WEEK 2

PRE-TEST: Communicable Diseases Part I

1. Which of the following is an example of a non-specific body defense?
a. cellular immunity
b. antibodies
c. inflammatory response
d. phagocytes
2. Of the following body defenses against infection, which one is an example of a specific defense?
a. Lymphocyte formation
b. Intact skin
c. Nasal cilia
d. Stomach acid
3. A foreign body that invades the body is called an:
a. Antigen
b. Interferon
c. Complement
d. Antibody
4. Which of the following describes humoral immunity?
a. It is mediated by the T-cell system
b. It primarily defends against fungal infections
c. It aids in the production of lymphokines
d. It is mediated by antibodies by B Lymphocytes
5. Immunity obtained as a result of experiencing illness is known as:
a. Active natural immunity
b. Passive natural immunity
c. Active acquired immunity
d. Passive acquired immunity
6. Microorganisms have the ability to invade the body tissues and proliferate causing infection. One factor is virulence of
organism. What is the other factor?
a. Weakness of the body
b. Resistance of the host
c. Resistance of the organism
d. Weakness of the organism
7. As a result of sharing a needle with an HIV- positive person (A), Person B becomes infected. In the chain of infection, before
person B became infected, the reservoir was:
a. Persons A
b. Person B
c. the dirty needle
d. the hole made by the needle into Persons B skin
8. As a result of sharing a needle with an HIV- positive person (A), Person B becomes infected. In the chain of infection, before
person B became infected, the portal of exit was:
a. Person As needle puncture site
b. Person Bs needle puncture site
c. Person As blood
d. The needle.
9. Which of the following situations is an example of microorganism transmission via droplet contact?
a. Infected wound drainage contacts through nurses hands
b. A virus is transmitted through sexual contact
c. Microorganisms contact a persons nasal mucus when somebody coughs nearby
d. A contaminated stethoscope touches the skin of a client
10. Microorganisms are transmitted to a client when a contaminated stethoscope touches his skin. The stethoscope is a:
a. Fomite
b. Portal of exit
c. Portal of enty
d. reservoir

WEEK 2 POST-TEST: Communicable Diseases Part I

Choose the answers from the box given below.

______________1. What is the pathognomonic sign of measles?
______________2. An illness caused by an infectious agent or toxic product that are transmitted directly or
indirectly
______________3. Destruction of pathogenic microorganism
______________4. Is any person or animal that is in close association with an infected person, animal, or freshly
soiled materials
______________5. Separation from other person of an individual suffering from communicable disease
______________6. Is the implantation and successful replication of an organism in the tissue of the host, resulting
in signs and symptoms as well as immunologic response
______________7. Is any microbe capable of producing disease
______________8. Path or way through which the organism leaves the reservoir
______________9. Means by which the infection agent passes through the portal of exit
______________10. Is an individual who harbors the organism and capable of transmitting

Portal of exit

Disinfection

Kopliks spot

Contact

Mode of transmission

Carrier

Causative agent

Isolation

Communicable Disease

Infection

WEEK 3: MUSCUSKELETAL NURSING

POST-TEST
1. A nurse is conducting health screening for
osteoporosis. Which of the following clients is at
greatest risk of developing this disorder?
1. A 25-year-old woman who jogs
2. A 36-year-old man who has asthma
3. A 70-year-oldmanwho consumes excess alcohol
4. A sedentary 65-year-old woman who smokes
cigarettes
2. A nurse has given instructions to a client returning
home after knee arthroscopy. The nurse determines
that the client understands the instructions if the client
states that he or she will:
1. Resume regular exercise the following day.
2. Stay off the leg entirely for the rest of the day.
3. Report fever or site inflammation to the
physician.
4. Refrain from eating food for the remainder of
the day.
3. A nurse is one of several persons who witness a
vehicle hit a pedestrian at fairly low speed on a small
street. The victim is dazed and tries to get up. The leg
appears fractured. The nurse would plan to:
1. Try to reduce the fracture manually.
2. Assist the victim to get up and walk to the
sidewalk.
3. Leave the victim for a few moments to call an
ambulance.
4. Stay with the victim and encourage the person
to remain still.
4. A client with a hip fracture asks the nurse why
Bucks (extension) traction is being applied
before surgery. The nurses response is based on
the understanding that Bucks (extension) traction
primarily:
1. Allows bony healing to begin before surgery
2. Provides rigid immobilization of the fracture site
3. Lengthens the fractured leg to prevent severing
of blood vessels
4. Provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms
and provides fracture immobilization
5. A nurse is evaluating the pin sites of a client in
skeletal traction. The nurse would be least concerned
with which of the following findings?
1. Inflammation
2. Serous drainage
3. Pain at a pin site
4. Purulent drainage
6. A nurse is assessing the casted extremity of a client.
The nurse would assess for which of the following
signs and symptoms indicative of infection?
1. Dependent edema
2. Diminished distal pulse
3. Presence of a hot spot on the cast
4. Coolness and pallor of the extremity
7. A client has sustained a closed fracture and has just
had a cast applied to the affected arm. The client is
complaining of intense pain. The nurse elevates the
limb, applies an ice bag, and administers an analgesic,
with little relief. The nurse interprets that this pain may
be caused by:
1. Infection under the cast
2. The anxiety of the client
3. Impaired tissue perfusion
4. The recent occurrence of the fracture
8. A nurse is admitting a client with multiple trauma to
the nursing unit. The client has a leg fracture and had a
plaster cast applied. In positioning the casted leg, the
nurse should:
1. Keep the leg in a level position.
2. Elevate the leg for 3 hours and put it flat for
1 hour.

3. Keep the leg level for 3 hours and elevate it

for 1 hour.
4. Elevate the leg on pillows continuously for 24
to 48 hours.
9. A client is being discharged to home after
application of a plaster leg cast. The nurse determines
that the client understands proper care of the cast if
the client states that he or she should:
1. Avoid getting the cast wet.
2. Cover the casted leg with warm blankets.
3. Use the fingertips to lift and move the leg.
4. Use a padded coat hanger end to scratch
under the cast.
10. A client being measured for crutches asks the
nurse why the crutches cannot rest up underneath the
arm for extra support. The nurses response is based
on the understanding that this could most likely result
in:
1. A fall and further injury
2. Injury to the brachial plexus nerves
3. Skin breakdown in the area of the axilla
4. Impaired range of motion while the client
Ambulates
11. A nurse has given a client instructions about crutch
safety. The nurse determines that the client needs
reinforcement of information if the client states:
1. That he or she will not use someone elses
crutches
2. That crutch tips will not slip even when wet
3. The need to have spare crutches and tips available
4. That crutch tips should be inspected periodically
for wear
12. A nurse is caring for a client being treated for fat
embolus after multiple fractures. Which of the
following data would the nurse evaluate as the
most favorable indication of resolution of the
fat embolus?
1. Minimal dyspnea
2. Clear mentation
3. Oxygen saturation of 85%
4. Arterial oxygen level of 78 mm Hg
13. A nurse has conducted teaching with a client in an
arm cast about the signs and symptoms of
compartment syndrome. The nurse determines
that the client understands the information if
the client states that he or she should report
which of the following early symptoms of compartment
syndrome?
1. Cold, bluish-colored fingers
2. Pain that is out of proportion to the type of
injury or condition
3. Pain that increases when the arm is dependent
4. Numbness and tingling in the fingers
14. A client with diabetes mellitus has had a right
below-knee amputation. The nurse would assess
specifically for which of the following signs
because of the history of diabetes?
1. Hemorrhage
2. Edema of the stump
3. Slight redness of the incision
4. Separation of the wound edges
15. A nurse is caring for a clientwho had an above-knee
amputation 2 days ago. The residual limb was
wrapped with an elastic compression bandage,
which has come off. The nurse immediately:
1. Calls the physician
2. Applies ice to the site
3. Rewraps the stump with an elastic compression bandage
4. Applies a dry sterile dressing and elevates it on one
pillow

16. A client is complaining of low back pain that

radiates down the left posterior thigh. The nurse
further assesses the client to see if the pain is
worsened or aggravated by:
1. Bed rest
2. Bending or lifting
3. Ibuprofen (Motrin)
4. Application of heat
17. A nurse is caring for a client who has had spinal
fusion, with insertion of hardware. The nurse would be
concerned especially with which of
the following assessment findings?
1. Temperature of 101.6_ F orally

2. Complaints of discomfort during repositioning

3. Old bloody drainage outlined on the surgical
dressing
4. Discomfort during coughing and deep breathing
exercises
18. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of
gout. Which of the following laboratory values
would the nurse expect to note in the client?
1. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
2. Uric acid level of 8.6 mg/dL
3. Potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L
4. Phosphorus level of 3.1 mg/dL

WEEK 3 PRE-TEST: Muscuskeletal System MS

Match the range of motion term in column II with its associated description listen in column I.
1. ___ Pulling down toward the midline of the body
2. ___ The act of turning the foot inward
3. ___ The opposite movement of flexion
4. ___ Turning around on an axis
5. ___ Turning the palms down
6. ___ Pulling the jaw forward
7. ___ Moving away from the midline
8. ___ Conelike circular movement
9. ___ Turning the palm up
10. ___ Turning the foot outward
a. Supination
b. Extension
c. Circumduction
d. Adduction
e. Protraction
f. Eversion
g. Pronation
h. Abduction
i. Inversion
j. Rotation
Unscramble the letters to answer each statement.
1. The fibrous membrane that covers the bone: _____________
EOPTRMESUI
2. These connect muscles to muscles: ____________
ANSIGMLTE
3. The contractile unit of skeletal muscle: _____________
O E S EAR M R C
4. These attach muscles to bone: ___________
NTSOEDN
5. Loss of bone mass common in postmenopausal women: _____________
ISSTPOOREOOS
6. A lateral curving deviation of the spine: _______________
LSOSOSIIC
7. Excessive fluid within a joint capsule: _____________
NEOFIFSU
8. Aspiration of a joint to obtain synovial fluid: ____________
S AI R E TT H N R E O C

WEEK 4 COMMUNICABLE DISEASES PART II

POST-TEST

____Tetanus:

A. Tourniquet Test (Rumpel Lead)

____Meningitis:

B. Schicks Test; Moloneys Test

____Encephalitis:

C. Nasal Swab; agar plate

____Polio:

____Rabies:

____Dengue:

____Malaria:

____Scarlet:

____Diphtheria:

D. Wound Culture
E. Widals Test
F. Scotch Tape Swab
G. Dicks Test; Schultz-Charlon Test
H. Mantoux Test
I. Slit Skin Smear

10 ____Pertussis:

J. Malarial smear; QBC (Quantitative Buffy

Coat)

11 ____Tuberculosis:

K. Lumbar Puncture

12 ____Leprosy:

L. EEG

13 ____Pinworm:

M. EMG; Muscle Testing

14 ____Typhoid:

N. Brain Biopsy (Negri bodies) Flourescent

rabies antibody test

15 ____HIV/AIDS:

Give the treatment drug of choice for the following communicable diseases

1. Gonorrhea
2. Typhoid Fever
3. Cholera
4. Tetanus
5 Ameobic Dystentery

WEEL 12 - COMMUNICABLE DISEASES PART III

1. The best means for providing complete bed rest for the child include:
a) feeding the patient
b) giving sedation
c) providing quiet diversion
d) giving complete physical care
2. A positive nose and throat culture in a member of the family in whom no signs of the disease are present would indicate:
a) that he is developing diphtheria
b) that he is a carrier
c) that he is susceptible to diphtheria
d) that he is immune to diphtheria
Situation: Charles, an 8 year old boy, one of several siblings in the family, is kept home by his mother because he has a temperature of
100.2F and a history of hacking cough for two weeks. A definite whoop has been heard and the doctor made a diagnosis of whooping cough.
The visiting nurse is to instruct the mother in proper care of this patient.
4. This young boy should be:
a) kept in warm, dry room
b) placed in a sunny room
c) kept in a room with a temperature of 60F
d) allowed free run of the house
5. The organism causing whooping cough is:
a) hemolytic streptococcus
b) hemophilus influenza
c) hemophilus pertussis
d) streptococcus albus
6. Whooping cough is most contagious:
a) in the paroxysmal stage
b) in the catarrhal stage
c( in the febrile stage
d) in the incubation stage
7. During the second stage of the disease the characteristic paroxysm is frequently accompanied by:
a) involuntary micturation
b) spontaneous epistaxis
c) inspiratory whoop
d) expulsion of mucous from the trachea
8. The diagnosis of pertussis is confirmed by which of the following tests?
a) nose and throat culture
b) nasopharyngeal culture
c) "rapid" culture of nose and throat organism
d) sputum culture
9. Oxygen is used in whooping cough for which of the following reasons:
a) prevents the pertussis organism from multiplying
b) seems to lessen the occurrence of paroxysms
c) reduces the danger of convulsions
d) prevents atelectasis
10. One of the first signs of mumps is:
a) pain in the back
b) diarrhea
c) pain in the region of the parotid gland
d) otitis media
11. A nurse should suspect meningitis if a patient exhibited characteristic position which would be:

a) knees pulled up
b) joints of hands flexed
c) backward arching of the spine
d) head pulled forward onto the chest
12. The nurse should be alert for complications of meningitis. Which of the following are the most common?
a) hydrocephalus
b) damage of the optic nerve
c) deafness
d) myocarditis
13. Which of the following is not a part of the role of the infection control department?
a) reviewing infection control policies and procedures
b) performing venipunctures on clients to obtain blood cultures
c) investigating outbreaks of infection
d) providing input regarding the selection of patient care products
14. The primary human reservoir for Staphylococcus aureus is:
a) adult genitalia
b) blood
c) skin
d) feces
15. The best example of medical asepsis is:
a) hand washing
b) use of sterile instruments
c) drawing medication into syringe
d) autoclaving
16. Which of the following is not a symptom of localized infection?
a) redness
b) edema
c) restricted movement of the affected body part
d) lymph node enlargement
17. All of the following are part of the nurse's role in infection control except:
a) recognizing the signs and symptoms of infection
b) collecting specimens of drainage from infected wound sites
c) deciding upon the appropriate to be antibiotic to be administered to the client
d) supporting the client's body defense mechanisms
18. When giving a history, the patient reports that he had discharge from his penis and burning when he urinates. A nurse should recognize
these as indicative of:
a) herpes
b) chlamydia
c) syphilis
d) HIV infection
19. When insect serves as the host for transmission, this is called
a) airborne
b) vectorborne
c) vehicle
d) contact
20. When a health care worker is washing her/his hands, which of the following observations made by the nurse would indicate that the
worker understands the principle of proper hand washing?
a) washes hands prior to removing gloves
b) wash hands for 5 seconds
c) rinses hands with fingers pointed up
d) removes rings before washing

WEEK 5 - MS NEUROLOGIC NURSING PART I

PRE-TEST: MATCHING TYPE

A. Frontal Lobe
B. Parietal Lobe
C. Temporal Lobe
D. Occipital Lobe
____1. Spatial relations
____2. Integration of somatization
____3. Visual interpretation
____4. Concentration
____5. Abstract Thought
____6. Motor Function

____7. Personality
____8. Inhibitions
____9. Information Storage
____10. Affect
Write the name of the CRANIAL NERVE being tested
______________11. Test for nystagmus
______________12. With eyes closed, the patient is asked to identify familiar odors
______________13. A blink and tearing are normal responses
______________14. Test for air and bone conduction
______________15. Check ability to swallow
______________16. Discriminate between sugar or salt on posterior third of tongue
______________17. Test if patient has shallow nasolabial fold
______________18. Ophthalmic examination
______________19. Palpate and note strength of trapezius muscles
______________20. Test for deviation and tremors as tongue is protruded

WEEK 5 NEUROLOGIC NURSING POST-TEST

MATCHING TYPE
A. MRI
B. CT SCAN
C. CEREBRAL ANGIOGRAPHY
D. PET SCAN
E. SINGLE PROTON EMISSION CT
F. MYELOGRAPHY
____1. Makes use of a narrow beam to provide cross sectional views of the brain
____2. Computer based nuclear imaging technique that produces images of actual organ
functioning
____3. It is a perfusion study that captures a moment of cerebral blood flow at the time of
injection of a radionuclide
____4. This diagnostic test involves altering hydrogen ions
____5. X-ray of the spinal subarachnoid space taken after injection of a contrast agent
A. Ischemic stroke

B. Hemorrhagic stroke
____6. Numbness on one side of the body
____7. exploding headache
____8. Decreased LOC
____9. Functional recovery plateaus at 6 mos
____10. Due to large artery thrombosis

WEEK 9: PSYCHIATRIC NURSING

TEST: ENUMERATION
Structures of Personality according to Freud
1.
2.
3.
________4. operates pleasure principle and always demand for immediate gratification
_________5. based on ideal than real
_________6. reality principle

TRUE OR FALSE
____7. "Go on, talk more, go on...and?" are examples of silence
____8. "Let me sit with you....i'd like to eat lunch with you...." -offering self
____9. "Yes, okay *nods* - accepting messages
____10. "given an example of what you mean" is an example of focusing
____11. "You want moo moo? does moo moo mean milk?" --seeking validation

Enumerate defense mechanisms and be able to define

WEEK 10: ABG INTERPRETATION AND ANALYSIS

PRE-TEST
5pts each.
1. What materials should the nurse prepare upon getting blood sample for ABG?

2. What should the nurse anticipate and request prior to getting blood sample for ABG?

POST-TEST
Identify the normal values for each
1. Ph
2. PCO2
3. HCO3 4. PO2
Normal
Mild
Moderate
Severe
8. Identify and interpret the following ABG findings

ph - 7.23
PCO2 50

HCO3 22
_________________________9. ph -7.35
PCO2 12
HCOR 56
__________________________
10. Po2 78 is ____________

WEEK 8: FLUIDS AND ELECTROLYTES

PRE-TEST: (RECITATION)
POST-TEST
1. Identify the normal values of each laboratory data
a. Na
b. K
c. Ca
d. Cl
e. Mg
f. Ph
2. Symptoms of Hypocalcemia

3. ECG findings of
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypocalcemia

d. Hypercalcemia
4. Symptoms and Mgt of Hypernatremia