DBMS One mark Questions and Answers

1. ............................ is the powerful language for working with RDBMS.

A) Embedded Programs

B) Dynamic Programs
C) Query Language
D) Static Language Programs

2. The file in DBMS is called as .................. in RDBMS.

A) console
B) schema
C) table
D) object

3. In ..................... , we have a strict parent-child relationship only.

A) hierarchical databases.
B) network databases
C) object oriented databases
D) relational databases

4. Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?

A) 2 NF
B) 3 NF

C) 4 NF
D) BCNF

5. What operator tests column for the absence of data?

A) IS NULL operator
B) ASSIGNMENT operator
C) LIKE operator
D) NOT operator

6. Which is proper subset designed to support views belonging to different classes of users in
order to hide or protect information.
A) Schema
B) Sub-schema
C) Non-schema
D) Non-sub schema

7. Which contain information about a file needed by system programs for accessing file records?
A) File blocks
B) File operators
C) File headers
D) None of these

8. A .................... DBMS distributes data processing tasks between the workstation and network
server.

A) Network
B) Relational
C) Client Server
D) Hierarchical

9. The .................... refers to the way data is organized in and accessible from DBMS.
A) database hierarchy
B) data organization
C) data sharing
D) data model

10. ................. is a statement that is executed automatically by the system.

A) trigger
B) assertion
C) durability
D) integrity constraint
SET 1
11. DBMS is a collection of .. that enables user to create and maintain a database.
A) Keys
B) Translators
C) Program
D) Language Activity
12. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called

A) Relations
B) Domains
C) Queries
D) All of the above
13. In an ER model, . is described in the database by storing its data.
A) Entity
B) Attribute
C) Relationship
D) Notation
14. DFD stands for
A) Data Flow Document
B) Data File Diagram
C) Data Flow Diagram
D) Non of the above
15. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a
A) Hierarchical schema
B) Network schema
C) Relational Schema
D) All of the above
16. table store information about database or about the system.
A) SQL
B) Nested

C) System
D) None of these
17. . ..defines the structure of a relation which consists of a fixed set of attributedomain pairs.
A) Instance
B) Schema
c) Program
D) Super Key
18. clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result.
A) Select
B) Group-by
C) Having
D) Order by
19. A logical schema
A) is the entire database
B) is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
C) Describes how data is actually stored on disk.
D) All of the above
20. is a full form of SQL.
A) Standard query language
B) Sequential query language
C) Structured query language

D) Server side query language

21. A relational database developer refers to a record as
A. a criteria
B. a relation
C. a tuple
D. an attribute
22. .......... keyword is used to find the number of values in a column.
A. TOTAL
B. COUNT
C. ADD
D. SUM
23. An advantage of the database management approach is
A. data is dependent on programs
B. data redundancy increases
C. data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs
D. none of the above
24. The collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment is called as ......
A. schema
B. instance of the database
C. data domain
D. independence

25. Data independence means

A. data is defined separately and not included in programs.
B. programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data
C. programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data
D. both B and C
26. A ......... is used to define overall design of the database
A. schema
B. application program
C. data definition language
D. code
27. Key to represent relationship between tables is called
A. primary key
B. secondary key
C. foreign key
D. none of the above
28. Grant and revoke are ....... statements.
A. DDL
B. TCL
C. DCL
D. DML
29. DBMS helps achieve
A. Data independence

B. Centralized control of data

C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B
30. .......... command can be used to modify a column in a table
A. alter
B. update
C. set
D. create
SET 2
31. The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row uniquely is called ..
A) Alternate Key
B) Primary Key
C) Foreign Key
D) None of the above
32. .. is used to determine whether of a table contains duplicate rows.
A) Unique predicate
B) Like Predicate
C) Null predicate
D) In predicate
33. To eliminate duplicate rows is used
A) NODUPLICATE

B) ELIMINATE
C) DISTINCT
D) None of these
34. State true or false
i) A candidate key is a minimal super key.
ii) A candidate key can also refer to as surrogate key.
A) i-true, ii-false
B) i-false, ii-true
C) i-true, ii-true
D) i-false, ii-false
35. DCL stands for
A) Data Control Language
B) Data Console Language
C) Data Console Level
D) Data Control Level
36. is the process of organizing data into related tables.
A) Normalization
B) Generalization
C) Specialization
D) None of the above
37. A . Does not have a distinguishing attribute if its own and mostly are
dependent entities, which are part of some another entity.

A) Weak entity
B) Strong entity
C) Non attributes entity
D) Dependent entity
38. .. is the complex search criteria in the where clause.
A) Sub string
B) Drop Table
C) Predict
D) Predicate
39. is preferred method for enforcing data integrity
A) Constraints
B) Stored Procedure
C) Triggers
D) Cursors
40. The number of tuples in a relation is called its . While the number of attributes in a
relation is called its ..
A) Degree, Cardinality
B) Cardinality, Degree
C) Rows, Columns
D) Columns, Rows
41) The language that requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying
exactly how to get it is

A. Procedural DML
B. Non-Procedural DML
C. Procedural DDL
D. Non-Procedural DDL
42) Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS?
A. Query languages and utilities
B. DML and query language
C. Data dictionary and transaction log
D. Data dictionary and query language
43) The database schema is written in
A. HLL
B. DML
C. DDL
D. DCL
44) The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses is
a
A. module
B. relational model
C. schema
D. sub schema
45) The relational model feature is that there

A. is no need for primary key data

B. is much more data independence than some other database models
C. are explicit relationships among records.
D. are tables with many dimensions
46) Which one of the following statements is false?
A. The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator
B. Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.
C. The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element.
D. The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.
47) Which of the following are the properties of entities?
A. Groups
B. Table
C. Attributes
D. Switchboards
48) Which database level is closest to the users?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Physical
D. Conceptual
49) Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?
A. Passive and active

B. Total and partial

C. Simple and Complex
D. All of the above
50) ........ data type can store unstructured data
A. RAW
B. CHAR
C. NUMERIC
D. VARCHAR
SET 3
51. State true or false.
i) Select operator is not a unary operator.
ii) Project operator chooses subset of attributes or columns of a relation.
A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-True, ii-True
C) i-False, ii-True
D) i-False, ii-False
52. database is used as template for all databases created.
A) Master
B) Model
C) Tempdb
D) None of the above
53. One aspect that has to be dealt with by the integrity subsystem is to ensure that only valid
values can be assigned to each data items. This is referred to as

A) Data Security
B) Domain access
C) Data Control
D) Domain Integrity
54. .. operator is basically a join followed by a project on the attributes of first
relation.
A) Join
B) Semi-Join
C) Full Join
D) Inner Join
55. Which of the following is not a binary operator in relational algebra?
A) Join
B) Semi-Join
C) Assignment
D) Project
56. Centralizing the integrity checking directly under the DBMS .. Duplication and
ensures the consistency and validity of the database.
A) Increases
B) Skips
C) Does not reduce
D) Reduces
57. Which of the following is/are the DDL statements?

A) Create
B) Drop
C) Alter
D) All of the above
58. In snapshot, . clause tells oracle how long to wait between refreshes.
A) Complete
B) Force
C) Next
D) Refresh
59. defines rules regarding the values allowed in columns and is the standard
mechanism for enforcing database integrity.
A) Column
B) Constraint
C) Index
D) Trigger
60. For like predicate which of the following is true.
i) % matches zero of more characters.
ii) _ matches exactly one character.
A) i-only
B) ii-only
C) Both of them
D) None of them
SET 4

61. In SQL, which command is used to issue multiple CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW and
GRANT statements in a single transaction?
A) CREATE PACKAGE
B) CREATE SCHEMA
C) CREATE CLUSTER
A) All of the above
62. In SQL, the CREATE TABLESPACE is used
A) to create a place in the database for storage of scheme objects, rollback segments, and naming
the data files to comprise the tablespace.
B) to create a database trigger.
C) to add/rename data files, to change storage
D) All of the above
63. Which character function can be used to return a specified portion of a character string?
A) INSTR
B) SUBSTRING
C) SUBSTR
D) POS
64. Which of the following is TRUE for the System Variable $date$?
A) Can be assigned to a global variable.
B) Can be assigned to any field only during design time.
C) Can be assigned to any variable or field during run time.
D) Can be assigned to a local variable.

65. What are the different events in Triggers?

A) Define, Create
B) Drop, Comment
C) Insert, Update, Delete
D) Select, Commit
66. Which is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Database Structures,
including tables?
A) Data Definition Language
B) Data Manipulation Language
C) Data Described Language
D) Data Retrieval Language
67. The SQL statement SELECT SUBSTR('123456789', INSTR('abcabcabc','b'), 4) FROM
EMP; prints
A) 6789
B) 2345
C) 1234
D) 456789
68. Which of the following SQL command can be used to modify existing data in a database
table?
A) MODIFY
B) UPDATE
C) CHANGE
D) NEW

69. When SQL statements are embedded inside 3GL, we call such a program as ..........
A) nested query
B) nested programming
C) distinct query
D) embedded SQL
70. ................ provides option for entering SQL queries as execution time, rather than at the
development stage.
A) PL/SQL
B) SQL*Plus
C) SQL
D) Dynamic SQL

71) The RDBMS terminology for a row is

A. tuple
B. relation
C. attribute
D. degree
72) To change column value in a table the ......... command can be used.
A. create
B. insert
C. alter
D. update

73) The full form of DDL is

A. Dynamic Data Language
B. Detailed Data Language
C. Data Definition Language
D. Data Derivation Language
74) To pass on granted privileges to other user the ...... clause is used
A. create option
B. grant option
C. update option
D. select option
75) A set of possible data values is called
A. attribute
B. degree
C. tuple
D. domain
76) ......... is critical in formulating database design.
A. row column order
B. number of tables
C. functional dependency
D. normalizing
77) A primary key if combined with a foreign key creates

A. Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them

B. Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them
C. Network model between the tables that connect them
D. None of the above
78) A ............. represents the number of entities to which another entity can be associated
A. mapping cardinality
B. table
C. schema
D. information
79) Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS
A. Query languages and utilities
B. DML and query language
C. Data dictionary and transaction log
D. Data dictionary and query language
80) A ........... is a set of column that identifies every row in a table.
A. composite key
B. candidate key
C. foreign key
D. super key
SET 5
81. The relational model is based on the concept that data is organized and stored in twodimensional tables called .

A) Fields
B) Records
C) Relations
D) Keys
82. .. contains information that defines valid values that are stored in a column
or data type.
A) View
B) Rule
C) Index
D) Default
83. Which of the syntax is correct for insert statement?
i) insert into <table_name> values <list of values>
ii) insert into <table_name> (column list) values <list of values>
A) i-only
B) ii-only
C) Both of them
D) None of them
84. . . First proposed the process of normalization.
A) Edgar. W
B) Edgar F. Codd
C) Edward Stephen
D) Edward Codd
85. . For using a specific database command is used.

A) use database
B) database name use
C) Both A &B
D) None of them
86. Which of the following is not comparison operator?
A) <>
B) <
C) =<
D) >=
87. An outstanding functionality of SQL is its support for automatic to the target
data.
A) programming
B) functioning
C) navigation
D) notification
88. is a special type of integrity constraint that relates two relations &
maintains consistency across the relations.
A) Entity Integrity Constraints
B) Referential Integrity Constraints
C) Domain Integrity Constraints
D) Domain Constraints
E) Key Constraints

89. ..specifies a search condition for a group or an aggregate.

A) GROUP BY Clause
B) HAVING Clause
C) FROM Clause
D) WHERE Clause
90. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table referenced by a constraint.
A) Local Key
B) Primary Key
C) Composite Key
D) Foreign Key
SET 6
91. ............... joins are SQL server default
A) Outer
B) Inner
C) Equi
D) None of the above
92. The ..................... is essentially used to search for patterns in target string.
A) Like Predicate
B) Null Predicate
C) In Predicate
D) Out Predicate
93. Which of the following is/are the Database server functions?
i) Data management
ii) Transaction management
iii) Compile queries
iv) Query optimization

A) i, ii, and iv only

B) i, ii and iii only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii, and iv
94. To delete a database ................... command is used
A) delete database database_name
B) Delete database_name
C) drop database database_name
D) drop database_name
95. .............. is a combination of two of more attributes used as a primary key
A) Composite Key
B) Alternate Key
C) Candidate Key
D) Foreign Key
96. Which of the following is not the function of client?
A) Compile queries
B) Query optimization
C) Receive queries
D) Result formatting and presentation
97. ............. is a special type of stored procedure that is automatically invoked whenever the
data in the table is modified.
A) Procedure

B) Trigger
C) Curser
D) None of the above
98. ................. requires that data should be made available to only authorized users.
A) Data integrity
B) Privacy
C) Security
D) None of the above
99. Some of the utilities of DBMS are .............
i) Loading
ii) Backup
iii) File organization

iv) Process Organization

A) i, ii, and iv only

B) i, ii and iii only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii, and iv
100. . ................. allows individual row operation to be performed on a given result set or on
the generated by a selected by a selected statement.
A) Procedure
B) Trigger
C) Curser
D) None of above
SET 7
101. Processed data is called ..
A) Raw data

B) Information
C) Useful data
D) Source
102. .. is a utility to capture a continuous record of server activity and provide
auditing capability.
A) SQL server Profile
B) SQL server service manager
C) SQL server setup
D) SQL server wizard.
103. Data items grouped together for storage purposes are called a
A) record
B) title
C) list
D) string
104. . contains data assisting day to day activities of the organization.
A) Control database
B) Operational database
C) Strategic database
D) Sequential database
105. approach reduces time and effort required for design and lesser risk in
database management.
A) Single global database
B) Top-down approach

C) Multiple databases
D) None of the above
106. HSAM stands for .
A) Hierarchic Sequential Access Method
B) Hierarchic Standard Access Method
C) Hierarchic Sequential and Method
D) Hierarchic Standard and Method
107. SQL server stores index information in the system table
A) syst indexes
B) system indexes
C) sysind
D) sys indexes
108. The one guideline to be followed while designing the database is
A) A database design may be ambiguous.
B) Unrelated data should be in the same table so that updating the data will be easy.
C) It should avoid/reduce the redundancy.
D) An entity should not have attributes.
109. Which of the following is not a logical database structure?
A) Chain
B) Network
C) Tree

D) Relational
110. . . is a preferred method for enforcing data integrity
A) Constraints
B) Stored procedure
C) Triggers
D) Cursors
SET 8
111. Reflexivity property says that X - Y is true if Y is .
A) Subset of X
B) Null set of X
C) Super set of Y
D) Subset of Y
112. Anything that affects the database schema is a part of
A) DML
B) DCL
C) DDL
D) All of the above
113. An instance of a relation is a time varying set of .
A) Tuples
B) Rows
C) Both of them
D) None of them

114. In the mode any record in the file can be accessed at random
A) Sequential access
B) Random access
C) Standard access
D) Source access
115. Which can be used to delete all the rows if a table?
A) Delete * from table_name
B) Delete from table_name
C) Delete table_name
D) all rows cannot be deleted at a time.
116. Which if the following is not the type of data integrity.
A) Key integrity
B) Domain integrity
C) Entity integrity
D) Referential integrity
117. 4NF stands for ..
A) Fourth Normal File
B) Fourth Normal Form
C) Fourth Normal Fraction
D) Fourth Negative File
118. A allows to make copies of the database periodically to help in the cases
of crashes & disasters.

A) Recovery utility
B) Backup Utility
C) Monitoring utility
D) Data loading utility
119. . Allows definitions and query language statements to be entered; query
results are formatted and displayed.
A) Schema Processor
B) Query Processor
C) Terminal Interface
D) None of the above
120. The main task carried out in the is to remove repeating attributes to separate
tables.
A) First Normal Form
B) Second Normal Form
C) Third Normal Form
D) Fourth Normal Form
121. Relational Algebra is a __________ query language that takes two relation as input and
produces another relation as output of the query.
A) Relational
B) Structural
C) Procedural
D) Fundamental
122. Which of the following is a fundamental operation in relational algebra?
a) Set intersection
b) Natural join
c) Assignment
d) None of the mentioned

123. Which of the following is used to denote the selection operation in relational algebra ?
a) Pi (Greek)
b) Sigma (Greek)
c) Lambda (Greek)
d) Omega (Greek)
View Answer
124. For select operation the ________ appear in the subscript and the ___________ argument
appears in the paranthesis after the sigma.
a) Predicates, relation
b) Relation, Predicates
c) Operation, Predicates
d) Relation, Operation
125. The ___________ operation, denoted by , allows us to find tuples that are in one relation
but are not in another.
a) Union
b) Set-difference
c) Difference
d) Intersection
126. Which is a unary operation:
a) Selection operation
b) Primitive operation
c) Projection operation
d) Generalized selection
127. Which is a join condition contains an equality operator:
a) Equijoins
b) Cartesian
c) Natural
d) Left
128. In precedence of set operators the expression is evaluated from
a) Left to left
b) Left to right
c) Right to left
d) From user specification
129. Which of the following is not outer join ?
a) Left outer join
b) Right outer join

c) Full outer join

d) All of the mentioned
130. The assignment operator is denoted by
a) ->
b) <c) =
d) ==
131. An ________ is a set of entities of the same type that share the same properties, or attributes
.
a) Entity set
b) Attribute set
c) Relation set
d) Entity model
132. The function that an entity plays in a relationship is called that entitys _____________.
a) Participation
b) Position
c) Role
d) Instance
133. The attribute name could be structured as a attribute consisting of first name, middle initial,
and last name . This type of attribute is called
a) Simple attribute
b) Composite attribute
c) Multivalued attribute
d) Derived attribute
134.

The attribute AGE is calculated from DATE_OF_BIRTH . The attribute AGE is

a) Single valued
b) Multi valued
c) Composite
d) Derived

135.

Not applicable condition can be represented in relation entry as

a) NA
b) 0
c) NULL
d) Blank Space

136.

Which of the following can be a multivalued attribute ?

a) Phone_number
b) Name
c) Date_of_birth
d) All of the mentioned

137.

Which of the following is a single valued attribute

a) Register_number
b) Address
c) SUBJECT_TAKEN
d) Reference

138.

In a relation between the entities the type and condition of the relation should be
specified . That is called as______attribute
a) Desciptive
b) Derived
c) Recursive
d) Relative

139.

In the __________ normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual

attributes.
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth

140.

A table on the many side of a one to many or many to many relationship must:
a) Be in Second Normal Form (2NF)
b) Be in Third Normal Form (3NF)
c) Have a single attribute key
d) Have a composite key

141.

Tables in second normal form (2NF):

a) Eliminate all hidden dependencies
b) Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies
c) Have a composite key
d) Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key

142.

Which-one ofthe following statements about normal forms is FALSE?

a) BCNF is stricter than 3 NF
b) Lossless, dependency -preserving decomposition into 3 NF is always possible
c) Loss less, dependency preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
d) Any relation with two attributes is BCNF

143.

Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on______
a) Key
b) Key revisited

c) Superset key
d) None of these
144.

Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that design by examining the

relationship between attributes:
a) Functional dependency
b) Database modeling
c) Normalization
d) Decomposition

145.

Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is minimal data aggregates and
repetitive groups:
a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) All of the mentioned

146.

Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity:
a) 2NF
b) 3NF
c) 4NF
d) 5NF

147.

Which forms are based on the concept of functional dependency:

a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) 4NF

148.

Empdt1(empcode, name, street, city, state,pincode).

For any pincode, there is only one city and state. Also, for given street, city and state,
there is just one pincode. In normalization terms, empdt1 is a relation in
a) 1 NF only
b) 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
c) 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
d) BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF

149.

A collection of data designed to be used by different people is called a/an

a) Organization
b) Database
c) Relationship
d) Schema

150.

Which of the following is the oldest database model?

a) Relational
b) Deductive
c) Physical

d) Network
151.

Which of the following schemas does define a view or views of the database for
particular users?
a) Internal schema
b) Conceptual schema
c) Physical schema
d) External schema

152.

Which of the following is an attribute that can uniquely identify a row in a table?
a) Secondary key
b) Candidate key
c) Foreign key
d) Alternate key

153.

Which of the following is the process of selecting the data storage and data
access characteristics of the database?
a) Logical database design
b) Physical database design
c) Testing and performance tuning
d) Evaluation and selecting

154.

Which of the following terms does refer to the correctness and completeness of
the data in a database?
a) Data security
b) Data constraint
c) Data independence
d) Data integrity

155.

The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is a

a) One-to-one relationship
b) One-to-many relationship
c) Many-to-many relationship
d) Many-to-one relationship

156.

A table can be logically connected to another table by defining a

a) Super key
b) Candidate key
c) Primary key
d) Unique key

157.

If the state of the database no longer reflects a real state of the world that the
database is supposed to capture, then such a state is called
a) Consistent state
b) Parallel state
c) Durable state

d) Inconsistent state
158.

Ensuring isolation property is the responsibility of the

a) Recovery-management component of the DBMS
b) Concurrency-control component of the DBMS
c) Transaction-management component of the DBMS
d) Buffer management component in DBMS

159.

Consider money is transferred from (1)account-A to account-B and (2) account-B

to account-A. Which of the following form a transaction ?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2 individually
d) Either 1 or 2

160.

A transaction is delimited by statements (or function calls) of the form

__________.
a) Begin transaction and end transaction
b) Start transaction and stop transaction
c) Get transaction and post transaction
d) Read transaction and write transaction

161.

Identify the characteristics of transactions

a) Atomicity
b) Durability
c) Isolation
d) All of the mentioned

162.

. Which of the following has all-or-none property ?

a) Atomicity
b) Durability
c) Isolation
d) All of the mentioned

163.

The database system must take special actions to ensure that transactions operate
properly without interference from concurrently executing database statements. This
property is referred to as
a) Atomicity
b) Durability
c) Isolation
d) All of the mentioned

164.

The property of transaction that persists all the crashes is

a) Atomicity
b) Durability
c) Isolation

d) All of the mentioned

165.

__________ states that only valid data will be written to the database.
a) Consistency
b) Atomicity
c) Durability
d) Isolation

166.

Transaction processing is associated with everything below except

a) Producing detail summary or exception reports
b) Recording a business activity
c) Confirming a action or triggering a response
d) Maintaining a data

167.

The Oracle RDBMS uses the ____ statement to declare a new transaction start
and its properties.
a) BEGIN
b) SET TRANSACTION
c) BEGIN TRANSACTION
d) COMMIT

168.

____ means that the data used during the execution of a transaction cannot be
used by a second transaction until the first one is completed.
a) Consistency
b) Atomicity
c) Durability
d) Isolation

169.

In SQL, which command is used to issue multiple CREATE TABLE, CREATE

VIEW and GRANT statements in a single transaction?
a) CREATE PACKAGE
b) CREATE SCHEMA
c) CREATE CLUSTER
d) All of the mentioned

170.

In SQL, the CREATE TABLESPACE is used

a) To create a place in the database for storage of scheme objects, rollback segments, and
naming the data files to comprise the tablespace.
b) To create a database trigger.
c) To add/rename data files, to change storage
d) All of the mentioned

171.

Which character function can be used to return a specified portion of a character

string?
a) INSTR
b) SUBSTRING
c) SUBSTR

d) POS
172.

Which of the following is TRUE for the System Variable $date$?

a) Can be assigned to a global variable.
b) Can be assigned to any field only during design time.
c) Can be assigned to any variable or field during run time.
d) Can be assigned to a local variable.

173.

What are the different events in Triggers?

a) Define, Create
b) Drop, Comment
c) Insert, Update, Delete
d) Select, Commit

174.

Which is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Database

Structures, including tables?
a) Data Definition Language
b) Data Manipulation Language
c) Data Described Language
d) Data Retrieval Language

175.

The SQL statement SELECT SUBSTR(123456789, INSTR(abcabcabc,'b), 4)

FROM EMP; prints
a) 6789
b) 2345
c) 1234
d) 456789

176.

Which of the following SQL command can be used to modify existing data in a
database table?
a) MODIFY
b) UPDATE
c) CHANGE
d) NEW

177.

When SQL statements are embedded inside 3GL, we call such a program as
a) Nested query
b) Nested programming
c) Distinct query
d) Embedded SQL

178.

_______________ provides option for entering SQL queries as execution time,

rather than at the development stage.
a) PL/SQL
b) SQL*Plus
c) SQL

d) Dynamic SQL
179.

A transaction may not always complete its execution successfully. Such a

transaction is termed
a) Aborted
b) Terminated
c) Closed
d) All of the mentioned

180.

If an transaction is performed in a database and committed, the changes are taken

to the previous state of transaction by
a) Flashback
b) Rollback
c) Both a and b
d) Cannot be done

181.

Each modification done in database transaction are first recorded into the
a) Harddrive
b) Log
c) Disk
d) Datamart

182.

When the transaction finishes the final statement the transaction enters into
a) Active state
b) Committed state
c) Partially committed state
d) Abort state

183.

The name of the transaction file shall be provided by the operator and the file that
contains the edited transactions ready for execution shall be called
a) Batch. Exe
b) Trans. Exe
c) Opt. Exe
d) Edit.Exe

184.

Which of the following is an atomic sequence of database actions?

a) Transaction
b) Concurrency
c) Relations
d) All of the mentioned

185.

If the state of the database no longer reflects a real state of the world that the
database is supposed to capture, then such a state is called
a) Consistent state
b) Parallel state
c) Atomic state

d) Inconsistent state
186.

_______ means that data used during the execution of a transaction cannot be
used by a second transaction until the first one is completed.
a) Serializability
b) Atomicity
c) Isolation
d) Time stamping

187.

DBMS periodically suspends all processing and synchronizes its files and
journals through the use of
a) Checkpoint facility
b) Backup facility
c) Recovery manager
d) Database change log

188.

Which of the following is not a state in transaction ?

a) Active
b) Terminated
c) Aborted
d) Partially committed

189.

In concurrency control policy the the lock is obtained on

a) Entire database
b) A particular transaction alone
c) All the new elements
d) All of the mentioned

190.

A concurrency-control policy such as this one leads to ______ performance, since

it forces transactions to wait for preceding transactions to finish before they can start.
a) Good
b) Average
c) Poor
d) Unstable

191.

__________ are used to ensure that transactions access each data item in order of
the transactions ____ if their accesses conflict.
a) Zone
b) Relay
c) Line
d) Timestamps

192.

EMPDET is an external table containing the columns EMPNO and ENAME.

Which command would work in relation to the EMPDET table?
a) UPDATE empdet
SET ename = Amit
WHERE empno = 1234;

b) DELETE FROM empdet

WHERE ename LIKE J%;
c) CREATE VIEW empvu
AS
SELECT * FROM empdept;
d) CREATE INDEX
empdet_idx
ON empdet(empno);
193.

In which scenario would you use the ROLLUP operator for expression or
columns within a GROUP BY clause?
a) To find the groups forming the subtotal in a row
b) To create group-wise grand totals for the groups specified within a GROUP BY clause
c) To create a grouping for expressions or columns specified within a GROUP BY clause
in one direction, from
right to left for calculating the subtotals
d) To create a grouping for expressions or columns specified within a GROUP BY clause
in all possible
directions, which is cross-tabular report for calculating the subtotals

194.
Name
Cust_id
Cust_Name

Null?
Not null

Type
Number(2)
Varchar2(15)

Evaluate the following SQL statements executed in the given order:

ALTER TABLE cust
ADD CONSTRAINT cust_id_pk PRIMARY KEY(cust_id) DEFERRABLE
INITIALLY DEFERRED; INSERT
INTO cust VALUES (1,'RAJ'); --row 1
INSERT INTO cust VALUES (1,'SAM'); --row 2
COMMIT;
SET CONSTRAINT cust_id_pk IMMEDIATE;
INSERT INTO cust VALUES (1,'LATA'); --row 3
INSERT INTO cust VALUES (2,'KING'); --row 4
COMMIT;
Which rows would be made permanent in the CUST table?
a) row 4 only
b) rows 2 and 4
c) rows 3 and 4
d) rows 1 and 4

195.

Which statement is true regarding external tables?

a) The default REJECT LIMIT for external tables is UNLIMITED.
b) The data and metadata for an external table are stored outside the database.
c) ORACLE_LOADER and ORACLE_DATAPUMP have exactly the same functionality
when used with an
external table.
d) The CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement can be used to unload data into regular
table in the database
from an external table.

196.

A non-correlated subquery can be defined as ____.

a) A set of sequential queries, all of which must always return a single value
b) A set of sequential queries, all of which must return values from the same table
c) A SELECT statement that can be embedded in a clause of another SELECT statement
only
d) A set of one or more sequential queries in which generally the result of the inner query
is used as the
search value in the outer query

197.

Evaluate the following SQL statements in the given order:

DROP TABLE dept;
CREATE TABLE dept
(deptno NUMBER(3) PRIMARY KEY,
deptname VARCHAR2(10));
DROP TABLE dept;
FLASHBACK TABLE dept TO BEFORE DROP;
Which statement is true regarding the above FLASHBACK operation?
a) It recovers only the first DEPT table.
b) It recovers only the second DEPT table.
c) It does not recover any of the tables because FLASHBACK is not possible in this
case.
d) It recovers both the tables but the names would be changed to the ones assigned in the
RECYCLEBIN

198.
CREATE TABLE digits
(id NUMBER(2),
description VARCHAR2(15));
INSERT INTO digits VALUES (1,'ONE');
UPDATE digits SET description ='TWO' WHERE id=1;
INSERT INTO digits VALUES (2,'TWO');
COMMIT;
DELETE FROM digits;

SELECT description FROM digits

VERSIONS BETWEEN TIMESTAMP MINVALUE AND MAXVALUE;
What would be the outcome of the above query?
a) It would not display any values.
b) It would display the value TWO once.
c) It would display the value TWO twice.
d) It would display the values ONE, TWO, and TWO
199.

Which lock should be obtained to prevent a concurrent transaction from executing

a conflicting read, insert or delete operation on the same key value.
a) Higher-level lock
b) Lower-level lock
c) Read only lock
d) Read write

200.

Once the lower-level lock is released, the operation cannot be undone by using the
old values of updated data items, and must instead be undone by executing a
compensating operation; such an operation is called
a) Logical operation
b) Redo operation
c) Logical undo operation
d) Undo operation

201.

Which of the following is used for undo operations alone ?

a) Logical logging
b) Physical logging
c) Physical log records
d) Both b and c

202.

Redo operations are performed exclusively using

a) Logical logging
b) Physical logging
c) Physical log records
d) Both b and c

203.

To perform logical redo or undo, the database state on disk must be operation
_____________, that is, it should not have partial effects of any operation.
a) Persistent
b) Resistant
c) Consistent
d) None of the mentioned

204.

An operation is said to be __________ if executing it several times in a row gives

the same result as executing it once.
a) Idempotent

b) Changed
c) Repetitive
d) All of the above
205.

Immediate database modification technique uses

a) Both undo and redo
b) Undo but no redo
c) Redo but no undo
d) Neither undo nor redo

206.

Shadow paging has

a) no redo
b) no undo
c) redo but no undo
d) neither redo nor undo

207.

For correct behaviour during recovery, undo and redo operation must be
a) Commutative
b) Associative
c) Idempotent
d) Distributive

208.

If ___________ are not obtained in undo operation it will cause problem in undophase.
a) Higher-level lock
b) Lower-level lock
c) Read only lock
d) Read write

209.

Which level of RAID refers to disk mirroring with block striping?

a) RAID level 1
b) RAID level 2
c) RAID level 0
d) RAID level 3

210.

Optical disk technology uses

a) Helical scanning
b) DAT
c) a laser beam
d) RAID

211.With multiple disks, we can improve the transfer rate as well by ___________ data
across multiple disks.
a) Striping
b) Dividing
c) Mirroring

d) Dividing
212.

Which one of the following is a Stripping technique ?

a) Byte level stripping
b) Raid level stripping
c) Disk level stripping
d) Block level stripping

213.

The RAID level which mirroring is done along with stripping is

a) RAID 1+0
b) RAID 0
c) RAID 2
d) Both a and b

214.

Where performance and reliability are both important, RAID level ____ is used.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0+1

215.

______________ partitiones data and parity among all N+1 disks, instead of
storing data in N-disks and parity in one disk.
a) Block interleaved parity
b) Block interleaved distributed parity
c) Bit parity
d) Bit interleaved parity

216.

Hardware RAID implementations permit _________; that is, faulty disks can be
removed and replaced by new ones without turning power off.
a) Scrapping
b) Swapping
c) Hot swapping
d) None of the mentioned

217.

___________ is popular for applications such as storage of log files in a database

system, since it offers the best write performance.
a) RAID level 1
b) RAID level 2
c) RAID level 0
d) RAID level 3

218.

______________ which increases the number of I/O operations needed to write a

single logical block, pays a significant time penalty in terms of write performance.
a) RAID level 1
b) RAID level 2
c) RAID level 5

d) RAID level 3
219.

A system is in a ______ state if there exists a set of transactions such that every
transaction in the set is waiting for another transaction in the set.
a) Idle
b) Waiting
c) Deadlock
d) Ready

220.

The deadlock state can be changed back to stable state by using _____________
statement.
a) Commit
b) Rollback
c) Savepoint
d) Deadlock

221.

What are the ways of dealing with deadlock ?

a) Deadlock prevention
b) Deadlock recovery
c) Deadlock detection
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
222.
When transaction Ti requests a data item currently held by Tj , Ti is allowed to
wait only if it has a timestamp smaller than that of Tj (that is, Ti is older than Tj ).
Otherwise, Ti is rolled back (dies). This is
a) Wait-die
b) Wait-wound
c) Wound-wait
d) Wait
223.

When transaction Ti requests a data item currently held by Tj , Ti is allowed to

wait only if it has a timestamp larger than that of Tj (that is, Ti is younger than Tj ).
Otherwise, Tj is rolled back (Tj is wounded by Ti ). This is
a) Wait-die
b) Wait-wound
c) Wound-wait
d) Wait

224.

The situation where the lock waits only for a specified amount of time for another
lock to be released is
a) Lock timeout
b) Wait-wound
c) Timeout
d) Wait

225.

The deadlock in a set of transaction can be determined by

a) Read-only graph

b) Wait graph
c) Wait-for graph
d) All of the mentioned
226.

A deadlock exists in the system if and only if the wait-for graph contains a
___________.
a) Cycle
b) Direction
c) Bi-direction
d) Rotation

227.

Selecting the victim to be rollbacked to the previous state is determined by the

minimum cost. The factors determining cost of rollback is
a) How long the transaction has computed, and how much longer the transaction will
compute before it completes its designated task.
b) How many data items the transaction has used.
c) How many more data items the transaction needs for it to complete.
d) How many transactions will be involved in the rollback.

228.

__________ rollback requires the system to maintain additional information

about the state of all the running transactions.
a) Total
b) Partial
c) Time
d) Commit

229.

The log is a sequence of ___________, recording all the update activities in the
database.
a) Log records
b) Records
c) Entries
d) Redo

230.

In the ___________ scheme, a transaction that wants to update the database first
creates a complete copy of the database.
a) Shadow copy
b) Shadow Paging
c) Update log records
d) All of the mentioned

231.

The ____________ scheme uses a page table containing pointers to all pages; the
page table itself and all updated pages are copied to a new location.
a) Shadow copy
b) Shadow Paging
c) Update log records
d) All of the mentioned

232.

The current copy of the database is identified by a pointer, called

_____________, which is stored on disk.
a) Db-pointer
b) Update log
c) Update log records
d) All of the mentioned

233.

If a transaction does not modify the database until it has committed, it is said to
use the ___________ technique.
a) Deferred-modification
b) Late-modification
c) Immediate-modification
d) Undo

234.

If database modifications occur while the transaction is still active, the transaction
is said to use the ___________technique.
a) Deferred-modification
b) Late-modification
c) Immediate-modification
d) Undo

235.

____________ using a log record sets the data item specified in the log record to
the old value.
a) Deferred-modification
b) Late-modification
c) Immediate-modification
d) Undo

236.

In the __________ phase, the system replays updates of all transactions by

scanning the log forward from the last checkpoint.
a) Repeating
b) Redo
c) Replay
d) Undo

237.

The actions which are played in the order while recording it is called
______________ history.
a) Repeating
b) Redo
c) Replay
d) Undo

238.

A special redo-only log record is written to the log, where V1 is the value being
restored to data item Xj during the rollback. These log records are sometimes called
a) Log records
b) Records
c) Compensation log records

d) Compensation redo records

239.

_____________ can help us detect poor E-R design.

a) Database Design Process
b) E-R Design Process
c) Relational scheme
d) Functional dependencies

240.

If a multivalued dependency holds and is not implied by the corresponding

functional dependency, it usually arises from one of the following sources.
a) A many-to-many relationship set
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) Both a and b

241.

Which of the following has each related entity set has its own schema and there is
an additional schema for the relationship set.
a) A many-to-many relationship set
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) Both a and b

242.

In which of the following , a separate schema is created consisting of that

attribute and the primary key of the entity set.
a) A many-to-many relationship set
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
c) A one-to-many relationship set
d) Both a and b

243.

Suppose the user finds the usage of room number and phone number in a
relational schema there is confusion.This is reduced by
a) Unique-role assumption
b) Unique-key assignment
c) Role intergral assignment
d) None of the mentioned

244.

What is the best way to represent the attributes in a large database?

a) Relational-and
b) Concatenation
c) Dot representation
d) All of the above

245.

Designers use which of the following to tune performance of systems to support

time-critical operations?
a) Denormalization
b) Redundant optimization
c) Optimization

d) Realization
246.

In the schema (dept name, size) we have relations total inst 2007, total inst 2008 .
Which dependency have lead to this relation ?
a) Dept name, year->size
b) Year->size
c) Dept name->size
d) Size->year

247.

Relation dept year(dept name, total inst 2007, total inst 2008, total inst 2009)
.Here the only functional dependencies are from dept name to the other attributes .This
relation is in
a) Fourth NF
b) BCNF
c) Third NF
d) Second NF

248.

Thus a _______ of course data gives the values of all attributes, such as title and
department, of all courses at a particular point in time.
a) Instance
b) Snapshot
c) Both a and b
d) All of the mentioned

249.

Representations such as the in the dept year relation, with one column for each
value of an attribute, are called _______; they are widely used in spreadsheets and
reports and in data analysis tools.
a) Cross-tabs
b) Snapshot
c) Both a and b
d) All of the mentioned

250.

A domain is ______ if elements of the domain are considered to be indivisible

units.
a) Atomic
b) Subatomic
c) Substructure
d) Subset

251.

Identify the composite attributes

a) Salary
b) Credits
c) Section_id
d) None of the mentioned

252.

Consider the relation given below and ind the maximum normal form applicable
to them
1. R(A, B) with productions { A > B }
2. R(A, B) with productions { B > A }
3 R(A, B) with productions {A > B, B > A }
4 R(A, B, C) with productions {A >B, B > A, AB > C }
a) 1, 2 and 3 are in 3NF and 4 is in BCNF
b) 1 and 2 are in BCNF and 3 and 4 are in 3NF
c) All are in 3NF
d) All are in BCNF

253.

Which one is based on multi-valued dependency:

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth

254.

If a relation is in BCNF, then it is also in

a) 1 NF
b) 2 NF
c) 3 NF
d) All of the mentioned

255.

If every non-key attribute is functionally depedent primary key, then the relation
will be in
a) First normal form
b) Second normal form
c) Third form
d) Fourth normal form

256.

If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of the other

composite key, a normalization called _____ is needed.
a) DKNF
b) BCNF
c) Fourth
d) Third

257.

The term for information that describes what type of data is available in a
database is:
a) Data dictionary
b) data repository

c) Index data
d) Metadata
258.

A data type that creates unique numbers for key columns in Microsoft Access is:
a) Autonumber
b) Boolean
c) Sequential key
d) Sequential number

259.

A dependency exist between two columns when

a) Together they constitute a composite key for the table
b) Knowing the value in one column determines the value stored in another column
c) The table is in 3NF
d) Together they constitute a foreign key

260.

In the __________ normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual

attributes.
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth

261.

A table on the many side of a one to many or many to many relationship must:
a) Be in Second Normal Form (2NF)
b) Be in Third Normal Form (3NF)
c) Have a single attribute key
d) Have a composite key

262.

Tables in second normal form (2NF):

a) Eliminate all hidden dependencies
b) Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies
c) Have a composite key
d) Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key

263.

Which-one ofthe following statements about normal forms is FALSE?

a) BCNF is stricter than 3 NF
b) Lossless, dependency -preserving decomposition into 3 NF is always possible
c) Loss less, dependency preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
d) Any relation with two attributes is BCNF

264.

Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on______
a) Key
b) Key revisited
c) Superset key
d) None of these

265.

Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that design by examining the

relationship between attributes:
a) Functional dependency
b) Database modeling
c) Normalization
d) Decomposition

266.

Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is minimal data aggregates and
repetitive groups:
a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) All of the mentioned

267.

Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity:
a) 2NF
b) 3NF
c) 4NF
d) 5NF

268.

Which forms are based on the concept of functional dependency:

a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) 4NF

269.

Empdt1(empcode, name, street, city, state,pincode).

For any pincode, there is only one city and state. Also, for given street, city and state,
there is just one pincode. In normalization terms, empdt1 is a relation in
a) 1 NF only
b) 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
c) 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
d) BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF

270.

A __________ is a special kind of a store procedure that executes in response to

certain action on the table like insertion, deletion or updation of data.

a) Procedures
b) Triggers
c) Functions
d) None of the mentioned
271.

Trigger are supported in

a) Delete
b) Update
c) Views
d) All of the mentioned

272.

The CREATE TRIGGER statement is used to create the trigger. THE _____
clause specifies the table name on which the trigger is to be attached. The ______
specifies that this is an AFTER INSERT trigger.
a) for insert, on
b) On, for insert
c) For, insert
d) Both a and c

273.

What are the after triggers ?

a) Triggers generated after a particular operation
b) These triggers run after an insert, update or delete on a table
c) These triggers run after an insert, views, update or delete on a table
d) Both b and c

274.

The variables in the triggers are declared using

a) b) @
c) /
d) /@

275.

The default extension for an Oracle SQL*Plus file is:

a) .txt
b) .pls
c) .ora
d) .sql

276.

Which of the following is NOT an Oracle-supported trigger?

a) BEFORE
b) DURING
c) AFTER

d) INSTEAD OF
277.

What are the different in triggers ?

a) Define, Create
b) Drop, Comment
c) Insert, Update, Delete
d) All of the mentioned

278.

Triggers ________ enabled or disabled

a) Can be
b) Cannot be
c) Ought to be
d) Always

279.

Which prefixes are available to Oracle triggers?

a) : new only
b) : old only
c) Both :new and : old
d) Neither :new nor : old

280.

Dates must be specified in the format

a) mm/dd/yy
b) yyyy/mm/dd
c) dd/mm/yy
d) yy/dd/mm
View Answer

281.

An ________ on an attribute of a relation is a data structure that allows the

database system to find those tuples in the relation that have a specified value for that
attribute efficiently, without scanning through all the tuples of the relation.
a) Index
b) Reference
c) Assertion
d) Timestamp

282.

Create index studentID_index on student(ID);

Here which one denotes the relation for which index is created ?
a) StudentID_index
b) ID
c) StudentID
d) Student
283.
Which of the following is used to store movie and image files ?
a) Clob

b) Blob
c) Binary
d) Image
284.

The user defined data type can be created using

a) Create datatype
b) Create data
c) Create definetype
d) Create type

285.

Values of one type can be converted to another domain using which of the
following ?
a) Cast
b) Drop type
c) Alter type
d) Convert

286.

Create domain YearlySalary numeric(8,2)

constraint salary value test __________;
In order to ensure that an instructors salary domain allows only values greater than a
specified value use:
a) Value>=30000.00
b) Not null;
c) Check(value >= 29000.00);
d) Check(value)

287.

Which of the following closely resembles Create view ?

a) Create table . . .like
b) Create table . . . as
c) With data
d) Create view as

288.

In contemporary databases the top level of the hierarchy consists of ______, each
of which can contain _____.
a) Catalogs, schemas
b) Schemas, catalogs
c) Environment, schemas
d) Schemas, Environment

289.

Which of the following statements creates a new table temp instructor that has
the same schema as instructor.
a) create table temp_instructor;
b) Create table temp_instructor like instructor;
c) Create Table as temp_instructor;
d) Create table like temp_instructor;

290.

Select name ____ instructor name, course id

from instructor, teaches
where instructor.ID= teaches.ID;
Which keyword must be used here to rename the field name ?
a) From
b) Rename
c) As
d) Join

291.

Select * from employee where dept_name=Comp Sci;

In the SQL given above there is an error . Identify the error .
a) Dept_name
b) Employee
c) Comp Sci
d) From

292.

Select emp_name
from department
where dept_name like _____ Computer Science;
Which one of the following has to be added into the blank to select the dept_name which
has Computer Science as its ending string ?
a) %
b) _
c) ||
d) $

293.

_ _ _ matches any string of ______ three characters. _ _ _ % matches any

string of at ______ three characters.
a) Atleast, Exactly
b) Exactly, Atleast
c) Atleast, All
d) All , Exactly

294.

Select name
from instructor
where dept name = Physics
order by name;
By default, the order by clause lists items in ______ order.
a) Descending
b) Any
c) Same
d) Ascending

295.

Select *
from instructor
order by salary ____, name ___;
To display the salary from greater to smaller and name in ascending order which of the

following options should be used ?

a) Ascending, Descending
b) Asc, Desc
c) Desc, Asc
d) Descending, Ascending
296.

Select name
from instructor
where salary <= 100000 and salary >= 90000;
This query can be replaced by which of the following ?
a) Select name
from instructor
where salary between 90000 and 100000;
b) Select name
from employee
where salary <= 90000 and salary>=100000;
c) Select name
from employee
where salary between 90000 and 100000;
d) Select name
from instructor
where salary between 100000 and 90000;

297.

Select instructor.*
from instructor, teaches
where instructor.ID= teaches.ID;
This query does which of the following operation?
a) All attributes of instructor and teaches are selected
b) All attributes of instructor are selected on the given condition
c) All attributes of teaches are selected on given condition
d) Only the some attributes from instructed and teaches are selected

298.

In SQL the spaces at the end of the string are removed by _______ function .
a) Upper
b) String
c) Trim
d) Lower

299.

_____ operator is used for appending two strings.

a) &
b) %
c) ||
d) _

300.

A _____ indicates an absent value that may exist but be unknown or that may not
exist at all.
a) Empty tuple
b) New value
c) Null value
d) Old value

301.

The predicate in a where clause can involve Boolean operations such as and.The
result of true and unknown is_______, false and unknown is _____, while unknown and
unknown is _____.
a) Unknown, unknown, false
b) True, false, unknown
c) True, unknown, unknown
d) Unknown, false, unknown

302.

Select name
from instructor
where salary is not null;
Selects
a) Tuples with null value
b) Tuples with no null values
c) Tuples with any salary
d) All of the mentioned

303.

In a employee table to include the attributes whose value always have some value
which of the following constraint must be used ?
a) Null
b) Not null
c) Unique
d) Distinct

304.

Using the ______ clause retains only one copy of such identical tuples.
a) Null
b) Unique
c) Not null
d) Distinct

305.

Create table employee (id integer,name varchar(20),salary not null);

Insert into employee values (1005,Rach,0);
Insert into employee values (1007,Ross, );
Insert into employee values (1002,Joey,335);

Some of these insert statements will produce an error. Identify the statement.
a) Insert into employee values (1005,Rach,0);
b) Insert into employee values (1002,Joey,335);
c) Insert into employee values (1007,Ross, );
d) Both a and c
306.

The primary key must be

a) Unique
b) Not null
c) Both a and b
d) Either a or b

307.

You attempt to query the database with this command: (25)

select nvl (100 / quantity, none)
from inventory;
Why does this statement cause an error when QUANTITY values are null?
a. The expression attempts to divide by a null value.
b. The data types in the conversion function are incompatible.
c. The character string none should be enclosed in single quotes ( ).
d. A null value used in an expression cannot be converted to an actual value

308.

The result of _____unknown is unknown.

a) Xor
b) Or
c) And
d) Not