) 2002

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(4) 2003
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64.

What was the age of the new faculty member, who joined the OM area, as on April 1, 2003?
(1) 25
(2) 26
(3) 27
(4) 28

Directions for questions 65 to 67: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular
year.

State

Total Area
(in million
hectares)

% of Area Under
Rice Cultivation

Production

Population

(in million
tons)

(in millions)

Himachal Pradesh

20

1.2

Kerala
Rajasthan
Bihar
Karnataka

4
34
10
19

60
20
60
50

4.8
6.8
12
19

32
56
83
53

Haryana
West Bengal

4
9

80
80

19.2
21.6

21
80

Gujarat
Punjab

20
5

60
80

24
24

51
24

Madhya Pradesh

31

40

24.8

60

Tamilnadu
Maharashtra

13
31

70
50

27.3
48

62
97

Uttar Pradesh

24

70

67.2

166

Andhra Pradesh

28

80

112

76

65.

Which two states account for the highest productivity of rice (tons produced per hectare of rice
cultivation)?
(1) Haryana and Punjab
(2) Punjab and Andhra Pradesh
(3) Andhra Pradesh and Haryana
(4) Uttar Pradesh and Haryana

66.

How many states have a per capita production of rice (defined as total rice production divided by its
population) greater than Gujarat?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

67.

An intensive rice producing state is defined as one whose annual rice production per million of
population is at least 400,000 tons. How many states are intensive rice producing states?
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

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Directions for questions 68 to 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also
provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February
(Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).
Sl.
No.

Na m e

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8

Anshul
Bushkant
Charu
Dinesh
Eashwaran
Fatima
Gayatri
Hari

Ge nde r

De signa tion

Age group Com m itte d to Inte re ste d in

proje cts
w orkshop
during
on

M
M
F
M
N
F
F
M

Mgr
Dir
Mgr
Exe
Dir
Mgr
Exe
Mgr

Y
I
I
O
O
Y
Y
I

Jan, Mar
Feb, Mar
Jan, Feb
Jan, Apr
Feb, Apr
Jan, Mar
Feb, Mar
Feb, Mar

CS,
BO,
BO,
BO,
BO
BO,
EG
BO,

9 Indira
10 John
11 Kalindi

F
M
F

Dir
Dir
Exe

O
Y
I

Feb, Apr
Jan, Mar
Jan, Apr

BO, EG
BO
BO, CS, EG

12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20

F
M
M
F
M
F
F
F
F

Mgr
Mgr
Dir
Exe
Mgr
Dir
Exe
Mgr
Exe

O
O
I
Y
Y
Y
I
O
Y

Feb, Apr
Mar, Apr
Jan, Feb
Feb, Apr
Mar, Apr
Jan, Feb
Feb, Mar
Mar, Apr
Jan, Mar

CS,
BO,
BO,
CS,
CS,
BO,
EG
CS,
BO,

Lavanya
Mandeep
Nandlal
Parul
Rahul
Sunita
Urvashi
Yamini
Zeena

EG
EG
CS
CS, EG
CS
CS, EG

EG
EG
EG
EG
EG
EG

a
Jn
,

EG
CS, EG

M = Male, F = Female; Exe = Executive, Mgr = Manager, Dir = Director;

Y = Young, I = In between, O = Old
For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and
at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he she is not interested in.
An employee cannot attend the workshop on

Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January.

Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February.

E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.

68.

Assuming that Parul and Hari are attending the workshop on Communication Skills (CS), then
which of the following employees can possibly attend the CS workshop?
(1) Rahul and Yamini
(2) Dinesh and Lavanya
(3) Anshul and Yamini
(4) Fatima and Zeena

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69.

70.

How many Executives (Exe) cannot attend more than one workshop?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 15

(4) 16

Which set of employees cannot attend any of the workshops?

(1) Anshul, Charu, Eashwaran and Lavanya
(2) Anshul, Bushkant, Gayatri, and Urvashi
(3) Charu, Urvashi, Bushkant and Mandeep
(4) Anshul, Gayatri, Eashwaran and Mandeep

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SubSection III-B : Number of questions = 20

Note: Questions 71 to 90 carry two marks each.
Directions for questions 71 to 74: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in
an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds
before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest
seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round;
the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and
so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the
17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match
No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2
of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second
round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match
No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds
as well.

Seed# Name of Player

71.

Seed# Name of Player

Seed# Name of Player

Maria Sharapova

12

Mary Pierce

23

Silvia Farina Elia

Lindsay Davenport

13

Anastasia Myskina

24

Tatiana Golovin

Amelie Mauresmo

14

Alicia Molik

25

Shinobu Asagoe

Kim Clijsters

15

Nathalie Dechy

26

Francesca Schiavone

Svetlana Kuznetsova

16

Elena Bovina

27

Nicole Vaidisova

Elena Dementieva

17

Jelena Jankovic

28

Gisela Dulko

Justine Henin

18

Ana Ivanovic

29

Flavia Pennetta

Serena Williams

19

Vera Zvonareva

30

Anna Chakvetadze

Nadia Petrova

20

Elena Likhovtseva

31

Al Sugiyama

10

Venus Williams

21

Daniela Hantuchova

32

Anna-lena Groenefeld

11

Patty Schnyder

22

Dinara Safina

If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and
only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay
Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter finals?
(1) Justine Henin
(2) Nadia Petrova
(3) Patty Schnyder
(4) Venus Williams

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72.

If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine Henin and Nadia
Petrova make it to the semi-finals, then who would play Maria Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the
event Sharapova reaches quarterfinals?
(1) Dinara Safina
(2) Justine Henin
(3) Nadia Petrova
(4) Patty Schnyder

73.

If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in
upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player
facing Maria Sharapova in semi-finals?
(1) Anastasia Myskina (2) Flavia Pennetta
(3) Nadia Petrova
(4) Svetlana Kuznetsova

74.

If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would
definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final?
(1) Amelie Mauresmo (2) Elena Dementieva (3) Kim Clijsters
(4) Lindsay Davenport

Directions for questions 75 to 78: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies A, B, C and D. Each
of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and
Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat
purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and
40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the
value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of
these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the
Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result,
the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the
company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were
twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the
returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially
expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results,
the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
75.

What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?
(1) 30%
(2) 311/4%
(3) 321/2%
(4) Cannot be determined

76.

If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would
necessarily be true?
I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results.
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) III and IV only
(4) II and IV only

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77.

If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statement(s)
would necessarily be true?
I. Company C belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
II. Company D belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) I and IV only
(4) II and IV only

78.

If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good
results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?
I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.
II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.
III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel
Industry.
(1) I and II only
(2) II and IV only
(3) II and III only
(4) III and IV only

Directions for questions 79 to 82: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The
eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member
representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
1)
2)

3)
4)

In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated.
The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined.
(Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for
in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)
A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in
that round of voting.
As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round
of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and
minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that
were cast in those rounds.

Round

1
2
3

CAT PAPER 2005

Total
votes

83
75

Maximum votes cast

City
London
Paris

No. of
30
32

Eliminated
City
New York
Beijing

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No. of
12
21

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It is also known that:

All those who voted for London and Paris in round, 1 continued to vote for the same cities in
subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in
round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.

Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Parish in round 2.

The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was a.

50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.
79.

What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round 1, voted for Beijing
in round 2?
(1) 33.33
(2) 50
(3) 66.67
(4) 75

80.

What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round 1?

(1) 16
(2) 18
(3) 22

(4) 24

81.

What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible
to vote in round 3, voted for London?
(1) 33.33
(2) 38.10
(3) 50
(4) 66.67

82.

Which of the following statements must be true?

I. IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.
II. IOC member from Beijing voted for London in round 3.
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor II

Directions for Questions 83 to 86: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest
Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. And Profitable Ltd. Are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no
particular order.

States
UP
Bihar
MP

Firm A
49
69
72

Firm B
82
72
63

Firm C
80
70
72

Firm D
55
65
65

Further, it is known that:

In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. Has the highest market share.

Aggressive Ltd.s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.s by Rs. 5 million .

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83.

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. Has the lowest share in MP market.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.
(1) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
(2) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily false.
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
(4) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.

84.

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.s lowest revenues are from MP.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.s lowest revenues are from Bihar.
(1) If Statement 2 is true then Statement 1 is necessarily false.
(2) If Statement 1 is false then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
(3) If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true
(4) None of the above.

85.

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Honest Ltd. Has the highest share in the UP market.
Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. Has the highest share in the Bihar market.
(1) Both statements could be true.
(2) At least one of the statements must be true.
(3) At most one of the statements is true.
(4) None of the above.

86.

If Profitable Ltd.s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?
(1) Truthful Ltd.s lowest revenues are from MP.
(2) Truthful Ltd.s lowest revenues are from Bihar.
(3) Truthful Ltd.s lowest revenues are from UP.
(4) No definite conclusion is possible.

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Directions for questions 87 to 90: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Help Distress (HD) is an NGO involved in providing assistance to people suffering from natural disasters.
Currently, it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in three projects: Tsunami Relief (TR) in Tamil Nadu, Flood
Relief (FR in Maharashtra, and Earthquake Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief work project.

A maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the number of
volunteers involved in FR project alone is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the
ER project.
The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved
in all the three projects.
17 volunteers are involved in the TR project.
The number of volunteers involved in the TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers
involved in ER project alone.
Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in at least one more project.

87.

Based on the information given above, the minimum number of volunteers involved in both FR and TR
projects, but not in the ER project is
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

88.

Which of the following additional information would enable to find the exact number of volunteers
involved in various projects?
(1) Twenty volunteers are involved in FR.
(2) Four volunteers are involved in all the three projects.
(3) Twenty three volunteers are involved in exactly one project.
(4) No need for any additional information.

89.

After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all the three projects were asked to withdraw
from one project. As a result, one of the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and one opted out
of the ER project, while the remaining ones involved in all the three projects opted out of the FR
project. Which of the following statements, then, necessarily follows?
(1) The lowest number of volunteers is now in TR project.
(2) More volunteers are now in FR project as compared to ER project.
(3) More volunteers are now in TR project as compared to ER project.
(4) None of the above.

90.

After the withdrawal of volunteers, as indicated in Question 89, some new volunteers joined the
NGO. Each one of them was allotted only one project in a manner such that, the number of volunteers working in one project alone for each of the three projects became identical. At that point, it
was also found that the number of volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was the same as the
number of volunteers involved in TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now has the highest
number of volunteers?
(1) ER
(2) FR
(3) TR
(4) Cannot be determined

Page 28

MBA
Test Prep

CAT PAPER 2005