Test 6

1. EE Board September 2003

What is the mass in grams of 1 liter of carbon monoxide (CO) at standard
temperature and pressure (STP)? Note: The molecular weight (MW) of CO is 28
g/mole, and at STP, 1 mole of any gas occupies a volume of 22.4 liters.
A. 1.20
B. 1.35

C. 1.45
D. 1.25

2. EE Board April 2003

3. Two-third of the atom in a molecule of water is hydrogen. What percentage
weight of a water molecule if the weight of two hydrogen atoms? The atomic weight
of hydrogen is 1.008 g/mol and oxygen is 16.00 g/mole.
A. 19.12
B. 11.19

C. 19.11
D. 12.19

4. EE Board April 2003

5. How many protons (P) and neutrons are there in the nucleus are present in a Pb
nucleus of atomic mass of 206?
A. P = 92,
B. P = 85,

N = 156
N = 160

C. P = 82,
D. P = 90,

N = 124
N = 150

6. EE Board April 2003

7. A 0.064 kg of octane vapor (MW = 114) is mixed with 0.91 kg of air (MW = 29.0)
in the manifold of an engine. The total pressure in the manifold is 86.1 kPa, and a
temperature is 290 K. assume octane behaves ideally. What is the partial pressure
of the air in the mixture in Kpa?
A. 46.8
B. 48.6
8. EE Board April 2003

C. 84.6
D. 64.8

9. Hydrogen peroxide solution for hair bleaching is usually prepared mixing 5 grams
of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2). Molecular weight = 34 g/mole) per 100 ml of solution.
What is the molarity of this solution?
A. 1.0 M
B. 1.5 M

C. 1.95 M
D. 1.8 M

10. EE Board September 2003

11. A cylinder contains oxygen at a pressure of 10 atm and a temperature of 300 K.
The volume of the cylinder is 10 liters. What is the mass of oxygen in grams?
Molecular
12. weight (MW) of oxygen is 32
g/mole?
A. 125.02

B. 130.08
C. 135.05
D. 120.04

13. EE Board April 2001

14. The molecular diameter of CO is 3.19 x 10 -8 at 300 K and pressure of 100 mmHg.
What is the mean free path of the gas in cm?
A. 6.86 x 10-3
B. 6.86 x 10-5

C. 2.89 x 10-4
D. 6.86 x 10-9

15. EE Board September 2002

16. How many moles are there in one atom?
A. 3.6 x 10-23
B. 1.66 x 10-24

C. 2.0 x 10-24
D. 2.5 x 10-23

17. EE Board March 1998

18. When 0.5 g of liquid is completely evaporated and collected in liter manometer,
the pressure is 0.25 atm and the temperature is 27 oC. assume ideal gas behavior,
find the molecular weight if the gas constant is 0.0821 L. atm/mole K.
A. 49.2 g/mole
B. 12.3 g/mole
19. Problem

C. 2.2 g/mole
D. 64.0g/mole

20. If the atomic weight of magnesium is 24.3 g/mol, calculate how many magnesium
atoms does 5 g represent?
A. 1.24 x 1023 atoms
B. 1.76 x 1023 atoms

C. 3.44 x 1023 atoms

D. 2.76 x 1023 atoms

21. Problem
22. How many moles of iron does 25 g of Fe represent? Note: the atomic weight of
iron (Fe) is 55.8 g/mol.
A. 0.356 mol
B. 0.564 mol

C. 0.448 mol
D. 0.247 mol

23. Problem
24. How many oxygen atoms are present in 2.00 moles of oxygen molecules
considering that it is a diatomic?
A. 2.40 x 1024 atoms
B. 3.43 x 1025 atoms

C. 5.67 x 1026 atoms

D. 1.34 x 1024 atoms

25. Problem
26. If the atomic mass of copper (Cu) if 63.5 g/mol, compute how many grams does
0.252 mole of copper (Cu) has?
A. 16g
B. 18g

C. 20g
D. 12g

27. Problem
28. What is the molecular weight of calcium hydroxide or Ca (OH) 2?
A. 74
B. 67

C. 80
D. 44

29. Problem
30. How many molecules are there in 25 g of hydrogen Chloride, HCI?
A. 4.12 x 1023 molecules
B. 4.32 x 1023 molecules
31. Problem

C. 5.34 x 1023 molecules

D. 3.45 x 1023 molecules

32. What is the percentage composition of sodium in the sodium chloride

compound?
A. 60.7%
B. 34.6%

C. 39.3%
D. 50.7%

33. Problem
34. What is the composition of oxygen of potassium sulfate, K 2SO4?
A. 53.2%
B. 36.7%

C. 50.4%
D. 43.4%

35. Problem
36. A 1.63 g of zinc when heated in air combined with 0.40 g of oxygen to form oxide
of zinc. What is the percentage composition of Zn in the compound formed?
A. 80.3%
B. 76.5%

C. 19.7%
D. 53.4%

37. Problem
38. Calculate how many moles of ammonia can be produced from 8 mol of hydrogen
reacting with nitrogen?
A. 4.53 mol NH3
B. 7.76 mol NH3

C. 5.33 mol NH3

D. 4.57 mol NH3

39. Problem
40. How many molecules of water can be produced by reacting 0.010 mol of oxygen
with hydrogen?
A. 1.20 x 1022 molecules
B. 1.32 x 1022 molecules

C. 2.34 x 1022 molecules

D. 4.15 x 1022 molecules

41. Problem
42. If 2 liters of gas measured at STP weigh 3.23 g, what is the molecular weight of
the gas?
A. 36.2 g/mol
B. 42.3 g/mol
43. Problem

C. 24.7 g/mol
D. 19.4 g/mol

44. An ethyl ether 691 mL weighs 1.65 g measured at 40 oC and 630 torr. Compute
the molecular weight of ethyl ether.
A. 34.5 g/mol
B. 43.5 g/mol

C. 73.9 g/mol
D. 67.5 g/mol

45. Problem
46. Calculate the Specific gravity of CI 2 at standard temperature and pressure. Note:
the molecular weight of CI2 is 71 g/mol.
A. 3.45
B. 1.23

C. 2.46
D. 1.76

47. Problem
48. Compute the volume of oxygen at STP that can be formed from a 0.75 mole of
potassium chlorate (KCIO3).
A. 18.6 liters
B. 16.8 liters

C. 25.2 liters
D. 23.2 liters

49. Problem
50. What pressure will be exerted by a 0.50 mol of gas in a 7 L container at 23 oC?
A. 1.74 atm
B. 2.05 atm

C. 3.04 atm
D. 1.32 atm

51. Problem
52. Compute how many moles of oxygen has are in a 70L tank at 25oC if the
pressure is 2000 psi?
A. 389.3 mol
B. 453.4 mol

C. 145.7 mol
D. 247.4 mol

53. Problem
54. What is the molality of the solution that contains 65 g of sucrose (C 12H22O11)
dissolved in 300 g of water?
A. 0.89 mole/kg
B. 0.78 mole/kg
55. Problem

C. 0.54 mole/kg
D. 0.63 mole/kg

56. Calculate the number of moles of an ideal gas sample at 0.63 atmosphere and
87oC which occupies 0.450 liter.
A. 0.0091 mole
B. 0.0087 mole

C. 0.0076 mole
D. 0.0056 mole

57. Problem
58. One gram of hydrogen gas (H2) is combined with 10 g of helium (He) gas and
confined at 20oC and 5 atmospheres. What is the combined volume in liters?
A. 14.4 liters
B. 17.5 liters

C. 16.4 liters
D. 12.7 liters

59. Problem
60. What is the molarity of the solution if 150 g of KCI is dissolved in water to make
800 mL solution?
A. 2.51 moles/L
B. 2.25 moles/L

C. 2.87 moles/L
D. 1.53 moles/L

61. Problem
62. Compute how many grams of KCI must be dissolved in water so that is can
produce a 400L of 0.6 M (molarity) solution?
A. 17.904 g
B. 14.281 g

C. 11.541 g
D. 12.653 g

63. Problem
64. What is the atomic weight of calcium if 2.25 g of pure calcium metal are
converted to 3.13 g of pure CaO?
A. 49.8 g/mol
B. 54.3 g/mol

C. 23.7 g/mol
D. 40.9 g/mol

65. Problem
66. What is the equivalent weight of Sulfuric Acid?
A. 49
B. 98
67. Problem

C. 23
D. 100

68. If 60 g of H2SO4 is dissolved in water to make a 1.5L solution, find its normality
N?
A. 0.813 equiv/L
B. 0.576 equiv/L

C. 0.871 equiv/L
D. 0.765 equiv/L

69. Problem
70. What is the equivalent weight of Mg(OH)2?
A. 23 g/mol
B. 29 g/mol

C. 58 g/mol
D. 20 g/mol

71. Problem
72. How many grams of H3PO4 are confined in 700 mL container if its normality is
0.5?
A. 11.45 g
B. 12.34 g

C. 10.56 g
D. 9.35 g

73. Problem
74. Which of the following is the simplest balanced equation of the given reaction?
75. Na2CO3+2HCI
+ CO2
A. Na2CO3+2HCI
+ CO2
B. Na2CO3+2HCI

2NaCI + H O
2

2NaCI + H O
2

NaCI + 2H O
2

C. 2Na2CO3+HCI
+ CO2
D. 2Na2CO3+HCI

2NaCI + H O
2

NaCI + H O
2

+ 2CO2

+ CO2
76.
77. Problem
78. If the molecular formula of water is H2O, then what is its molecular mass?
A. 18 amu
B. 19 amu

C. 20 amu
D. 1 amu

79. Problem
80. What is the molecular weight of barium chloride dehydrate (BaCI 2 2H2O)?

A. 234.4 amu
B. 244.3 amu

C. 270.5 amu
D. 298.5 amu

81. Problem
82. Which of the following is the simplest balanced equation of the given OxidationReduction Equation? P+HNO3+H2O NO+H3PO4
A. 2P+HNO3+H2O NO+2H3PO4
B. 3P+HNO +H O NO+3H PO
3

D. 3P+HNO3+2H2O 2NO+3H3P

O4

C. 3P+5HNO3+2H2O 5NO+3H3
PO4
E.
F. TEST 18-A

1. Problem
G. If P1000 accumulates to P1500 when invested at a simple interest for three
years, what is the rate of interest?
A. 16.33%
B. 16.67%

C. 17.33%
D. 15.67%

2. Problem:
3. You loan from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of
20% but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was
borrowed. If at the end of one year, you have to pay the full amount of P100,000,
what is the actual rate of interest?
A. 25%
B. 21%

C. 24%
D. 23%

4. Problem:
5. If you borrowed P10,000 from a bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the
total amount to be repaid at the end of one year?

A. P10,890.00
B. P11,233.33

C. P11,500.00
D. P11,800.00

6. Problem:
7. A price tag of P1,200 is payable in 602 days but if paid within 30 days it will have
a 3% discount. Find the rate of interest.
A. 36.12%
B. 36.33%

C. 37.11%
D. 37.66%

8. Problem:
9. A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promise to pay the amount for one
year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance
interest of P80.00. what was the rate of discount and the rate of interest that the
bank collected in advance?
A. 3.78%
B. 4.12%

C. 4.17%
D. 4.56%

10. Problem:
11. It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a
loan, the interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount
upon release of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a
loan with a bank and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which
P11,200 was deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to
pay the amount of P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest
rate?
A. 16.28%
B. 16.82%

C. 17.12%
D. 15.82%

12. Problem:
13. A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the
income from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what

minimum rate of return, before payment of taxes must the investment offer to be
justified?
A. 11.78%
B. 12.07%

C. 12.65%
D. 12.87%

14. Problem:
15. A deposit of P110,000 was made for 31 days. The net interest after deducting
20% withholding tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.
A. 10.25%
B. 10.50%

C. 11.25%
D. 11.75%

16. Problem:
17. P5,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will
be due at the end of 75 days?
A. P5,166.67
B. P5,238.67,

C. P5,333.33
D. P5,412.67

18. EE Board April 1996

19. A man borrowed P20,000 from a local commercial bank which has a simple
interest of 16% but the interest is to be deducted from the loan at the time that the
money was borrowed and the loan is payable at the end of one year. How much is
the actual rate of interest.
A. 19.50%
B. 19.05%

C. 19.32%
D. 19.75%

20. Problem;
21. Agnes Abanilla was granted a loan of P20,000 by her employer CPM Industrial
Fabricator and Construction Corporation with an interest of 6% for 180 days on the
principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for
P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once find the proceeds of the
note.

A. P18,800
B. P16,900

C. P17,300
D. P19,400

22. Problem:
23. Mr. J. Dela Cruz borrowed money from a bank. He receives from the bank
P1,340.00 and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the
corresponding discount rate or often referred to as the bankers discount
A. 13.13%
B. 13.56%

C. 13.73%
D. 13.93%

24. Problem:
25. Annie buys a television set from a merchant who ask P1,250 at the end of 60
days. Annie wishes to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the cash
price on the assumption that money is worth 8% simple interest. What is the cash
price?
A. P1,342.12
B. P1,324.21

C. P1,288.45
D. P1,233.55

26. Problem:
27. Determine the exact simple interest on P5,000 invested for the period from
January 15,1996 to October 12, 1996, if the rate of interest is 18%
A. P666.39
B. P693.66

C. P633.33
D. P612.98

28. Problem:
29. The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December
25, 1995 is P100. What is the rate of interest?
A. 3.50%
B. 3.60%

C. 3.70%
D. 3.90%

30. Problem:
31. On her recent birthday, April 22, 2001, Nicole was given by her mother a certain
sum of money as birthday present. She decided to invest the said amount on 20%

exact simple interest. If the account will mature on Christmas day at an amount of
P10,000.00, how much did Nicole receive from her mother on her birthday?
A. P8,807.92
B. 8,643.90

C. 8,734.29
D. 8,590.05

32. Problem:
33. The amount of P20,000 was deposited in a bank earning an interest of 6.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 7 years in the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during this period.
A. P32,830.45
B. P32,078.45

C. P31,079.73
D. P30,890.34

34. Problem:
35. A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the
effective rate of money?
A. 9.14%
B. 9.24%

C. 9.34%
D. 9.44%

36. Problem:
37. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year
is equal to 360 days.
A. 19.72%
B. 18.78%

C. 19.23%
D. 19.54%

38. Problem:
39. What nominal rate compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16%
compounded quarterly?
A. 16.32%
B. 15.78%

C. 16.86%
D. 17.21%

40. Problem:
41. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?
A. 12.35% compounded annually

B. 11.90%

compounded

semi-

C. 12.20% compounded quarterly

D. 11.60 compounded monthly

annually
42. Problem:
43. Find the compound amount and interest if P2,500 is invested at 8% compounded
quarterly for 5 years and 6 months.
A. P3,286.59
B. P3,864.95

C. P3,489.25
D. P3,659.00

44. Problem:
45. An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly.
Find the nominal interest.
A. 11.78%
B. 12.89%

C. 10.43%
D. 12.00%

46. Problem:
47. In how many years is required for P2,000 to increase by P3,000 if interest at 12%
compounded semi-annually?
A. 7.86%
B. 7.68%

C. 7.34%
D. 7.12%

48. Problem:
49. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded
annually?
A. 14.2 years
B. 13.7 years

C. 15.2 years
D. 13.2 years

50. Problem:
51. Compute the equivalent rate of 6% compounded semi-annually to a rate
compounded quarterly.
A. 4.78%
B. 5.12%
52. Problem:

C. 5.45%
D. 5.96%

53. How many years will P100,000 earn a compound interest of P50,000 if the
interest rate is 9% compounded quarterly?
A. 4.21 years
B. 4.56 years

C. 4.95 years
D. 5.12 years

54. Problem:
55. If P5,000.00 shall accumulate for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly, find the
compounded interest at the end of 10 years.
A. P5,080.20
B. P6,000.20

C. P6,020.40
D. P6,040.20

56. Problem:
E. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the
principal is withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years, if the
effective annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of
the 16th year?
A. P705.42
B. P789.32

C. P753.02
D. P732.90

57. EE Board October 1997youn

58. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how
often the interest is compounded.
A. Monthly
B. Quarterly

C. Semiannually
D. Annually

59. Problem
60. When will an amount be tripled with an interest of 11.56%?
A. 9.80 years
B. 10.04 years

C. 10.54 years
D. 11.03 years

61. Problem:
62. A student plan to deposit P 1,500 in the bank now and another P3,000 for the
next 2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000 three years from after his last deposit

for the purpose of buying shies, what will be the amount of money left in the bank
after one
63. year of his withdrawal?
A. P1,459.46
B. P1,495.64

C. P1,549.64
D. P1,645.95

64. Problem:
65. If P500,000 is deposited at a rate of 11.25% compounded monthly, determine the
compounded interest after 7 years and 9 months.
A. P670,838.46
B. P675,747.89

C. P680,353.65
D. P690,848.73

66. Problem:
67. What is the present worth of two P100 payments at the end of the third year and
fourth year? The annual interest rate is 8%.
A. P143.99
B. P145.87

C. P150.23
D. P152.88

68. Problem:
69. A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan
for the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?
A. P3,260.34
B. P3,480.21

C. P3,649.78
D. P3,876.12

70. Problem:
71. A machine has been purchased and installed at a total cost of P18,000.00. The
machine will retire at the end of 5 years, at which time it is expected to have a scrap
value of P2,000.00 based on current prices. The machine will then be replaced with
an exact duplicate. The company plans to establish a reserve funds to accumulate
the capital needed to replace the machine. If an average annual rate of inflation of
3% is anticipated, how much capital must be accumulated?
A. P18,238.90

B. P17,899.90

C. P18,548.38

D. P18,458.83

72. Problem:
73. In year zero, you invest P10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that
time, the average annual inflation is 6%. How much, in terms of year zero pesos will
be in the account at maturity?
A. P14,050.03
B. P15,030.03

C. P16,390.32
D. P15,848.30

74. Problem:
75. A company invests P 10,000.00 today to be repaid in 5 years in one lump sum at
12% compounded annually. How much profit in present day pesos is realized?
A. P7,236.24
B. P7,324.66

C. P7,623.42
D. P7,632.24

76. Problem:
77. Alexander Michael owes P25,000.00 due in 1 year and P75,000 due in 4 years.
He agrees to pay P50,000.00 today and the balance in 2 years. How much must he
pay at the end of two years if money is worth 5% compounded semi-annually?
A. P39,026.25
B. P40,020.12

C. P39,802.78
D. P39,645.12

78. Problem:
79. Find the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a savings
deposit of P50,000 at 10% per annum for 3 years.
A. P1,350.00
B. P1,450.00

C. P1,550.00
D. P1,650.00

80. Problem:
81. If money is worth 5% compounded quarterly, find the equated time for paying a
loan of P150,000 due in 1 year and P280,000 due in 2 years.
A. 1.54 years
B. 1.64 years

C. 1.74 years
D. 1.84 years

82. EE Board June 1990

83. On his 6th birthday a boy is left an inheritance. The inheritance will be paid in a
lump sum of P10,000 on his 21 st birthday. What is the present value of the
inheritance as
84. of the boys 6th birthday, if the
interest is compounded annually?

A.
B.
C.
D.

P5,552.64
P5,340.98
P5,456.90
P5,640.58

Assume i=4%
85. Problem
86. The Philippine Society of Mechanical Engineers is planning to put up its own
building. Two proposals being considered are:
A. The construction of the building now to cost P400,000.
B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5
years, an extension to be added to cost P200,000.
87.
88. What is the difference in a mount between the two proposals, if interest
rate is 20%, depreciation to be neglected and by how much?
A. P17,253.89
B. P18,890.32

C. P16,890.32
D. P19,624.49

89. Problem:
90. A credit plan charges interest rate of 36% compounded monthly. Find its effective
rate.
A. 42.57%
B. 41.67%

C. 44.21%
D. 43.89%

91. Problem:
92. On January 1, 1999, Miss Jocelyn Del Rosario opened an account at Bank of
Philippine Islands with an initial deposit of P1,000,000.00. on March 1, 200, she
opened an additional P1,000,000.00. If the bank pays 12% interest compounded
monthly, how much will be in the account on April 1, 2000?

A. P2,170,968.95
B. P2,154.782.45

C. P2,163,729.70
D. P2,175,700.45

93. Problem:
94. Find the present value of installment payments of P1,000 now, P2,000 at the end
of the first year, P3,000 at the end of the second year, P4,000 at the end of the third
year and P5,000 at the end of the fourth year, if money is worth 10% compounded
annually.
A. P10,782.39
B. P10,204.78

C. P11,390.85
D. P11,717.85

95. Problem:
96. A manufacturing firm contemplates retiring an existing machine at the end of
2002. The new machine to replace the existing one will have an estimated cost of
P400,000. This expense will be partially defrayed by sale of the old machine as
scrap for P30,000. To accumulate the balance of the required capital, the firm will
deposit the following sum in an account earning interest at 5% compounded
quarterly:
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.

P600,000 at the end of 1999

P600,000 at the end of 2000
P80,000 at the end of 2001

What cash disbursement will be necessary at the end of 2002 to purchase

the new machine?

A. P153,,085.56
B. P154,890.78

C. P155,230.89
D. P156,781.20

102. Problem:
103.
On June 1, 1998, Mrs. Emelie Roe purchased stock of San Miguel
Corporation at a total cost of P144,000. She then received the following semiannual
dividends:
104.
105.

P4,200 on December 1,1998

P4,400 on June 1, 1999

106.
107.
108.

P4,400 on December 1, 1999

P4,000 on June 1, 2000
After receiving the last dividend, Mrs. Roe sold her stock, receiving

P152,000 after deduction of brokerage fees. What semiannual rate did this dividend
realize on her investment?
A. 8.12%

compounded

C. 8.52%

semiannually
B. 8.34%

compounded

semiannually
D. 8.64%

semiannually

compounded
compounded

semiannually

109. Problem:
110.
Engr. Richard Flores has P13,760 in cash and he would like to invest it in
business. His estimates of the year-by-year receipts and disbursements for all
purposes are shown in the tabulation below:
111.
Year Receipts
Disbursements
112.
0
0
-P13,760
113.
4
P5,000
+P1,000
114.
5
P6,200
+P1,200
115.
6
P7,500
+P1,500
116.
7
P8,800
+P1,800
117.
He estimates that his equipment will have a salvage value of P2,000 at the
end of useful life. Find the rate of return of the prospective investment.
A. 10.11%
B. 10.34%

C. 10.67%
D. 10.98%

118. Problem:
119.
A nominal interest of 3% compounded continuously is given on the
account. What is the accumulated amount of P10,000 after 10 years?
A. P12,670.23
B. P12,980.43
E.
F.
G.

C. P13,102.89
D. P13,498.59

H.
I.
J. TEST 18-B
1. Problem:
K. What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year
and continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10%
A. P717.17
B. P725.89

C. P732.18
D. P741.78

2. Problem:
3. Today, a businessman borrowed money to be paid in 10 equal payments for 10
quarters. If the interest rate is 10% compounded quarterly and the quarterly payment
4. is P2,000, how much did he
borrow ?
A. P15,390.20

B. P16,890.20
C. P17,504.13
D. P17,890.20

5. EE Board October 1999

6. A manufacturer desires to set aside a certain sum of money to provide funds to
cover the yearly operating expenses and the cost of replacing every year the dyes of
a stamping machine used in making radio chassis as model changes for a period of
10 years.
7.
Operating cost per year
=
P 500.00
8.
Cost of dye
=
P1,200.00
9.
Salvage value of dye
=
P 600.00
10.
11. The money will be deposited in a saving account which earns 6% interest.
Determine the sum of money that must be provided, including the cost of the initial
dye.
A. P8,266.20
B. P8,220.66
12. EE Board October 1999

C. P8,626.02
D. P8,882.10

13. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P10,000.00 and agreed to
pay the dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest
compounded annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and
interest. What is the annual payment?
A. P2,504.57
B. P2,780.56

C. P2,389.17
D. P2,129.00

14. Problem:
15. A man paid 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to
pay the 90% balance on monthly installment for 60 months at an interest rate of 15%
compounded monthly. Compute the amount of the monthly payment.
A. P45,892.04
B. P44,826.08

C. P43,849.39
D. P42,821.86

16. Problem:
17. A debt of P10,000 with 10% interest compounded semi-annually is to be
amortized by semi-annual payment over the next 5 years. The first due in 6 months.
Determine the semi-annual payment.
A. P1,309.85
B. P1,398.05

C. P1,295.05
D. P1,259.05

18. Problem:
19. A man borrowed P300,000 from a lending institution which will be paid after 10
years at an interest rate of 12% compounded annually. If money is worth 8% per
annum, how much should he deposit to a bank monthly in order to discharge his
debt 10- years hence?
A. P5,382.10
B. P5,174.23
20. Problem:

C. P5,187.23
D. P5,239.05

21. A man loans P 187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually.
He agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being
due at the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments.
A. P41,873.90
B. P42,864.90

C. P43,763.20
D. P44,230.89

22. Problem:
23. A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 down payment and 10 deferred semiannual payments of P8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present
value of the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?
A. P143,999.08
B. P144,888.09

C. P143,495.06
D. P144,209.85

24. Problem:
25. How much must be deposited at 6% each year beginning on January 1, year 1,
in order to accumulate P5,000 on the date of the last deposit, January 1, year 6?
A. P761.81
B. P786.16

C. P718.61
D. P716.81

26. Problem:
27. A piece of machinery can be bought for P10,000 cash or for P2,000 down and
payments of P750 per year for 15 years. What is the annual interest rate for the time
payments?
A. 4.61%
B. 4.16%

C. 4.32%
D. 4.86%

28. Problem
29. A company issued 50 bounds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par
at the end of 15 years to accumulate the funds required for redemption. The firm
established a sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund
being 4%. What was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12 th year?

A. P 374,502.34
B. P 37,520.34

C. P 37,250.34
D. P 37,340.50

30. Problem:
31. A house and lot can be acquired by a down payment of P500,000 and a yearly
payment of P100,000 at the end of each year for a period of 10 years, starting at the
end of 5 years from the date of purchase. If money is worth 14% compounded
annually, what is the cash price of the property?
A. P807,783.54
B. P806,789.20

C. P808,835.92
D. P809,278.90

32. EE Board October 1997

33. A young engineer borrowed P10,000 at 12% interest and paid P2,000 per annum
for the last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to
pay off his loan?
A. P6,922.93
B. P6,633.22

C. P6,872.89
D. P6,760.20

E.
34. EE Board April 1997
F. Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P500 at the
end of each month for 10 years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The
amount that will be available in two years is
A. P13,864.70
B. P13,486.70

C. P13,468.70
D. P13,470.86

35. Problem:
36. A parent on the day the child is born wishes to determine what lump sum would
have to be paid into an account bearing interest at 5% compounded annually, in
order to withdraw P20,000 each on the childs 18 th, 19th, 20th and 21th birthday. How
much is the lump sum amount?
A. P 30,149.37

B. P 30,194.73

C. P 30,941.73

D. P 30,491.37

37. Problem:
38. Maintenance cost of an equipment is P200,000 for 2 years, P40,000 at the end of
4 years and P80,000 at the end of 8 years. Compute the semi-annual amount that
will be set aside for this equipment. Money worth 10% compounded annually.
A. P7,108.43
B. P7,219.12

C. P7,312.78
D. P7,425.72

39. EE Board April 1997

40. A small machine has an initial cost of P20,000, a salvage value of P2,000 and a
life of 10 years. If your cost of operation per year is P3,500 and your revenues per
year is P9,000, what is the approximate rate of return (ROR) on the investment?
A. 20.56%
B. 21.90%

C. 23.78%
D. 24.80%

41. Problem:
42. Mr. Ramirez borrowed P15,000 two years ago. The terms of the loan are 10%
interest for 10 years with uniform payments. He just made his second annual
payment. How much principal does he still owe?
A. 13,023.52
B. 13,892.89

C. 13,032.25
D. 13,522.03

43. Problem:
44. A man inherited a regular endowment of P 100,000 every end of 3 months for 10
years. However, he may choose to get a single lump sum payment at the end of 4
years. How much is this lump sum if the cost of money is 14% compounded
quarterly?
A. P3,720,399.73
B. P3,399,720.37

C. P3,702,939.73
D. P3,279,933.79

45. Given the cash flow diagram as shown. If interest rate is 10% determine the
equivalent total present worth.
46.
47. 0
1
2
48.
49.
50.
51.

1,000
1,500
2,000

A. P3,319.45
B. P3,345.19

C. P3.,543.91
D. P3,193.54

52. Problem:
53. An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series as shown. What is the
equivalent present worth of the debt if interest is 5%?
A. P15,781.43
0
1
2
B. P15,187.34
C. P15,178.34
D. P15,871.34
54.
55.

4
3,500

4,000

4,500
5,000

56. Problem:
57. Basketball superstar Vince Carter, playing for Toronto Raptors earning an
average annual salary of $5,000,000 for 10 years. Chicago Bulls ball club would like
to acquire his services as a replacement of the retired Michael Jordan, offered him
an initial annual salary of 3,000,000 but is increasing at the rate O $400,000
annually. If he can still play in the NBA for 10 years and money is worth 10% which
of the following is true?
A. Chicago Bulls offer is greater by 10% than that of Toronto Raptors
B. Chicago Bulls offer is greater by $235,276.31 than that of Toronto Raptors offer.
C. Chicago Bulls offer is less by $235,276.31 than that of Toronto Raptors offer.
D. Toronto Raptors offer is greater by 5% than that of Chicago Bulls.
58. Problem

59. John Grisham, author of the best selling novel The Chamber sold its copyright
to Warner Bros. for the rights to make it into a motion picture Mr. Grishams has
options between the following Warner Bros proposals:
60. Proposal A: An immediate lump sum payment of $3,500,000
61. Proposal B: An initial payment of $2,500,000 plus 4% of the movies gross
62.
receipts for the next 5 years which is forecasted as follows:
63.
64.

End of year
67.
70.
73.
76.
79.

1
2
3
4
5
82.

65.
68.
71.
74.
77.
80.

Gross Receipt
$10,000,000.00
&8,000,000.00
&6,000,000.00
&4,000,000.00
&2,000,000.00

66.
69.
72.
75.
78.
81.

4% of Gross
Receipt
&400,000.00
&320,000.00
&240,000.00
&160,000.00
&80,000.00

83. If money is worth 10% and Mr. Grisham will not receive any royalty after the fifth
year of exhibition of the movie, which of the following is true?
A. Proposal A is better for Mr.

C. Proposals A and B are of equal

Grisham
B. Proposal B is better for Mr.

amounts
D. Proposal B is 10% higher than

Grisham

Proposal A.

84. Problem:
85. Kathryn, believing that life begins at 40, decided to retire and start enjoying life at
age 40. She wishes to have upon her retirement a sum of P5,000,000. On her 21 st
birthday, she deposited a certain amount and increased her deposit by 15% each
year until she will be 40. If the money is deposited in a super savings account which
earns 15% interest compounded annually, how much was her initial deposit?
A. P17,566.33
B. P16,893.90
86. Problem:

C. P16,566.33
D. P17,893.90

87. A newly-acquired equipment requires an annual maintenance costs of P10,00. If

the annual maintenance cost is increased by 20% each year every year for 10 years,
what is the estimated present worth of the maintenance costs if money is worth
15%?
A. P106,101.37
B. P101,106.37

C. P137,101.06
D. P116,007.31

88. Problem:
89. A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at part at
the end of 15 years. To accumulate the funds required for redemption the firm
established a sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund
being 4%. What was the principal in the fund at the end of 12 th year?
A. P35,520.34
B. P36,781.29

C. P37,520.34
D. P38,901.82

90. Problem:
91. A local firm is establishing a sinking fund for the purpose of accumulating a
sufficient capital to retire its outstanding bonds at maturity. The bonds are
redeemable in 10 years and their maturity value is P150,000.00. How much should
be deposited each year if the fund pays interest at the rate of 3%?
A. P12,084.85
B. P13,084.58

C. P13,804.78
D. P13,408.56

92. Problem:
93. A P1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of
interest of this investment?
A. 3%
B. 4%
94. Problem:

C. 5%
D. 6%

95. A P1,000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110%
on June 21, 2004. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price
of the bond.
A. P1,122.75
B. P1,133.78

C. P1,144.81
D. P1,441.18

96. Problem:
97. A VOM has a selling price of P400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a
rate of 10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5
years?
A. P243.89
B. P263.02

C. P236.20
D. P251.20

98. Problem:
99. A machine costs P8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of
P500. What is its book value after 8 years using straight line method?
A. P2,100
B. P2,000

C. P1,900
D. P2,200

100. Problem:
101.
A company purchases an asset for P10,000.00 and plans to keep it for 20
years. If the salvage value is zero at the end of 20 th year, what is the depreciation in
the third year? Use SYD method.
A. P857.14
B. P865.32

C. P845.90
D. P875.41

102. Problem:
103.
An asset is purchased for P500,000.00. The salvage value in 25 years is
P100,000.00. What is the total depreciation in the first three years using straight-line
method?
A. P48,000
B. 46,000

C. 47,000
D. 45,000

104. Problem:
105.
ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased,
the annual depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with
no salvage value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation
used is the SYD method.
A. 7 years
B. 6 years

C. 8 years
D. 9 years

106. Problem:
107.
The cost of equipment is P500,000 and the cost of installation is P30,000.
If the salvage value is 10% of the cost of equipment at the end of 5 years, determine
the book value at the end of the fourth year. Use straight-line method.
A. P144,000
B. P147,000

C. P145,000
D. P:146,000

108. Problem:
109.
A machine has an initial cost of P50,000.00 and a salvage value of
P10,000.00 after 10 years. What is the straight line method depreciation rate as a
percentage of the initial cost?
A. 7%
B. 8%

C. 9%
D. 10%

110. EE Board April 1997

111.
A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000
after 10 years. Find the book value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation.
A. P30,000
B. P28,000

C. P32,000
D. P26,000

112. Problem:
113.
A machine costing P45,000 is estimated to have a book value of P4,350
when retired at the end of 6 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant

percentage of the declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in
%?
A. 30.75%
B. 31.25%

C. 32.25%
D. 33.75%

114. Problem:
115.
An engineer bought an equipment for P500,000. He spent an additional
amount of P30,000 for installation and other expenses. The estimated useful life of
the equipment is 10 years. The salvage value is x% of the first cost. Using the
straight lien method of depreciation, the book value at the end of 5 years will be
P291,500. What is the value of x?
A. 0.1
B. 0.2

C. 0.3
D. 0.4

116. Problem:
117.
The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000.
The BIR approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated
salvage value of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be
P15,000.00
118.
Using straight-line depreciation, what is the annual depreciation charge
and what is the book value of the machine at the end of six years?
A. P341,000
B. P353,900

C. P352,650
D. P340,380

119. Problem:
120.
A unit of welding machine cost P45,000 with an estimated life of 5 years.
Its salvage value is P2,500. Find its depreciation ate by straight-lien method.
A. 18.89%
B. 19.21%
121.

Problem:

C. 19.54%
D. 19.94%

122.

A consortium of international telecommunication companies contracted for

the purchase and installation of fiber optic cable linking Manila City and Cebu City at
a total cost of P960 million. This amount includes freight and installation charges
estimated at 10% of the above total contract price. If the cable shall be depreciated
over a period of 15 years with zero salvage value and money is worth 6% per
annum, what is the annual depreciation charge?
A. P40.2M
B. P41.2M

C. P42.1M
D. 43.2M

123. Problem
124.
A machine initially worth P50,000 depreciates in value each year by 20%
of its value at the beginning of that year. Find its book value when it is 9 years old.
A. P6,524.90
B. P6,690.12

C. P6,710.89
D. P6,890.12

125. Problem
126.
An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. its estimated economic life is 10
years after which it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three
years using sum-of-years digit method.
A. P3,279.72
B. P3,729.27

C. P3,972.27
D. P3,927.27

127. Problem:
128.
Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a
particular year of P50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions
except for depletion is P18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for
that particular year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%.
A. P9,250,000
B. P11,000,000
129.

Problem:

C. P10,500,000
D. P9,750,000

130.

The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to

contain 5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of P50,000,000. What is the

depletion charge during the year where it produces half million barrels of oil? Use
Unit or
131.

Factor

method

in

computing depletion.
A. $3M

B. $4M
C. $5M
D. $6M

132. Problem
133.
The first cost of a certain equipment is P324,000 and a salvage value of
P50,000 at the end of its life of 4 years. It money is worth 6% compounded annually,
fin dthe capitalized cost.
A. P562,198.67
B. P550,980.33

C. P454,045.23
D. P541,033.66

134. Problem:
135.
An item purchased for P100,000. Annual cost is P18,000. Using interest
rate of 8%, what is the capitalized cost of perpetual service?
A. P325,000
B. P350,000

C. P375,000
D. P385,000

136. Problem:
137.
A piece of equipment was purchased for P4,000,000. The useful life is
estimated at 5 years with no salvage value. The equipment is estimated to be used
for 1,000 hours per year. Operating costs are as follows:
138.
Fuel
: 10 liters per hour, P10 per liter
139.
Oil
: 1 liter per hour, P20 per liter
140.
Grease
: 2 liters per hour, P5 per liter
141.
142.
The equipment uses 6 tires costing P60,000 each. Cost of money is 15%
per year. Cost of insurance, taxes, storage, etc. is 5% per year. The interest table
needed for this problem is given in the figure.

143.
144.

Determine the cost of using the equipment and tires, in pesos per hour.

A. P2,202.90
B. P2,022.90

C. P2,902.30
D. P2,403.90

E.
F. CHAPTER 11
G. Thermodynamics Questions
H. Test II
I.
1. EE Board September 2002
J. Which of the following is the idea gas law (equation)?
A.

V
=k
T

B.

V =k P

C.

P1 P2
=
T1 T 2

D.

PV =nRT

2. EE Board October 1999

3. During adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in
entropy?
A. It is temperature-dependent
B. It is always greater that zero

C. It is always zero
D. It is always less than zero

4. EE Board October 1999

5. How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process? How does an
adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?
A. Adiabatic: heart transfer is not equal to zero: isentropic: heat transfer is zero.
B. Both: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible
C. Adiabatic: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: heat transfer is not equal to zero.
D. Both: heat transfer is not equal to zero: isentropic: irreversible
6. EE Board March 1998
7. Water boils when:
A. Its saturated vapor pressure equals to the atmosphere pressure
B. Its vapor pressure equals 76 cm of mercury
C. Its temperature reaches 212 centigrade
D. Its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm

8. EE Board March 1998

9. How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium
state of a pure gaseous compound?
A. 4
B. 3

C. 2
D. 1

10. EE Board March 1998

11. In an ideal gas mixture of constituents I and j, What is the mole fraction x, equal
to?
A.

P1
P1 + P j

B.

Pi V i
RT

C.

T1
T 1 +T j

D.

Zi
Z i+ Z j

12. EE Board March 1998

13. Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
A. 0

degree

Celsius

and

one

atmosphere
B. 32 degree Fahrenheit and zero

C. 0

degree

Kelvin

and

one

atmosphere
D. 0 degrees Fahrenheit and zero

pressure

pressure

14. EE Board April 1997

15. For heat engine operating between two temperatures (T 2 > T1), what is the
maximum efficiency attainable?
A.
B.

1
1

T1
T2
T2
T1

C.

T 1 T 2

D.

T1
T2

16. EE Board April 1997

17. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric system?
A. Zero

B. Positive

C. Negative

D. Positive or negative

18. EE Board April 1997

19. Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real
gas?
A. PV = nRT
B. An increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas.
C. The total volume of molecules on a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the
gas as a whole.
D. No attractive force exists between the molecules of a gas.
20. EE Board April 1996
21. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
A. Conservation of mass
B. Conservation of energy
C. Action and reaction

D. The

entropy

temperature

relationship

22. Which of the following cycle is used in vapor cycle power plant?
A. Brayton cycle
B. Diesel cycle

C. Ericson cycle
D. Rankine cycle

23. Which ideal cycle below is based on the concept that the combustion process is both
diesel and gasoline in the combustion of heat process that is constant pressure and
constant volume?
A. Ericson cycle
B. Dual cycle

C. Brayton cycle
D. Rankine cycle

24. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic property?

A. Pressure
B. Temperature

C. Volume
D. Phase

25. Which of the following compressibility factor of ideal gas?

A. 1
B. 2

C. 1.5
D. 0

26. The energy which includes all of the potential and kinetic energies the atoms or
molecules in a substance is known as

A. Internal energy
B. Enthalpy

C. Entropy
D. Total energy

27. What refers to the thermodynamic properties which are dependent the amount of the
substance present?
A. Extensive properties
B. Intensive properties

C. Reversible properties
D. Irreversible properties

28. What thermodynamic properties are independent of the amount substance present?
A. Intensive properties
B. Extensive properties

C. Reversible properties
D. Irreversible properties

29. What is known as the total heat and heat content at various times in history? It also
represents the useful energy of a substance.
A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy

C. Internal Energy
D. Latent heat

30. What is the measure of the energy that is no longer available to perform useful work
within the current environment? It is also known as the measure of the randomness
of the molecules.
A. Entropy
B. Enthalpy

C. Internal Energy
D. Flow work

31. What is the temperature when water and vapor are in equilibrium with the
atmospheric pressure?
A. Ice point
B. Steam point

C. Critical point
D. Freezing point

32. What is the unique state at which solid, liquid and gaseous phases can co-exist in
33. equilibrium?
A. Triple point
B. Critical point

C. Boiling point
D. Pour point

34. What refers to the state at which liquid and gaseous phases are indistinguishable?

A. Triple point
B. Critical point

C. Boiling point
D. Pour point

35. What refers to the heat needed to change the temperature of the substance without
changing its phase?
A. Latent heat
B. Sensible heat

C. Specific heat
D. Entropy

36. What is defined as the quantity of heat needed to raise the temperature of one
kilogram of water by one degree Celsius?
A. Kilojoule
B. Btu

C. Kilocalorie
D. Latent heat

37. What do you call a system in which there is a flow of matter through the boundary?
This system usually encloses the device that involves mass flow, such as
compressor, turbine, or nozzle.
A. Closed system
B. Open system

C. Isolated system
D. All of these

38. The mechanical equivalent of heat is

A. Joule
B. Calorie

C. Btu
D. Specific heat

39. The phenomenon of melting under pressure and freezing again when the pressure is
reduced is known as:
A. Sublimation
B. Condensation

C. Deposition
D. Regelation

40. What is the entropy of a pure substance at a temperature of absolute zero?

A. Unity
B. Zero

C. Infinity
D. Undefined

41. What is the area under the cure on a temperature entropy diagram?
A. Heat

B. Work

C. Entropy

D. Volume

42. In a closed vessel, when vaporization takes place the temperature rises. Due to the
rising temperature, the pressure increases until equilibrium is established between
43. the temperature and pressure. What
do you call the temperature of

a.
b.
c.
d.

Dew point
Ice point
Superheated point
Boiling point

equilibrium?
44. What happens to the internal energy of water at reference temperature where
enthalpy is zero?
A. Becomes negative
B. Becomes positive

C. Remains constant
D. Cannot be defined

45. EE Board October 1990

46. Which of the following equations is the definition of enthalpy?
A.
B.

h=U + PV
h=U +

P
V

C.
D.

h=

P U
+
V T

h=UPV

47. Which of the following is the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?
A. Negative
B. Positive

C. Zero
D. Undefined

48. Which of the following is the value of n for a perfect gas undergoing an isobaric
process?
A.

n>0

C.

n=1

B.

n=0

D.

49. If an initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one half its original volume
and to twice its original temperature, the pressure
A. Doubles
B. Halves

C. Quadruples
D. Triples

50. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place without transfer of heat to or
from the gas, the process is called:
A. Isometric process
B. Isothermal process

C. Isobaric process
D. Adiabatic process

51. In the absence of any irreversibilities, a thermoelectric generator, a device that

incorporates both thermal and electric effects, will have the efficiency of a/an
A. Carnot cycle
B. Otto cycle

C. Diesel cycle
D. Rankine cycle

52. Which of the following best describe both Stirling and Ericson engines?
A. Internal combustion engines
B. External combustion engines

C. Carnot engines
D. Brayton engines

53. Nozzles do not involve any work interaction. The fluid through the device
experiences which of the following?
A. No change in potential energy
B. No change in kinetic energy

C. No change in enthalpy
D. A vacuum

54. The convergent section of a nozzle increases the velocity of the flow of the gas.
What does it has to do on its pressure?
A. Pressure becomes constant
B. Pressure equals the velocity

C. It increases the pressure

D. It decreases the pressure

55. At steam point, the temperature of water and its vapor at standard pressure are:
A. Extremes or maximum
B. Unity

C. In equilibrium
D. Underfined

56. In a two-phase system, 30% moisture means

A. 70% liquid and 30% vapor
B. 70% vapor and 30% liquid
57. The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle is
steam turbine or gas turbine.

C. 30% liquid and 100% vapor

D. 30% vapor and 100% liquid
the thermal efficiency of a

A. Greater than
B. Less than

C. Not comparable
D. Equal

58. A property that indicates the natural direction of a process was first described by a
German physicist. This property is called entropy. Who coined the word entropy?
A. Rudolf Clausius
B. Lord Kelvin

C. Gabriel Volks
D. Rudolf Diesel

59. What is the temperature when water and vapor are in equilibrium with the
atmospheric pressur?
A. Ice point
B. Steam point

C. Critical point
D. Freezing point

60. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place without transfer of heat to
61. or from the gas, the process is
called:
A. Reversible

B. Adiabatic
C. Polytropic
D. Isothermal

62. What refers to a liquid whose temperature is lower than the saturation temperature
corresponding to the existing pressure?
A. Subcooled liquid
B. Saturated liquid

C. Pure liquid
D. Compressed liquid

63. Which law that states Entropy of all perfect crystalline solids is zero at absolute zero
temperature?
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics

C. Second law of thermodynamics

D. Third law of thermodynamics

64. What should be the temperature of both water and steam whenever they are present
together?
A. Saturation temperature for the
existing pressure

B. Boiling

point

of

water

101.325kPa
C. Superheated temperature

at

D. One hundred degrees centigrade

65. Which of the following occurs in a reversible polytropic process?
A. Enthalpy remains constant
B. Internal energy does not change

C. Some heat transfer occurs

D. Entropy remains constant

66. The change that the system that undergoes from one equilibrium state to another is
known as
A. Path
B. Process

C. Enthalpy
D. Change

67. What refers to the series of states through which a system passes during the
process?
A. Path
B. Quasi-static steps

C. Reversibility moves
D. Irreversibility moves

68. The triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure at which:
A. The solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
B. The solid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium
C. The solid, liquid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium
D. The solid does not melt, the liquid does not boil and the gas does not condense.
69. Which of the following relations is not applicable in a free expansion process?
A. Heat rejected is zero
B. Work done is zero

C. Change in temperature is zero

D. Heat supplied is zero

70. What system in which neither mass nor energy cross the boundaries and it is not
influenced by the surroundings?
A. Closed system
B. Open system

C. Isolated system
D. All of these

71. Ericson cycle has

A. Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes
B. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
C. Two isothermal and two constant entropy processes
D. Two adiabatic, one constant volume and constant pressure processes
72. A Stirling cycle has.
A. Two adiabatic and two constant volume processes
B. Two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes

C. Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes

D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
73. What is referred to by control volume?
A. An isolated system
B. Closed system

C. Fixed region in space

D. Reversible process only

74. Which of the following is used in thermal power plant?

A. Brayton cycle
B. Reversed Carnot cycle

C. Rankine cycle
D. Otto cycle

75. The elongation and compression of a helical spring is an example of which process?
A. Irreversible process
B. Reversible process

C. Isothermal process
D. Adiabatic process

76. A Bell-Coleman cycle is a reversed of which of the following cycles?

A. Stirling cycle
B. Joule cycle

C. Carnot cycle
D. Otto cycle

77. Brayton cycle has:

A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes
B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
C. One constant pressure, one constant volume and two adiabatic processes.
D. Two isothermal, one constant volume and one constant pressure processes.
78. Otto cycle consist of:
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes
B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
C. Two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
79. When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it
is undergoing what process?
A. Isobaric process
B. Quasi-static process
C. Isometric process

D. Isometric process
E. Cyclic processes

80. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is:

A. Always negative
B. Always positive
C. Zero
D. Undefined
81. The state of a thermodynamic system is always defined by its:

A. Absolute temperature
B. Process
C. Properties
D. Temperature and pressure
82. Entropy is the measure of:
A. The internal energy of a gas
B. The heat capacity of a substance
C. Randomness or disorder
D. The change of enthalpy of a system
83. What system in which there is no exchange of matter with the surrounding or mass
does not cross its boundaries?
a. Open system
b. Closed system
c. Isolated system
d. Nonflow system
84. Which one of the choices below refers to a system that is completely impervious to
its surrounding or neither mass nor energy cross its boundaries?
A. Open system
B. Closed system
C. Isolated system
D. Nonflow system
85. What refers to a system in which there is a flow of mass across its boundaries?
A. Open system
B. Closed system
C. Isolated system
D. Steady flow system
86. When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are in thermal equilibrium with a
third body, the two are in thermal equilibrium with each other. What do you call this
statement?
a. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b. First law of thermodynamics
c. Second law of thermodynamics
d. Third law of thermodynamics
87. At equal volume, at the same temperature and pressure conditions, the gas contain
the same number of molecules. This refers to which of the following laws?
A. Boyles law
B. Charles law
C. Daltons law
D. Avogadros law

88. In the polytropic process we have pvn = constant, if the value of n is infinitely large,
the process is called:
A. Constant volume process
B. Constant pressure process
C. Constant temperature process
D. adiabatic process
89. Which of the following cannot be a properly of a gas?
A. Density
B. Pressure
C. Viscosity
D. Temperature
90. During adiabatic process, which of the following is the change in entropy?
A. Zero
B. Greater that zero
C. Less than zero
D. Infinity
91. Which of the following best describe an adiabatic process?
A. The system does no work nor is work done on it
B. The temperature of the system remains constant
C. The heat of the system is changing
D. No heat enters or leaves the system
92. Boiling occurs when the vapor pressure attains which of the following pressures?
A. The gage pressure
B. The critical pressure
C. The ambient pressure
D. One standard atmosphere
93. Which of the following systems where there is no transfer of matter across the
boundary? This system consists a fixed amount of mass, and no mass can cross its
boundary or no mass can enter or leave the system.
A. Closed system
B. Open system
C. Isolated system
D. All of these
94. Which of the following values characterize the state of the system?
A. Cycle
B. Process
C. Property
D. Enthalpy
95. In a complete heat engine cycle, which of the following is the area enclosed by the
PV-diagram?
A. The work done by the engine per cycle
B. The heat transferred of the per cycle

C. The enthalpy of the per cycle

D. The volume of exhaust gas per cycle
96. Which of the following engines is least efficient?
A. Gas turbine
B. Diesel engine
C. Carnot engine
D. Gasoline engine
97. Which of the following engines is the most efficient?
A. Gas turbine
B. Diesel engine
C. Carnot engine
D. Gasoline engine
98. Which of the following is the process that cannot be found in a Carnot engine cycle?
A. Isobaric expansion
B. Adiabatic compression
C. Adiabatic expansion
D. Isothermal expansion
99. In any process, the maximum amount of heat that can be converted in to mechanical
energy:
A. Depends only on the exhaust temperature
B. Depends on the intake and exhaust temperatures
C. Is always 100%
D. Depends on the involvement of kinetic and potential energy involved.
100. Who coined the word energy?
A. James Joule
B. Thomas Young
C. Rodulf Diesel
D. Lord Kelvin
101. An ideal heat engine can be 100% efficient only and only if its exhaust
temperature is:
A. Same as the input temperature
B. Greater than the input temperature
C. Less than the input temperature
D. 0 K temperature
102. What is the most frequent what is the most frequent term used in thermodynamic
heat engines which indicate how well an energy conversion or transfer process is
accomplished?
A. Cycle
B. Efficiency
C. Heating effect
D. Reversibility
103. Which of the following diagrams was introduced by German scientist R. Mollier?

A.
B.
C.
D.
104.

Enthalpy entropy (h-s) diagram

Temperature-entropy (t-s) diagram
Pressure-volume (p-v) diagram
Pressure-enthalpy (p-h) diagram
Which of the following laws of thermodynamics which leads to the definition of

entropy?
A. First law
B. Second law
C. Third law
D. Law of conservation of energy
105. Which of the following is the other term used for enthalpy-entropy (h-s) diagram?
A. Enthalpy diagram
B. Mollier diagram
C. Steam diagram
D. Entropy chart
106. Which of the following defines the work output for every heat engine?
A. Work output is a function of exhaust temperature only
B. Work output is a function of intake temperature only
C. Work output is the difference between its heat intake and heat exhaust
D. Work output is the difference in entropy always.
107. Which of the following is the value of n (from PV n=C) for a perfect gas undergoing
isothermal process?
A. 0
B. 1
108.
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.

C. Infinity
D. n>1

What is used for predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases?

Compressibility factor
Expansivity factor
Emissivity factor
Vann-d Whals factor
For any reversible thermodynamic process, which of the following statements is

true regarding the change in entropy?

A.
B.
110.
A.
B.
C.

dS=

dQ
T

dS=

C.
D.

dS< 0
dS> 0

Which of the following processes where the equation dQ=Tds is applicable?

Irreversible
Isometric
Reversible

D.
111.
A.
B.
C.
D.
112.

Isothermal
Which of the following thermodynamic relations is not correct?
Q=U+W
Tds = dU + pdV
dH = Tds + VdP
H = U - pV
Which of the following thermodynamic devices operates the reverse of the heat

engine?
A. Thermal pump
B. Thermal evaporator
C. Thermal condenser
D. Thermal equilibrant
113. What is another term used for isometric processes?
A. Isochoric process
B. Iolytropic process
C. Isothermal process
D. Reversible process
114. Which of the following engines was introduced by a German engineer Nickolas
Otto?
A. Gasoline Engine
B. Diesel Engine
C. Gas tubine
D. Thermal Engine
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.

TEST 19

1. What do you call the market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for
which there are no goods substitute?
A. Monopsony
B. Monopoly

C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

2. What is a method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed

percentage of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year to which the
depreciation applies?
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. SYD method
D. Declining balance method
3. What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of
time and usually expressed as a percentage of the principal?
A. Return of investment
B. Interest rate

C. Yield
D. Rate of return

4. What is defined as the future value minus the present value?

A. Yield
B. Rate of return

C. Capital
D. Discount

5. EE Board April 2001

6. What do you call the worth of property as shown in the accounting records?
A. Use value
B. Book value

C. Fair value
D. Scrap value

7. A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is

called
.
A. Load factor
B. Demand factor
C. Sinking fund factor
D. Present worth factor
8. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership

C. Corporation
D. Enterprise

9. What is the simplest form of business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
10. Which is an example of intangible asset?
A. Cash

C. Enterprise
D. Corporation

B. Investment in subsidiary companies

C. Furniture
D. Patents
11. The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of
obligations to financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as
.
12. What refers to the lessening of the value of an asset (eg. Naturalresources, such as
coal, oil, etc.) due to the decrease in the quantity available?
A. Inflation
B. Depletion

C. Depreciation
D. Incremental cost

E.
13. EE Board April 2003
F. _______________ is the element of value which a business has earned through
the favorable consideration and patronage of its customers arising from its well
known and well conducted policies and operations.
A. Status of company
B. Big income

C. Known owners
D. Goodwill

14. The amount of property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the
property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy or sell is called
A. Fair value
B. Market value

C. Goodwill value
D. Book value

15. Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A. The amounts of all payments are equal.
B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period.
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.
16. What is defined as the certificate of indebtedness of corporation usually for a period
not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a
corporation?
A. Bond
B. T-bills

C. Stock
D. All of the choices

17. What do you call the increase in the value of a capital asset?
A. Profit
B. Capital gain

C. Capital expenditure
D. Capital stock

18. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership

A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets)
C. The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
D. The partners may sell stock to generate additional capital
19. Which is true about partnership?
A. It has a perpetual life.
B. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the
partnership.
C. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another
D. Its capitalization must be equal for equal partner.
20. Which is true about corporation?
A. It is worse type of business organization.
B. The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three.
C. Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators.
D. The stockholders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their
investments.
21. What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial
security?
A. Bond
B. Bank note
C. Coupon
D. Check
22. What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations?
A. Mortgage bond
B. Joint bond
C. Tie-up bond
D. Trust bond
23. What type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipment such as freight
and passenger cars, locomotives, etc?
A. Railroad bond
B. Equipment obligation bond
C. Equipment bond
D. Equipment trust bond
24. A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the
date when such interest is to be paid is

bond.

A. Registered
B. Coupon
C. Mortgage
D. Collateral trust
25. What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specific assets of the
corporation?
A. Registered bond
B. Collateral trust bond
C. Mortgage bond
D. Debenture bond
26. A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing
corporation is called
A. Joint bond
B. Debenture bond
C. Trust bond
D. Common bond
27. A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns such as the
stock or bonds of one of its subsidiaries.
A. Mortgage bond
B. Joint bond
C. Security bond
D. Collateral trust bond
28. What type of bond where the corporations owners name are recorded and the
interest is paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it?
A. Preferred bond
B. Registered bond
C. Incorporators bond
D. All of the choices
29. What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the
assets of the corporation after all other claims have been settled?
A. Authorized capital stock
B. Preferred stock
C. Incorporator stock
D. Common stock
30. What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary
stock?
A. Authorized stock
B. Preferred stock
C. Incorporators stock
D. Presidential stock

31. What refers to the place where sellers and buyers come together?
A. Department store
B. Market
C. Mall
D. Business center
32. When free competition exists, the price of a product will be that value where supply
is equal to the demand. This is commonly known as
A. Law of diminishing return
B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand
33. When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate
increase in output. This refers to what?
A. Law of diminishing return
B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand
34. Salvage value is sometimes known as
A. Scrap value
B. Going value
C. Junk value
D. Second hand value
35. What do you call the reduction in the money value of a capital asset?
A. Capital expenditure
B. Capital loss
C. Loss
D. Deficit
36. What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit?
A. Time deposit
B. Bond
C. Capital gain certificate
D. Certificate of deposit
37. What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool,
flour, coffee, etc?
A. Utility
B. Necessity
C. Commodity
D. Stock
38. _______ denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the others.
This term usually applies to the floating exchange rate.

A. Currency appreciation
B. Currency depreciation
C. Currency devaluation
D. Currency float
39. the deliberate lowering of the price of a nations currency in terms of the accepted
standard (Gold, American dollar or the British pound) is known as
A. currency appreciation
B. currency depreciation
C. currency devaluation
D. currency float
40. the amount of companys profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides
to distribute to ordinary shareholders is called
.
A. dividend
B. return
C. share of stock
D. equity
41. What refers to the residual value of a companys assets after all outside liabilities
(shareholders excluded) have been allowed for?
A. Dividend
B. Equity
C. Return
D. Par value
42. Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are examples of what type of asset?
A. Current asset
B. Trade investment asset
C. Fixed asset
D. Intangible asset
43. Refers to a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the
first payment is made after several periods from the first period.
A. Deferred annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Ordinary annuity
D. Perpetuity
44. Which one refers to an annuity where the payments are made at the start of each
period, beginning from the first period?
A. Deferred annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Ordinary annuity
D. Perpetuity

45. What type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each period,
starting from the first period?
A. Deferred annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Ordinary annuity
D. Perpetuity
46. What refers to the cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event,
based on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn?
A. Present worth factor
B. Interest rate
C. Time value of money
D. Yield
47. In computing depreciation of an equipment, which of the following represents the
first cost?
A. The original purchase price and freight charges
B. Installation expenses
C. Initial taxes and permit fees
D. All of the choices
48. What refers to the function of interest rate and time that determine the cumulative
amount of a sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits?
A. Sinking fund factor
B. Present worth factor
C. Capacity factor
D. Demand factor
49. What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third part, different from
the buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both
parties?
A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Fair value
D. Franchise value
50. What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive right of
a company to provide a specified product and service in a certain region of the
country?
A. Company value
B. Going value
C. Goodwill value
D. Franchise value

51. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a
given time and place is known as
A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Necessity
D. Utility
52. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given time
and place is known as
A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Necessity
D. Utility
53. What market situation exists where there are few sellers and few buyers?
A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony
C. Bilateral oligopoly
D. Bilateral oligopsony
54. What market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller?
A. Monopsony
B. Monopoly
C. Bilateral monopsony
D. Bilateral monopoly
55. What refers to the saving which takes place because goods are not available for
consumption rather than the consumer really want to save?
A. Compulsory saving
B. Consumer saving
C. Forced saving
D. All of the above choices
56. The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1
year period is known as
A. Expected return
B. Nominal interest
C. Effective interest
D. Economic return
57. Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula?
a. First cost + interest of first cost
b. Annual cost + interest of first cost
c. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
d. First cost + salvage value

58. As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost bya periodic
changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic
or irregular prearranged programs is called
.
A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Capital recovery
D. Annuity factor
59. The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called
A. Capital recovery
B. Cash flow

C. Economic return
D. Earning value

60. A method of computing depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread

uniformly over the estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of
output.
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method
61. What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a
project is zero of the interest earned by an investment?
A. Economic return
B. Yield
C. Rate of return
D. Return of investment
62. EE Board October 1993, EE Board October 1994
63. The difference between the present and future worth of money at some time in
the future.
A. Discount
B. Deduction
C. Inflation
D. Arithmetic progression
64. EE Board October 1993
65. It is the present worth of its probable future net earnings.
A. Total fair value
B. Total market value
C. Going concern value
D. Earning value
66. EE Board October 1993
67. The simplest and extensively employed method in computing depreciation.

A. Sinking fund method

B. Sum of integers method
C. Straight line method
D. Fixed percentage method
68. EE Board October 1993
69. Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession
and the process, attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or
incident to its existence.
A. Corporation
B. Property
C. Partnership
D. Organization
70. EE Board April 1994
71. The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been
bought for a second hand dealer or some other business.
A. Material cost
B. Fixed cost
C. First cost
D. In-place value
72. EE Board April 1994
73. When of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportional
increase in output.
A. Law of demand
B. Law of supply and demand
C. Law of supply
D. Law of diminishing return
74. EE Board April 1994
75. The original record of a business transaction is recorded in this book.
A. Work book
B. Journal
C. Ledger
D. Account book
76. EE Board April 1994
77. Is the process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific
reason.
A. Investment
B. Valuation
C. Economy
D. Depletion

78. EE Board April 1994

79. All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of
goods.
A. Net income
B. Gross income

C. Net revenue
D. Total sales

80. EE Board April 1994

81. It is the price a buyer is willing to pay a willing seller for the stock.
A. Bond value
B. Scrap value
C. Market value
D. Stock value
82. EE Board April 1994, EE Board October 1994
83. Is the claim of anyone to ownership
A. Proprietorship
B. Assets
C. Equity
D. Liability
84. EE Board October 1994
85. Amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
A. Interest
B. Rate of interest
C. Simple interest
D. Principal
86. EE Board October 1994
87. Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise.
A. Capital
B. Funds
C. Assets
D. Liabilities
88. EE Board October 1994
89. The unrecovered depreciation results due to poor estimates as to the life of the
equipment.
A. Sunk cost
B. Economic life
C. In-place value
D. Annuity
90. EE Board April 1995
91. Share of participation
A. Franchise
B. Partnership
C. Stock
D. Corporation
92. EE Board April 1995
93. A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone
and entirely for his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and
liabilities.
A. Sole proprietorship
B. Entrepreneurship

C. Partnership
D. Corporation
94. EE Board October 1996
95. An aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business
and recognized by law as a fictitious person is called
A. Partnership
B. Investors
C. Corporation
D. Stockholders
96. All are classified under direct labor expenses EXCEPT:
A. Inspection cost
B. Testing cost
C. Assembly cost
D. Supervision cost
97. What is another term for current assets?
A. Fixed assets
B. Non-liquid assets
C. Liquid assets
D. Cash
98. In SYD method of computing depreciation, what is the formula in computing the
sum-of-years digit with n as the number of useful years of the equipment?
n(n1)
A.
2
B.

n ( n+ 1 )
2

C.

n ( n1 )

D.

n( n+ 1)

99. EE Board October 1999

100.
The present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of
time is referred as
A. Annual cost
B. Increment cost
C. Capitalized cost
D. Operating cost
101. EE Board October 1999
102.
A secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from
the journal.
A. Balanced sheet
B. Ledger

C.
D.
103.
A.
B.
C.
D.
104.

Worksheet
Trial balance
Capitalized cost of a project is also known as
Infinite cost
Life cycle cost
Life cost
Project cost
What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplishes the same

purpose but have unequal lives?

A. Capitalized cost method
B. Present worth method
C. Annual cost method
D. MARR
105. What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and
costs accrue to different segments of the community?
A. Annual cost method
B. Benefit-cost ratio
C. Rate of return method
D. EUAC
106. What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a
particular strategy is rejected?
A. Opportunity cost
B. Ghost cost
C. Horizon cost
D. Null cost
107. What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation
is seldom used in the industry?
A. Unstable economy
B. Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined
C. The initial depreciation is high.
D. The initial depreciation is low.
108. What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects over the
depreciation period of the asset?
A. Asset recovery
B. Depreciation recovery
C. Period recovery
D. After-tax recovery
109. What is used to record historical financial transactions?
A. Bookkeeping system
B. Ledger system
C. Balance check

D. General journal system

110. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are
collected?
A. Current ratio
B. Quick ratio
C. Acid test ratio
D. Receivable turnover
111. The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called
A. Current ratio
B. Inventory turnover
C. Profit margin ratio
D. Price-earning ratio
112. Return on investment ratio is the ratio of the:
A. Net income to owners equity
B. Market price per share to earnings per share
C. Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory at hand
D. Net credit sales to average net receivables
113. Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to
A. Net sales
B. Owners equity
C. Inventory turnover
D. Quick assets
114. What is another term for acid-test ratio?
a. Current ratio
b. Quick ratio
c. Profit margin ratio
d. Price-earning ratio
115. What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment?
A. Cost of goods sold
B. Cost accounting
C. Standard cost
D. Overhead cost
116. What is the factor name of the formula (1+1)-n?
A. Uniform gradient future worth
B. Capital recovery
C. Single payment present worth
D. Single payment compound amount
i ( 1+i )n
117. What is the factor name of the formula ( 1=1 )n1
A.
B.
C.
D.
118.

Uniform series sinking fund

Capital recovery
Single payment present worth
Uniform gradient future worth
What is used when a quick estimate of the doubling time is needed?

A.
B.
C.
D.
119.
A.
B.
C.
D.
120.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Rule of 48
Rule of 36
Rule of 24
Rule of 72
What do you call a one-time credit against taxes?
Due credit
Tax credit
Credible credit
Revenue credit
What is the change in cost per unit variable change called?
Variable cost
Incremental cost
Fixed cost
Supplemental cost

121.
122.
123.
124.
125.

CHAPTER 7
CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS
Test 7

1. EE Board October 1999

126.
What type of bond results in form the sharing of electrons by two atoms?
A. Atomic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Ionic bond
2. EE Board April 1997
127.
Which of the following statements regarding organic substances is
FALSE?
A. Organic substances generally dissolve in high concentration acids
B. All organic matter contains carbon
C. Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperatures
D. Organic substances generally do not dissolve in water
3. What do you call a substance that dissociates in solutions to produce positive and
negative ions?
A. Base
B. Acid
C. Electrolyte
D. Solute
4. During a complete or partial neutralization of acids, what is the ionic compound
formed?
A. Salt

B. Sugar
C. potassium
D. sulfur
5. EE Board October 1997
128.
Which of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is
inorganic?
A. The substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure
B. The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are
found to have no effect on limestone
C. Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen
D. The substance floats in water
6. Which of the following are found in the nucleus of an atom?
A. Electrons and protons
B. Electrons and neutrons
C. Protons and neutrons
D. Electrons, protons and neutrons
7. EE Board April 1997
129.
Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure
form?
A. Helium (He)
B. Neon (Ne)
C. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
D. Sodium (Na)
8. What refers to the negatively charge component of an atom?
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Neutron
D. Ion
9. Which of the following is the simplest type of reaction where tow elements or
compounds combine directly to form a compound?
A. Direct combination or synthesis
B. Decomposition or analysis
C. Single displacement
D. Double displacement
10. What do you call the bonding that occurs in inert gases and other elements with full
shells, primarily due to attraction between dipole structures?
A. Ionic
B. Metallic
C. Covalent
D. Van der Waals

11. If the heat of a solution is negative, heat is given off when the solution dissolves in
the solvent. What type of reaction is this?
A. Exothermic
B. Ideal
C. Endothermic
D. Efflorescent
12. What do you call materials that do not conduct electric current?
A. Conductor
B. Insulator
C. Semi-conductor
D. Intrinsic material
13. EE Board October 1994
130.
What element is known as the lightest metal?
A. Aluminum
B. Manganese
C. Magnesium
D. Lithium
14. Which of the following is energy removal being applied?
A. Evaporation of water
B. Changing water to steam
C. Changing water to ice
D. All of these
15. Halogens falls under what group in the periodic table?
A. Group VIA
B. Group VA
C. Group IVA
D. Group VIIA
16. Which of the following is added to the drinking water distribution system for
disinfection?
A. Soda ash
B. Chlorine
C. Lime ;
D. Iodine
17. What refers to the number of gram equivalent weights of solute per liter of solution?
A. Molality
B. Normality
C. Molarity
D. Formality
18. EE Board October 1995
131.
Is the attraction between like molecules
A. Absorption
B. Diffusion
C. Adhesion
D. Cohesion

19. What do you call a substance that cannot be decomposed any further by a chemical
reaction?
A. Ion
B. Element
C. Molecule
D. Atom
20. One of the following is the standard pressure and temperature. Which one?
A. 0oC and one atmosphere pressure
B. 0oC and zero pressure
C. 0oF and one atmosphere
D. 32oF and zero pressure
21. EE Board April 1997
132.
Which of the following is the strongest type of bonds?
A. Van de Waals
B. Metallic
C. Covalent
D. Ionic
22. Sublimation is a direct change from:
A. Solid to liquid phase
B. Solid to gaseous phase
C. Liquid to gaseous phase
D. Gaseous to liquid phase
23. What do you call hydrocarbons containing carbon to carbon double bonds?
A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Alkynes
D. None of these
24. How are materials containing atoms with less than four valence electrons classified?
A. An insulator
B. A semi-conductor
C. A conductor
D. A compound
25. Which of the following has the characteristics of both metals and non-metals?
A. Conductors
B. Insulators
C. metalloids
D. Meteors
26. EE Board October 1996, EE Board March 1998
133.
Which are oxidizing and reducing agents in the following reactions?
134.
2CCI4+k2CrO4 2CI2CO+CrO2CI2+2KCI
A. There are no oxidizing and reducing agents in this reaction
B. Oxidizing agent: Chromium; reducing agent: Chlorine
C. Oxidizing agent: chlorine; reducing agent: Carbon
D. Oxidizing agent: Oxygen; reducing agent: Chlorine
27. How are elements numbered 58 to 71 in the periodic table called?

A. Lanthanons
B. Actinons
C. Earth metals
D. Noble gas
28. What type of bonding in which electrostatic attraction is predominant?
A. Ionic bonding
B. Metallic bonding
C. Covalent bonding
D. Van der Waals bonding
29. What term refers to the passage of an electric current through an electrolyte caused
by an external voltage source. Which one?
A. Electrolysis
B. Electrochemical action
C. Electrolyte
D. Piezoelectric effect
30. EE Board October 1992
135.
When all of the atoms of a molecule are the same, the substance is called
A. A compound
B. A chemical
C. An element
D. An ion
31. Which of the following refers to the measure of the amount of negative ions in the
water?
A. Acidity
B. Alkalinity
C. Turbidity
D. Molarity
32. What device produces electrical current by way of an oxidation-reduction reaction?
A. Generator
B. Galvanic cell
C. Metallic friction
D. All of these
33. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the
valence shell of an atom?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
34. EE Board April 1997
136.
Reactions generally proceed faster at high temperatures because of which
of the following?
A. The molecules are less energetic

B. The molecules collide more frequently

C. The activation energy is less
D. The molecules collide more frequently and the activation energy is less
35. Which component of an atom has no electric charge?
A. Proton
B. Neutron
C. Coulomb
D. Electron
36. Adding more solute to an already saturated solution will cause the excess solute to
settle to the bottom of the container. What is this process called?
A. Precipitation
B. Hydration
C. Dehydration
D. Saturation
37. What is formed when acids will react with active metals?
A. Sulfur
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
D. Chloride
38. How much is the pH content of an acid?
A. Between 4 and 6
B. Between 2 and 7
C. Between 1 and 5
D. Between 0 and 7
39. EE Board October 1994
137.
The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its:
A. Specific gravity
B. Acid content
C. Voltage output
D. Current value
40. What is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without itself undergoing a
chemical change?
A. Ingredients
B. Reactants
C. Solvent
D. Catalyst
41. How are elements numbered 90 to 103 in the periodic table called?
A. Alkali
B. Actinons
C. Earth metals
D. Transition elements
42. What is defined as a value equal to the number of gram moles of solute per 1000
grams of solvent?

A. Molality
B. Normality
C. Molarity
D. Formality
43. Which of the following is NOT a part of an atom?
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Neutron
D. Coulomb
44. EE Board October 1997
138.
An element maybe define as a substance, all atoms of which have the
same:
A. Number of neutrons
B. Radioactivity
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic number
45. How does all B families and group VIII in the periodic table named?
A. Light metals
B. Rare earth metals
C. Non-metals
D. Transition metals
46. EE Board October 1992
139.
The device which measures the acid content of the cell is called
A. Acid meter
B. Hydrometer
C. Hygrometer
D. Pyrometer
47. The vertical columns in the periodic table are called:
A. Groups
B. Sections
C. Batches
D. Families
48. What term is used to refer to a negatively charged ion?
A. Anion
B. Cathode
C. Anode
D. Cation
49. EE Board October 1992
A. No electron
B. One electron
C. Two electrons
D. Four electrons
50. The elements along the dark line in the periodic table are referred to as
A. Light metals
B. Metalloids

C. Non-metals
D. Heavy metals
51. What do you call an atom that losses some of its electron or accepts extra electons
from another atom?
A. Intrinsic
B. Mole
C. Neutron
D. Ion
52. EE Board April 2001
140.
A

is a cell designed to produce electric current and can be

recharged.
A. Secondary cell
B. Electrolytic cell
C. Chemical cell
D. Battery
53. Which of the following groups in the periodic table the most strongly electronegative
elements?
A. Group IV
B. Group V
C. Group VIIA
D. D. Group VIA
54. EE Board April 1997
141.
Which of the following statement is FALSE?
A. In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and
reform reactants.
B. At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero.
C. The differential rate is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a
reaction depends on volume
D. The net rate at which a reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward
rate minus the reverse rate.
55. What is the smallest part of matter?
A. Molecule
B. Element
C. Particle
D. Atom
56. EE Board April 1995
142.
The opposite of alkali
A. Acid
B. Fluid
C. Substance

D. None of these
57. What type of reaction has two compounds as reactants and two compounds as
products?
A. Direct combination or synthesis
B. Decomposition or analysis
C. Single displacement
D. Double displacement
58. If the heat of a solution is positive, heat is absorbed when the solute dissolves in the
solvent. What type of reaction is this?
A. Exothermic
B. Ideal
C. Endothermic
D. Efflorescent
59. EE Board October 1992
143.
The amount of electricity a battery can produce is controlled by
A. The thickness of the plate
B. The plate surface
60. What do you call the electrons in the last orbit or shell of an atom?
A. Bound electrons
B. Free electrons
C. Valence electrons
D. External electrons
61. Which one is the positively charged ion?
a. Anion
b. Cathode
c. Anode
d. Cation
62. EE Board April 1996
144.
It is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
A. Molecular number
B. Proton number
C. Mass number
D. Atomic number
63. What do you call the elements in the first two groups in the periodic table?
A. Light metal
B. Noble gas
C. Non-metals
D. Heavy metals
64. Which one refers to the number of gram-moles of solute per liter of solution
A. Motality
B. Normality
C. Molarity
D. Formality
65. What type of bonding is electrostatic attraction most predominant?

A. Ionic
B. Metallic
C. Covalent
D. Van der walls
66. EE Board October 1992
145.
When the charge of an atom becomes unbalanced, the charge atom is
called
A. An ion
B. A neutron
C. A proton
D. An electron
67. Which of the following type of reactions in which bonds within a compound are
disrupted by heat or other energy to produce simpler compounds or elements?
A. Direct combination or synthesis
B. Decomposition or analysis
C. Single displacement
D. Double displacement
68. What do you call hydrocarbons containing carbon to carbon triple bonds?
A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Alkynes
D. None of these
69. If an tom contains more than four valence electrons, the materials classified as
A. Insulator
B. Semi-conductor
C. Conductor
D. Any of these
70. Which of the following refers to a measure of the quantity of an element or
compound?
A. Oxidation number
B. Atomic number
C. Avogadros number
D. Mole
71. EE Board October 1992
146.
The electrolyte is a solution of water and
A. Sulfuric acid
B. Uric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Formic acid
72. Acids will turn blue litmus paper to what color?
A. Gray
B. Yellow
C. Violet

D. Red
73. How much is the pH content of a base?
A. Between 6 and 10
B. Between 2 and 7
C. Between 7 and 14
D. Between 10 and 16
74. Applying a greater pressure causes pure solvent to leave the solution. What is the
name of this process?
A. Cavitation
B. Calcination
C. Purification
D. Reverse osmosis
75. EE Board October 1997
147.
A deuteron is
A. A neutron plus two protons
B. A nucleus containing a neutron and a proton
C. An electron with a positive charge
D. A helium nucleus
76. Which of the following groups in the periodic table the most weakly electronegative
elements?
A. Group IIA
B. Group IA
C. Group IIIA
D. Group IVA
77. What type of bonding that occurs in metals when metal atoms lose electrons and the
metallic ions are attracted to a sea of delcocalized electrons?
A. Ionic bonding
B. Metallic bonding
C. covalent bonding
D. van der Waals bonding
78. EE Board October 1999
148.
Which of the following elements is NOT radioactive?
A. Plutonium
B. Californium
C. Uranium
D. Cobalt
79. Which of the following refers to a nucleic acid that stores genetic information?
A. Cellulose
B. Codon
C. DNA
D. Buffer

80. During chemical reactions, bonds between atoms are broken and new bonds are
usually formed. What do you call the starting substance?
A. Products
B. Reactants
C. Catalyst
D. Ingredients
81. What do you call solutions having the same osmotic pressure?
A. Isotonic solutions
B. Monohydroxic solutions
C. Dihydroxic solutions
D. Toxic solutions
82. What is the term used to describe hydrocarbons containing single covalent bonds
between carbon atoms?
A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Alkynes
D. Allotrope
83. RME Baord April 1997
149.
The smallest whole unit of an element like Uranium is;
A. Molecule
B. Atom
C. Ion
D. Electron
84. What refers to the formation and collapse of minute bubbles of vapor in liquid which
caused by a combination of reduced pressure and increased velocity in the fluid?
A. Cavitation
B. Stress corrosion
C. Fatigue corrosion
D. Precipitation
85. The elements in Group 0 in the periodic table are called
A. Light metals
B. Rare earth metals
C. Noble gas
D. Heavy metals
86. EE Board June 1990
150.
A pair of electrical conductors of dissimilar materials so joined as to
produce a thermal emf when the junctions are of different temperatures.
A. Potentiometer
B. Piezoelectric
C. Thermocouple
D. Solar heating
87. Bases will turn red litmus paper to what color?

A. Blue
B. Yellow
C. Violet
D. Green
88. Which of the following refers to the diffusion of a solvent into a stronger solution in
an attempt to equalize the two concentrations?
A. Purification
B. Electrolysis
C. Osmosis
D. Hydrolysis
89. EE Board October 1996
151.
The formula for Dinitrogen Pentoxide is:
A. N2O5
B. (NO)5
C. NO
D. None of these
90. Which of the following will occur if a substance is oxidized?
A. It absorbs energy
B. It losses electrons
C. It becomes more negative
D. It gives off heat
91. What type of reaction has one element and one compound as reactants?
A. Direct combination or synthesis
B. Decomposition or analysis
C. Single displacement
D. Double displacement
92. Which of the following is the atomic number of silicon?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 14
D. 28
93. EE Board October 1992
152.
Dielectric is another name for
A. A conductor
B. An element
C. An insulator
D. A capacitor
94. Which of the following refers to the change from gaseous to liquid phase?
A. Condensation
B. Vaporization
C. Sublimation
D. Ionization
95. EE Board April 1996

153.

At the same pressure and temperature, equal volumes of all gases contain

equal number of molecules. This is known as

A. Boyles law
B. Faradays law
C. Avogadros law
D. Charles law
96. The galvanic cell is not dependent of which factor?
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. Chemical substance
97. Which of the following refers to the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of
an atom?
A. Atomic weight
B. Atomic mass
C. Atomic constant
D. Atomic number
98. EE Board October 1996
154.
One of the following statements is wrong. Which one is it?
A. Electron is an elementary quantity of negative electricity
B. Proton is an elementary quantity of positive electricity
C. An atom is composed of a central nucleus and orbit electrons
D. The mass of an electron is heavier than that of a proton
99. During chemical reactions, bonds between atoms are broken and new bonds are
usually formed. The ending substance is called
A. Products
B. Reactants
C. Catalyst
D. Ingredients
100. What is the smallest subdivision of an element or compound that can exist in a
natural state?
A. Atom
B. Molecule
C. Ion
D. Element
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.

160.