Mock Test -1

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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

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PAPER 1

All questions carry one mark each.

Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the
whole question paper before beginning to answer it.
Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after
another till you finish.
If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much
time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting you can
come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance
and try them again.
Since the time allotted is very short you should makes best use of it.

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Part I

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SAT (English)

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Directions (1 to 5): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

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Gerry Grunsfeld, a genial 32-year-old lawyer who grew up in England and now
lives in a narrow two-storeyed house in Midwood, Brooklyn, has the kind of
backyard youre not sure whether to envy or pity. True, its green space, a rare and
precious commodity for a city dweller. But its not very big and its hemmed in by
buildings that partially block the sun. The growing conditions are far from idea,
Grunsfeld said, standing on his porch on a recent afternoon.
Nevertheless, since he bought the place four years ago, Grunsfeld has
transformed his 150-square-foot garden into a little orchard, cramming it with
fruit trees along with fruit-bearing vines and bushes. He has two cherry trees and
two apples; including a Coxs Orange Pippin in a planter (I used to eat them in
England). Theres also a Santa Rosa plum (I saw it in a nursery and couldnt
resist); and a Concord grapevine in a tall frame in a barrel on a tree stump (I dont
have an inch of space left so Im trying to make it grow vertical).
Three varieties of blackberries grow behind his childrens swing set, a fig tree
occupies a far corner, and a litchi and two tangerine trees, part of a recent foray
into citrus, wait for spring in a basement grow-room. In the summertime, when
everything is in bloom and fruiting, the yard calls to mind a scruffy Garden of
Eden. My wife thinks Ive gone crazy, Mr. Grunsfeld said, But theres something
magical about seeing fruit develop. In the last few years, an increasing number
of Americans have turned their yards over to such mini orchards, planting them
with dwarf and semi-dwarf fruit trees, even in dense urban areas. Suppliers around
the country have seen significant increase in fruit tree sales, like the 12 to 15
percent annual sales growth reported by the Dave Wilson Nursery in Hickman,
Calif., which has one of the countrys largest selections of fruit trees (more than
1,300 varieties).
And once people decide to grow fruit, Its rare that they buy just one tree,
said Tom Shafer, the manager of Hold ridge Home and Garden showplace, a
retail nursery in Ledyard, Connecticut. Shafer said the average number of trees
his customers plant is four, but in the past three years some have been opting for a
dozen or more. People want more fruit and more types of fruit, he said, and they
think a grouping will look better in their landscape.
Growing fruit trees in the backyard has always been popular in Southern
California, but even there the mini orchard is gaining adherents. Lora Hall, a 27year-old graduate student, is typical of the new breed of fruit grower, motivated,
she says, by a desire to wean her dependence on the supermarket.
1. Where does Gerry Grunsfeld live?
(a) England
(c) England, Brooklyn

(b) Midwood, Brooklyn

(d) None

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2. Describe his garden?

(a) His garden is not very big.
(b) His garden is very big.
(c) There is sunlight reaching the garden.
(d) None of these
3. What does Gerrys wife think about his passion?
(a) His passion of growing fruit tree in the small backyard is crazy.
(b) His passion of growing fruit tree in the big backyard is crazy.
(c) His passion of growing fruit tree in the small backyard is not crazy.
(d) None of these
4. What are the negative conditions that the backyard has to struggle with?
(a) The space is very limited in the dense urban areas.
(b) The space is very spacious in the urban areas.
(c) The space is very limited in the rural areas.
(d) None of these
5. What is recent craze of the Americans living in the dense urban areas?
(a) The recent craze of the Americans is to plant dwarf or semi-dwarf
fruit trees.
(b) They wanted to turn their backyards into big orchards.
(c) They wanted to turn their backyards into any type of orchards.
(d) None of these

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Directions (6 to 10): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

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In recent time when a child drinks a soft drink to consume, hes putting his steps
for a dangerous bone disease that he doesnt know. If you are thinking this fizzy
and sugary drinks harm him directly and this is the cause of osteoporosis is not
true. But, because they are often a substitute for a glass of milk, kids are not
getting the calcium and vitamin D they need to build a strong skeleton. These
children arent just in threat for fragile bones and fractures decades down the road.
They could be at a risk of osteoporosis at a younger age than ever before.
The Indian Society for Bone and Mineral Research, a body of osteoporosis
experts is trying to spread awareness about this bone crippling disease. Osteoporosis
starts in childhood but has consequences later in life. The condition causes bones
to become riddled with holes, like the framework of a house thats been attacked
by termites. That can lead to broken bones, which in turn can cause deformity,
chronic pain or disability. Osteoporosis can be fatal: up to 25 percent of older
people who suffer a broken hip die within a year. Osteoporosis isnt just your
grandmothers health threat. Although it strikes over 50 million women in India,
it also menaces over 12 million men. Osteoporosis causes loss of height, pain in
joints and back, fractures and a fear of fractures, and can be very depressing. So it
is important that we adopt preventive measures, to save millions of people.
There is a new medical understanding of the best ways to protect ourselves and
our children. Simple lifestyle changes and nutrition will help save your bones,

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says Dr. Mittal. To get us moving in the right direction, he says, Its never too late
to adopt bone-friendly habits exercises, get enough sunlight, and have adequate
calcium. This way, we can keep our bones healthy and prevent osteoporosis.

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Complete the following sentences based on the passage given above:

6. To build strong skeleton children need
(a) Calcium and vitamin D
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Cold Drink
(d) None of these
7. The children are at a risk of osteoporosis at a younger age as
(a) Drink Cold Drink
(b) Drink Milk
(c) In spite of milk and milk product they drink cold drink.
(d) None of these
8. Osteoporosis can lead to
(a) Broken bones
(b) Nausea
(c) Vomiting
(d) None of these
9. Which one is not the best ways to protect children and ourselves from
osteoporosis
(a) Exercises
(b) Adequate calcium
(c) Sunlight
(d) Fat
10. What is the meaning of fizzy and sugary drinks
(a) Drink that is not good for health
(b) Tasty and Healthy drink
(c) Tasty but not good for health
(d) None of these

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Directions (11 to 15): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

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Papaya is the healthiest fruit with a list of properties that is long and exhaustive.
Belonging to the family of Caricaceae fruit, it is commonly known as Papaw
in Australia and Mamao in Brazil. It first originated in southern Mexico and
neighbouring Central America, but is now available in every tropical and
subtropical country. Papaya favours digestion as well as cures skin irritation and
sun burns. You can munch on it as a salad, have it cooked or boiled or just drink
it up as milkshake or juices. Modern science confirms the age-old beliefs that
papaya has much to contribute to the health cause. The most important of these
virtues is the protein digesting enzyme in the milky juice or latex. The enzyme
is similar to pepsin in its digestive action and is said to be so powerful that it
can digest 200 times its own weight in protein. It assists the body in assimilating
the maximum nutritional value from food to provide energy and body building
materials.
Papain in raw papaya makes up for the deficiency Juice of gastric and fights
excess of unhealthy mucus in the stomach, dyspepsia and intestinal irritation.

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The ripe fruit, it eaten regularly corrects habitual constipation, bleeding piles
and chronic diarrhoea. The juice of the papaya seeds also assists in the abovementioned ailments.
The juice, used as a cosmetic, removes freckles or brown spots due to exposure
to sunlight and makes the skin smooth and delicate. A paste of papaya seeds is
applied in skin diseases like those caused by ringworm. The black seeds of the
papaya are highly beneficial in the treatment of cirrhosis of the liver caused by
alcoholism, malnutrition etc. A tablespoonful of its juice, combined with a hint
of fresh lime juice, should be consumed once or twice daily for a month. The
fresh juice of raw papaya mixed with honey can be applied over inflamed tonsils,
for diphtheria and other throat disorders. It dissolves the membrane and prevents
infection from spreading.

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11. What in not the other names for papaya is

(a) Papaw
(b) Mamao
(c) Papaya
(d) Cirrhosis

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12. One of the most important virtues of papaya is

(a) Latex
(b) Mamao
(c) Papaya
(d) Cirrhosis
13. Diseases not cured by papaya is
(a) removes freckles or brown spots
(b) cirrhosis of the liver
(c) malnutrition
(d) Headache

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14. Throat disorders can be cured if

(a) apply the fresh juice of raw papaya mixed with honey
(b) consumes black seeds of the papaya
(c) take juice
(d) Consumes fresh lime juice and Papaya

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15. Treatment for skin disease is

(a) apply the fresh juice of raw papaya mixed with honey
(b) consumes black seeds of the papaya
(c) take juice
(d) Consumes fresh lime juice and Papaya

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Directions (16 to 30): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words
to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

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16. His manner is bad, and his morality is not

suspicion.
(a) above
(b) outside
(c) below
(d) in
17. It is 14 years since i
him.
(a) have been seen
(c) saw

(b) had seen

(d) have seen

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18. It being an
issue, it is not correct to introduce questions of honesty
in to the debate.
(a) decent
(b) sinful
(c) amoral
(d) irrelevant

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19. Mr Ramlal
them all for a ride by creating false documents.
(a) took
(b) angry
(c) reserved
(d) let
20. True conciseness
in saying only what needs to be said.
(a) consists
(b) portrays
(c) reveals
(d) resides

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21. Health is too important to be

(a) redundant
(c) detested

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(b) abhorrent
(d) neglected

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22. In hot weather I like lying in the

of a tree.
(a) shade
(b) asylum
(c) defense
(d) shadow
him to leave this job and start business.
23. It was indeed unreasonable
(a) on
(b) within
(c) upon
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24. One major

between the Election Commission and the Union
Government related to the powers of the former in respect of the deployment
of central police forces at places where are elections is held.
(a) aggravation
(b) conflict
(c) agony
(d) culprit

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25. We shall not to be able to use your aptitude in court unless we can find someone to
to statements.
(a) corroborate
(b) avouch
(c) confirm
(d) admire

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26. He is too dull

this problem.
(a) is solving
(b) to solving
(c) to solve
(d) has been solved
27. He is the person who is
to blame.
(a) generally
(b) inevitable
(c) most
(d) sure
28. We had to pay more taxi fare because the driver brought us by a
route.
(a) spherical
(b) limited
(c) longest
(d) circuitous
29. He was accused
stealing his aunts necklace.
(a) From
(b) Within
(c) of
(d) in

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30. He knew everything better than anybody else, and it was an affront to
his
vanity that you should disagree with him.
(a) over strung
(b) over weening
(c) awesome
(d) emotional

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3 1. By this time
P: at the bus station
Q: reported mass robbing
R: reports of violence were overflowing in
S: which police reports
The proper sequence should be:
(a) PSRQ
(b) PSQR
(c) SQRP
(d) RSQP
32. Then the women
P: sorrowful their evil appeal
Q: that had brought
R: weptnoisily
S: this sorrowfulness upon them
The proper sequence should be:
(a) RPQS
(b) QRPS
(c) PQSR
(d) PQRS
33. Women
P: till the other day
Q: who were relaxed being housewives
R: about spending their time cooking
S: now sound diffident
The proper sequence should be:
(a) PQRS
(b) RSPQ
(c) QPSR
(d) RQPS
34. Though he phoned frequently
P: on phone
Q: my brother could not contact me
R: and had left no communication
S: as I had gone out of office
The proper sequence should be:
(a) QPRS
(b) SQRP
(c) QPSR
(d) SQPR

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Directions (31 to 35): In each question below, there is a sentence of which some
parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R
and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

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3 5. He said
P: here is the cat
Q: throughout the night
R: which had been paying havoc with things
S: that ate the rat
The proper sequence should be:
(a) PSQR
(b) PSRQ
(c) QPRS
(d) QRPS

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Directions (36 to 40): In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four
sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P,
Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

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36. S1: Conway dedicated his life to two great objects independence of thought,
and freedom of the individual.
P: They warn both kinds of freedom.
Q: But something also has been lost.
R: There are now jeopardies, somewhat different in form from those of the
past ages.
S: In regard to both these objects, something has been gained since his time.
S6: Unless a vigorous and vigilant public opinion can be aroused in defence of
them, there will be much less of both a hundred years hence then there is
now.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) QPRS
(b) QSPR
(c) SQRP
(d) RSPQ

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37. S1: The study of speech disorders due to brain injury suggests that patients can
think without having sufficient control over their language.
P: But they prosper in playing games of chess.
Q: Some patients, for example fail to find the names of objects presented to
them.
R: They can even use the concepts needed for chess playing, though they are
unable to express many of the concepts in normal language.
S: They even find it tough to interpret long written notices.
S6: How they manage to do this we do not know.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SPQR
(b) RPSQ
(c) QSPR
(d) SRPQ
38. S1: A black haired, young woman came agile along.
P: She was leading a young woman wearing a hat.
Q: The woman swept it off and tossed it in the air.

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R: The child hopped up to catch the hat.

S: The young man tossed his head to shake the hat back.
S6: Both disappeared from view.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) PSQR
(b) PRSQ
(c) RQPS
(d) QSRP

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3 9. S1: We now know that the oceans are very deep.

P: For example, the Indian ocean has a range called the Indian Ridge.
Q: Much of it is fairly flat.
R: However, there are great mountain ranges as well.
S: On common the bottom is 2.5 miles to 3.5 miles down
S6: This reaches from the India to the Antarctic.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) SQPR
(b) PQSR
(c) RSQP
(d) QPRS

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4 0. S1: Minnie went shopping one morning.

P: Disappointed She turned around and returned to the parking lot.
Q: She got out and walked to the nearest shop.
R: She drove her car into the parking lot and stopped.
S: It was there that she realized that shed forgotten her purse at home.
S6: She drove home with an empty basket.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SRQP
(b) RQSP
(c) QPRS
(d) QPRS

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1. 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, 336, _____, 720.

(a) 496
(b) 502
(c) 504
(d) 498
2. A, C, H, R, ?, I, T
(a) Y
(b) I
(c) H
(d) K
3. (6, 7, B); (19, 20, D); ( ? ); (175, 176, K); (526, 527, P).
(a) (58, 59, G)
(b) (59, 60, G)
(c) (58, 59, H)
(d) (59, 60, H)

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Directions (1 to 3): Find the missing term in the following sequences.

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x _ y

l m _ _

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Direction (4) There is a letter series in the first row and a number series in the
second row. Each number in the number series stands for a letter in the letter
series. Since in each of that series some terms are missing you have to find out
as to what those terms are, and answer the questions based on these as given
below in the series.
l

_ _ _ _

(a) 46758

(b) 74658

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4 6 _ 5 8 6 _ _ _ 5 7 _ 6 5 8 _ _ _ _ _

(c) 76485

(d) 46785

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Direction (5): Which number should come in place of question mark ?.

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11 96
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(a) 225
(b) 165
(c) 185
(d) 250
6. In a certain code 345 means Verra is gentle; 599means Veera kind
hearted and 126 means Kanchan also good then which digit in that code
represents Gentle?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) Cannot be determined
7. In a certain code, C is coded as 0, E as 7, T as 4, I as 9, P as 1, R as 3 and U
as 5. How is 1904537 coded in that code?
(a) PICTRUE
(b) PICTURE
(c) RICTPUE
(d) PCTUREI
8. If OX is coded as 39, what will be the code number for LION?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 38
(d) 50
9. In the given alternatives, find the word which cannot be formed by using the
letters of the word RAPPROCHEMENT.
(a) REPRESENT
(b) REPROACH
(c) PHANTOM
(d) CEMENT

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10. If stands for addition; < stands for subtraction; > stands for multiplication; + stands for division; stands for equal to; stand for greater
than; = stands for less than; then which one of the given alternatives is
correct ?
(a) 8 < 4 3 3 2 1
(b) 8 > 4 < 3 3 > 2 < 1
(c) 8 4 < 3 3 < 2 < 1
(d) 8 + 4 3 3 > 2 1

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(c) L L
+S=?
(c) Q

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11. Which is equal to 102?

(a) L
(b) 3
12. What is the sum of 3 +
(a) L Z
(b) LS

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Directions (11 to 12): Are to be answered with reference to the following

explanatory paragraph:Suppose in view of a number system a symbol system
was substituted, which has digits , L, Z, S, , , , <, X and Q corresponding
to the digits, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 respectively. The digit
is used in the
same fashion as the digit 0 in the decimal system.

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Directions (13 to17): Study the given information carefully and answer the
questions that follow. There are four students sitting in a row:one each from A,
B, C and D Countries but not in order given,

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1. They are wearing caps of different colours green, yellow, red and white, not
necessarily in that order.
2. One is wearing a casual shirts and one a T-shirt.
3. The A is wearing a green cap and a jacket.
4. The C is not seated at either end.
5. The persons with casual shirts and T-shirt are sitting next to each other.
6. The persons with casual shirts wear a red cap and sits next to the B.
7. The B wears a shirt and is not seated at either end.
8. The man with white cap wears T-shirt and is seated at one end.
13. Who wears the T-shirt?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
14. Who is wearing a casual shirts?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
15. What is the colour of the cap worn by the B?
(a) Red
(b) Green (c) Yellow (d) White
16. Who is next to the man wearing T-shirt?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) German
17. Who precedes the man wearing jacket?
(a) A
(b) German (c) B
(d) Cannot say
Directions (18 to 19): Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below. In Mumbai there are ,5 friends name of the friends are A, B, C, D
and E are playing a interesting game of crossing the roads. In the beginning, A,

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B and E are on the one side of the road and D and C are on the other side of the
road. At the end of the game, it was found that B and D are on the one side and
A, C and Eare on the other side of the road. Rules of the games are as follows:

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1. One movement means only one person crosses the road from any side to the
other side.
2. No two persons can cross the road simultaneously from any side to the other
side.
3. Two persons from the same side of the roads cannot move in consecutive
movements.
4. If one person crosses the road in a particular movement, he or she cannot
immediately move back to the other side.
5. C and B did not take part in first 3 movements.
18. What is the minimum possible number of movements that took place in the
entire game?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
19. If number of movements are minimized in the game, then which of the following combination of friends can never be together on one particular side of the
road during the course of the game?
(a) A, B and D
(b) A, C and D
(c) D, C and E
(d) E, A and D
20. In Nishant is the brother of Brijesh; Mitali is the sister of Nishant; Ram is the
brother of Purnima; Purnima is the daughter of Brijesh. Who is the uncle of
Ram?
(a) Brijesh (b) Mitali (c) Nishant (d) Purnima
21. Navin proceeding to the north 5 km turns to the right. Before takes a turn to
the left and again to the left he walks 3 km in each segment. After this he goes
to his right and after proceeding some distance again turns towards his right.
The direction in which Navin is now moving is
(a) West
(b) South (c) North
(d) East
22. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes west and so on. What will
west become ?
(a) North-East
(b) South-East
(c) South
(d) South-West

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Directions (23 to 24): In each of the following questions, there are two terms
are two terms to the left of the sign :: which are related in some way. Obtain the
same relationship between the term to the right of the sign :: from one of the four
alternatives given under it.

23. Factory:Production ::
(a) School:Education
(c) Mother:Love

(b) Teacher:Discipline
(d) Plants:Fruit

 24. Tobacco:Cancer ::
(a) Mosquito:Malaria
(c) Highway:Accident

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(b) Flat:Food
(d) Field:Erosion

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Directions (25 to26): Find the word/group/numbers which is different from the
others.

(b)

(c)

(d)

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2 5. (a) 4, 6, 10, 7 (b) 4, 12, 20, 28 (c) 1, 3, 5, 7 (d) 2, 6, 10, 14

26. (a) Mercury (b) Mars (c) Pluto (d) Titan
27. Select from the four alternative diagrams, the one that best illustrates the relationship between
Sparrow, Birds, Cats

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28. A baby who was born on 29th Feb. 1892, when did he celebrate his first
birthday.
(a) 28th Feb. 1897
(b) 29th Feb. 1896
(c) 29th Feb. 1904
(d) 29th Feb. 1908
29. What was the day on 27th December, 1985
(a) Sunday (b) Tuesday (c) Monday (d) Friday
30. The number opposite to 3 is
3

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(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
31. A dice has A, B, C, D written in a clockwise order on the adjacent forces and
E and F at the top and bottom. When C is at top, what will be at the bottom?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) C
(d) F
32. What is the number of triangles in this figure?

(a) 12

(b) 20

(c) 22

(d) 24

 33.

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Directions (33 to 34): Which of the answer figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will
complete the given series, of problem figures:

(b)

(c)

34.

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(d)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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Directions (35): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below. In each of the following questions, there are two pairs of figures. In the first
pair, one figure is related to the other in a certain manner. If the same relation has
to exist in the second pair, which answer choice should come in place of ?

(b)

(c)

(d)

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35.

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Direction (36): In the following question, there are four figures out of which
three are similar in some way but on is different from them. Find out the different
figure.
(b)

(c)

(d)

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36. (a)

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(a

(b)

(c)

(d)

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(d) gua72RAC

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38. CAR27aug
(a) aug27CAR (b)

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Direction (38): In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror
image from alternatives a, b, c and d of the figure (X).

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Direction (39): From amongst the figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d), select the
figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of dots as in figure (X).

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(c)

(b)

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(X)

(d)

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4 0. Arrange the following words is meaningful order.

1. Grass 2. Grasshopper 3. Frog
4. Snake 5. Eagle
(a) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
(b) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(d) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
41. The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the
time is 2:25.
1
1
1
(a) 77 (b) 78 (c) 67
(d) 90o
2
2
2
42. A wall clock takes 10 seconds to strike 6. How much time it will take to strike
12?
(a) 25 seconds
(b) 24 seconds
(c) 23 seconds
(d) 22 seconds
43. Shaurya remembers that his friend Rohit birthday is after 15th but before 18th
of February whereas his sister Amita remembers that her brothers birthday is
after 16th but before 19th of February. On which day of February is Rohits
birthday?
(a) 16th
(b) 17th
(c) 18th
(d) 19th
44. In the given number sequence how many 5s are there in the following number
series which are immediately followed by 3 but not immediately preceded
by 7?
2 1 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 2 5 7 3 9
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

(a)

(b)

(c)

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45. How many numbers from 1 to 100 are divisible by 12 but not divisible
by36?
(a) Eight
(b) Seven (c) Five
(d) Six
46. A dice is thrown four times and its four different positions are given below.
Find the number on the face opposite the face showing 6?

(d)

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(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
47. On the eve of First Year, a group of 12 students greeted every other friend by
sending new year greeting cards. Then the number of cards distributed by the
group.
(a) 156
(b) 144
(c) 132
(d) 72

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Directions (48 to50): In each of the following questions, choose the correct
water-image of the Fig. (X) from amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and
(d) given along with it.

(b)

(X)

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(a)

(c)

(d)

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(X)

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50. FROG
(a)
(c)

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(a)

(b)

(b) GORF
(d)

(c)

(d)

Part II

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(a)

17

8

(b)

3

16

(c)

3

11

(d)

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1. Which one of the following is a non-terminating and repeating decimal?

117
25

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2. If x = (b c) (a d) ; y = (c a) (b d); z = (a b) (c d), then the value of

x3 + y3 + z3 is
xyz
(a)

(b) x y z
(c) 3 x y z (d) 2 x y z
2
3. If k is any even positive number, then (k2 + 2k) is
(a) divisible by 24
(b) divisible by 8 but may not be divisible by 24
(c) divisible by 4 but may not be divisible by 4
(d) divisible by 2 but may not be divisible by 4
4. There are Two trains A and B of lengths train A is 100 m and length of train B
is 150 m are moving in opposite directions at speeds of 75 kmph and 50 kmph
respectively. What is the time taken by them to cross each other?
(a) 7.4 sec (b) 7.2 sec (c) 7 sec
(d) 6.8 sec
5. If (a b) : (a + b) = 1 : 5, then what is (a2 b2) : (a2 + b2) equal to?
(a) 2:3
(b) 3:2
(c) 5:13
(d) 13:5
6. In order to fix an electric pole alongside a road, a pit with dimensions 50 cm
50 cm is dug with the help of a spade. The pit is prepared by removing earth
by 250 metres of spade. If on stroke of spade removes 500 cm3 of earth, what
is the depth of the pit?
(a) 2 m
(b) 1 m
(c) 0.75 m (d) 0.5 m
7. A wheel of a bicycle has inner diameter 50 cm and thickness 10 cm. What is
the speed of the bicycle if it makes 10 revolutions in 5 seconds?
(a) 5.5/sec (b) 4.4/sec (c) 3.3/sec (d) 2.2/sec
8. If three cubes having edges 0.3 m; 0. 4 m and 0.5 m respectively are melted
and formed into a single cube, then what is surface of this cube?
(a) 1.08 m2 (b) 1.56 m2 (c) 1.84 m2 (d) 2.16 m2
9. A person spends 30% of monthly salary on rent, 25% on food, 20% on electricity, and the balance of `1040 on the remaining items. What is the monthly
salary of the person?
(a) `8,000 (b) `9,000 (c) `9,600 (d) `10,000
10. The ratio between the ages of A and B is 2 : 5. After 8 years, their ages will be
in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the difference between their present ages?
(a) 20 years (b) 22 years (c) 24 years (d) 25 years

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11. There straight lines X, Y and Z are parallel and the angles are as shown in the
figure. What is AFB equal to?

(b)

9

7

(c)

9

13

(d)

16
13

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5

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(a) 20o
(b) 15o
o
(c) 30
(d) 10o
12. If x(x + y + z) = 9, y(x + y + z) = 16 and z(x + y + z) = 144, then the value of
x is

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13. x4 + 4y4 is divisible by which one of the following?

(a) (x2 +2xy + 2y2)
(b) (x2 + 2y2)
2
2
(c) (x 2y )
(d) none of these
14. If r and s are any real numbers such that 0 s < 1 and r + s = 1, then the maximum value of the product r s is
(a) 1
(b) 3/4
(c) 1/4
(d)1/2
15. A right triangle ABC with sides 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm is revolved about the
side 12 cm. What is the volume of the solid so obtained?
(a) 50 cm3
(b) 100 cm3
3
(c) 125 cm
(d) 150 cm3
16. ABC is a triangle when C = 90o. If p is the length of the perpendicular
from C to AB and a, b, c are the sides, then which one of the following is
correct?
(a) pa = bc (b) pb = ac (c) pc = ab (d) p2 = ab
17. The mess charges for 35 students for 24 days is `6300. In how many days will
the mess charges be `3.375 for 25 students?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 21
18. When x40 + 2 is divided by x4 + 1, what is the remainder ?
(a)
1 (b)
2 (c)
3 (d) 4
19. What is the value of x3 + 3bx 2a if x = (a + a 2 + b3 )1/ 3 + (a a 2 + b3 )1/ 3 ?
(a) 2a3
(b) 2a3
(c) 1
(d) 0
20. What least value must be given to * in 84705* 2 so that the number is completely divisible by 9?
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 3

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21. The numerical value of density in SI is n times its value in cgs system. Then
the value of a is
1
(a) 10
(b) 100
(c) 1000
(d)
1000
22. Distance travelled in nth second has the units of
(a) Momentum
(b) Speed
(c) Force
(d) Displacement
23. Figure shows the displacement (x)-time (t) graph of a particle moving along
the x-axis. From the graph we conclude that:

3u 2

g

(a)

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(a) The particle is of rest

(b) The particle is continuously going along xdirection
(c) The velocity of particle increases upto time to and then becomes constant
(d) The particle moves at a constant velocity upto time to and then stops
24. A heavy truck and a car are in motion and both have same kinetic energy.
Brakes are applies to produce equal retarding force. Which will travel a smaller
distance before coming to rest?
(a) Car
(b) Truck
(c) Both will travel through the same distance
(d) Nothing can be decided from the given data
25. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the top of the tower reaches the
ground with a velocity 3u. The height of the tower is
(b)

4u 2

g

(c)

6u 2

g

(d)

9u 2
g

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26. Acceleration- time graph of a body is shown below

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Which of the following graphs correctly represents the velocitytime graph?

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27. For the resultant of two vectors to be maximum, the angel between them is
(a) 0o
(b) 60o
(c) 90o
(d) 120o
28. The average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 Ns momentum in 0.05
s expressed in N is
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 125
(d) 500
29. A man fires a bullet of mass 200g at a speed of 5 ms1. The gun has a mass of
1 kg. By what velocity will the gun rebound backwards?
(a) 0.1 ms1
(b) 0.01 ms1
1
(c) 1 ms
(d) 10 ms1
30. A body of mass 100 g is rotating in a circular path of radius r with constant
speed. The work done in one complete revolution is

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r
100 (d) zero
(b)
J (c)
J
100
r

14

(a) 100 r J

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31. An electric generator actually acts as

(a) A source of sound energy
(b) A source of heat energy
(c) An electromagnet
(d) a converter of energy
32. In the following circuit, the current (I) flowing through the circuit is

(a)

4
A
3

(b)

(c)

2
A
3

(d)none of these

vt.

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33. What is the resistance between P and Q in the following circuit?

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3
A
4

(b) 8

16

3

(d) 1

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34. In a domestic electrical circuit, switches are placed in

(a) Neutral wire
(b) Earth wire
(c) Live wire
(d) Any of these
35. The weight of an object
(a) Is the quantity of the matter it contains
(b) Refers to its inertia
(c) Is the same as its mass but is expressed in different units
(d) Is the force with which it is attracted towards the earth
36. Choose the correct option for the increasing order of their conductivity.
(a) Honey < tap water < vinegar < HCl
(b) Tap water < honey < vinegar < HCl
(c) Vinegar < honey < tap water < HCl
(d) Honey < vinegar < tap water < HCl
37. The strongest bond is between
(a) Carbon carbon
(b) Carbon oxygen
(c) Carbon hydrogen
(d) Carbon nitrogen
38. The metallic oxides which are having both acidic and basic character are
known as
(a) Neutral oxides
(b) Amphoteric oxides
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
39. The maximum quantity of element present in human body is
(a) Iron
(b) Copper (c) Carbon (d) Magnesium

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40. Which of the following properties is not applicable for non-metals?

(a) Conductivity
(b) Lusture
(c) Sonorous
(d) None of the above
41. Chemically rust is
(a) Hydrated ferrous oxide
(b) Hydrated ferric oxide
(c) Only ferric oxide
(d) none of these
42. Which of the following is not electropositive in nature?
(a) H2
(b) Na
(c) Mg
(d) S
43. A metal which is less reactive than Cu is
(a) Zn
(b) Pb
(c) Hg
(d) Fe
44. Find the odd one out:
(a) Polythene
(b) PVC
(c) Bakelite
(d) Nylon
45. Switch board is made up of
(a) Thermoplastic
(b) Thermosetting plastic
(c) Rayon
(d) Bakelite
46. The percentage of carbon in Anthracite coal is
(a) Above 95%
(b) Between 60% and 85%
(c) Below 60% but above 40%
(d) Below 27%
47. Charcoal is obtained from
(a) Coal
(b) Wood (c) Petroleum (d) None of these
48. The disease which is not caused by smog in children is
(a) Wheezing (b)
Typhoid
(c) Asthma
(d)
Cough
49. Chlorophyll present in the chloroplasts is essential for
(a) respiration
(b) photosynthesis
(c) protein synthesis
(d) making the plant look beautiful
50. Cell wall of fungi is different from that of the remaining organisms, as it has
(a) Peptidoglycan
(b) Only cellulose
(c) Cellulose and hemicellulose
(d) Chitin and cellulose
51. What is the native place of Lemurs?
(a) North Western Australia
(b) Serengeti National Park of Africa
(c) Island of Madagascar and the nearby islands of Comoros
(d) Rain forests of Africa

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52. Identify the picture:

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(a) Diatoms
(b) Fossilized Trilobite
(c) Fossilized Dinosaur Eggs
(d) African Giant beetles
53. The irrigation system that allows water to fall drop by drop near the roots of
the trees and helps in conserving water is
(a) Flood irrigation system
(b) Drip irrigation system
(c) Sprinkler irrigation system
(d) Tube well irrigation system
54. Few organisms of one of the following Non-chordate phyla has blind sac
body plan:
(a) Annelida
(b) Mollusca
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Echinodermata
55. Measles is the disease caused by
(a) spiral bacteria
(b) Rod shaped bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) Cocci bacteria
56. Rust of wheat is caused by
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi (c) Viruses (d) Protozoas
57. Metamorphosis in frog from tadpole to adult frog is under the control of
(a) Adrenalin hormone
(b) Insulin hormone
(c) Thyroxin hormone
(d) Testosterone
58. The hormone that controls development of placenta and maintenance of pregnancy in females in early stages of pregnancy is
(a) Progesterone (b) Testosterone (c) Estrogen (d) Insulin
59. The method of production of an exact copy of a cell, any other living part, or
a complete organism is called
(a) Copying
(b) Identification
(c) Cloning
(d) Duplication
60. The male gametophyte in plant is
(a) Pollen grain
(c) Stamen

(b) Anther
(d) Androecium

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61. Mature human crythrocytes have life span not more than 120 days because
(a) They are phagocytosed by surrounding Monocytes
(b) They are very small in size
(c) They lack nucleus and mitochondria
(d) Their cell membrane is destroyed to provide protein for synthesis of
haemoglobin
62. A History of British India was written by
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) James Mill
(c) Albert Einstein
(d) Thomas Hardy
63. The First Governor General of India was
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Warren Hastings
64. The National Archives of India came up in the year
(a) 1920s (b) 1930s (c) 1940s (d) 1950s
65. Census Operations are held after every ________.
(a) 5 years (b) 7 years (c) 10 years (d) 12 years
66. The word Calligraphy means
(a) The art of painting
(b) The art of music
(c) The art of public speaking
(d) The art of beautiful writing

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67. What was Farman?

(a) A royal dress
(c) A royal order

(b) A royal food

(d) A royal procession

14

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68. The Nawab of Bengal after Aliwardi Khan was

(a) MurshidQuli Khan
(b) Tipu Sultan
(c) Siraj-ud-daulah
(d) Mir Qasim

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69. Which Governor General introduced the policy of Paramountcy?

(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Bsrihausie Dalhousie
(c) Lord Clive
(d) Lord Bentinck
70. Which of these Kingdoms was not annexed on the basis of Doctrine of
Lapse?
(a) Satara (b) Jhansi (c) Awadh (d) Punjab
71. The governor General who was impeached :
(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Lord Bentinck
72. One-third of the population was wiped out from Bengal due to
(a) Terrible famine
(b) A civil war broke out

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(c) An epidemic broke out

(d) None of these
73. The ryots were
(a) cultivators
(b) zamindars
(c) traders
(d) money lenders
74. After the indigo production collapsed in Bengal the planters shifted to
(a) Gujarat (b) Bihar
(c) Orissa (d) Punjab
75. Which one of the following is not a key of feature of the Indian constitution ?
(a) Federalism
(b) Secularism
(c) Separation of powers (d) Presidential form
76. Nepal adopted an interim Constitution in the year
(a) 2002
(b) 2005
(c) 2007
(d) 2008
77. The Indian National Congress made the demand for a Constituent Assemble in
the year
(a) 1934
(b) 1943
(c) 1946
(d) 1936
78. Federalism refers to
(a) One level of government
(b) Two levels of government
(c) More than one level of government
(d) None of these
79. What example does history provide us on the grounds of religion?
(a) Examples of discrimination
(b) Exclusion
(c) Persecution
(d) All of these
80. EVMs were used in the country for the first time in the General Elections held
in the year
(a) 1962
(b) 1977
(c) 1999
(d) 2004
81. The total membership of Lok Sabha is
(a) 545
(b) 543
(c) 245
(d) 212
82. The Lok Sabha is presided by the
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Finance Minister
83. What percent of MPs are women today?
(a) 50%
(b) 33%
(c) 10%
(d) 20%
84. When the Parliament is in session, it begins with a
(a) Question Hour
(b) Debate and Discussion
(c) Voting
(d) Prayer
85. The poisonous gas that leaked from the Union Carbide Plant in Bhopal was
(a) Methyl-isocyanate
(b) Mythyl-alcohol
(c) Methyl-isocyanite
(d) Ethyl-alcohol

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86. Which one of the following is a hazardous industry?

(a) Iron and Steel Industry
(b) Textile
(c) Sugar Industry
(d) Ship- breaking
87. Under the Right against Exploitation the Constitution prohibits
(a) Forced Labour
(b) Child Labour
(c) Trafficking
(d) All of these
88. A river is a natural resource as it is
(a) Used for irrigation
(b) Used for navigation
(c) Used for power generation
(d) All of these
89. The portion f resource which can be developed economically is
(a) Resource
(b) Reserve
(c) Mineral deposits
(d) All of these
90. A homogeneous naturally occurring substance with a definable internal structure is defined as a
(a) Rock
(b) Metal (c) Mineral (d) Element

Answer Key

4. (a)

5. (a)

6. (a)

7. (c)

8. (a)

vt.

3. (a)

9. (d) 10. (c)

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Part I
SAT (English)

11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (a)

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (d)

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11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c)

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21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)

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31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (a)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (b)

5. (c)

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (a) 10. (c)

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Part II (SAT)

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11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)

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31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)

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51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (a)

20

61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (d)

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81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (c)