PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS

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Physiological adaptation

Question Number 1 of 40
While caring for a client who was admitted with myocardial infarction
(MI) 2 days ago, the nurse notes today's temperature is 101.1 degrees
Fahrenheit (38.5 degrees Celsius). The appropriate nursing
intervention is to

A) Call the health care provider immediately

Administer acetaminophen as ordered as this is normal at this
B)
time
C) Send blood, urine and sputum for culture
D) Increase the client's fluid intake

The correct answer is B: Administer acetaminophen as ordered as this

is normal at this time

Leukocytosis and fever are common starting on day 2 because of the

inflammatory process associated with an acute MI. Nursing
interventions should focus on promoting comfort.

Question Number 2 of 40
Which order can be associated with the prevention of atelectasis and
pneumonia in a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A) Active and passive range of motion exercises twice a day

B) Every 4 hours incentive spirometer
C) Chest physiotherapy twice a day
D) Repositioning every 2 hours around the clock

The correct answer is C: Chest physiotherapy twice a day These

clients have a potential for an inability to have voluntary and
involuntary muscle movement or activity. Thus, options 1 and 2 are
inadequate with this problem in mind. Option 4 is not specific for
prevention of complications associated with the lung.

Question Number 3 of 40
The nurse is about to assess a 6 month-old child with nonorganic
failure-to-thrive (NOFTT). Upon entering the room, the nurse would
expect the baby to be
 A) Irritable and "colicky" with no attempts to pull to standing
B) Alert, laughing and playing with a rattle, sitting with support
C) Skin color dusky with poor skin turgor over abdomen
D) Pale, thin arms and legs, uninterested in surroundings

The correct answer is D: Pale, thin arms and legs, uninterested in

surroundings

Diagnosis of NOFTT is made on anthropomorphic findings documenting

growth retardation which would lead the nurse to expect muscle-
wasting and paleness. In cases of NOFTT, the cause may be a variety
of psychosocial factors and these children may be below normal in
intellectual development, language and social interactions.

Number 4 of 40
A client who is to have antineoplastic chemotherapy tells the nurses of
a fear of being sick all the time and wishes to try accupuncture. Which
of these beliefs stated by the client would be incorrect about
accupuncture?

Some needles go as deep as 3 inches, depending on where

A) they're placed in the body and what the treatment is for. The
needles usually are left in for 15 to 30 minutes.
In traditional Chinese medicine, imbalances in the basic
B) energetic flow of life — known as qi or chi — are thought to
cause illness.
The flow of life is believed to flow through major pathways or
C)
nerve clusters in your body.
By inserting extremely fine needles into some of the over 400
acupuncture points in various combinations it is believed that
D)
energy flow will rebalance to allow the body's natural healing
mechanisms to take over.

The correct answer is C: The flow of life is believed to flow through

major pathways or nerve clusters in your body. The major pathways
are called meridians, not nerve clusters.

Question Number 5 of 40
A client who had a vasectomy is in the post recovery unit at an
outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be
reinforced by the nurse?
 Until the health care provider has determined that your
A) ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form
of contraception.
This procedure doesn't impede the production of male
hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm
B)
can no longer enter your semen and no sperm are in your
ejaculate.
After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided
for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical
C)
labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it.
The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
The health care provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an
D) athletic supporter or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve
any discomfort.

The correct answer is A: Until the health care provider has determined
that your ejaculate doesn''t contain sperm, continue to use another
form of contraception. All of these options are correct information.
The most important point to reinforce is the need to take additional
actions for birth control.

Question Number 6 of 40
A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What
would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour
during first 12 hours after admission?

A) Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees

B) Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 35 degrees
C) Side-lying on the right wil the head elevated 10 degrees
D) Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 35 degrees

The correct answer is A: Side-lying on the left with the head elevated
10 degrees

Gravity will draw the most blood flow to the dependent portion of the
lung. For unilateral chest disease, it is best to place the healthiest part
of the lung in the dependent position to enhance blood flow to the area
where gas exchange will be best. Ventilation would be minimally
affected in the right dependent lung. This position also enhances the
drainage of the infected part of the lung. An elevation of 35 degrees is
counterproductive to therapeutic blood flow and the drainage of
secretions

Question Number 7 of 40
A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The
nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance
during the weekly visits is

A) difference in the intake and output

B) changes in the mucous membranes
C) skin turgor
D) weekly weight

The correct answer is D: weekly weight The most accurate

indicator of fluid balance in an acutely ill individual is the daily weight.
A one-kilogram or 2.2 pounds of weight gain is equal to approximately
1,000 mls of retained fluid. Other options are considered as part of
data collection, but they are not the most accurate indicator for ‘fluid
balance.

Question Number 8 of 40
An elderly client admitted after a fall begins to seize and loses
consciousness. What action by the nurse is appropriate to do next?
".
A) Stay with client and observe for airway obstruction
B) Collect pillows and pad the siderails of the bed
C) Place an oral airway in the mouth and suction
D) Announce a cardiac arrest, and assist with intubation

The correct answer is A: Stay with client and observe for airway
obstruction

For the client’s safety, remain at the bedside and observe respirations
and level of consciousness. Prepare to clear the airway if obstructed.
Do not place anything in the client’s mouth. For safety, do not leave
the client unattended. A cardiac arrest should only be announced if
pulse or respirations are absent after the seizure.

Question Number 9 of 40
A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics
16 hours ago. During the nurse’s initial evening rounds the nurse
notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these
statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the
nurse to a complication?

A) "I have a sharp pain in my chest when I take a breath."

B) "I have been coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum."
 C) "I have been sweating all day."
D) "I feel hot off and on."

The correct answer is B: "I have been coughing up foul-tasting, brown,

thick sputum."

Foul smelling and tasting sputum signals a risk of a lung abscess. This
puts the client is grave danger since abscesses are often caused by
anaerobic organisms. This client most likely would need a change of
antibiotics. Sharp chest pain on inspiration called pleuritic pain is an
expected finding with this type of pneumonia. The other options are
expected in the initial 24 to 48 hours of therapy for infections.

Question Number 10 of 40
Which of these clients who call the community health clinic would the
nurse ask to come in that day to be seen by the health care provider?

A) I started my period and now my urine has turned bright red.

I am an diabetic and today I have been going to the bathroom
B)
every hour.
I was started on medicine yesterday for a urine infection. Now
C)
my lower belly hurts when I go to the bathroom.
I went to the bathroom and my urine looked very red and it
D)
didn’t hurt when I went.

The correct answer is D: I went to the bathroom and my urine looked

very red and it didn’t hurt when I went. With this history this client
needs to be seen that day since painless gross hematuria is closely
associated with bladder cancer. The other complaints can be handled
over the phone.

Question Number 11 of 40
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client in congestive heart
failure. Auscultation of the heart is most likely to reveal

A) S3 ventricular gallop
B) Apical click
C) Systolic murmur
D) Split S2

The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop An S3 ventricular

gallop is caused by blood flowing rapidly into a distended non-
compliant ventricle. Most common with congestive heart failure.
Question Number 12 of 40
A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which
information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the
client?
.
It is a condition in which one or more tumors called gastrinomas
A) form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine
(duodenum)
It is critical to report promptly to your health care provider any
B)
findings of peptic ulcers
Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any
C)
peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors
With the average age at diagnosis at 50 years the peptic ulcers
D)
may occur at unusual areas of the stomach or intestine

The correct answer is B: It is critical to report promptly to your health

care provider any findings of peptic ulcers Actions of option B will
enhance early treatment of the problems

Question Number 13 of 40
A 14 year-old with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the
hospital with a diagnosis of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which statements by
the client would be most indicative of the etiology of this crisis?

"I knew this would happen. I've been eating too much red meat
A)
lately."
B) "I really enjoyed my fishing trip yesterday. I caught 2 fish."
"I have really been working hard practicing with the debate
C)
team at school."
"I went to the health care provider last week for a cold and I
D)
have gotten worse."

The correct answer is D: "I went to the doctor last week for a cold and
I have gotten worse." Any condition that increases the body''s need
for oxygen or alters the transport of oxygen, such as infection, trauma
or dehydration may result in a sickle cell crisis.

Question Number 14 of 40
Which of these clients who are all in the terminal stage of cancer is
least appropriate to suggest the use of patient controlled analgesia
(PCA) with a pump?

A) A young adult with a history of Down's syndrome

B) A teenager who reads at a 4th grade level
C) An elderly client with numerous arthritic nodules on the hands
 D) A preschooler with intermittent episodes of alertness

The correct answer is D: A preschooler with intermittent episodes of

alertness

A preschooler is most likely of these clients to have difficulty with the

use or understanding of a PCA pump. This child without a normal level
of consciousness would not benefit from the use of a PCA pump

Question Number 15 of 40
A nurse is performing CPR on an adult who went into cardiopulmonary
arrest. Another nurse enters the room in response to the call. After
checking the client’s pulse and respirations, what should be the
function of the second nurse?

A) Relieve the nurse performing CPR

B) Go get the code cart
C) Participate with the compressions or breathing
D) Validate the client's advanced directive

The correct answer is C: Participate with the compressions or

breathing Once CPR is started, it is to be continued using the
approved technique until such time as a provider pronounces the client
dead or the client becomes stable. American Heart Association studies
have shown that the 2 person technique is most effective in sustaining
the client. It is not appropriate to relieve the first nurse or to leave the
room for equipment. The client’s advanced directives should have been
filed on admission and choices known prior to starting CPR.

Question Number 16 of 40
A nurse is providing care to a 17 year-old client in the post-operative
care unit (PACU) after an emergency appendectomy. Which finding is
an early indication that the client is experiencing poor oxygenation?

A) Abnormal breath sounds

B) Cyanosis of the lips
C) Increasing pulse rate
D) Pulse oximeter reading of 92%

The correct answer is C: Increasing pulse rate

The earliest sign of poor oxygenation is an increasing pulse rate as a

part of the body’s compensatory mechanism. Abnormal breath sounds
and cyanosis are late signs of poor oxygenation. Pulse oximetry
reading of 92% is normal.

Question Number 17 of 40
As the nurse is speaking with a group of teens which of these side
effects of chemotherapy for cancer would the nurse expect this group
to be more interested in during the discussion?

A) Mouth sores
B) Fatigue
C) Diarrhea
D) Hair loss

The correct answer is D: Hair loss The major concern for

adolescence is body image so hair loss would be the most disturbing.

Question Number 18 of 40
The nurse is discussing with a group of students the disease Kawasaki.
What statement made by a student about Kawasaki disease is
incorrect?

It also called mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome because it

A) affects the mucous membranes (inside the mouth, throat and
nose), skin and lymph nodes.
In the second phase of the disease, findings include peeling of
B)
the skin on the hands and feet with joint and abdominal pain
Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys, children younger
C)
than age 5 and children of Hispanic descent
Initially findings are a sudden high fever, usually above 104
D)
degrees Fahrenheit, which lasts 1 to2 weeks

The correct answer is C: Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys,

children younger than age 5 and children of Hispanic descent
……Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys, children younger than
age 5 and children of Asian descent, particularly Japanese. Other
findings in the initial phase are extremely red eyes (conjunctivitis), a
rash on the main part of the body (trunk) and in the genital area, red,
dry, cracked lips; a red, swollen tongue, resembling a strawberry;
swollen, red skin on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet;
swollen lymph nodes in the neck. In the third phase the findings slowly
go away unless complications associated with the heart develop. The
disease lasts from2 to 12 weeks without treatment. With treatment,
the child usually improves within 24 hours. The cause of Kawasaki
disease isn''t known

Question Number 19 of 40
A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia.
The nurse determines that the client’s blood pressure is increasing.
Which action should the nurse take first?

A) Check the protein level in urine

B) Have the client turn to the left side
C) Take the temperature
D) Monitor the urine output

The correct answer is B: Have the client turn to the left side

A priority action is to turn the client to the left side to decrease

pressure on the vena cava and promote adequate circulation to the
placenta and kidneys. Urine protein level and output should be
checked with each voiding. Temperature should be monitored every 4
hours or more often if indicated and no data in the stem support a
check of temperature

Question Number 20 of 40
Which statements by the client would indicate to the nurse an
understanding of the issues with end stage renal disease?

I have to go at intervals for epoetin (Procrit) injections at the

A)
health department.
I know I have a high risk of clot formation since my blood is
B)
thick from too many red cells.
I expect to have periods of little water with voiding and then
C)
sometimes to have a lot of water.
My bones will be stronger with this disease since I will have
D)
higher calcium than normal.

The correct answer is A: I have to go at intervals for epoetin (Procrit)

injections at the health department. ….Anemia caused by reduced
endogenous erythropoietin production, primarily end-stage renal
disease is treated with subcutaneous injections of Procrit or Epogen to
stimulate the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.

Question Number 21 of 40
A middle aged woman talks to the nurse in the health care provider’s
office about uterine fibroids also called leiomyomas or myomas. What
statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?

I am one out of every 4 women that get fibroids, and of women

A) my age – between the 30s or 40s, fibroids occure more
frequently.
 B) My fibroids are noncancerous tumors that grow slowly.
My associated problems I have had are pelvic pressure and
C) pain, urinary incontinence, frequent urination or urine retention
and constipation.
D) Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.

The correct answer is D: Fibroids that cause no problems still need to

be taken out. …..Fibroids that cause no findings may require only
"watchful waiting" with no treatment. Only when the client’s
complaints become disturbing to them would surgical interventions be
considered

Question Number 22 of 40
Which information is a priority for the nurse to reinforce to an older
client after intravenous pylegraphy?

A) Eat a light diet for the rest of the day

Rest for the next 24 hours since the preparation and the test is
B)
tiring.
During waking hours drink at least 1 8-ounce glass of fluid
C)
every hour for the next 2 days
Measure the urine output for the next day and immediately
D)
notify the health care provider if it should decrease.

The correct answer is D: Measure the urine output for the next day
and immediately notify the health care provider if it should decrease.

This information would alert to the complication of acute renal failure

which may occur as a complication from the dye and the procedure.
Renal failure occurs most often in elderly patients who are chronically
dehydrated before the dye injection.

Question Number 23 of 40
The nurse is assessing an 8 month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy.
Which statement from the mother supports the prescence of this
problem?
".
When I put my finger in the left hand the baby doesn’t respond
A)
with a grasp.
My baby doesn’t seem to follow when I shake toys in front of
B)
the face.
C) When it thundered loudly last night the baby didn’t even jump.
D) When I put the baby in a back lying position that’s how I find
 the baby.

The correct answer is D: Unable to roll from back to stomach

Cerebral Palsy is known as a condition whereby motor dysfunction

occurs secondary to damage in the motor centers of the brain.
Inability to roll over by 8 months of age would illustrate one delay in
the infant''s attainment of developmental milestones

Question Number 24 of 40
A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is
aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because
hypokalemia in combination with this medication

A) Can predispose to dysrhythmias

B) May lead to oliguria
C) May cause irritability and anxiety
D) Sometimes alters conciousness

The correct answer is A: Can predispose to dysrhythmias ……...The

nurse should be aware of a decrease in the client’s potassium levels
because low potassium can enhance the effects of digoxin and
predispose the client to dysrhythmias. The other options are seen in
hyperkalemia. Muscle weakness occurs in both hyperkalemia and
hypokalemia

Question Number 25 of 40
The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive
care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is

A) Heart rate
B) Pedal pulses
C) Lung sounds
D) Pupil responses

The correct answer is D: Pupil responses

The organ most susceptible to damage in hypertensive crisis is the

brain due to rupture of the cerebral blood vessels. Neurologic status
must be closely monitored.

Question Number 26 of 40
The nurse assesses a 72 year-old client who was admitted for right
sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse
anticipate finding?
 A) Decreased urinary output
B) Jugular vein distention
C) Pleural effusion
D) Bibasilar crackles

The correct answer is B: Jugular vein distention …..Signs of right sided

heart failure include jugular vein distention, ascites, nausea and
vomiting.

Question Number 27 of 40
The nurse is caring for a client with uncontrolled hypertension. Which
findings require priority nursing action?

A) Lower extremity pitting edema

B) Rales
C) Jugular vein distension
D) Weakness in left arm

The correct answer is D: Weakness in left arm …In a client with

hypertension, weakness in the extremities is a sign of cerebral
involvement with the potential for cerebral infarction or stroke.
Cerebral infarctions account for about 80% of the strokes in clients
with hypertension. The remaining 3 choices indicate mild fluid overload
and are not medical emergencies.

Question Number 28 of 40
A 2 year-old child is brought to the emergency department at 2:00 in
the afternoon. The mother states: “My child has not had a wet diaper
all day.” The nurse finds the child is pale with a heart rate of 132.
What assessment data should the nurse obtain next?

A) Status of the eyes and the tongue

B) Description of play activity
C) History of fluid intake
D) Dietary patterns

The correct answer is A: Status of skin turgor Clinical findings of

dehydration include sunken eyes, dry tongue, lethargy, irritability, dry
skin, decreased play activity, and increased pulse. The normal pulse
rate in this age child is 70-110.

Question Number 29 of 40
A client has an indwelling catheter with continuous bladder irrigation
after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) 12
hours ago. Which finding at this time should be reported to the health
care provider?

A) Light, pink urine

B) occasional suprapubic cramping
C) minimal drainage into the urinary collection bag
D) complaints of the feeling of pulling on the urinary catheter

The correct answer is C: minimal drainage into the urinary collection

bag

Options 1, 2, and 4 are expected complaints after this procedure.

Option 3 needs to be reported immediately since with minimal urinary
drainage put the client at risk for bladder rupture. The flow rate of the
continuous irrigation would need to be slowed until the health care
provider is notified. If an order to irrigate the system is written, sterile
technique would be used

Question Number 30 of 40
A client who was medicated with meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)
100 mg and hydroxyzine hydrochloride (Vistaril Intramuscular) 50 mg
IM for pain related to a fractured lower right leg 1 hour ago reports
that the pain is getting worse. The nurse should recognize that the
client may be developing which complication?

A) Acute compartment syndrome

B) Thromboemolitic complications
C) Fatty embolism
D) Osteomyelitis

The correct answer is A: Acute compartment syndrome …….Increasing

pain that is not relieved by narcotic analgesics is an indication of
compartment syndrome after a bone fracture and requires immediate
action by the nurse. Thromboembolic complications include deep vein
thrombosis and pulmonary embolism which are not characterized by
increasing pain at the site of injury. Both pulmonary embolism and fat
embolism present with respiratory sudden findings. Osteomyelitis is a
bone infection which could occur some time after the initial injury,
usually at least 48 to 72 hours

Question Number 31 of 40
A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face,
neck, anterior chest and hands. The nurse's priority should be
 A) Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
B) Assess for dyspnea or stridor
C) Initiate intravenous therapy
D) Administer pain medication

The correct answer is B: Assess for dyspnea or stridor …

.Due to the location of the burns, the client is at risk for developing
upper airway edema and subsequent respiratory distress

Question Number 32 of 40
A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes
spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At
the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20,
BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which
assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the
client is developing a complication of labor?

A) FHT 168 beats/min

B) Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit.
C) Cervical dilation of 4
D) BP 138/88

The correct answer is A: FHT 168 beats/min An increase in FHT

may indicate maternal infection. The other assessment findings are
normal. The Bishop’s score of 6 indicates that induction of labor should
be successful.

Question Number 33 of 40
A client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of congestive heart
failure. Which of the following assessments would the nurse expect to
be consistent with this problem?

A) Chest pain
B) Pallor
C) Inspiratory crackles
D) Heart murmur

The correct answer is C: Inspiratory crackles

 In congestive heart failure, fluid backs up into the lungs (creating
crackles) as a result of inefficient cardiac pumping.

Question Number 34 of 40
Which these findings would the nurse more closely associate with
anemia in a 10 month-old infant?

A) Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dI

B) Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips
C) Hypoactivity
D) A heart rate between 140 to 160

The correct answer is B: Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips

In iron-deficiency anemia, the physical exam reveals a pale, tired-

appearing infant with mild to severe tachycardia.

Question Number 35 of 40
A client has had heart failure. Which intervention is most important for
the nurse to implement prior to the initial admininstration of Digoxin to
this client?

A) Assess the apical pulse, counting for a full 60 seconds

B) Take a radial pulse, counting for a full 60 seconds
C) Use the pulse reading from the electronic blood pressure device
D) Check for a pulse deficit

The correct answer is A: Assess the apical pulse, counting for a full 60
seconds

It is the nurse’s responsibility to take the client’s pulse before

administering digoxin. The correct technique for taking an apical pulse
is to use the stethoscope and listen for a full 60 seconds. Digoxin is
held for a pulse below 60 beats per minute. Radial pulse or blood
pressure are not part of the initial assessment before administering an
initial dose of digoxin

Question Number 36 of 40
Which of these observations made by the nurse during an excretory
urogram indicate a complicaton?
 The client complains of a salty taste in the mouth when the dye
A)
is injected
B) The client’s entire body turns a bright red color
C) The client states “I have a feeling of getting warm.”
D) The client gags and complains “ I am getting sick.”

The correct answer is B: The client’s entire body turns a bright red
color

….This observation suggest anaphalaxis which results in massive

vasodilation. Other findings would be immediate wheezing and/or
respiratory arrest

Question Number 37 of 40
A man diagnosed with epididymitis 2 days ago calls the nurse at a
health clinic to discuss the problem. What information is most
important for the nurse to ask about at this time?

A) What are you taking for pain and does it provide total relief?
B) What does the skin on the testicles look and feel like?
C) Do you have any questions about your care?
D) Did you know a consequence of epididymitis is infertility?

The correct answer is B: What does the skin on the testicles look and
feel like?

All of the questions should be asked. However, the one about the
problem is the most important to start with at this time

Question Number 38 of 40
The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by
the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy
is not effective, and must be reported by the nurse immediately to
the healthcare provider?

A) Nausea and vomiting

B) Fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius)
C) Diffuse macular rash
D) Muscle tenderness

The correct answer is B: Fever of 103 degrees F (39.5 degrees C)

Persistent, prolonged fever may be an indication that the antibiotics
are not effective and may need to be changed

Question Number 39 of 40
The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate
is 250 and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the
following findings is cause for the most concern?

A) Diminished bowel sounds

B) Loss of appetite
C) A cold, pale lower leg
D) Tachypnea

The correct answer is C: A cold, pale lower leg This assessment

suggests the presence of an embolus probably from the atrial
fibrillation. Peripheral pulses should be checked immediately

Question Number 40 of 40
A nurse assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a
motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of
most concern?

A) Flaccid paralysis
B) Pupils fixed and dilated
C) Diminished spinal reflexes
D) Reduced sensory responses

The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated Pupils that are
fixed and dilated indicate overwhemling injury and intrinsic damage to
upper brain stem and is a poor prognostic sign