Sample Psychiatry Questions & Critiques: Question #1

Sample Psychiatry Questions & Critiques

The sample NCCPA items and item critiques are provided to help PAs better understand how
exam questions are developed and should be answered for NCCPAs Psychiatry CAQ exam.
Question #1
A 50-year-old woman who has been treated with sertraline for major depressive disorder for
more than two years comes to the office because she has had weakness, cold intolerance,
constipation, and weight gain during the past six months. Physical examination shows dry,
coarse skin as well as bradycardia, hypothermia, and swelling of the hands and feet. Which of
the following laboratory studies is the most appropriate to determine the diagnosis?
(A) Liver function testing
(B) Measurement of serum electrolyte levels
(C) Measurement of serum estrogen level
(D) Measurement of serum sertraline level
(E) Measurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormone level
Content Area: Depressive Disorders/Bipolar and Related Disorders (Mood Disorders) (16%)
Area of Interest: Evaluation and diagnosis
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to determine the laboratory study that is most likely to
specify the diagnosis. The correct answer is Option (E), measurement of serum thyroidstimulating hormone level. Hypothyroidism is suspected on the basis of the patients symptoms
of depression, weakness, constipation, and weight gain as well as the physical findings of
bradycardia, hypothermia, swelling of the hands and feet, and dry, coarse skin. Measurement of
serum thyroid-stimulating hormone level is the study that will either confirm or refute this
suspected diagnosis.
NCCPA. 2011-2015. All rights reserved.
Option (A), liver function testing, is a plausible choice based on the patients signs and symptoms
of weakness, weight gain, and swelling of the hands and feet. However, liver function testing
does not address the remaining findings in the patient and, therefore, is incorrect. Option (B),
measurement of serum electrolyte levels, is incorrect because although it is included in general
diagnostic testing, this study would not specify a diagnosis considering the patients symptoms.
Option (C), measurement of serum estrogen level, is a plausible choice considering the patients
age and the signs and symptoms of dry skin and depression, but it does not address the
remaining findings. Option (D), measurement of serum sertraline level, is plausible because
adverse effects can include dryness of the mouth, cardiac abnormalities, and lack of energy.
However, measurement of serum sertraline level does not address the remaining findings in this
patient and is, therefore, incorrect.
Question #2
A 35-year-old man with bipolar disorder, most recent episode mixed, comes to the clinic for
routine follow-up examination. His condition has been difficult to control and has required
treatment with multiple medications during the past two years. The patient says his mood has
been stable with his current regimen, but for the past three months, he has had tremor
primarily affecting his hands. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of this
patient's tremor?
(A) Carbamazepine
(B) Gabapentin
(C) Lamotrigine
(D) Lithium carbonate
(E) Topiramate
Content Area: Depressive Disorders/Bipolar and Related Disorders (Mood Disorders) (16%)
Area of Interest: Psychopharmacology
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to recognize the indications for and adverse effects of
psychopharmacologic agents. The correct answer is Option (D), lithium carbonate. Lithium
carbonate is approved by the Food and Drug Administration for management of bipolar I
disorder and is the most commonly used pharmacologic therapy for that condition. Tremor, as
noted in the patients history, is a common adverse effect of lithium carbonate. Such tremor is
seen in the fingers of the outstretched hands, usually at a frequency of 8 to 10 Hz, and is
sometimes related to peak serum lithium levels. Dividing the dose of lithium carbonate and
decreasing caffeine intake can decrease the tremor. In the case of a severe coarse tremor,
lithium carbonate toxicity (serum lithium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L) must be ruled out.
Option (A), carbamazepine, Option (C), lamotrigine, and Option (E), topiramate, are incorrect
because even though they are used off-label for management of bipolar disorder, tremor is not
caused by these medications. Option (B), gabapentin, is incorrect because even though tremor
may occur as an adverse effect of this medication, it is not prescribed for management of bipolar
disorder.
Question #3
A 19-year-old woman who is a college student is brought to the clinic by her roommate because
she has been acting strangely during the past six months. During the past month, the patient has
been describing how another person's thoughts have been entering into her mind. The patient's
grades have been slipping, and she does not talk as much as she did previously. The roommate
says that when the patient does talk, she strays from the topic and is hard to follow. During the
interview, the patient says a television reporter told her that the government had a special
message for her and she should listen to the radio for further instructions. Which of the
following conditions is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
(A) Acute stress disorder
(B) Delusional disorder
(C) Schizoaffective disorder
(D) Schizophrenia
(E) Schizophreniform disorder
Content Area: Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders/Other Mental Disorders
(Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders) (14%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to discriminate between characteristics of behavior
disorders. The correct answer is Option (D), schizophrenia. The patient has had classic symptoms
of schizophrenia for at least six months, including hallucinations (voices speaking to her), social
dysfunction affecting grades and friendships, and disorganized speech. Although the patient is
somewhat young for schizophrenia (peak incidence in women is between 25 and 35 years), her
symptoms meet the DSM criteria for the condition.
Option (A), acute stress disorder, is incorrect because there is no evidence that the patient has
endured or witnessed a traumatic event or expressed intense fear, helplessness, or horror in
response to such an event. Option (B), delusional disorder, is incorrect because the patients
delusions are bizarre in nature (for example, a television reporter telling her to listen to the radio
for a message and instructions from the government). However, in patients with delusional
disorder, delusions are typically plausible, such as the belief that one is being followed. Option
(C), schizoaffective disorder, is plausible but can be ruled out based on the fact that there is no
evidence of concurrent manic or depressive symptoms during the schizophrenic episode
described. Option (E), schizophreniform disorder, is also plausible but can be ruled out based on
the six-month duration of symptoms. To meet criteria for schizophreniform disorder, symptoms
must persist for at least one month but fewer than six months.
Question #4
A 37-year-old man comes to the office after he experienced what he says was a nervous
breakdown. The patient says that after he recently declared bankruptcy, losing his home and his
business, he became very depressed. During this time, he began to hear voices telling him that
he was useless and should kill himself. The patient says his symptoms stopped after
approximately one week. He has had no similar episodes. Medical history includes no psychiatric
conditions. Physical examination shows no abnormalities, and results of laboratory studies are
within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Borderline personality disorder
(B) Brief psychotic disorder
(C) Major depressive disorder with psychotic features
(D) Schizophrenia
(E) Schizophreniform disorder
Content Area: Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders/Other Mental Disorders
(Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders) (14%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to distinguish between disorders that may present with
psychotic symptoms. The correct answer is Option (B), brief psychotic disorder. Essential features
of brief psychotic disorder include sudden onset of one or more of the following symptoms:
delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and catatonia. Brief
psychotic disorder is also characterized by duration of symptoms for at least one day but less
than one month followed by return to premorbid level of functioning. The disorder is not
associated with a medical condition or the effect of illicit substances such as hallucinogens.
Option (A), borderline personality disorder, is incorrect because although it may present with
stress-related paranoid ideation, this condition is transient. Option (C), major depressive disorder
with psychotic features, is incorrect because a diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires
the presence of symptoms meeting diagnostic criteria for most of the day, nearly every day, and
for at least two weeks. Option (D), schizophrenia, and Option (E), schizophreniform disorder, are
also incorrect because the short duration of the patients symptoms (one week) does not meet
criteria for these conditions.
Question #5
A 28-year-old man comes to the office because he has had severe restlessness, anxiety, and
generalized myalgia during the past three days. The patient says he has not slept for the past
two days. Physical examination shows dilation of the pupils, excessive lacrimation, diaphoresis,
and piloerection. The most likely cause of this patient's condition is withdrawal of which of the
following substances?
(A) Cocaine
(B) Inhalants
(C) Methamphetamines
(D) Modafinil
(E) Opioids
Content Area: Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders (Substance-Related Disorders) (13%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to identify history and physical examination findings as
well as symptoms related to substance withdrawal. The correct answer is Option (E), opioids.
Insomnia, dilation of the pupils, piloerection, diaphoresis, lacrimation or rhinorrhea, and myalgia
are classic symptoms of opioid withdrawal.
Option (A), cocaine, is incorrect because symptoms of cocaine withdrawal include fatigue, vivid
dreams, increased appetite, and psychomotor retardation or agitation. Option (B), inhalants, is
incorrect because withdrawal syndrome from inhalants is characterized by disturbed sleep,
irritability, hallucinations, and delusions, nausea and vomiting, diaphoresis, and tachycardia.
Option (C), methamphetamines, is incorrect because withdrawal from methamphetamines is
characterized by any two of the following: lethargy, fatigue, psychomotor retardation or
agitation, craving for stimulants, increased appetite, insomnia or hypersomnia, and bizarre or
unpleasant dreams. Option (D), modafinil, is incorrect because withdrawal of this medication,
which is used to treat narcolepsy, would cause sleepiness (not insomnia).
Question #6
A 48-year-old man comes to the office for annual physical examination. The patient has smoked
one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 20 years and says he wants to quit. He has tried to quit
several times, but every time he does, he has depressed mood, difficulty sleeping, anxiety,
restlessness, and increased appetite. The patient says these symptoms are so severe that he is
unable to function well at work. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy to aid in
smoking cessation for this patient?
(A) Alprazolam
(B) Diazepam
(C) Nicotine transdermal patches
(D) Nicotinic acid
(E) Varenicline
Content Area: Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders (Substance-Related Disorders) (13%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to determine the most appropriate pharmaceutical
therapy to aid in cessation of cigarette smoking in a patient with potential psychiatric disorders.
The correct answer is Option (C), nicotine transdermal patches. Nicotine transdermal patches
used as an aid in smoking cessation are not likely to exacerbate a patients symptoms of
depression, anxiety, or sleep disturbance.
Option (A), alprazolam, and Option (B), diazepam, are incorrect because although they may be
plausible therapies for anxiety, these medications are not approved for smoking cessation.
Option (D), nicotinic acid, is incorrect because this medication, which is used in conjunction with
low-fat diet to manage hypercholesterolemia, is neither approved nor effective for smoking
cessation. Option (E), varenicline, is a plausible choice because it is approved for smoking
cessation. However, therapy with varenicline is not advisable in patients who have psychiatric
disorders because it has the potential to exacerbate agitation and depression.
Question #7
A 55-year-old woman comes to the office because she has a 20-year history of repetitive actions
and is tired of wasting time by repeating these actions. The patient says she repeatedly checks
the doors in her house to make sure they are locked, washes her hands several times per hour,
and checks her electrical appliances three times each morning before she leaves for work.
Medical history includes second-degree atrioventricular block. Which of the following
medications is the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient's psychiatric disorder?
(A) Clomipramine
(B) Clonazepam
(C) Methylphenidate
(D) Quetiapine
(E) Sertraline
Content Area: Anxiety Disorders/Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders/Trauma- and

Stress-Related Disorders (Anxiety Disorders) (15%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to recognize the signs and symptoms of obsessivecompulsive disorder and to choose the most appropriate therapy. The correct answer is Option
(E), sertraline. Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), and all of the SSRIs
available in the US have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration for management of
obsessive-compulsive disorder. Although SSRIs may cause transient problems with sleep,
gastrointestinal disturbances, headache, restlessness, and anxiety, these adverse effects are less
problematic than those associated with other medications, such as clomipramine.
Option (A), clomipramine, is incorrect. Even though clomipramine was the first drug approved by
the Food and Drug Administration for management of obsessive-compulsive disorder, it is not an
appropriate first-line therapy because of its adverse effects of orthostasis, gastrointestinal
disturbance, and sedation as well as its anticholinergic effects, which include dry mouth and
constipation. Option (B), clonazepam, is incorrect because clonazepam is a benzodiazepine and is

not indicated or approved for management of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Option (C),
methylphenidate, which is indicated for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, and Option (D),
quetiapine, which is used in management of schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, are not
indicated for obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Question #8
A 20-year-old woman who is a college student comes to the health services center because she
has had symptoms of depression for the past three months, since she was a victim of date rape
at a party. The patient says she was heavily intoxicated when the incident occurred and has little
memory of the event, but she was embarrassed and ashamed when she awoke at the scene and
realized what had happened. She did not seek medical care at that time. The patient says she
has not told her friends about the incident, and she has continued to attend classes and work
part time. However, she says she constantly feels sad and anxious, has become tearful and
withdrawn, and has had difficulty sleeping because of frightening nightmares. This patient most
likely has which of the following psychiatric conditions?
(A) Acute stress disorder
(B) Adjustment disorder, unspecified
(C) Generalized anxiety disorder
(D) Major depressive disorder
(E) Post-traumatic stress disorder
Content Area: Anxiety Disorders/Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders/Trauma- and

Stress-Related Disorders (Anxiety Disorders) (15%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to discriminate between behavior disorders based on
the salient points in the patients history. The correct answer is Option (E), post-traumatic stress
disorder. The patient described meets the criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder, which
include the following: involvement in a traumatic event, duration of symptoms for more than
one month, and significant effect on daily life due to depression, anxiety, nightmares, and social
withdrawal.
Option (A), acute stress disorder, is a plausible choice but is incorrect because of the duration of
symptoms. Symptoms of acute stress disorder typically begin immediately after or within four
weeks of the event and last from three days to four weeks. Option (B), adjustment disorder, is
also a plausible choice but is incorrect because of the onset of symptoms. In patients with
adjustment disorder, symptoms must appear within three months of the onset of a stressor.
Adjustment disorders usually result from common life events such as loss of a job. Option (C),
generalized anxiety disorder, is incorrect because this condition is defined as three or more of the
following symptoms occurring more days than not for a period of at least six months:
restlessness, being easily fatigued, difficulty concentrating or the mind going blank, irritability,
muscle tension, sleep disturbance. These symptoms also include excessive anxiety and worry
about several events or activities. Option (D), major depressive disorder, is incorrect because it is
characterized by symptoms not exhibited by the patient described. Characteristic symptoms of
major depressive disorder include, but are not limited to, the following: depression, anhedonia,
significant weight loss without dieting, weight gain (more than 5% of body weight within one
month), insomnia or hypersomnia, psychomotor agitation or retardation, fatigue, loss of energy,
recurrent thoughts of death, and suicidal ideation.
Question #9
A 42-year-old man is referred to the office for mental health evaluation. The patient says he has
a long-standing fear of criticism and rejection. He also has feelings of inadequacy and refuses to
try new activities because of his fear of embarrassment. The patient has held the same entrylevel position at his workplace for the past 14 years despite several opportunities for promotion.
The patient is unmarried and has only had one intimate relationship, which lasted only a few
weeks. He has few friends other than those in his model airplane club. Which of the following
personality disorders is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Avoidant
(B) Dependent
(C) Paranoid
(D) Schizoid
(E) Schizotypal
Content Area: Personality Disorders (6%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to recognize the characteristics of and diagnostic
criteria for personality disorders. The correct answer is Option (A), avoidant. Avoidant
personality disorder is characterized by fears of rejection, disapproval, and/or criticism;
unwillingness to be involved with people unless assured of being liked; restraint in intimate
relationships; preoccupation with social criticism or rejection; inhibition in new situations
because of feelings of inadequacy; and unwillingness to engage in new activities because of
possibility of embarrassment.
Option (B), dependent, is incorrect because dependent personality disorder is characterized by

pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of by others. This need begins in early adulthood
and results in fear of separation, submissiveness, and clinging behavior. Option (C), paranoid, is
incorrect because paranoid personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive distrust and
suspiciousness of others to the extent that their motives are interpreted as malevolent.
Symptoms begin in early adulthood and may be accompanied by suspicions that others are
exploiting, deceiving, or wishing to harm the patient; preoccupation with unjustified doubts
regarding trustworthiness or loyalty of friends and acquaintances; inability to forgive insults or
slights; and reading threats into innocuous remarks or situations. Option (D), schizoid, and
Option (E), schizotypal, are both incorrect because neither of these personality disorders
manifests with fears of embarrassment, criticism, or rejection.
Question #10
A 23-year-old man comes to the office because he has pain in his right hand. The nurse says the
patient was irritable and reluctant to answer many intake questions, and he refused to put on
an examination gown. On questioning, the patient is initially charming and glib, but after he is
assured that the information he shares will not be relayed to his probation officer, he admits
that he was involved in a fistfight. He says proudly that "the other guy is in a lot worse shape."
This patient most likely has which of the following psychiatric conditions?
(A) Antisocial personality disorder
(B) Bipolar disorder, most recent episode hypomanic
(C) Conduct disorder
(D) Oppositional defiant disorder
(E) Paranoid personality disorder
Content Area: Personality Disorders (6%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to discriminate between behavior disorders based on
salient points noted during the patient interview. The correct answer is Option (A), antisocial
personality disorder. Although the patient seems charming and ingratiating, he is aggressive and
clearly exhibits disregard for social norms and rights of others. These findings are characteristic
of antisocial personality disorder.
Option (B), bipolar disorder, hypomanic episode, is incorrect because the patient has not had a
manic or mixed episode nor does he seem depressed or distressed in social situations or other
areas of functioning. Option (C), conduct disorder, is a plausible choice but is incorrect because
there is no evidence that the patient has violated the basic rights of others or age-appropriate
social norms or rules for a duration of at least six months to one year. Option (D), oppositional
defiant disorder, is incorrect because this disorder is characterized by an enduring pattern of
negativistic, hostile, and defiant behaviors in the absence of serious violations of social norms or
rights of others. Option (E), paranoid personality disorder, is incorrect because this condition is
characterized by long-standing distrust and suspicion of people in general. Individuals with
paranoid personality disorder typically are not aggressive, although they can be pathologically
jealous.
Question #11
A 46-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance because he has been
having visual hallucinations for the past four hours. The patient's wife says he has had diarrhea,
agitation, and confusion for the past two days. Two weeks ago, he was fired from his job
because of excessive absences. He has been unable to find a new job and has been asking his
friends for money for several days. The patient has a 25-year history of drinking one pint of
whiskey daily. Temperature is 38.5C (101.3F), pulse rate is 126/min, and blood pressure is
162/102 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this
patient's condition?
(A) Admission to the hospital for monitoring and social services evaluation
(B) Discharge and referral to an outpatient alcohol treatment center
(C) Intramuscular injection of haloperidol and discharge
(D) Intravenous infusion of ethyl alcohol and discharge
(E) Oral administration of chlordiazepoxide and admission to the hospital
Content Area: Neurocognitive Disorders (Cognitive Disorders) (11%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to determine the appropriate initial management
based on the salient findings in the history and physical examination. The correct answer is
Option (E), oral administration of chlordiazepoxide and admission to the hospital. The history
and physical examination findings in this patient represent delirium tremens due to chronic
alcohol use. Therefore, oral administration of chlordiazepoxide and admission to the hospital is
the most appropriate initial management because of the potential for seizure activity.
Option (A), admission to the hospital for monitoring and social services evaluation, is plausible
but incorrect because drug therapy for the patients withdrawal from alcohol is not addressed.
Option (B), discharge and referral to an outpatient alcohol treatment center, is incorrect because
the patient is at risk for further physical and neurologic deterioration considering his vital signs
and history of hallucinations. Option (C), intramuscular injection of haloperidol and discharge, is
incorrect because haloperidol is not indicated for management of delirium tremens and can
potentially lower the seizure threshold. Option (D), intravenous infusion of ethyl alcohol and
discharge, is incorrect because although infusion of ethyl alcohol may mitigate the patients
symptoms of delirium tremens, this therapy would prolong his time to detoxification. In addition,
ethyl alcohol is not an approved therapy for delirium tremens and it is not used for
detoxification.
Question #12
A 35-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after police were
called to her home by a neighbor, who witnessed rape and robbery by two intruders. The
patient is fully alert and oriented to person, place, and time. She cannot remember anything
about the incident. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?
(A) Depersonalization/derealization disorder (depersonalization disorder)
(B) Dissociative amnesia
(C) Fugue state
(D) Traumatic brain injury
(E) Volitional memory loss
Content Area: Neurocognitive Disorders (Cognitive Disorders) (11%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to recognize the characteristics of behavior disorders.
The correct answer is Option (B), dissociative amnesia. Dissociative amnesia is characterized by
inability to recall important information, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature, that is too
extensive to be considered ordinary forgetfulness.
Option (A), depersonalization/derealization disorder (depersonalization disorder), and Option

(C), fugue state, are incorrect because the patient is fully alert and oriented.
Depersonalization/derealization disorder (depersonalization disorder) is characterized by feelings

of detachment as though one is in a dream, and fugue state involves confusion regarding
personal identity. Option (D), traumatic brain injury, is incorrect because the patient has not
sustained a head injury. Option (E), volitional memory loss, is incorrect because the patients
memory loss is due to her ability to suppress or repress selective memories. In addition, volitional
memory loss is not a DSM diagnosis.
Question #13
A 26-year-old man with a history of involuntary eye blinking and snorting comes to the office
because he is distressed about increasing frequency of these tics over the past six months. The
patient says the episodes currently occur numerous times during the day. Medical history
includes development of eye blinking at 12 years of age and development of snorting at 16 years
of age. Psychotherapy and exercises initially reduced the frequency of these episodes. Because
the patient is embarrassed by his tics, his performance at work has decreased and he now
declines most invitations to social gatherings. Which of the following medications is the most
appropriate therapy for this patient?
(A) Carbamazepine
(B) Fluvoxamine
(C) Methylphenidate
(D) Risperidone
(E) Venlafaxine
Content Area: Neurodevelopmental Disorders (Disorders of Infancy, Childhood, or Adolescence)

(4%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to recognize the signs and symptoms of Tourette
disorder and to choose the most appropriate therapy. The correct answer is Option (D),
risperidone. A tic is a rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic, stereotyped movement of vocalization.
Tourette disorder is characterized by vocal or motor tics, both of which may be present during
the course of the illness. Onset of tics occurs before 18 years of age, and symptoms persist for at
least one year, occurring many times nearly every day. The tics cause marked distress and
impairment in occupational and social functioning. Compelling evidence exists that the
dopamine system is involved in tic disorders pharmacologic agents that antagonize dopamine
suppress tics, and agents that increase dopamine, such as methylphenidate, exacerbate tics.
Risperidone is a dopamine antagonist and is, therefore, the most appropriate therapy for
Tourette disorder.
Option (A), carbamazepine, is incorrect because it is indicated for neuralgias and seizures, not for
Tourette disorder, and it does not affect dopamine transmission. Option (B), fluvoxamine, is
incorrect because it is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, which increases dopamine levels.
Option (C), methylphenidate, is incorrect because it is a stimulant, and stimulants have been
reported to exacerbate preexisting tics. Option (E), venlafaxine, is incorrect because it is a
serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and does not decrease dopamine transmission.
Question #14
A 19-year-old college student comes to the health clinic for evaluation because she has been
purging food during the past semester. The patient appears well developed and well nourished.
Physical examination shows mild enlargement of the parotid glands. In addition to complete
blood cell count and urinalysis, measurement of which of the following levels is most
appropriate?
(A) Fasting blood glucose
(B) Serum amylase
(C) Serum electrolytes

(D) Serum liver enzymes
(E) Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone
Content Area: Feeding and Eating Disorders (Eating Disorders) (3%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to determine the most appropriate laboratory study
considering the salient points in the patients history. The correct answer is Option (C), serum
electrolytes. Patients who purge are at increased risk for hypokalemia and/or hypochloremic
alkalosis because of vomiting. The most appropriate laboratory study to test for these conditions
is measurement of serum electrolyte levels.
Option (A), fasting blood glucose, is incorrect because this level is typically within normal limits in
patients with bulimia. Option (B), serum amylase, is a plausible choice but is incorrect. Although
some patients with bulimia develop hyperamylasemia due to regular purging, measurement of
serum amylase level is not a critical test compared with measurement of serum electrolyte levels.
Option (D), serum liver enzymes, is incorrect because even though disturbances in liver enzyme
levels may exist in patients with bulimia, these findings are neither diagnostic of nor specific to
the condition. Option (E), serum thyroid-stimulating hormone, is incorrect because thyroid
function remains intact in patients with bulimia.
Question #15
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother because she is worried about changes in
his behavior during the past few months. The patient's mother says he has had episodes that
occur sporadically at night during which he sits up in bed screaming, crying incoherently, and
intensely frightened. She says it is initially difficult to calm him down, and he is usually sweating,
breathing rapidly, and tremulous. The patient eventually calms down after 10 to 15 minutes and
then falls asleep. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to confirm the suspected
diagnosis of sleep terror disorder in this patient?
(A) Do his arms and legs jerk during sleep?
(B) Does he have nightmares?
(C) Does he to go to sleep late?
(D) Does he watch violent movies?
(E) Does he wet the bed?
Content Area: Sleep-Wake Disorders (Primary Sleep Disorders) (4%)
Critique
This question tests the examinees ability to recognize and distinguish the signs and symptoms of
sleep arousal disorders and sleep terror disorder. The correct answer is Option (B), Does he have
nightmares? Sleep terror disorder is characterized by arousal with screams or crying
accompanied by fear and signs of autonomic arousal, such as tachycardia, sweating, and rapid
breathing. Patients with sleep terror disorder have no recollection of a dream or the episode,
which causes distress or impairment in social or occupational functioning.
Option (A), Do his arms and legs jerk during sleep?, is incorrect because sleep terrors are not
accompanied by myoclonus. Although onset of sleep terror disorder in adolescence may be a first
symptom of temporal lobe epilepsy, myoclonus is not associated with this disorder. Option (E),
Does he wet the bed?, is incorrect because sleep terrors are not accompanied by bedwetting.
Option (C), Does he go to sleep late?, and Option (D), Does he watch violent movies?, are
incorrect because these behaviors are not related to sleep.

Sample Psychiatry Questions & Critiques: Question #1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Sample Psychiatry Questions & Critiques: Question #1

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Sample Psychiatry Questions & Critiques: Question #1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Sample Psychiatry Questions & Critiques