2015 Bull Mock CAT -06

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Test Booklet No.

Please read the Instructions for the test carefully

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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.
Use only a HB pencil to fill in the Test Booklet and the Answer sheet.
Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you
books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators, (including watch calculators), cellular
phones, pagers, digital or any other devices or loose paper. These should be left outside the room.
Ensure that your personal data has been correctly entered in the Answer sheet on both the sides.
AT THE START OF THE TEST
As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet.
This Test Booklet contains a total of 24 pages. You will get the first seven pages in the first section
and the remaining pages in the second section. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify
that all the pages are printed properly and are in order.
HOW TO ANSWER
This test has 2 Sections with 100 questions, which examine various abilities.
You will be given a total of 170 minutes to complete the test.
Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these
directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer
Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question.
Each correct question carries 3 marks. Wrong answers carry proportionate, 1/3rd negative marking
i.e. one mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.
Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be
disqualified.
AFTER THE TEST
At the end of the test remain seated till the invigilator collects your Application Form-cum-Answer
sheet from your seats. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, You may leave now.
The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the Application Form-cumAnswer sheets from every candidate in the room.
You may retain the test booklet with you.

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CENTRES
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Bull Mock CAT 06 1

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SECTION I
QUANT & DI

No. of questions: 50

DIRECTIONS for the questions 1 to 5: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
1.

A chocolate manufacturing company received an order of 400 litres of dark brown chocolate and 360
litres of white milk chocolate. It has two machines (X and Y) to make these chocolates. X takes 4
hours to make 16 litres of dark brown chocolate and 3 hours to make 9 litres of white milk chocolate.
Y takes 4 hours to make 12 litres of dark brown chocolate and 3 hours to make 12 litres of white milk.
If the company has to deliver the order in 93 hours, its delivery will be delayed by at least
1
1. 2 hours
7

2.

2. 10

3. 17

4. 7

2. a < - 1

3. a > 1

4. a > 2

An instruction was sent to all the railway stations across the country that, workers above the age of 47
years must retire. Five workers with different ages at the kazipet railway station managed to tamper
their records. However, the station master knew that the sums of the ages (in years) of all the possible
pairs of workers (from out of the five) are 102, 105, 107, 107, 109, 109, 111, 112, 114, 116. Find the
age of the oldest of the five workers.
1. 58

5.

5
4. 2 hours
7

A quadratic expression g(x) = ax2 + mx + n is such that g(-2) < 4; g (2) > - 4 and g (3) < -11. Which of
the following best determines 'a'?
1. a < -2

4.

4
3. 2 hours
7

The minimum number of straight lines required to obtain 16 non-overlapping parallelograms are
1. 8

3.

2
2. 2 hours
7

2. 59

3. 57

4. 60

Which of the following is the most appropriate range of values of k for which the lines 3x + y = 7
and kx 4y = 2 intersect in the first quadrant?
1. k >

7
6

2. k >

6
7

3. k >

3
7

4. k >

7
3

DIRECTIONS for the questions 6 & 7: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
A regular polygon with n sides is such that the angle subtended by its sides at its centre is 12 more than the
angle subtended by an (n + 1)-sided regular polygon. If the area of the circle (circum-circle) which inscribes
the n-sided polygon is 3850 mm2, then: (Given = 22/7 and sin 54o = 0.8 and cos 54 o = 0.6)
6.

The area of the n-sided polygon will be

1. 2940 mm2

7.

3. 1650 mm2

4.

None

of

these

The area of the polygon with (n + 1) sides (sides being equal to that of the n-sided regular polygon)
will be
1. 34413mm2

8.

2. 1470 mm2

2. 22212 mm2

3. 22213 mm2

4. None of these

X toffees can be distributed equally among Y children, where X > Y. What is the number of Values
that X can assume such that Y > 1 and 2 < X + Y < 110?
1. 81

2. 82

3. 78

4. 84

Bulls Eye

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2
9.

Bull Mock CAT 06

In a class 40 students took Hindi as one of the subjects, 60 English and 100 Sanskrit. If the number of
students who took exactly one of the subjects is 60 and number of student who took exactly two
subjects is 40 then find the number of students who took all the three subjects?
1. 30

10.

3. 36

4. Cannot be determined

2. 5

3. 6

4. Cannot be determined

If a, b, c and d are four distinct natural numbers, each of which has exactly five factors, find the
number of the factors of the product of a, b, c and d.
1. 17

12.

2. 20

x, y and z are positive numbers. [n] denotes the integral part of n and {n}denotes the fractional part of
n. If the following equations are given:
[x] +{y} + [z] = 11.2 [y] + {z} + [x] = 10.3 [z] +{x} + [y] = 9.4
Find the value of [x + y z].
1. 4

11.

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2. 256

3. 625

4. Cannot be determined

Two persons A and B started running simultaneously from a point P, around a circular track of length
1000 m, in opposite directions, with speeds of 4 m/s and 1 m/s respectively. The moment they crossed
each other, two more persons, C and D, started from P towards A and B respectively, C running
around the track in the direction opposite to A, with a speed of 1 m/sec and D running around the
track, in the direction opposite to B, with a speed of 4 m/sec. Which of the following is a possible
time when A, B, C and D will all meet at the same point on the track? (Assume that they continue
indefinitely to run around the track in their respective directions).
1. 60 min

2. 30 min

3. 48 min

4. They will never meet

DIRECTIONS for the questions 13 to 15: Analyse the graph/s given below and answer the question that
follows.
Bar chart 1 gives the percentage shares of all the five chocolate making Companies-Amul, Bon Bon, Cadbury,
Dabur, Ertiga-in the total quantity of chocolate sold in country Hunohullo. Bar chart -2 gives the percentage
shares of all the eleven states-S 1 through S 11 in the total quantity of chocolates sold in the country.

The market share of any company in a state is the total quantity of choclate sold by the company in that state
as a percentage of the total quantity of choclate sold in that state.
13.

In any state, if no chocolate making company had more than 50% market share, then in at least how
many states did Amul sell Choclate?
1. 4

2. 5

3. 6

4. 3

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Bull Mock CAT 06 3

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14.

If in all the states in which Ertiga was present, it had a market share of at least 25%, in at most how
many states did company Ertiga sell chocolates?
1. 9

15.

3. 7

4. 6

The number of companies which had sales in more than two states, is at least
1. 1

16.

2. 8

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

Solve the equation 2x4 + x3 11x2 + x + 2 = 0.

1.

4 7 1
, ,2
2
2

2.

3 5 1
, ,2
2
2

3.

7 11
1
, 2,
3
2

4. None of these

DIRECTIONS for the questions 17 to 19: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
Two large Boeing planes are hijacked from airports at the King town and Queen city. The distance between
the King town Airport (KTAP) and Queen city Airport (QCAP) is 800 km. They crashed into the symbol of
establishment and enterprise - the two buildings of CII Trade Centre in Queen city. The country had never
faced a terrorist attack on this scale. Nearly 20,000 people had trickled into the office at 9:00 am, when the
plane crashed into the first building. Television cameras were showing smoke billowing from this building.
While 23 minutes later, the second plane, what appeared to be a Boeing-642, flew into the belly of the second
building in an unforgettable manner. When the Jet plane had crashed into the first building, at that time the
Boeing-642 was flying 8000 m from QCAP and was flying away from it towards CII TC. The KTAP, QCAP
and the CII TC (CII Trade Centre) are respectively in a straight line. The ambulances of Health plus hospital,
which is just near the QCAP had reached at CII TC at 11 am, which was sent from the hospital after 20
minutes of the accident of first plane, with an average speed of 60 kmph. It is also known that the Boeing-642
flew from KTAP.
17.

When had the Boeing-642 taken off? (Assume the Boeing-642 flew on a constant speed over the
entire journey)
1. 5:38 am

18.

3. 6:32 am

4. 6:02 am

3. 140 kmph

4. Cannot be determined

3. 250 kmph

4. 300 kmph

The speed of jet plane was

1. 32 kmph

19.

2. 5:30 am

2. 65 kmph

The speed of Boeing-642 was

1. 320 kmph

2. 240 kmph

DIRECTIONS for the questions 20 to 21: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
20.

4 athletes begin skating at time t in the same direction on a rectangular track ABCD, which has the
length 600 meters and breadth 400 meters. The athletes P, Q, R and S have speeds in the magnitudes 5
m/s, 10 m/s, 20 m/s, 40 m/s respectively.
How much total distance would they have covered before getting together at the starting point for the
first time?
1. 30,000 meters

2. 20,000 meters

3. 25,000 meters

4. 35,000 meters

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21.

Bull Mock CAT 06

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4 athletes begin skating at time t in the same direction on a rectangular track ABCD, which has the
length 600 meters and breadth 400 meters. The athletes P, Q, R and S have speeds in the magnitudes 5
m/s, 10 m/s, 20 m/s, 40 m/s respectively. The next day, P and R reversed their directions of movement
and 1000 meters were added to the complete lap.
When will all of them be together?
1. 100 seconds

22.

2. 200 seconds

3. 300 seconds

4. 600 seconds

4 athletes begin skating at time t in the same direction on a rectangular track ABCD, which has the
length 600 meters and breadth 400 meters. The athletes P, Q, R and S have speeds in the magnitudes 5
m/s, 10 m/s, 20 m/s, 40 m/s respectively. The next day, P and R reversed their directions of movement
and 1000 meters were added to the complete lap.
How much distance would they have covered before getting together?
1. 10,000 metres

23.

If f(x) =
1. 6

24.

2. 0

3. -6

4. -5

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

2. 96

3. 108

4. 72

2. 2

3. 5

4. 4

Sheela was presented with a cake and she wants to obtain the maximum number of pieces with a
certain number of straight line slices. If she uses one line slice, she will get 2 pieces. Two slices will
give her 4 pieces, but if she wants the maximum number of pieces, the third slice should avoid the
intersection of first two slices. If Sheela was presented with a cake of radius 10 cm, and she cuts the
maximum number of pieces, using 8 straight line slices, then the number of pieces will be
1. 35

28.

2x 2 5
, then the minimum value of f(x) is
2x 2 + 1

If N is the number of ways of dividing 500 students into five sections of 100 students each, how many
zeros does N end with? (Cancellation of only zeroes is allowed)
1. 0

27.

4. 30,000 metres

In the figure below, PQRS is a parallelogram where SR = 2PS = 4PT and U is a point on SR. if STU
= PRS and PT is 20cm less than UR, find the perimeter (in cm) of PQRS

1. 80
26.

3. 150,00 metres

At how many points does the graph y = | | x 5| 14 | 6 touch the x-axis?

1. 1

25.

2. 12,500 metres

2. 37

3. 40

4. None of these

A, B, C are decimal numbers with MOD (x) = x truncated to the nearest integer less than or equal to x.
If p = MOD (A + B + C) and q = MOD (A) + MOD (B) + MOD (C), then the maximum value that p
q can attain is
1. 0

2. 1

3. 2

4. 3

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Bull Mock CAT 06 5

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29.

In the figure below, the measure of POQ is equal to 1280 and on extension SO is perpendicular to
chord PQ of the circle with centre O. The measure of TPS is
S
R

O
P
1. 36o
30.

2. 26o

3. 34o

4. 32o

For what value of x is the given function defined?

f(x) =

( x 1) +2

1. x 1
31.

(1 x ) + ( x 2 + 1)
2. x 1

3. - < x

4. x = 1

A curve follows a cubic equation a 1 x3 + a 2 x2 + a 3 x + a 4 = 0 and another curve is to be formed

with a 1 = 1. Also, two roots of both the cubic equations have the same magnitude and sign, while the
unequal root of the second equation is twice the unequal root of the first equation. The percentage
change in the constant term is
1. 200% decrease

2. 200% increase

3.100% increase

4. Cannot be determined

DIRECTION for the question 32: The question below is followed by two statements marked I and II. Mark
as your answer.
1. If statement I alone is sufficient and statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
2. If statement II alone is sufficient and statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3. If statement I and II together are sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
4. If each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
32.

The average age of a family of a father, mother and a child in 1990 was 22 years. If another child was
born into the family after 1990, in which year was the new child born?
I. The average age of the family in 1998 was 24 years.
II. The average age of the family in 1994 was 26 years

DIRECTIONS for questions 33 to 35: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below
Auto Drive an automobile magazine, conducts a poll among its readers, in which they are asked to rate
different models of cars on each of five parameters comfort, mileage, safety, power and reliability on a
scale of 1 200 with 200 being the highest rating possible. The following tables gives the average rating
obtained by eight models of cars A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H under various parameters.
Cars
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H

Comfort
172
168
168
178
174
180
178
185

Average Rating
Mileage Safety Power
164
172
156
174
162
176
156
170
164
178
168
148
170
158
154
174
154
180
176
162
174
164
162
172

Reliability
170
162
174
176
182
178
170
164

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The magazine then gives awards to these models based on the following criteria:
(i) If a model secures the highest rating under comfort among all the models or has a combined average rating
of not less than 170 under comfort, mileage and safety put together, then it gets a Comfort award.
(ii) If a model secures the highest rating under mileage among all the models or has a combined average rating
of at least 176 under comfort and mileage put together, then it gets a Mileage award.
(iii) If a model secures the highest rating under power among all the models or has a combined average rating
of at least 168 under safety and power put together, then it gets a Power award.
33.

The highest overall average rating obtained by a model which did not get any award is
1. 166.8

34.

3. 168.8

4. 165.4

How many of the given models either failed to get a Comfort award or got a Power award?
1. 5

35.

2. 167.7

2. 6

3. 7

4. 8

The difference between the highest and the lowest overall average ratings among the given models is
1. 6.2

2. 6.4

3. 6.8

4. 7

DIRECTIONS for the questions 36 to 40: Go through the pie chart/s given below and answer the question
that follows.
PVC Ltd., an advertising agency, while announcing its annual revenue, fudged some of the data to
accommodate for its future plans. It understated its revenue from the T.V. medium in the Brand Image
category by a certain amount. For all other sources of revenue, it stated the correct revenues. The following
pie-charts were then prepared using the announced revenues of the agency.

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36.

If in the actual results of the company, 20% of the revenue from the T.V. medium was from the Twowheeler category, the actual percentage share of the Print medium in the total revenue was
approximately
1. 21.7%

37.

3. 23.6%

4. 25.4%

If the actual total revenue of the company is Rs. 450 crores and the revenue from the Two-wheeler
category forms 16% of the actual total revenue, the announced revenue from the T.V. medium is what
percentage of the actual revenue from that medium?
1. 74.2%

38.

2. 22.4%

2. 76.8%

3. 79.3%

4. 84.2%

If the actual revenue from the Internet medium is known, how many of the following statements, each
when considered independently along with the given information, will be necessary as well as
sufficient to find the actual revenue from the Brand Image category?
1. Actual revenue from the Outdoor medium in the Brand Image category.
2. Actual revenue from the Educational Institutions category.
3. Actual revenue from the T.V. medium in the Insurance category.
4. Actual revenue from the Internet medium in the Brand Image category.
1. 0

39.

42.

3. 45%

4. Cannot be determined

2. 22.4%

3. 26.3%

4. 9.7%

1. 4 plump and 3 cherries

2. 3 melons and 3 guavas

3. 4 apricots and 6 cherries

4. 3 plump and 6 apricots

Find the remainder when the sum 3100 + 3200 + 3300 + ..... + 310000 is divided by 26?
2. 16

3. 12

4. 6

If | x | + x + y = 25 and x + | y | - y = 50, then what is the value of | x | + | y |?

1. 25

44.

2. 50%

The cost of 3 cherries is equal to the cost of 2 plumps. The cost of 2 apricots is equal to the cost of one
melon. The cost of 3 guavas is equal to cost of 5 cherries. The cost of 4 cherries is equal to the cost of
5 apricots. Which of the following combination of fruits is the costliest?

1. 0
43.

4. 3

Which of the following cannot be the actual percentage share of the revenue from any of the six
categories?
1.15.4%

41.

3. 2

The revenue from Educational Institutions forms what percent of the actual revenue from the TV
medium?
1. 40%

40.

2. 1

2. 32

3. 35

4. Cannot be determined

Given: (15x2 + 8y2)/22 = xy ; (where x and y are positive integers less than 100). How many distinct
pairs of (x, y) exist which will satisfy the given equation?
1. 50

2. 51

3. 52

4. 53

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45.

Bull Mock CAT 06

The sum of two numbers is 4732 and then HCF is 13. How many pairs of such number are possible?
1. 360

46.

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2. 144

3. 72

4. Cannot be determined

3. 9

4. 2

Find the remainder when 22674 is divided by 73.

1. 4

2. 7

DIRECTIONS for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given.
Table A provides data about the Wind Speed Reading and the corresponding increase in the Beaufort Number
over the Beaufort Number of the immediately preceding Wind Speed Reading. Table B gives the Sea
Disturbance Number and its corresponding Beaufort Number (given in parentheses) and the associated
Average Wave Height. Table C gives the observable wind characteristics - i.e. the common name assigned to
the wind, for the corresponding Beaufort Number.
Table A
Wind Speed Increase
Reading
in Beaufort
(in Km/Hr)
Number
1-5
1
6-11
1
12-19
2
20-38
1
39-49
3
50-61
2
62-74
3
75-88
3
89-102
2
>102
1

Table B
Sea Disturbance Average
Number (Beaufort Wave
Number)
Height
0(0)
0
0(1)
0.1
1(2)
0.3
2(4)
0.4
3(5)
0.6
4(8)
1.2
5(10)
2.4
6(13)
4
7(16)
6
8(18)
9

Table C
Beaufort
Wind Name
Number
0
1
2
4
5
8
10
13
16
18 or more

Calm
Light Air
Light Breeze
Gentle Breeze
Moderate
Fresh
Strong
Gale
Storm
Hurricane

Beaufort Number is 0 for Wind Speed Reading of less than 1 km/hr and for all wind speeds in excess of 1
km/hr, the Beaufort Number is calculated over that of the immediate preceding wind speed reading.
47.

What is the range over which the Average Wave Height can vary when the wind speed reading varies
between 20 and 74 km/hr?
1. 0.3 - 2.4

48.

2. 42

4. Data inadequate

3. 32

4. 72

The coast guard of Bangladesh raises cautionary signal 1 for a Gale, 2 for a Storm and 3 for a
Hurricane in times of inclement weather. On 5th June 2003, the wind speeds at Coastal Bangladesh
were in excess of 94 km/hr. Which of the following is true regarding the cautionary signal raised?
1. The signal raised was 1
3. The signal raised was 3

50.

3. 0.6 - 4

Which of the following is not a possible Wind Speed Reading (in km/hr) when the wind is either
Light Breeze, Gentle Breeze, Moderate, Fresh or Strong?
1. 60

49.

2. 0.1 - 6

2. The signal raised was 2

4. Either signal 1 or signal 2

What is the increase in the Sea Disturbance Number when the Wind Speed Reading has increased
from 17 km/hr to 83 km/hr?
1. 3

2. 6

3. 4

4. 5

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SECTION II
VERBAL & REASONING

No. of questions: 50

DIRECTIONS for the questions 51 & 53: Read the information given below and answer the question that
follows.
51.

Last Saturday, Rakesh went for the late night show and came in late. In the morning, everyone asked
him which movie he saw. He gave different answers to all of them. He told his father that he had gone
to see MONEY. According to his mom, he saw either JOHNY or BABLU. His elder brother came to
know that he saw BHABI. To his sister, he told ROBOT. And his grandpa heard that he saw BUNNY.
Thus, Rakesh gave six movie names, all five letter words. But he actually saw a completely different
movie with a five-letter name. Moreover, each of the six movie names mentioned above had exactly
two letters common with the movie he saw (in the same position). Which movie did Rakesh see?
1. BHALU

2. MOHNI

3. BOBBY

4. BANNU

DIRECTIONS for the questions 52 to 53: Solve the following question and mark the most appropriate
option.
52.

Appa, Chappa and Tappa often dine out. Each orders either coffee or tea after dinner.
1. If Appa orders coffee, then Chappa orders the drink that Tappa orders.
2. If Chappa orders coffee, then Appa orders the drink that Tappa doesn't order.
3. If Tappa orders tea, then Appa orders the drink that Chappa orders.
Who do you know always orders the same drink after dinner?
1. Appa

53.

2. Chappa

3. Tappa

4. None of these

Manas departmental store employs five workers - Aditi, Gautam, Sahil, Manish and Prashant - each of
whom works alone on exactly one day, Monday through Friday. They obey the following conditions
1. Aditi works only on Mondays or on Wednesdays.
2. Gautam will not work on Wednesdays or on Fridays.
3. Manish works before Sahil and both work on consecutive days.
If Gautam cant work either immediately before or after Prashant, then which of the following must
be true?
1. Prashant on Monday.
3. Prashant on Thursday.

2. Prashant on Tuesday.
4. Prashant on Friday.

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DIRECTIONS for questions 54: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
54.

The persons who scored the first three places in a table tennis tournament are from different
Organizations-Services, Railways and Petroleum Sports Control Board (PSCB) and also the persons
are from different cities. Below are some of the facts about the organisations, the contestants and the
cities where the persons are from.
1. The person from Services did not come first.
2. The person from PSCB was Raman.
3. The contestant from Railways was not from Hyderabad.
4. The contestant from Pune took the third place,
5. The contestant from Pune is not from Services.
6. The contestant from Bangalore did not come first.
7. The contestant from Railways was not Baboor.
8. One of the contestants is Basu.
Which of the following is the correct order of the persons who won the first, second and third prize
respectively?
1. Raman, Basu, Baboor
3. Basu, Baboor, Raman

2. Basu, Raman, Baboor

4. Raman, Baboor, Basu

DIRECTIONS for questions 55 to 58: Read the information given below and answer the question that
follows.
Moodys, a modelling agency was on the lookout for new models. It had called 150 candidates for the purpose
of recruiting models who were tall, dark and handsome. The break-up of the candidates with different
attributes in that group of 150 was:

Tall and handsome but not dark = 9

Dark and handsome but not tall = 12
Tall or dark but not handsome = 107

Each candidate had at least one of the three attributes that the agency was looking for. The agency could find
only one person who satisfied its criteria and so was considering relaxing the requirements a little. It was also
found that, for any attribute, the number of candidates who had that attribute alone did not exceed one-third of
the total number of candidates called.
55.

What is the minimum number of candidates who had at least two of the three attributes?
1. 21

56.

4. None of these

2. 9

3. 10

4.12

If exactly half of the candidates who were tall were also dark and exactly half of the candidates who
were dark were also tall, then how many candidates were only tall?
1. 31

58.

3. 28

If the number of candidates who were dark is less than those who were tall, then at least how many
candidates were dark as well as tall?
1. 7

57.

2. 22

2. 33

3. 34

4. 38

If the number of candidates who were tall is twice that of those who had at least two attributes, then at
least how many candidates were only dark?
1. 37

2. 41

3. 43

4. 47

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Bull Mock CAT 06 11

DIRECTIONS for question 59 & 60: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.
59.

Armed robbery is becoming Americanized, both in the sense that Britain is moving towards late-night
convenience store robberies, and also in the sense that anyone can do it. The rise of unskilled robbery
junkies with guns and no previous experience is bad news for shop workers, who are less welltrained in dealing with guns than are bank tellers; it is also bad for the police, who tend to find illthought-out crimes harder to solve than planned ones.
Which of the following is in consonance with the passage ?
1. In armed robbery, Britain is trying to imitate America, leaving the police as baffled as they are in
the US.
2. Robbery in Britain has ceased to require skill and the police have therefore becoming
inconsequential in tackling crimes.
3. Like in US, robbery in Britain is now becoming more and more casual, thereby posing problems
both for the victims and for the police.
4. Robbery in Britain has now shifted from banks to shops; as a result the shopkeepers and the police
are clueless regarding the spurt of crime.

60.

NAFTA alone has not been enough to modernize Mexico or guarantee its prosperity. It was never
reasonable to suppose that it would be. NAFTA has spurred trade for all its members. That is a good
thing. But trade can do only so much. Sadly, successive Mexican governments have failed to deal
with the problems corruption, poor education, red tape, crumbling infrastructure, lack of credit and a
puny tax base that have prevented Mexicans and foreign investors alike from exploiting the
openings which freer trade afforded. Dont blame NAFTA for that.
Which of the following summarizes the passage in the best possible manner ?
1. NAFTA has played its role in Mexican development namely, promoting trade; the rest depends
on how the Mexican administration functions.
2. Mexico has not become modern in spite of NAFTA; successive Mexican governments should not
blame the trade bloc.
3. The problem is that Mexico had expected too much of NAFTA; it forgot that the organisation was a
mere trade bloc.
4. The good thing about NAFTA is that it has facilitated Mexican trade; so it should be congratulated
rather than pilloried.

DIRECTIONS for the questions 61 to 64: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Nobel Laureate Muhammad Yunus's three-decade-long journey with microfinance was laborious. But he most
certainly did not encounter a crisis like the one he is facing now. It was only in December 2010 that the
Bangladeshi who shared the Nobel Peace Prize with the Grameen Bank in 2006 first came across an
utterly odd situation when a Norwegian television documentary accused him of diverting huge aid funds to a
business concern. The news was widely reported in the local media, particularly those sections which were not
appreciative of his model of microfinance for poverty alleviation. Dr. Yunus denied this and other allegations
in the media that he developed many businesses using the Grameen brand name. The Norwegian government,
too, came out in his defence. Amid a mounting debate for and against Dr. Yunus, Bangladesh's central bank
on March 2 ordered his removal from the post of Managing Director on the ground that he had crossed the
retirement age. Dr. Yunus defied the order but the High Court rejected his writ petitions challenging the
legality of the central bank's action. Now his appeal is pending in the Supreme Court.
Meanwhile, Dhaka is facing a strong reaction from the West, particularly the United States. The U.S. has
called for a dialogue and compromise between Dr. Yunus and the Hasina government for an honourable
solution. Whatever the criticism of the U.S. stand in Bangladesh's political and social circles, analysts believe

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that it is a clear disapproval of the government action against Dr. Yunus, although the Grameen Bank is
neither an NGO nor a private bank. It was founded in 1983 under an ordinance and the government still holds
a 25 per cent share in it. Dr. Yunus had been the Managing Director ever since the bank was founded. Despite
the controversies, many analysts are of the opinion that the Hasina government may take the U.S. stand
seriously but it will, for sure, find it difficult to come to an amicable solution since the Supreme Court verdict
is awaited. However, the mainstream Bengali dailies have reported that a committee was formed to broker a
compromise, an indication of a shift in the government stand.
The fact is the present government is not very appreciative of Dr. Yunus' contribution to poverty alleviation
through the microfinance model, although Sheikh Hasina in her first tenure attended the world microcredit
summit at the United Nations where he got the world body's support. The Prime Minister has accused him of
treating the Grameen Bank as his personal property and claimed that the group is sucking the blood of the
poor. Many have even called the model a villain. But Dr. Yunus has the support of many important
sections, particularly from the world's powerful lobbies.
61.

What can we infer about the Wests attitude towards Prof. Yunus involvement with the Grameen
Bank?
1. The West will not be able to protect the interests of the Grameen Bank.
2. The West has remained dispassionate on the Grameen Bank and Prof. Yunus involvement in it.
3. The U.S is supportive of Professor Yunus involvement with the Grameen Bank.
4. The U.S is appreciative of the Hasina governments achievement in the Grameen Bank.

62.

Who could be the author of the passage?

1. A journalist based in Dhaka, who is closely following the case of the Grameen Bank.
2. A corporate lobbyist in Dhaka, who has keen interest in the development of the bank.
3. A politician closely watching the Bangladesh governments moves on the Grameen Bank.
4. An economist discussing economic theories about Grameen Bank.

63.

Pick the word from the alternatives that is the most inappropriate meaning of panacea in the sentence
provided below:
A host of studies have disagreed with the claim that microfinance is a panacea for poverty.
1. Nostrum

64.

2. Elixir

3. Antidote

4. Panach

In case the allegations against Professor Yunus were found to be false, then his case can be regarded
as one of:
1. political victimization
3. inept government analysis

2. clumsy administration
4. all of the above

DIRECTION for the question 65: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices
to construct a coherent paragraph.
65.

A. The overall Indian believability threshold is pretty low and Delhi is particularly rumour prone for
two reasons.
B. The citys culture is geared towards rumour-mongering: from multiple arms of the government,
countless scraps of information slip-slide their way on to the street, mutating into rumours.
C. First it is the seat of government and, therefore, the theatre of political and bureaucratic intrigue
and second, of course, is its pot- pourri character.
D. Thus, the PMs crumbling knee becomes a case of cancer and health bulletins are issued by the day
by those who claimed to be in the know.
1. BCAD

2. CBAD

3. ABCD

4. ACBD

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Bull Mock CAT 06 13

DIRECTIONS for the questions 66 to 69: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Most people are in the pursuit of happiness. There are economists who think happiness is the best indicator of
the health of a society. We know that money can make you happier, though after your basic needs are met, it
doesn't make you that much happier. But one of the biggest questions is how to allocate our money, which is
(for most of us) a limited resource. There's a very logical assumption that most people make when spending
their money: that because a physical object will last longer, it will make us happier for a longer time than a
one-off experience like a concert or vacation. According to recent research, it turns out that assumption is
completely wrong. One of the enemies of happiness is adaptation, says Dr. Thomas Gilovich, a psychology
professor at Cornell University who has been studying the question of money and happiness for over two
decades. We buy things to make us happy, and we succeed, but only for a while. New things are exciting to
us at first, but then we adapt to them. Gilovich's findings are the synthesis of psychological studies conducted
by him and others into the Easterlin paradox, which found that money buys happiness, but only up to a point.
How adaptation affects happiness, for instance, was measured in a study that asked people to self-report their
happiness with major material and experiential purchases. Initially, their happiness with those purchases was
ranked about the same. But over time, people's satisfaction with the things they bought went down, whereas
their satisfaction with experiences they spent money on went up. It's counterintuitive that something like a
physical object that you can keep for a long time doesn't keep you as happy as long as a once-and-done
experience does. Ironically, the fact that a material thing is ever present works against it, making it easier to
adapt to. It fades into the background and becomes part of the new normal. But while the happiness from
material purchases diminishes over time, experiences become an ingrained part of our identity. Our
experiences are a bigger part of ourselves than our material goods, says Gilovich.
One study conducted by Gilovich even showed that if people have an experience they say negatively impacted
their happiness, once they have the chance to talk about it, their assessment of that experience goes up.
Gilovich attributes this to the fact that something that might have been stressful or scary in the past can
become a funny story to tell at a party or be looked back on as an invaluable character-building experience.
Another reason is that shared experiences connect us more to other people than shared consumption. You're
much more likely to feel connected to someone you took a vacation with in Bogot than someone who also
happens to have bought a 4K TV. We consume experiences directly with other people, says Gilovich. And
after they're gone, they're part of the stories that we tell to one another.
Gilovich's research has implications for individuals who want to maximize their happiness return on their
financial investments, for employers who want to have a happier workforce, and policy-makers who want to
have a happy citizenry. By shifting the investments that societies make and the policies they pursue, they can
steer large populations to the kinds of experiential pursuits that promote greater happiness, write Gilovich
and his coauthor, Amit Kumar, in their recent article in the academic journal Experimental Social Psychology.
If society takes their research to heart, it should mean not only a shift in how individuals spend their
discretionary income, but also place an emphasis on employers giving paid vacation and governments taking
care of recreational spaces. As a society, shouldn't we be making experiences easier for people to have? asks
Gilovich.
66.

Which, out of the following, is a statement Gilovich is likely to agree with:

1. In conjunction to your experiences, material stuff remains separated from you and virtually, we are
simply the sum total of our experiences
2. In contrast to your material possessions, experiences remain separated from you and in effect, we
are simply the sum total of our possessions
3. In sharp contrast to your experiences, material stuff remains separated from you and in effect, we
are simply the partial total of our experiences
4. In contrast to your experiences, material stuff remains separated from you and in effect, we are
simply the sum total of our experiences

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67.

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According to Gilovich, which of the following would give you more happiness:
I. Buying the latest iPhone.
II. Going to art exhibitions.
III. Buying a second-hand BMW or Mercedes.
IV. Taking up outdoor activities.
V. Learning a new skill, such as how to speak a foreign language
1. All of the above except I and II
3. All of the above except I and V

68.

2. All of the above except I and III

4. All of the above except II and III

From the context of the passage, it can be inferred that the Easterlin paradox will agree with:
I. Within a society, rich people tend to be much happier than poor people.
II. Rich societies tend not to be happier than poor societies (or not by a huge amount).
III. As countries get richer, they do not get happier.
1. I & II

69.

2. II & III

3. I & III

4. All of the above

Go through the following statements:

I. Adaptation to material things leads to their loss of their charm.
II. Consumption of experiences is possible but not of material possessions.
III. Negative experiences, over time, have the ability to lose impact as they convert into funny
reminiscences or instructional experiences.
Which of the following statements agree with the central ideas presented in the passage?
1. I & II

2. II & III

3. I & III

4. All of the above

DIRECTIONS for the questions 70 to 72: Read the information given below and answer the question that
follows.
Five Footballers Ronaldo, Kaka, Cristiano, Messi and Ronnie each wearing a different jersey from the five
different clubs among Arsenal, Chelsea, MAN U, Manchester City and Sunderland, not necessarily in the
same order, are standing in a queue in an award ceremony. The five Jerseys are of the different colours among
Black, Red, Silver, Violet and White, in no particular order. It is also known that:
(i) Footballer wearing Arsenal Jersey is ahead of Footballer wearing Manchester City jersey and is not Red in
colour.
(ii) Kaka is not wearing Chelsea jersey and he is behind Messi
(iii) Sunderland jersey, which is Violet in colour, is not worn by Ronnie.
(iv) Ronaldo is behind the White Jersey and he is not wearing silver jersey
(v) Cristiano is not wearing Arsenal jersey and he is immediately ahead of the Black Jersey.
(vi) The Red Jersey, which is ahead of three other Jerseys, is worn by Kaka.
(vii) The only Jersey between MAN U and Manchester City is White in colour.
(viii) Messi is not wearing the Silver Jersey. Manchester City jersey is not Black in colour.
70.

Who is wearing Chelsea jersey?

1. Ronaldo

71.

2. Cristiano

3. Messi

4. Ronnie

3. Arsenal

4. MAN U

Which Jersey is Ronnie wearing?

1. Manchester City

2. Chelsea

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72.

Who is ahead of man wearing red jersey?

1. Messi

2. Ronnie

3. Kaka

4. None of these

DIRECTION for the question 73: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices
to construct a coherent paragraph.
73.

A. The Kalari tradition is struggling to survive in the land of its origin.

B. The palace guards are no bunch of extras in funny costumes, menacingly waving plastic swords.
C. The exclusive heritage of the warrior clans of North Kerala, this fading martial arts tradition is
finding celluloid resurrection on the extravagant and surreal sets of the Bombay film industry and
Hollywoods tryst with Kalaripayattu possibly couldnt have come at a better time.
D. They are real-life fighters trained in Kalaripayattu, Keralas ancient martial art.
1. ACDB

2. BDCA

3. CABD

4. DCAB

DIRECTIONS for the questions 74 to 77: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Segregation is a term that all Americans have heard and have their own definition of. What many Americans
do not realize is that segregation is not just something that happened as soon as the Civil War ended. This
separation of blacks and whites took time and a lot of effort by white southerners. C. Vanns The Strange
Career of Jim Crow says that the reason for segregation is the laws that were enforced during the late
nineteenth century or de jure. The article talks of how the relaxation of the opposition is a major cause for
the Democrats being able to come back into power and the implementation of the eventual segregation laws
such as Jim Crow laws. The division of the two races happens soon after the end of the Civil War. Churches
and schools were probably some of the first places to be split. During the time, neither place was to be
segregated by law. Both places became segregated by the choice of the public. This is an early example of
how the blacks separated themselves from the Whites to start life as free people. Vann Woodward also talks
about the reactions of people in the late nineteenth century to the placement and enforcement of the Jim Crow
laws. Of course the black communities were against any law restricting them from everyday rights and
everyday convenience. Many whites also were not satisfied with the thought of Jim Crow Laws. The article
quotes a Charleston editor saying, We have no more need for a Jim Crow System this year than we had last
year.
Joel Williamsons, The Separation of the Races, shows segregation being a social separation, or de facto,
and claims that it started at the end of the Civil War. The withdrawal of blacks is not because of hatred for the
white man, but because of a need to leave their past behind them and move away from slavery and servitude.
The excerpt shows that many people believe that separation was also a way to avoid interracial violence.
The withdrawal of blacks immediately following the Civil War gave whites the idea they had control over the
situation. Even though blacks were not giving in, they were just looking for separation between them and the
white man. Blacks started to push for equal rights in public areas. Whites started to withdraw themselves to
avoid mixing with blacks. This withdrawal became a push to have the color line clearly drawn and to have
laws set in place to prevent mixing of the races.
Edward L. Ayerss, The Promise of the New South: Life After Reconstruction, shows how extreme the
battle for a proper place to ride on the train was and how railroads were the starting place for segregation,
since the railroad companies were trying to separate the races with no legal right
74.

Suggest a suitable title for the passage

1. Segregation: a common practice of life.
3. Laws segregating races.

2. Interpretation of Jim Crows laws.

4. The history of Segregation.

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75.

Bull Mock CAT 06

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What is the authors tone?

1. Laudatory, as he is keenly involved in what he writes.
2. Dispassionate, as he cites various books and authors to write the passage.
3. Tongue-in cheek as he mixes reality & sarcasm.
4. Tongue lashing as he criticizes the loopholes in the system.

76.

If the author were to continue the passage what could the author have written after the last paragraph?
1. Why trains were turned into the first major place of tension after the civil war.
2. A ruling which gave the railroad law to separate all the races but with equal accommodation.
3. How Blacks and Whites learned to be civilized when they met each other.
3. A discussion on how the new generation of Blacks did not respect the old ways of the South.

77.

What were Jim Crow laws?

1. They mandated de jure racial segregation in all public facilities, with a supposedly separate but
equal status for black Americans.
2. They mandated de facto racial segregation in all public facilities, with a supposedly separate but
equal status for black Americans.
3. The unfortunate enforcement of Jim Crow laws led to years of racial division and tension.
4. They were about how the new generation of Blacks did not respect the old ways of the South.

DIRECTIONS for the questions 78 to 81: Go through the graph and the information given below and
answer the question that follows.
Parle Havidson leading bike manufacturing company conducted mileage test on all the bike available in the
market. i.e. Indian and Foreign segments put together. The results of the test are represented in the following
table.
Range of Mileage (x) (in km/litre) Indian Segment Foreign Segment
5(18L,30L)
4(22L,30L)
x10
8(14L,22L)
7(15L,28L)
10<x14
10(12L,18L)
11(14L,22L)
14<x18
6(9L,15L)
6(12L,20L)
18<x22
3(8L,12L)
4(10L,16L)
22<x30
In the above table, for any range of mileage, the values inside the brackets in each cell give the minimum and
the maximum value (in lakhs) respectively of any bike in the corresponding segment (i.e. Indian or Foreign) in
that mileage range. For example, the second column in the first row shows that there are five BIKEs in the
Indian segment with a mileage of not more than 10 km/litre and further, of all these five bikes, the minimum
value of any bike is 18 lakh and the maximum value is 30lakh.
78.

The number of bikes in the foreign segment with a value of more than 15 lakh and a mileage of more
than 17 k/litre, is at most
1. 10

79.

2. 18

3. 21

4. None of these

The total number of bikes with a value of not more than 20 lakh but a mileage of less than 15 km/litre,
is at least
1. 0

2. 2

3. 3

4. None of these

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Bull Mock CAT 06 17

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80.

Any bikes with a mileage (in km/litre) which is not less than its value (in lakh) is termed to be costly.
The total number of costly bikes is at most
1. 32

81.

3. 42

4. 46

The average mileage (in km/litre) of all the bikes tested, is at most
1. 17

82.

2. 40

2. 18

3. 18.5

4. 19

Four persons A,B,C and D need to cross a lake. However, the only means available to cross the lake is
a boat which can carry at most two persons at a time in it and only one of the two must drive it. The
times taken to cross the river when each of the four persons drives the boat, are , 7, 14,17 and 34
minutes respectively. No person drives the boat for more than two trips in total, but any person can
ride in the boat as a person for as many times as he wants. What is the least time required for all the
four to cross the stream? (Reaching from one bank to the other bank is one trip).
1. 1 minute less than an hour
3. Exactly 1 hour

2. B. 1 minute more than an hour

4. 42 minutes

DIRECTIONS for the question 83 & 84: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given
choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
83.

A. The increasing demand for water and the limited availability of surface water resources has led to
the rapid development of groundwater for water supply, irrigation and industrial uses.
B. The Agency has embarked on an effort to compile and disseminate isotope data from aquifers and
rivers worldwide.
C. Groundwater management is a key issue for sustainable human development, especially in semiarid and arid regions.
D. For rational planning, an adequate understanding of the aquifer properties is a pre-requisite to
establishing sound development strategies.
E. These data are aimed at assisting decision-makers in adopting better practices for groundwater
management.
1. ACBED

84.

2. CABED

3. BEDCA

4. CADBE

A. On the other hand, there is the necessity that these immature members be not merely physically
preserved in adequate numbers, but that they be initiated into the interests, purposes, information,
skill, and practices of the mature members: otherwise the group will cease its characteristic life.
B. Mere physical growing up, mere mastery of the bare necessities of subsistence will not suffice to
reproduce the life of the group.
C. Even in a savage tribe, the achievements of adults are far beyond what the immature members
would be capable of , if left to themselves.
D. The primary ineluctable facts of the birth and death of each one of the constituent members in a
social group determine the necessity of education.
E. On one hand, there is the contrast between the immaturity of the new-born members of the group
its future sole representativesand the maturity of the adult members who possess the knowledge and
customs of the group.
F. With the growth of civilization, the gap between the original capacities of the immature and the
standards and customs of the elders increases.
1. FBCDEA

2. DEAFCB

3. DEACFB

4. DFBCEA

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DIRECTIONS for the questions 85 to 88: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given
choices to construct a coherent paragraph and then find the sentence that is irrelevant in the given context.
85.

1. Neoliberalism is a governing rationality through which everything is economized and in a very

specific way: human beings become market actors and nothing but, every field of activity is seen as a
market, and every entity (whether public or private, whether person, business, or state) is governed as
a firm.
2. Importantly, this is not simply a matter of extending commodification and monetization
everywherethats the old Marxist depiction of capitals transformation of everyday life.
3. Today, market actorsfrom individuals to firms, universities to states, restaurants to magazines
are more often concerned with their speculatively determined value, their ratings and rankings that
shape future value, than with immediate profit.
4. Neoliberalism construes even non-wealth generating spheressuch as learning, dating, or
exercisingin market terms, submits them to market metrics, and governs them with market
techniques and practices.
1. Statement 1

86.

4. Statement 4

2. Statement 2

3. Statement 3

4. Statement 4

1. Economic stresses in such contexts intensify the immediate need for children and overshadow the
supposed importance of "family planning.
2. In some societies, having many children is tantamount to creating a large familial work force
3. Imperialist, genocidal policies like coercive sterilization inevitably result in a mistrust of birth
control programmes
4. Many expert analyzes point out that the family size is inextricably linked with a number of clearly
definable culture-specific phenomena, which may appear strange to a modern, educated mind
1. Statement 1

88.

3. Statement 3

1. Although womens oppression must be a central focus of any study of human population, it is
imperative to do this in a way that does not 'blame the victim
2. The systematic oppression of women in patriarchal societies cannot be ignored by
environmentalists concerned with the problems of a large, growing population
3. Women are oppressed in nearly every society and this is conceptually related to the oppression of
natural environment and its members
4. Women's oppression makes the issues of reproductive freedom even more complex for women of
color, poverty and from the Third World
1. Statement 1

87.

2. Statement 2

2. Statement 2

3. Statement 3

4. Statement 4

A. Cultural relativity means, on the contrary, that the appropriateness of any positive or negative
custom must be evaluated with regard to how this habit fits in with other group habits.
B. The principle of cultural relativity does not mean that because the members of some savage tribe
are allowed to behave in a certain way, it gives intellectual warrant for such behavior in all groups.
C. Having several wives makes economic sense among herders, not among hunters and while
breeding a healthy skepticism towards the eternity of a value prized by a particular people,
anthropology does not deny the existence of moral absolutes.
D. Rather, the comparative method provides a scientific means of discovering such culturally relevant
moral absolutes.
1. Statement A

2. Statement B

3. Statement C

4. Statement D

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DIRECTIONS for the questions 89 & 90: Identify the most appropriate summary for the paragraph.
89.

The man of science knows, in one aspect, that the world is not merely what it appears to be to our
senses; he knows that earth and water are really the play of forces that manifest themselves to us as
earth and waterhow, we can but partially apprehend. Likewise the man who has his spiritual eyes
open knows that the ultimate truth about earth and water lies in our apprehension of the eternal will
which works in time and takes shape in the forces we realise under those aspects. This is not mere
knowledge, as science is, but it is a preception of the soul by the soul. This does not lead us to power,
as knowledge does, but it gives us joy, which is the product of the union of kindred things. The man
whose acquaintance with the world does not lead him deeper than science leads him, will never
understand what it is that the man with the spiritual vision finds in these natural phenomena. The
water does not merely cleanse his limbs, but it purifies his heart; for it touches his soul. The earth does
not merely hold his body, but it gladdens his mind; for its contact is more than a physical contactit
is a living presence.
1. The man of science is driven by power alone and cannot understand the world
2. The man of science is blinded by knowledge and true knowledge lies in soul
3. The man of science is always trying to trump the man of soul but never manages to do so
4. The man of science, blinkered by his own knowledge, does not live in harmony with the world

90.

The history of each science, be it mathematics or astronomy, botany, zoology or geology, shows us
that it is not enough to have the intelligent observer, or even the interpretative thinker with his
personally expressed doctrine. This must be clearly crystallised into a definite statement, method,
proposition, "law" or theory, stated in colourless impersonal form before it is capable of acceptance
and incorporation into the general body of science. But while astronomer and geologist and naturalist
can and do describe both the observational results and their general conceptions in literary form,
requiring from the ordinary reader but the patience to master a few unfamiliar terms and ideas, they
also carry on their work by help of definite and orderly technical methods, descriptive and
comparative, analytic and synthetic. These, as far as possible, have to be crystallised beyond their
mere verbal statement into formulae, into tabular and graphic presentments, and thus not only acquire
greater clearness of statement, but also become more and more active agencies of inquiryin fact,
become literal thinking-machines.
1. Each science requires its analytical method of observation in order to arrive at the correct set of
conclusions
2. Each science needs parallel accompaniment of observation, interpretation and notation in order to
achieve its desired objectives
3. Observation and interpretation are the driving forces for the delivery of a science as thinking
machines
4. Subjects can only be converted into solidified thinking machines if they follow the right course of
analysis

DIRECTIONS for the questions 91 to 94: A sentence is divided into four parts. Choose the part
is/are grammatically correct.
91.

/parts that

A. As entrepreneurs feel the pinch, they are driven to invest in superior technology; which
economizes on labour use.
B. That apart, technological progress has a law of its own; improved technology propelled the growth
of still more improved technology.
C. Induced as well as autonomous factors are therefore furiously at work within the corpses of the
capitalist system.
D. The consequence is what has come to be known as the crisis of under-consumption wherein the
induction of superior technology cuts down progressively the deployment of labour.
E. As a result, growth of the aggregate wage packet fails to keep pace with the rate of growth of
output, effecting the overall demand for goods and services; such circumstances cast a shadow on the
rate of profit.
1. A and B

2. B and C

3. A and D

4. D and E

Bulls Eye

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20
92.

Bull Mock CAT 06

A. With the benefit of foresight, one can argue that unrealistic hopes were associated with the peace
process with the United Liberation Front of Asom.
B. Given the nature of its leadership today and the flaws in the facilitation process, the likelihood of
failure in the peace talks was high.
C. It would be stretching ones imagination to still describe the Ulfa as a nationalist mass movement.
D. The organization was launched in April, 1979, with what was described as a demographic
onslaught on Assam by Bangladeshi migrants.
E. Today the leadership of the Ulfa is quite happy to be based in Bangladesh, while the organization
has become more as a corporate conglomerate, led by an armed group.
1. A and B

93.

2. B and C

3. C and D

4. D and E

A. Advocates of economic reforms received a bolt last week from the announcement that the Union
cabinet was resurrecting that tired populist slogan, garibi hatao.
B. The return of populism suggested that the shutters were coming down on economic reforms.
C. Such fears were grounded also on the continuing opposition of the left, a constituent of the United
Progressive Alliance, to economic reforms, especially in the financial sector, and for privatization.
D. Mr Manmohan Singh, however, removed such fears by announcing that the government would
continue to push for reforms in the financial sector.
E. The same government that is reviving populism is also committed by reforms in the financial
sector.
1. A, B and D

94.

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2. A, C and E

3. B, C and D

4. B, C and E

A. In a game like football, abusing opponents in the vilest possible language is considered par for the
course.
B. Sometimes abuse results in flashes of temper and even the occasional head but.
C. Otherwise, everyone takes it in their stride, including the referee.
D. In cricket, there was a time when no one sledged.
E. When the Aussies began it in a very big way and others retaliated in kind, there was a hue and cry
that the spirit of cricket was being violated.
1. A and B

2. B and C

3. C and D

4. D and E

DIRECTIONS for the questions 95 to 98: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
The most notable distinction between living and inanimate things is that the former maintain themselves by
renewal. A stone when struck resists. If its resistance is greater than the force of the blow struck, it remains
outwardly unchanged. Otherwise, it is shattered into smaller bits. Never does the stone attempt to react in such
a way that it may maintain itself against the blow, much less so as to render the blow a contributing factor to
its own continued action. While the living thing may easily be crushed by superior force, it none the less tries
to turn the energies which act upon it into means of its own further existence. If it cannot do so, it does not just
split into smaller pieces (at least in the higher forms of life), but loses its identity as a living thing.
As long as it endures, it struggles to use surrounding energies in its own behalf. It uses light, air, moisture, and
the material of soil. To say that it uses them is to say that it turns them into means of its own conservation. As
long as it is growing, the energy it expends in thus turning the environment to account is more than
compensated for by the return it gets: it grows. Understanding the word "control" in this sense, it may be said
that a living being is one that subjugates and controls for its own continued activity the energies that would
otherwise use it up. Life is a self-renewing process through action upon the environment.
In all the higher forms this process cannot be kept up indefinitely. After a while they succumb; they die. The
creature is not equal to the task of indefinite self-renewal. But continuity of the life process is not dependent
upon the prolongation of the existence of any one individual. Reproduction of other forms of life goes on in

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Bull Mock CAT 06 21

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continuous sequence. And though, as the geological record shows, not merely individuals but also species die
out, the life process continues in increasingly complex forms. As some species die out, forms better adapted to
utilize the obstacles against which they struggled in vain come into being. Continuity of life means continual
readaptation of the environment to the needs of living organisms.
We have been speaking of life in its lowest termsas a physical thing. But we use the word "Life" to denote
the whole range of experience, individual and racial. When we see a book called the Life of Lincoln we do not
expect to find within its covers a treatise on physiology. We look for an account of social antecedents; a
description of early surroundings, of the conditions and occupation of the family; of the chief episodes in the
development of character; of signal struggles and achievements; of the individual's hopes, tastes, joys and
sufferings. In precisely similar fashion we speak of the life of a savage tribe, of the Athenian people, of the
American nation. "Life" covers customs, institutions, beliefs, victories and defeats, recreations and
occupations.
We employ the word "experience" in the same pregnant sense. And to it, as well as to life in the bare
physiological sense, the principle of continuity through renewal applies. With the renewal of physical
existence goes, in the case of human beings, the recreation of beliefs, ideals, hopes, happiness, misery, and
practices. The continuity of any experience, through renewing of the social group, is a literal fact. Education,
in its broadest sense, is the means of this social continuity of life. Every one of the constituent elements of a
social group, in a modern city as in a savage tribe, is born immature, helpless, without language, beliefs, ideas,
or social standards. Each individual, each unit who is the carrier of the life-experience of his group, in time
passes away. Yet the life of the group goes on.
95.

It can be inferred from the passage that the renewal of life is:
infinite in higher beings, who continue to use the energy that is supplied to them by their surroundings
2. finite and limited to a certain group in higher beings, and the species becomes extinct once this
renewal ends
3. infinite by virtue of processes such as reproduction and group experience, which ensure that the life
continues even after the passing away of individual members of a group
4. finite because of the fact it is dependent of the physical being of species, and once these physical
existences disappear, life disappears too

96.

The definition of life for a lower and a higher form of being is:
1. completely synonymous
3. fractionally related

97.

2. completely antonymous
4. inter-related

The author uses the example of the book called the Life of Lincoln in order:
1. to highlight what life means in the physiological sense
2. to showcase the broad spectrum of experiences covered under the term life
3. to highlight that life of an individual can be a good guide to under social antecedents
4. to understand the thought processes that govern the social interaction of the higher being

98.

In the last paragraph of the passage, the word pregnant is used to imply:
1. the importance of reproduction for constituting lifes experiences
2. the loaded nature of the term experience and the broad spectrum of its implications
3. the gravity of the term experience and what is signifies for life of the higher beings
4. the subtle relationship between the life the physiological sense and life in the physical sense

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Bull Mock CAT 06

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DIRECTIONS for the questions 99 & 100: Answer the question based on the information given in the
passage.
99.

A recent spate of industrial accidents has forced employers to take up more expensive insurance
policies for their employees. This has meant that the cost of running businesses has gone by for these
industries, and in order to keep a check on their expenses, employees have been laid off. This in turn
has placed greater amount of pressure on existing workforce.
If the above information is correct, then which of the following proves that despite the reduction in
employees, the cost of operating these businesses will continue to increase?
1. Since the life of a worker is at stake, the cost of insurance premiums is pretty high
2. The reason for industrial accidents is very hard to establish
3. The chances of accidents increase as workers are placed under additional workload
4. Since most industries are not focused on innovation and streamlining, accidents are inevitable

100.

The automobile industry tries to make sure that the cars they build are generally the lightest possible
as these lead to a greater fuel economy. Generally, the cars do not use the best quality plastic available
for car interiors as these are the most expensive. In the last one year, this trend has been broken and
car manufacturers have started using the best quality plastic in their cars, and yet are selling cars the
similar rates as before.
Which of the following explain the above set of contradictory facts:
I. a new form of plastic has been discovered which is better and cheaper than the previous versions.
II. the cost of steel, a major component in cars, has gone down significantly.
III. the cost of fuel has gone down considerably and is expected to remain so in the coming years.
1. I & II

2. II & III

3. I & III

4. All of the above

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Answer key

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Bull Mock CAT -06

ANSWER KEY
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.

4
2
2
2
2
1
4
3
2
2
3
4
2
3
1
4
1
4
2
1
2
3
4
4
2

26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

4
2
3
4
4
4
1
2
2
3
2
1
1
4
2
2
2
3
3
3
4
3
4
3
4

51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

3
1
4
4
4
4
3
2
3
1
3
1
4
1
4
4
2
4
4
1
3
1
2
4
2

76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.

1
1
2
3
4

2
1
4
3
3
4
3
4
2
2
3
2
2
2
3
3
2
2
3
4

Bulls Eye

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Explanations

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Bull Mock CAT -06

This question can also be solved using a graph

The x intercept of kx 4y = 2 is 2/k

EXPLANATIONS
1.

(obtained by substituting y = 0)
The two lines will intersect in the 1st quadrant

X can make 4 lt of brown chocolate /hr and 3 lts of

white milk chocolate/hr.
Y can make 3 lt of brown chocolate /hr and 4 lts of
white milk chocolate/hr.
If X and Y work simultaneously to make dark brown
and white milkchocolates respectively, they can make a
total of 360 lts of each in 90 hours.Another 40 lts of
dark brown would remain. Both X and Y, working
together , can finish making this 40 lts in
40 = 5 5 hours.
7
7
The companys delivery would be delayed by

if the x intercept is less than 7/3

2 7
6
< k>
k 3
7
Choice (2)

B
0,7

3.

4.

5.

A set of 5 parallel lines intersecting with another set of

5 parallel lines gives 16 non-overlapping
parallelograms. So the minimum number of lines
required to get 16 non-overlapping parallelograms are 5
+ 5 = 10
Given g(x) = ax2 + mx + n.
For x = -2; g(-2) = 4a 2m + n < 4 (1)
For x = 2 ; g (2) = 4a + 2m + n > - 4
i.e., - 4a 2m n < 4
..(2)
For x = 3; g(3) = 9a + 3m + n < 11 .(3)
Adding the inequalities (1) and (2):
- 4m < 8 i.e., m > - 2.
Adding the inequalities (2) and (3) : 5a + m < - 7
5a < - 7 m i.e., 5a < - 5 (Since m > - 2)
a < - 1
Let the ages of the five workers be a, b,c,d and e in the
increasing order.
d+e =116 (1)
c+e =114(2)
a+b=102(3)
a+c=105(4)
By adding the equations (1) and (3)
a+b+d+e=218 (5)
By adding all the 10 ages given in the problems (as
each persons age occurs in four of the
sums) :
4 (a+b+c+d+e) = 1092
a+b+c+d+e = 273 (6)
subtracting (5) from (6), c = 55
putting c in (2), e = 114 - c = 114 - 55 = 59
y = 7 3x
kx 4y = 2
kx = 2 + 4y = 2 + 4(7 3x)
30
7k 6
x=
y=
k + 12
k + 12
As the lines intersect in the first quadrant, x, y > 0.
x > 0 k + 12 > 0 k > - 12
y > 0 k < -12 or k > 6 . combining both the
7
6
results we get k > .
7
Alternative Solution:

3x + y = 7
A

5
5
[(90 + 5 ) 93] = 2 hours.
7
7
2.

1
0,
2

6.

We have,

7
,0
3

360 = 360 +12 i.e. n2 + n 30 = 0,

n +1
n

OR n = 5.
The n-sided polygon is a pentagon.
Let ABCDE be that regular pentagon inscribed in a
circle with centre at O and radius r mm.
r2 = 3850
D
r2 = 1225,
r = 35mm
E
C
O

Let OM AB, then in AMO,

AM = cos 54 35 = 21.
AB = 2 AM = 2 21 = 42 m.
So area of regular pentagon ABCDE
=5
7.

1 4235sin 54 = 5 1 42350.8
2
2

= 2940 mm2
We have, 360 = 360 +12 i.e. n2 + n 30 = 0,
n +1
n
OR n = 5.
The n-sided polygon is a pentagon.
Let ABCDE be that regular pentagon inscribed in a
circle with centre at O and radius r mm.
r2 = 3850
D
r2 = 1225,
r = 35mm
E
C
O

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Answer key

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Let OM AB, then in AMO, AM
= cos 54 35 = 21.
AB = 2 AM = 2 21 = 42 m.
So area of regular pentagon ABCDE
=5

13.

1 4235sin 54 = 5 1 42350.8 = 2940mm2

2
2

The (n+1) sided polygon will be a hexagon of side 42

mm.
Therefore area of (n+1)-sided polygon will be
3
8.

9.

14.

3
side2 = 26463 mm2
2

X toffees are distributed among Y children, where Y

1. Hence any number "X" below hundred which has
at least one factor "Y" other than the number itself and
which satisfies the condition 2 < X + Y< 110, can be a
possible value of X. First, from the first 109 natural
numbers, we eliminate all primes below 110. Hence
the remaining numbers are 109 29 = 80. Further 1,
108, also do not qualify, since for these numbers the
smallest values of Y, do not satisfy 2 < X + Y < 110.
Hence, X can take 80 - 2 =78 values.
s + t + u = 40
Hindi
English
P + q + r = 60
q+ s + v +t = 40
40
60
s
p + s + v +u = 60
q
p
r + t + v +u = 100
v
u
t

15.

16.

10.

11.

12.

Option 4.
To find the least number of states in which company
Amul sold choclate,we have to assume that Amul had
its sales in states in which the total sales were the
maximum. Even if we assume company Amul had
50% market share in the states with maximum sales,
there must be at least 5 states where company Amul
sold choclate. Choice (2)
To find the maximum number of states where Ertiga
was present, we have to assume it had sales in the states
where the total sales are minimum and it had a share of
only 25% in the states.
Ertiga had sales in at most 7 states (S 4 ,S 6 ,
S 9, S 5 ,S 2, S 8 , S 10 ). It cannot include S 3 also as 25% of
sales in S3 is 2.5% of total and already at least 25% of
51% = 12.75% is accounted by the seven states.
For the minimum number of companies with sales in
more than two states , the sales of the companies can be
as follows
Bon Bon (17%) S 8 (9%) + S 5 (8%)
Cadbury (18%) S 10 (9%)+S 2 (9%)
Dabur (23%)-S 11 (13%)+S 3 (10%)
Ertiga (14%)-S 7 (14%)
Only Amul has sales in more than two states. Choice (1)
2x4 + x3 11x2 + x + 2 = 0. ----(1)
Since x=0 is not a solution of the given equation,
dividing both sides of (1) by x2, we get,

1
1

2 x 2 + 2 + x + 11 = 0. ----(2)
x
x

1
Put x + = y is (2) we get
x

r
Sanskrit
Adding the above three equation
p+ q + r + 2 (s + t + u ) + 3 v = 200
60 + 2 40 + 3v = 200
60 + 80 + 3v = 200
3v = 200-140 = 60
v = 20
Consider the first of the given equations.
[x] + {y} + [z] = 11.2
As [x] & [z] are both integers, {y} is the only part
which produces a fractional part.
{y} = 0.2
[x] + [z] = 11(1).
Similarly [y] + [x] = 10..(2) and {z} = 0.3.
And [y] + [z] = 9.(3)
And {x} = 0.4
Solving 1, 2 and 3
[x] = 6, [z] = 5 and [y] = 4.
x = [x] + {x} = 6 + 0.4 = 6.4
Similarly y = 4.2 and z = 5.3
[x + y z] = [5.3] = 5
If a, b, c, d have five factors each, then they are all
fourth powers of prime numbers.
Hence the number of the factors of the product
of a, b, c and d are (4+1)(4+1)(4+1)(4+1), i.e. 625
factors.
Thus, answer choice 3 is correct.
When A and B meet, D starts running in the same
direction as that of A (or opposite to B) and at the
same speed as that of A
(i.e. 4 m/s).
Hence D and A will never meet and therefore it is not
possible for all four of A, B, C and D to ever meet at
the same point. Hence they all will not meet ever.

2(y2 2) + y 11 = 0.
2y2 + y 15 = 0
2y2 + y 15 = 0
y = - 3, 5/2.

1
=-3
x

1
= 5/2.
x
x2 +1 5
x2 + 3x+1 = 0 or
=
x
2

x+

x2 + 3x+1 = 0
x=
17.

or

x+

or 2x2 5x + 2 = 0

3 5
1
or x = , 2
2
2

(i) Boeing-642 flew from KTAP.

(ii) Given that ambulance started from near QCAP and
started 20 min. after the first attach i.e. 9:20 am and
reached at 11 am, has a speed of 60 kmph. Thus,
distance covered by ambulance between QCAP and CII
TC is S T = 100 km.
(iii) At 9:23 am Boeing crashed into second building.
Also, when the first plane crashed at 9 am, at that
moment the Boeing was 8000 m i.e. 8 Km away from
QCAP and was flying away it towards CIITC. Thus,
Boeing has covered (100 - 8) = 92 km in 23 minutes or
the speed of Boeing = 240 kmph.
The distance between KTAP and CIITC = 800 + 100 =
900 km.
Time required to Boeing-642 to complete the distance
between KTAP and CIITC = 900/240 = 3 hours 45
minutes,
i.e. Boeing-642 took off from KTAP at 5:38 am.

Bulls Eye

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4
18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

Explanations
Although we can find the speed of the second BOEING
plane but we cannot find the speed of the first JET plane
as we do not know the time when it took off from
QCAP. Hence, the correct answer is option (4).
(i) Given that ambulance started from near QCAP and
started 20 min. after the first attach i.e. 9:20 am and
reached at 11 am, has a speed of 60 kmph. Thus,
distance covered by ambulance between QCAP and CII
TC is S T = 100 km.
(ii) At 9:23 am Boeing crashed into second building.
Also, when the first plane crashed at 9 am, at that
moment the Boeing was 8000 m i.e. 8 Km away from
QCAP and was flying away from it towards CII TC.
Thus, Boeing has covered (100 - 8) = 92 km in 23
minutes or the speed of Boeing = 240 kmph.
All that we have to do is to ascertain where any two of
the athletes are meeting for the first time, and then
calculate the LCM of all the meet times.
P would complete a lap in 400 seconds.
Q would complete a lap in 200 seconds
R would complete a lap in 100 seconds
S would complete a lap in 50 seconds
P would meet Q first time after 400 seconds
Q would meet R first time after 200 seconds
R would meet S first time after 100 seconds
Taking the LCM of these meet lines, we get the final
meet time when everyone would be together as 400
seconds. They would thus, meet at the starting point
having covered = (5 + 10 +20 + 40) 400 = 30,000
meters in the course.
After they have reversed their directions, P and R would
meet the other two athletes more often. P would meet Q
first at 2000 meters from the start. They would reach
there in 200 seconds. Next time they would meet at
2000 meters from the start, in 400 seconds. Lastly, they
would meet at the starting point, after 600 seconds.
Similarly, we can create the following table
200 300 400
600
100
500
Time
secon secon second
secon
seconds
seconds
ds
ds
s
ds
2000 1500
P 2500m
1000m 500m
Start
m
m
2000
Q 1000m
Start 1000m 2000m Start
m
2000
R 1000m
Start 1000m 2000m Start
m
2000
S 1000m
Start 1000m 2000m Start
m
Thus, it can be seen that all the four would meet first
after 200 seconds and at a distance of 2000 meters from
the starting point.
After they have reversed their directions, P and R would
meet the other two athletes more often. P would meet Q
first at 2000 meters from the start. They would reach
there in 200 seconds. Next time they would meet at
2000 meters from the start, in 400 seconds. Lastly, they
would meet at the starting point, after 600 seconds.
Similarly, we can create the following table
Ti 100seco 200seco 300seco 400seco 500seco 600seco
me nds
nds
nds
nds
nds
nds
P 2500m 2000m 1500m 1000m 500m Start
Q 1000m 2000m Start 1000m 2000m Start
R 1000m 2000m Start 1000m 2000m Start
S 1000m 2000m Start 1000m 2000m Start

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Thus, it can be seen that all the four would meet first
after 200 seconds and at a distance of 2000 meters from
the starting point.
By 200 seconds, they would have covered a total = (5 +
10 + 20 + 40) 200 = 15000 meters.
23.

2
Given f(x)= 2 x 5
2x 2 + 1

2
2
6
= 2x + 1 1 5 = 2x + 1
2
2x 2 + 1 2x 2 + 1
2x + 1

6
6 is maximum.
2
2x 2 + 1
2x + 1
is maximum, if 2x2 + 1 is minimum.
The minimum value of 2x2 + 1 is 1 when x = 0.
The minimum value of f(x) is 1 6 = -5
At each intersection point, y = 0
| |x 5| 14 | 6 = 0. | |x 5| 14| = 6.
|x 5| 14 = 6.
|x 5| = 20 or 8.
x 5 = 20 or 8.
x has 4 possibilities.

f(x) is minimum, if

24.

Alternative Solution:
This can also be solved by a graphical approach.
y

(x 5)

-5
(1

y
|x 5|
5

(2)
y

|x - 5| -14
x
5
-9
-14
(3)

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Answer key

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30.

14
31.

||x-5|-14|

6
0
(4)

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

32.

When ||x 5| 14 | 6 = 0, it touches x-axis, i.e.,

||x 5| 14| = 6.
From the last graph, it can be seen that y = 6 intersects
the graph at 4 points
Since SR = 2PS = 4PT, T is midpoint of PS.
In PSR and STU, STU = PRS and S is
common.
Both triangles PSR & STU are Similar.

PS SR
=
SU ST ,
2x
4x
x
= 2x
x = 16
=
3x 40 x
3
x
x 20
2
2
Perimeter of PQRS = 2 (PS + SR) = 2(16 + 32) = 96
500 students can be divided equally into 5 different
sections in 500!/(100!)5
N = 500!/(100!)5 (an integer) 500! ends with 100 +
20 + 4 i.e. 124 zeroes and 100! ends in 20 + 4 = 24
zeroes so (100!)5 will end with 24 5 = 120 zeroes.
So N ends with 124 120 = 4 zeroes.
Using formula, we get number of pieces = 1 + n,
where n = number of slices/cuts = 8
Therefore, number of pieces = 1 + 8 = 37.
The difference p q is highest when A, B and C are
numbers that are just short of whole numbers.
For example, let A = B = C = 0.9.
Thus, p = MOD (0.9 + 0.9 + 0.9) = MOD (2.7) = 2
q = MOD (0.9) + MOD (0.9) + MOD (0.9) =0 +0 +0 =0
Hence, the maximum value of p q is 2.
Since OP = OQ = r
OPQ = OQP = (180 128)/2= 26
Again SO PQ, so OMQ = 90 .
MOQ = 180 90 26 = 64.
QOS = 180 64 = 116.
OQS = OSQ = (180 116)/2 = 32
[Since OQ = OS = r]
TPS = OQS = 32.
S
(Angles by same arc).
R

f(x)=(x 1) + 2(1 x) +(x2+1).

For x > 1, (1 x) is imaginary;
For x < 1, (x 1) is imaginary;
For x = 1, f(x) = 2.
Hence option D
Let , , be the roots of the
equation a 1 x3 + a 2 x2+ a 3 x + a 4 = 0.
Therefore product of the roots = a 4 /a 1
2 = a 4 /a 1 a 4 = - a 1 2.
Now roots of the second equation are , , 2.
In the second equation, coefficient of x3 is 1and hence
constant term = -2 2.
The change in the constant term = | -a 1 2 + 22 |
which cannot be found out.
The average age of the family of 3 in 1990 was 22
years.
Total age = 66 years.
The Total age of these 3 members in 1998 was 90 and
average (of these 3) is 30.
In statement II the average age of the family in 1994
was 26 years that is the average age of the 3 existing
members. So, we can only conclude that if a baby was
born it was after 1994.
In statement I, the average age of the family in 1998
was while of the 3 members already there in 1990 it was
30. There must be a new member where age is 24(4) 30(3)
= 6. The baby was born in 1992.
So statement I is sufficient but statement II is not.
The average ratings to determine the models which get
Comfort, Mileage and Power awards can be computed
and tabulated as under. The various parameters of rating
are represented by their respective first letters.
Model
C+ M S+ P C+ M +S+ P+ R
C+ M +S

A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H

33.
34.

O
D
P

3335.

35.

169.33

168

164

166.8

168.00

171

169

168.4

164.67

162

167

166.4

174.67

178

158

169.6

167.33

172

156

167.6

169.33

177

167

173.2

172.00

177

168

172

170.33

174.5

167

169.4

Model H secured the highest rating under comfort and

hence gets Comfort Award, Similarly, models D and F
qualify for Mileage and Power award respectively. Also
as D and G obtained an average rating of at least 170 in
comfort, mileage and safety, they qualify for Comfort
Award. Similarly, F and G qualify for Mileage and B
and G qualify for Power award.
The highest average rating obtained by a model which
has not won any award is 167.6 (i.e. E)
Models which do not get Comfort award are A, B, C, E
and F. Models which got Power award is B, F and G.
The union of two gives the required total i.e. A, B, C, E,
F and G, a total of 6.
The difference between the highest average rating and
the lowest average rating is 173.2 166.4 = 6.8

Bulls Eye

2015

6
36.

Explanations

www.hitbullseye.com

Let the announced revenue of T.V. medium = 100.

Revenue from Two-wheelers = 24% of 100 = 24
As Two-wheelers form 20% of actual revenue of T.V.
100
medium, actual revenue of T.V. medium is
24
20
= 120 In the first pie chart, announced revenue of T.V.
medium is given as 36

41.

Therefore, Actual revenue of T.V. = 36 120 = 43.2

100

37.

38.

39.

40.

Total revenue = 100 + 7.2 = 107.2.

Actual percentage share of Print medium
24
=
100 = 22.4%
107.2
In this case, the actual revenue (i.e., absolute value) is
not required to answer the question.
Let the announced total revenue = W
Let the actual total revenue = C.
Given, 18% W = 16% C
C = 1.125 W.
Let W = 100
C = 112.5
Hence the announced total revenue is 12.5 less than the
actual.
All of this 12.5 has been reduced from T.V. medium
alone.
Actual revenue from T.V. medium
= (Announced revenue from T.V. medium) + (12.5)
= 36% of W + 12.5
= 36% of 100 +12.5 = 48.5
Thus when actual revenue from T.V. is considered, the
announced revenue for T.V. forms
36
=
100% 74.2%
48.5
If only the actual total revenue from the Internet
medium is known, it is possible to calculate all the
values in all the four pie-charts.
Hence, the announced values for all the four pie-charts
will be known.
Now, these announced values will be the same as the
actual values for all the segments mentioned across all
the pie-charts, except for Brand Image category in T.V.
medium and hence for total T.V. medium and total
Brand image category, which will be wrong.Thus,
unless any of these three values (actual values) are
given, the actual value of the revenue from the Brand
Image category cannot be found. So, none of the four
statements provides the required information. No such
statements, hence answer is 0.
The value of revenue from Educational Institutions will
remain constant, but the value of revenue from the TV
medium will change according to the value by which it
has been fudged. Since this value is not known, we
cannot calculate the percentage. The best answer is
option 4.
As the total revenue from Brand Image category is
understated, its actual percentage share in the total
revenue will be more than the announced value in the
graph i.e., 24%.
For all other categories, the value of their total revenue
will not change but the total revenue of the company
will increase by the same amount of as that of Brand
Image, which results in a decrease in their percentage
shares.
Hence, the percentage share of any category will be less
than that given in the graph

42.

43.

Share of every category will be less than that of

cellular phone services, which will be less than 20%.
The value can be more than 24% or less than 20%.
It cannot lie between 20% and 24%.
Hence, 22.4% is not possible.
Let us convert the cost of all fruits into terms of the cost
of cherries
2 plumps = 3 cherries
plumps = (3/2) cherries
guava = (5/3) cherries
apricot = (4/5) cherries
melon = (8/5) cherries
4 plumps + 3 cherries = 9 cherries
3 melons + 3 guavas = 9.8 cherries
4 apricots + 6 cherries = 9.2 cherries
3 plumps + 6 apricots = 9.3 cherries
Hence the combination of 3 melons and 3 guavas is the
costliest.
There are a total of 100 terms.
The given sum can be written as
3.(33)33 + 32(33)66 + (33)100 + ...... + 3. (33)3333
Let 33 = x
f(x) = 3x33 + 9x66 + x100 + 3.x133 + 9.x166 + x200.........+
3x3333
when this is divided by (x-1) i.e. 33 -1 the remainder is
f(1)
remainder = 3 (1)33 + 9(1)66 +1 +.....+ 3(1)3333
= (3 + 9 + 1) 33 + 3
remainder of 13(33) + 3 when divided by 26 = 16
x and y be either positive or negative.
Thus we will give total of four possible cases.
Case (i)
x > 0 and y > 0
Now x +

= x = 50

+ x + y = 25 can never be equal to

And in such case
25.
Hence this case is not possible.
Case (ii)
x > 0 and y < 0
hence the given equation becomes
2x + y = 25
X 2y = 50
Solving the above equation gives x = 20 and y = - 15
= 35
Thus,
Case (iii)
x < 0 and y > 0
+ x + y = 25 y = 25 and in such a case x +

can never be equal to 50

Hence such a case is not possible.
Case (iv)
x < 0 and y < 0

44.

+ x + y = 25 y = 25 is not possible.

Thus,
= 35
Given equation (15x2 + 8y2)/22 = xy
15x2 + 8y2 = 22xy
15x2 22xy + 8y2 = 0
(3x 2y) (5x 4y) = 0
Case 1:
x = (2/3) y
There are 33 such pairs (2, 3), (4, 6), ..........(66, 99)
Case 2:
x = (4/5) y
There are 19 such pairs (4, 5), (8, 10), ...........(76, 95)
Hence total such cases = 33 + 19 = 52

Bulls Eye

2015

Answer key

www.hitbullseye.com
45.

Let the numbers 13x and 13y.

13x + 13y = 4732
13(x+y) = 4732
4732
x+y =
= 364
13
We have to find the pairs of x and y such that then sum
is 364 and are co prime to each other i.e. (1, 363) (3,
361).. ,the number of pairs will be half the Euler
number of 364.
1
1 1
Eular number of 364 = 364 1 1 1
2 7 13
= 364

51.

1 6 12
= 144
2 7 13

So required number of pairs =

46.

50.

144
= 72
2

26
64
Re m, = Re m = 9
73
73

29
Re m = 9 23 = 72 = 1
73

29
gives1as remainder
73
22674 (29 ) 297 2
=
Re m
=2
73
73

Here an accurate interpretation of Table A would enable

one to solve entire set very easily.
The Beaufort number is 0 when wind speed is less than 1
km/hr. Now let us construct a table for Beaufort numbers
with the corresponding wind speed reading (i.e.
cumulative of the column reading given in the second
column of table A).
Wind Speed Reading Beaufort Number
1-5
1
6-11
2
12-19
4
20-38
5
39-49
8
50-61
10
62-74
13
75-88
16
89-102
18
>102
19
When the Wind Speed Reading is 20 the Beaufort
Number is 5.
The corresponding Sea Disturbance Number is 3 for
which the average wave height is 0.6.
When the Wind Speed Reading is 74.
The Beaufort Number is 13 for which the average wave
height is 4.
The average wave height range is 0.6 4.
When the wind is either Light Breeze, Gentle,
Moderate, Fresh or Strong the Beaufort numbers are 2,
4, 5, 8 or 10 respectively.
The corresponding wind speeds for those Beaufort
numbers are in the range of 6 61.
72 is not a possible Wind Speed Reading.
When the wind speeds are in excess of 94 km/hr the
corresponding Beaufort Number is 18 or 19. The wind
type for Beaufort Number 18 or more is Hurricane and
during Hurricane the coast guard of Bangladesh raises
cautionary signal 3.

4750.

47.

48.

49.

52.

53.

When the Wind Speed Reading is 17 km/hr, the

corresponding Beaufort Number is 4.
The corresponding Sea Disturbance Number for this
reading is 2.
When the Wind Speed Reading is 83 km/hr the
Beaufort Number is 16.
For this Beaufort reading the corresponding Sea
Disturbance Number is 7.
The increase is Sea Disturbance Number is 5
Considering option (1): BHALU
Compared to MONEY, no letter is common with
BHALU, which violates the given condition.
Considering option (2): MOHNI
Compared to JOHNY, three letters O, H, and N are
common and in the same position, which violates the
given condition.
Considering option (3): BOBBY
Compared to MONEY, exactly two letters O and Y are
in the same position.
Compared to JOHNY, exactly two letters O and Y are
in the same position.
Compared to BABLU, exactly two letters B and B are
in the same position.
Compared to BHABI, exactly two letters B and B are
in the same position.
Compared to ROBOT, exactly two letters O and B are
in the same position.
Compared to BUNNY, exactly two letters B and Y are
in the same position.
Hence BOBBY satisfies the given condition.
Considering option (4): BANNU
Compared to MONEY, only N is in the same position,
which violates the given condition.
Hence BOBBY is the right answer.
There are in total six possibilities:
Appa
Chappa
Tappa
orders orders
orders
Case I
Coffee Coffee
Coffee
Case II
Coffee Tea
Tea
Case III
Tea
Coffee
Coffee
Case IV
Tea
Tea
Tea
Case V
Tea
Coffee
Tea
Case VI
Tea
Tea
Coffee
Then, from (2), Cases I and V are eliminated and, from
(3), Cases II and V are eliminated. So, you know Appa
always orders the same drink (tea) after dinner. Thus,
correct ans. is (A)
From the information given, the following table can be
made :
Days
Mo Tues Wed Thur Frid
Violation
nda day nesd sday ay
y
ay
Case I A M
S
G
P Not
As stated
possible in ques
Case II A G
M S
P Possible No
violation
Case III A P
M S
G Not
Conditio
Possible n (2)
Case IV M S
A G
P Not
As stated
possible in ques
Case V M S
A P
G Not
Conditio
Possible n (2)
Case VI P G
A M
S Not
As stated
possible in ques.
Only Case II is possible and as per this case, Prashant
works on Friday. Hence option D is right

Bulls Eye

2015

8
54.

5558.

Explanations

www.hitbullseye.com

From the given information, it can be concluded that

Raman
1st
PSCB
Hyderabad
Baboor
2nd
Services
Bangalore
Basu
3rd
Railways
Pune
Hence the correct order of ranking is Raman, Baboor
and Basu
Drawing the Venn diagram with the given conditions:
Dark
Tall
y

63.

62.

1
12

9
x + y + z = 107

64.

21
Handsome
65.

55.

56.

57.

Only handsome = 150 (107 + 9 + 1 + 12) = 21

To find the minimum number of candidates who had at
least two of the three attributes, we have to maximize
the number of candidates with just one single attribute.
But as it is mentioned that at most fifty candidates (i.e.,
one-third of 150) had any one single attribute, there
must be at least seven people who were both tall and
dark.
Required value = 7 + 9 + 1 + 12 = 29.
Here x + z +13 < 10 + x + y
=> y z > 3.
To get least number of candidates who were dark as
well as tall take y = 50 and z = 46 such that
50 46 = 4 > 3.
Now x + y + z = 107
=> 50 + 46 + x = 107.
=> x = 11.
So least no. of candidates = 11 + 1 = 12.
Given, 50% of tall are also dark, 50% of dark are also
tall 9 + y = 1 + x______ (i)
and also z + 12 = x + 1_______ (ii)
(i) + (ii)
21 + y + z = 2x + 2, 21 + (107 x) = 2x + 2
128 2 = 3x, x =

58.

59.

60.

61.

66.

67.

68.

126
= 42
3

Only tall = y = x 8 (from (i)) = 34.

The number of persons who were only dark (i.e., z)
should be as minimum as possible.
(x + y) should be the maximum.
The maximum possible value of y is 50.
Given, tall = 2 (candidates with at least two attributes)
(60 + x) = 2 (22 + x), x = 16.
z = 107 (x + y) = 107 (16 + 50) = 41
Option 3 is the best answer.
The discussion here is about the trend for amateur
robberies in Britain and the difficulty it poses for the
police.
Option 1 talks only about the imitation.
Option 2 changes the conclusion of the argument
nowhere is it mentioned that no skill is required in
robbing.
Option 4 does not touch upon the real issues.
The theme here is the NAFTA, what it did for Mexico
and what the Mexicans ought to have done. Option 1
rephrases this perfectly.
Option 3 is the best answer.
The U.S has strongly criticised the Bangladesh

69.

governments attitude towards the Grameen Bank which

amply shows the U.Ss support for Prof. Yunus.
Option 1 is the answer.
A corporate lobbyist presses for unreasonable demands.
In this passage there is nothing unreasonable to press
for hence the passage does not hold the interest of a
corporate lobbyist. The passage does not deal with the
discussion on economic theories, nor is there any
involvement of a politician. A journalist captures the
situation that Prof Yunus is facing in this passage.
Nostrum, elixir & antidote are synonyms of panacea
however 'Panache' means the quality of being able to do
things in a confident and elegant way that other people
find attractive.
In the given case, a specific person is being targeted by
the government and such an approach can be labeled as
political victimization. Sufficient information is not
present in the passage to deduce options 2 and 3.
Option 4 is the correct answer.
Option A introduces Delhi and also mentions 2 reasons.
C follows with the both reasons stated in the statement.
Hence the AC link is established.
There is no other option with AC. and option D
concludes the paragraph. The correct sequnec will be
ACBD
Option 4 is the apt choice in this case. Option 1 makes
the mistake of using 'in conjunction' for material stuff
and experiences, whereas the passage is actually
comparing them. Option 2 reverses the argument of
Gilovich. Option 3 uses the word 'partial', whereas the
sense implied by the passage is completely different.
In the given passage, Gilovich supports the notion that
experiences are far more important than buying stuff.
Keeping that in mind, we can see that option 2 makes
perfect sense. Statements I and III represent material
activities and these wont give you the kind of
happiness that is provided by experiences (which are
given in statements II, III and V).
Refer to the lines: Gilovich's findings are the synthesis
of psychological studies conducted by him and others
into the Easterlin paradox, which found that money
buys happiness, but only up to a point.
The key aspect in this case is that money does buy
happiness but only up to appoint. This would mean that
rich people will be happier than the poor ones. Also,
this would mean that as a society, richer ones would not
be happier by a great amount than poor ones. This helps
us derive statements I and II. Statement III is a direct
derivative in this case.
Statement I can be derived from the lines: We buy
things to make us happy, and we succeed. But only for a
while. New things are exciting to us at first, but then we
adapt to them.
Statement II can be derived from the lines: Another
reason is that shared experiences connect us more to
other people than shared consumption. You're much
more likely to feel connected to someone you took a
vacation with in Bogot than someone who also
happens to have bought a 4K TV. We consume
experiences directly with other people, says Gilovich.
And after they're gone, they're part of the stories that
we tell to one another.
Statement III can be derived from the lines: One study
conducted by Gilovich even showed that if people have
an experience they say negatively impacted their
happiness, once they have the chance to talk about it,

Bulls Eye

2015

Answer key

www.hitbullseye.com

7072.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

their assessment of that experience goes up. Gilovich

attributes this to the fact that something that might have
been stressful or scary in the past can become a funny
story to tell at a party or be looked back on as an
invaluable character-building experience.
From statement (vi), Kakas Jersey is the second from
the front and is Red in colour. Hence, from statement
(ii), Messis Jersey is the first from the front. Now,
Messis Jersey is not Red in colour.
From statement (v), Messis Jersey is not Black in
colour as it cannot be the first from the front. Similarly,
from statement (vii), Messis Jersey is not White in
colour as it cannot be the first from the front. From
statement (viii), Messis Jersey is not Silver in colour.
From statement (iii), it can be concluded that Messi is
wearing the Violet Sunderland.
Now, Kaka is not wearing Sunderland jersey. From
statement (i), Kaka is not wearing Arsenal jersey as it is
not Red in colour. From statement (ii), Kaka is not
wearing Chelsea jersey. From statement (vii), Kaka is
not wearing Manchester City jersey as it must be behind
at least two Jerseys.
Therefore, it can be concluded that Kaka is wearing
MAN U jersey. Further analysis leads to the following
table:
Name Messi Kaka Ronnie Cristiano Ronaldo
Sunder MA Arsena Manches
Chelsea
Jersey
land N U l
ter City
Black
Colour Violet Red White Silver
Left to Right Jerseys from First to Last
Hence Ronaldo is wearing Chelsea jersey.
Hence the answer is option A
Left to Right Jerseys from First to Last
Hence Ronnie is wearing Arsenal jersey.
Hence the answer is option C
Left to Right Jerseys from First to Last
Hence Messi is ahead of man wearing red jersey.
Hence the answer is option A
Option 2 is the best answer.
The palace guards in B is the opening sentence.The
paragraph talks about palace guards
They in D refers to the palace guards.
Also D talks of kalaripayattu and C continues the idea.
Hence the BDC is the link
Option D is the best answer.
A common practice of life is too general.
Jim Crow constitutes only a part of the passage.
Races is undefined in the Option C.
Most of the article is about the history of segregation
and how it came into existence.
Option 2 is the correct answer.
He does not appreciate segregation.
He does not mix reality & sarcasm.
He does not criticize loopholes.
However, he sounds indifferent towards the treatment of
the concept of 'segregation' given by Americans.
1st option is the correct answer.
The last sentence talks about how extreme the battle for
a proper place to ride on train was.
Hence C & D are out of scope.
There is no information about all the races, so not B.
Option 1 is the answer.
De jure is an expression that means "concerning law",
as contrasted with de facto, which means "concerning
fact"

78.

79.

80.

81.

Jim Crow laws mandated de jure racial segregation in

all public facilities for Black Americans.
It was not a matter of fact segregation.
Hence option with de facto is ruled out.
Option C & D are out of scope.
As the mileage has to be more than 17 km/litre, we have
to consider only the last three rows of the foreign
segment. Of all the 11 bikes with the range of mileage
as 14 < x 18, at least one bike must have value of 14
lakh, so at most 10 bike can have a value of more than
15lakh. Similarly, the same value for the range of
mileage of
(i) 18 < x 22, is 6 1 (one of the bikes is of value of
12 lakh) = 5
(ii) 22 < x 30 is 4 1 (one of the bikes is of value 10
lakh) = 3
The required value is 10 + 5 + 3 = 18 Choice (2)
Here, we are looking for the least possible number of
bikes. Considering the bikes in the range of mileage
of x 10, from Indian segment at least one (i.e., with
value of 18 lakh) must be counted.
Considering the bikes in the range of mileage of 10 < x
14, from Indian segment at least one (i.e. with value of
14 lakh) must be counted and from foreign segment at
least one (i.e. with value of 15 lakh) must be counted.
The next range of mileage should not be counted as it
may be that all bikes in that range have a mileage of 15
km/litre or more. The required value is 3. Hence option
3 is the answer.
From the first row, as none of the bikes can have a
value of 10 lakh, none of them can be counted from this
row, From the second row, at most 7 bikes from Indian
segment can have a mileage of 14 Km/litre and value of
14lakh From, the third row, 10 bikes from Indian
segment bike have a mileage of 18 km/litre and value of
not more than 18 lakh and from foreign segment at most
10 bikes can be counted.
From the fourth row, from both the Indian and the
foreign segments all the bikes (i.e., 6 + 6 = 12) bikes
can be counted as each of them can have an value which
is less than its respective mileage. From the fifth row,
also all the bikes can be counted, i.e., 3 + 4 = 7 bikes,
Required total is 7+10 + 10 + 12 + 7 = 46.
As the average mileage has to be the highest, consider
each bike has the highest mileage in its range. The
average mileage
= (9 10 + (15 14) + (2118) + (12 22) + (7 30)
64

82.

83.

1152
=
=18. Choice (2)
64
Since .the required condition is that total time should be
least , so we can conclude that fastest person will drive
the boat
Also , no person can drive the boat in more then 2 trips ,
So in first trip A takes D and leaves him on other side
and returns.
Time taken = 7+7 minutes (two trips over)
Now B takes A to other side and returns and completes
his number of trips.
In the last round C takes B to the final destination and
hence they all crossed the river.
Total time is 7+7+14+14+17 = 59 minutes.
Option 4 is the correct answer.
Two pairs that help us identify the answer:
DB: linked the element of planning and aquifers
mentioned in D, which is taken forward by statement B.

Bulls Eye

2015

10

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

Explanations
BE: linked by the common reference to data.
Linking the above two, we need the pair DBE to be
present in an answer option to establish the correct
answer. Such a scenario takes place only option 4.
Option 3 is the correct answer.
The first step to solve this question involves identifying
the correct opening sentence of the question. In the
given case, that sentence is statement D. Statement D is
followed by the pair EA (which is an obvious
mandatory pair which is present in all the answer
options). The next deduction that needs to be made is
the location of statement C. We can see that FB is
another pair that talks about the common subject of the
life of the group. This means that option 2 cannot be the
answer, as it splits the pair FB.
In this case, the set of connected statements is 1-2-4.
Statement 1 introduces the context, statement 2 takes
this forward and statement 4 concludes the definition
for Neoliberalism. Effectively, these three statements
are about a common context, the definition of
Neoliberalism. Statement 3 does not fit in the given case
and does not add-up here.
Statement D speak of the linkage between womens
oppression and their reproductive freedom while the
rest talk of the issue of womens oppression only and
are interconnected with one another.
Statement C represents a related but out-of-context
argument while the rest are interlinked with one
another.
Statement D, though seemingly connected to line C, is
unrelated to the paragraph as while the lines A, B and C
(which offers an example of a culturally relative
tradition in certain groups) speak of cultural relativity,
this one talks of a research method in anthropology.
In the given case, options 1,3 and 4 commit the
common mistake of only focusing on the man of
science. Option 2 provides the other side as well and is
the only complete option in the given case.
Option 2 is the correct answer.
In order to identify the correct answer for this question,
you need to understand the central gist of the paragraph,
which is essentially about one thing: it is not sufficient
to for a science to only compose of observation and
interpretation; it also needs a systematic process where
this information is put across to others. Keeping this in
mind, we see that only option 2 covers all the aspects.
Statement B commits a tense error. It uses propelled
instead of propels.
Statement C incorrectly uses the word corpses instead
of corpus.
Statement E incorrectly uses the noun form effecting
instead of the required verb affecting.
Statement A incorrectly uses the word foresight
instead of hindsight.
Statement D uses the incorrect preposition with, and
thus makes the meaning of the sentence unclear. The
sentence needs to use the preposition against.
Statement E incorrectly uses as instead of like. In
this statement, we need to use like and not as. Like is
used with noun phrases (as is the case here)and as is
used with verb phrases.
Statement A incorrectly uses bolt instead of jolt.
Statement C commits a parallelism error. It uses the
structures to economic reforms and for privatization.
The second phrase should be to privatization.
Statement E incorrectly uses the preposition by

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94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

instead of to.
Statement B incorrectly spells butt as but.
Statement C incorrectly uses the plural pronoun their
to refer to the singular pronoun everyone used in the
sentence previously.
Option 3 is the best answer.
In the given case, it can be inferred from the passage
that the renewal of life is carried forward by processes
such as reproduction and experience sharing in
groups. These processes ensure that the principle of
continuity through renewal exists in the world and this
is how life propagates. This sentiment is best reflected
by option 3.
From the given paragraph, the definition of life for a
lower and a higher form of being is only fractionally
related to each other. This is only so in the physical
sense and in all other ways, the definition of life
differentiates for the two.
Option 2 is the best answer.
The answer to this question can be found from the
lines: We have been speaking of life in its lowest
termsas a physical thing. But we use the word "Life"
to denote the whole range of experience, individual and
racial. When we see a book called the Life of Lincoln
we do not expect to find within its covers a treatise on
physiology.
The correct answer is option 2.
In the given case, the word pregnant means rich in
significance or implication. In the given sentence, it is
used to imply that experience is not a single term but
it accounts for a vast range of human experiences.
Keeping this in mind, we can see that option 2 is the
best answer.
option 3 is the correct answer.
In the given case, we need to stick to the line of
reasoning adopted in the paragraph. The reasoning is:
Because of accidents, workers have to be insured
with more expensive policies.
Because of insurance, the cost goes up.
Because of the increased cost, workers have to be let
go.
Because of the reduction in workers, the workload
increases.
If we add option 3 to the above, that is the chances of
accidents go up when the workload increases, we see
that a chain reaction is set in motion as more accidents
will take place and this will further increase insurance
costs.
All of the above statements help explain the
contradictory facts:
Statement I: this is a direct answer and explains how the
car companies can use better quality plastic.
Statement II: this is an indirect answer, which
effectively implies that the overall costs for car
manufacturers have gone down and they can afford
better quality plastic.
Statement III: this attacks the parent condition of fuel
economy. Read the first sentence again" The automobile
industry tries to make sure that the cars they build are
generally the lightest possible as these lead to a greater
fuel economy." If fuel is cheaper, this means that a
consumer may not think of buying a lighter car as the
fuel is available for cheaper rates and he can a car
which is not lighter.