Chapter-1 Management

Self Assessment Questions

1. A concept that implies that the firm should consider issues such as protecting the consumer, paying fair
wages, maintaining fair hiring practices, supporting education, and considering environmental issues.
(a) Financial management
(b) Profit maximization
(c) Agency theory
(d) Social responsibility
2. Performance management should be seen as a process which is a:
a) Once a year task
b) Twice a year activity
c) Ongoing process or cycle
d) Is engaged in when the appraisals are carried out
3. According to the text's authors, what is the most important of the three financial management
decisions?
(a) Asset management decision.
(b) Financing decision.
(c) Investment decision.
(d) Accounting decision.
4. The ability to determine by analysis and examination the nature and circumstances of particular
conditions is known as diagnostic skills.
(a) True

(b) False

5. The purpose and function of discipline in contemporary organizations seems at odds with
developments in contemporary management thinking with its emphasis on:
a) Tight control
b) A disciplined workforce
c) Commitment
d) Sanctions and punishments

6. The main purpose of staffing is to put right man on right job.

(a) True

(b) False

7. Is it important to have two managers responsible for leading a disciplinary investigation because?
a) Provides support for each other when dealing with stressful situations
b) It ensures a degree of impartiality
c) It a requirement by tribunals
d) Provides cover in the event of absence through ill health
8. What does discipline mean in the context of the workplace?
a) Enforcing compliance and order
b) A system of rules designed to improve and correct behavior through teaching or training
c) Punishment
d) Exercising control
9. The purpose of controlling is to ensure that someone occurs in conformities with the standards.
(a) True

(b) False

10. Which recent case brought against a corporation's top management lead to new rules on 'corporate
governance'?
a) The Enron affair
b) BP
c) Texaco
d) Northern Rock
11. The scientific management movement was the primary driver of this perspective.
(a) True
(b) False
12. Supply of a commodity is a:
(a) Stock concept
(b) A flow concept
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
13. Consideration is synonymous with:
(a) Task
(b) Relations

(c) Style
(d) Altitude
14. Management strives to encourage individual activity that will lead to reaching organizational goals
and to discourage individual activity that will hinder the accomplishment of the organization objectives
(a) True
(b) False
15. Practicing managers who believe in management as an art are unlikely to believe that scientific
principles and theories will not be able to implement in actual managerial situations.
(a) True
(b) False
17. The basic feature of oligopoly is:
(a) Many sellers
(b) Only one seller
(c) A few sellers
(d) Infinite sellers.
18. Practicing managers who believe in management as a science are likely to believe that there are ideal
managerial practices for certain situations.
(a) True
(b) False
19. The demand for pepper is likely to have low price elasticity because it:
1. Involves only a small proportion of consumers expenditure
2. It is single-use goods
3. Has no close substitutes
16. Can readily be foregone
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
20. UNO has the maximum dues on:
(a) India
(b) Mexico
(c) USA
(d) Japan

Answers for Self Assessment Questions

1. (d)
2.(c)
3.(c)
6. (a)
7.(b)
8.(a)
11. (a)
12.(b)
13.(b)
16. (c)
17.(c)
18.(a)

Chapter-2 CONTROLLING ORGANIZING

Self Assessment Questions

1. "Quality is defined by the customer" is

4.(a)
9.(b)
14.(a)
19.(c)

5.(c)
10.(a)
15.(b)
20.(c)

a. an unrealistic definition of quality

b. a user-based definition of quality
c. a manufacturing-based definition of quality
d. a product-based definition of quality
e. the definition proposed by the American Society for Quality Control
2. Which of the following is not one of the major categories of costs associated with quality?
a. prevention costs
b. appraisal costs
c. internal failures
d. none of the above, they are all major categories of costs associated with quality
3. The process of management which is concerned with acquiring, developing, employing, appraising,
remunerating and retaining people is known as staffing.
(a) True

(b) False

4. Which of the following is not a good reason to set up staff departments?

(a) To improve upward communication
(b) To make the best use of scarce specialist skills
(c) Through rotation, to give trainee managers a range of experience
(d)To enable line managers to focus on the main activities of the organization
5. Planning is concerned with the future which is uncertain and individual planner is using conjecture
about what might happen in future.
(a) True

(b) False

6. In a temperature control system, what represents the output of the system?

(a) The required temperature.
(b) The heating element.
(c) The heat produced by the system.
(d) The actual temperature achieved.
7. The process of identifying other organizations that are best at some facet of your operations and then
modeling your organization after them is known as

a. continuous improvement
b. employee empowerment
c. benchmarking
d. copycatting
8. Which of the following is not an element of the management process?
a. pricing
b. staffing
c. planning
d. controlling
9. Management in some form or the other has been practiced in the various parts of the world since the
dawn of civilization.
(a) True

(b) False

10. Identify the best definition of planning.

(a) The core activity of planners and planning departments.
(b) Devising ways of achieving the objectives of an organization.
(c) Setting an organizations objectives and the means of reaching them.
(d) An integrated process in which plans are formulated carried out and controlled.

11. Which of the following is not one of the major categories of costs associated with quality?
a. prevention costs
b. appraisal costs
c. internal failures
d. none of the above, they are all major categories of costs associated with quality
12. According to the manufacturing-based definition of quality,
a. quality is the degree of excellence at an acceptable price and the control of variability at an
acceptable cost
b. quality depends on how well the product fits patterns of consumer preferences

c. even though quality cannot be defined, you know what it is

d. quality is the degree to which a specific product conforms to standards
13. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
a. customer dissatisfaction costs
b. inspection costs
c. scrap costs
d. maintenance costs
14. Inspection, scrap, and repair are examples of
a. internal costs
b. external costs
c. costs of dissatisfaction
d. societal costs
15. The goal of inspection is to
a. detect a bad process immediately
b. add value to a product or service
c. correct deficiencies in products
d. correct system deficiencies
16. Which of the following is not a typical inspection point?
a. upon receipt of goods from your supplier
b. during the production process
c. before the product is shipped to the customer
d. after a costly process
17. Operations management is applicable
a. mostly to the service sector
b. to services exclusively
c. mostly to the manufacturing sector

d. to manufacturing and service sectors

e. to the manufacturing sector exclusively
18. Walter Shewhart is listed among the important people of operations management because of his
contributions to
a. assembly line production
b. measuring the productivity in the service sector
c. Just-in-time inventory methods
d. statistical quality control
e. all of the above
19. Henry Ford is noted for his contributions to
a. standardization of parts
b. statistical quality control
c. assembly line operations
d. scientific management
e. time and motion studies
20. Who among the following is associated with contributions to quality control in operations
management?
a. Charles Babbage
b. Henry Ford
c. Frank Gilbreth
d. W. Edwards Deming
e. Henri Fayol
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2.(d)
3.(a)
6. (d)
7.(c)
8.(a)
11. (d)
12.(d)
13.(d)
16. (d)
17.(d)
18.(d)

4.(c)
9.(a)
14.(a)
19.(c)

5.(b)
10.(c)
15.(a)
20.(d)

Chapter-3 ORGANIZATIONAL MODEL

Self Assessment Questions

1. Which of the following is true about business strategies?
a. An organization should stick with its strategy for the life of the business.
b. All firms within an industry will adopt the same strategy.
c. Well defined missions make strategy development much easier.
d. Strategies are formulated independently of SWOT analysis.
e. Organizational strategies depend on operations strategies.
2. The fundamental purpose for the existence of any organization is described by its
a. policies
b. mission
c. procedures
d. strategy
e. tactics
3. Which of the following activities takes place once the mission has been developed?
a. The firm develops alternative or back-up missions in case the original mission fails.
b. The functional areas develop their functional area strategies.
c. The functional areas develop their supporting missions.
d. The ten OM decision areas are prioritized.
e. Operational tactics are developed.
4. Which of the following statements about organizational missions is false?
a. They reflect a company's purpose.
b. They indicate what a company intends to contribute to society.
c. They are formulated after strategies are known.
d. They define a company's reason for existence.
e. They provide guidance for functional area missions.

5. The impact of strategies on the general direction and basic character of a company is
a. short ranged
b. medium range
c. long range
d. temporal
e. minimal

6. The fundamental purpose of an organization's mission statement is to

a. create a good human relations climate in the organization
b. define the organization's purpose in society
c. define the operational structure of the organization
d. generate good public relations for the organization
e. define the functional areas required by the organization
7. Which of the following is true?
a. Corporate mission is shaped by functional strategies.
b. Corporate strategy is shaped by functional strategies.
c. Functional strategies are shaped by corporate strategy.
d. External conditions are shaped by corporate mission.
e. Corporate mission is shaped by functional strategies.
8. According to the authors, which of the following strategic concepts allow firms to achieve their
missions?
a. productivity, efficiency, and quality leadership
b. differentiation, cost leadership, and quick response
c. differentiation, quality leadership, and quick response
d. distinctive competency, cost leadership, and experience
e. differentiation, distinctive competency, quality, leadership, and capacity

9. A firm can effectively use its operations function to yield competitive advantage via all of the
following except
a. customization of the product
b. set equipment utilization goals below the industry average
c. speed of delivery
d. constant innovation of new products
e. maintain a variety of product options
10. Which of the following is not an operations strategy?
a. response
b. low-cost leadership
c. differentiation
d. technology
e. marketing

11. Which of the following is not a key way in which business organizations compete with one-another?
a. production cost
b. quality
c. product duplication
d. flexibility
e. time to perform certain activities
12. A strategy is a(n)
a. set of opportunities in the marketplace
b. broad statement of purpose
c. simulation used to test various product line options
d. plan for cost reduction
e. action plan to achieve the mission
13. Which of the following statements best characterizes delivery reliability?

a. a company that always delivers on the same day of the week

b. a company that always delivers at the promised time
c. a company that delivers more frequently than its competitors
d. a company that delivers faster than its competitors
e. a company that has a computerized delivery scheduling system
14. Narrative approaches to organizational culture:
a) study the stories told in organizations and how they are told.
b) are based around the theatre metaphor.
c) are part of the fragmentation perspective.
d) study the stories told in organizations and how they are told, are based around the theatre metaphor and
are part of the fragmentation perspective.
15. In circumstances of incremental change, strategic change is likely to be more successful if:
A) It is imposed.
B) It is owned by the senior manager.
C) It is internalized and owned by those who will implement it.
D) It is facilitated by management consultants.
16. A matrix organization is a management style that is known for having its employees report to more
than different manager at a time.
(a) True

(b) False

17. Postmodern studies of organizational culture invoke:

a) thick description.
b) cultural dynamics.
c) dramaturgy.
d) intertextuality.
18. Why is it important to understand the organizational context in thinking about the management of
strategic change?
A) Because there is no one right formula for managing strategic change. It will need to differ according to
the context of the organization.

B) Because it is important to analyse the organizational environment to develop strategies.

C) Because understanding the timescale of change is important.
D) Because understanding the managerial and personal capabilities to manage change in the organization
is important.
19. A matrix organization is one where functional leaders are responsible for more than different area
(a) True

(b) False

20. The design process nearly always entails making trade-offs of one set of structural benefits against
another.
(a) True

Answers for Self Assessment Questions

1. (c)
2.(b)
3.(c)
6. (b)
7.(c)
8.(b)
11. (c)
12.(c)
13.(b)
16. (b)
17.(b)
18.(a)

(b) False

4.(c)
9.(b)
14.c)
19.(b)

5.(c)
10.(d)
15.(c)
20.(a)

Chapter-4 ORGANIZING FOR THE LEARNING ORGANIZATION

Self Assessment Questions

1. Which of the following is the lowest risk, least extent of change?
(a) Business process improvement.
(b) Business process automation.
(c) Incremental change.
(d) None of the above.
2. Which of the following is a change lever?
(a) Employee acquisition and retention.
(b) Project management.
(c) The market and business models.
(d) None of the above.
3. An institutionalized process is not more likely to be retained during times of stress.
(a) True
(b) False
4. A leadership style in managing change where widespread participation of employees occurs to define
the changes required and techniques to achieve them.
(a) Coercive.
(b) Consultative.
(c) Directive.

(d) Collaborative.
5. A leadership style in managing change where the management team takes the decisions, with the
employees generally trusting them to do so and generally informed.
(a) Coercive.
(b) Collaborative.
(c) Consultative.
(d) Directive.
6. What is the Human Capital Perspective argument for diversity management in leadership and
management?
a) Using human resource planning to identify leaders and managers
b) Assessing all employees in terms of the money they make
c) Taking advantage of the talents available in the whole of the workforce
d) Telling employees that their knowledge and skills will be assessed and used by managers
7. Commitments are established among those performing the work and the relevant stakeholders and
these commitments are revised as necessary.
(a) True
(b) False
8. Which of the following aspects do not have an impact on Employment Law?
a) Recruitment and selection.
b) Dismissal
c) Education qualifications
d) Finance
9. Planning to learn from experience is in keeping with which of Mumford's four approaches to learning?
a) Prospective approach
b) Intuitive approach
c) Incidental approach
d) Retrospective approach
10. International management development involves the CEO and the senior team and other key elements.
Which of the following is not one of the key elements?
a) The global strategy
b) Human resource and line capabilities
c) Senior Management involvement
d) Performance management
11. Leadership and management are two distinctive and complementary systems of action.
(a) True
(b) False
12. Which type of motivation loss involves group members reducing their effort because their individual
contribution seems to have little impact on group performance?
a) Social loafing.
b) Free-riding.
c) Sucker effect.
d) Khler effect.

13. Which class of leadership behaviour from the path-goal theory involves the leader setting high goals
and seeking improvement, emphasizing excellence, showing confidence in subordinates and stressing
pride in work?
a) Work facilitation behaviour.
b) Participative behaviour.
c) Supportive behaviour.
d) Achievement-oriented behaviour.
14. Which leadership style involves the leader giving followers something they want in exchange for
something the leader wants?
a) Transformational.
b) Laissez-faire.
c) Charismatic.
d) None of these.
15. Which of these statements about team awareness is FALSE?
a) Team awareness provides a context for group members' own activity.
b) Team awareness reduces the effort needed to coordinate tasks and resources.
c) Team awareness can only be improved by the group members themselves.
d) Team awareness increases when leadership is shared.
16. Management majors are thus afforded a low quality and broad-based opportunity for education.
(a) True
(b) False
17. Which of these is a disjunctive group task with a focus on optimization?
a) Keeping something confidential.
b) Pulling a rope.
c) Mountain climbing.
d) A mathematical calculation.
18. Which of the following is achieving management commitment?
(a) Education and training.
(b) Prototyping.
(c) New approach to business self-image.
(d) Active involvement by senior staff.
19. Research in the styles of leadership preferred by different generations was completed by Arsenault
(2004). What was the style of leadership that Generation X was found to prefer?
a) Directive
b) Authoritarian
c) Participative
d) Egalitarian
20. The organizational process assets are artifacts that relate to describing, implementing, and improving
processes.
(a) True
(b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2.(c)
3.(b)
6. (c)
7.(a)
8.(d)
11. (a)
12.(b)
13.(d)

4.(d)
9.(a)
14.(d)

5.(d)
10.(d)
15.(c)

16. (b)

17.(d)

18.(d)

19.(b)

20.(a)

Chapter-5 CULTURE AND THE BUSINESS ORGANIZATION

Self Assessment Questions

1. The organization chart is a way of showing:
a. The informal patterns of communication
b. The stakeholders who have an interest in the company
c. The physical layout of the buildings on a site
d. How the tasks of an organization are divided and co-ordinated
2. Specifying who people report to, and who reports to them, is called:
a. The formal structure
b. Sharing responsibility
c. Creating the lines of authority
d. Dividing work
3. Non-material culture refers to the nonphysical ideas that people have about their culture, including
beliefs, values, rules, norms, morals, language, organizations, and institutions.
(a) True

(b) False

4. An organization in which members emphasise rationality, efficiency and the importance of meeting
external demands would be typical of which type of culture?
a. Open systems
b. Internal process
c. Human relations
d. Rational goal
5. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Culture is not a well-defined concept.
b. Culture as a concept derives from the fields of organizational and industrial psychology.

c. Culture can be viewed as a social construction and as an implicit feature of social life.
d. Culture is central to understanding control and resistance in society, organizations, and social groups.
6. The study of material culture has to take in only the users experience of thing but also how they were
manufactured and how they reached the user.
(a) True

(b) False

7. Harrison identifies four main cultures in organizations. What do they mean by a 'task culture'?
a. An organization with a single source of power.
b. An organization where the focus is upon achieving goals, flexibility is important, and power is based
on expertise.
c. An organization where the emphasis is upon functions and specialities.
d. An organization which exists to meet the needs of its members, and individuals influence each other
through helpfulness.
8. What is meant the cultural 'socialization' of organizational newcomers?
a. To impart the culture of the organization upon new employees.
b. To introduce the culture of the employees' former organization, into the new organization.
c. To 'remove' the culture of the organization from employees leaving the organization.
9. Which of the following is not a dimension of Hofstede's national culture dimensions?
a. Masculinity.
b. Metrosexuality.
c. Femininity.
d. Uncertainty avoidance.
10. A firm that acquires another firm as part of its strategy to sell off assets, cut costs, and operate the
remaining assets more efficiently is engaging in ..
a). a strategic acquisition
b) a financial acquisition
c) two-tier tender offer
d) shark repellent

11. The restructuring of a firm should be undertaken if .

a. the restructuring is expected to create value for shareholders
b. the restructuring is expected to increase earnings per share (EPS) next year
c. the restructuring is expected to increase the firm's market share power within the industry
d. the current employees will receive additional stock options to align employee interest
12. What is the most likely reason that a firm (who is highly profitable) might consider acquiring a firm
that has had large recent losses and will continue to have losses into the near future?
a. Hubris.
b. White knight.
c. Tax-loss usage.
d. Increase assets.
13. Norm is the components of culture.
(a) True

(b) False

14. A firm can acquire another firm ..

a. only by purchasing the assets of the target firm
b. only by purchasing the common stock of the target firm
c. by either purchasing the assets or the common equity of the target firm.
d. None of the above is methods of acquiring the target firm
15. What is a business organizational model that involves the large-scale outsourcing of business
functions?
a. Virtual corporation.
b. Joint venture.
c. Corporate liquidation.
d. Equity carve-out.
16. A taboo is not a strong social ban relating to any area of human activity or social custom that is sacred
and forbidden based on moral judgment and sometimes even religious beliefs.
(a) True

(b) False

17. The number of subordinates who report directly to a manager is called that manager's:

a. Span of control
b. Work team
c. Formal authority
d. Informal organization structure
18. Deal and Kennedy identify four distinct cultures. What do they term an organization of risk takers
who receive immediate feedback, e.g. police and management consultants?
a. Tough-guy macho culture.
b. Bet your company culture.
c. Work hard/play hard culture.
d. Process culture.
19. What remains after we subtract operating costs and capital expenditures necessary to at least sustain
cash flows from total firm revenues?
a. Free cash flows.
b. Strategic cash flows.
c. Net income.
d. Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT).
20. Social learning is a process of learning when observing the social interaction of others and
considering if those actions and behaviors are worth imitating.
(a) True
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d)
2.(c)
3.(a)
6. (b)
7.(b)
8.(a)
11. (a)
12.(c)
13.(a)
16. (b)
17.(a)
18.(a)

(b) False

4.(d)
9.(b)
14.(c)
19.(a)

5.(b)
10.(b)
15.(a)
20.(a)

Chapter-6 CULTURE LANGUAGE VARIATIONS

Self Assessment Questions

1. What is a 'civilization'?
a) Europe and the US
b) The broadest construction of cultural identity
c) A society which is intellectually accomplished
d) Mesopotamia
2. The cultures of relationships or groups are not relatively simple compared to those of organizations
and, especially, societies.
(a) True

(b) False

3. What is religious fundamentalism?

a) Extreme religious revivalism
b) A type of political protest against the West or prevailing institutions
c) A reaction to modernity
d) All of the above
4. What is meant by multiculturalism?
a) Culture drawing on many influences but still within the patriarchal and Eurocentric framework
b) Culture drawing on multiple influences undermining patriarchal culture
c) Listening to world music
d) Eating a big Mac in India
5. The stable long-lasting beliefs about what is important in an organization are called:
a. beliefs
b. artifacts
c. values
d. culture
assumptions
6. The taken for granted notions of how something should be in an organization are called:

a. culture

b. values

c. assumptions

d. artifacts

beliefs
7. The aspects of an organizations culture that you see, hear, and feel are called:
a. beliefs

b. assumptions

c. artifacts

d. values

symbols
8. Travel and communication technologies greatly accelerate the movement of messages from one
cultural context to another, and in small and large ways.
(a) True

(b) False

9. The key characteristic of organizational culture that assesses the degree to which organizational
activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth is:
a. stability.

b. aggressiveness.

c. team orientation.

d. outcome orientation.

attention to detail.
10. The dominant culture is:
a. synonymous with the organizations culture.
b. the degree of sharedness.
c. the culture of the industry leader.
d. the sum of the subcultures.
11. A strong organizational culture increases behavioral consistency and, therefore, can act as a substitute
for:
a. leadership.
b. socialization.
c. formalization.
d. followership.
12. Consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces
a). an unknown environment.

b) a dynamic environment.
c) major organizational restructuring.
d) a stable environment.
13. The ultimate source of an organizations culture is:
a. the business planning process.
b. the selection process.
c. its founders.
d. the country in which it operates.
14. Strong culture is said to exist where staff respond to stimulus because of their alignment to not
organizational values.
(a) True

(b) False

15. A communal culture is best described as one where people:

a. have a feeling of belonging
b. know and like each other
c. are commited to individual tasks
d. are judged solely on productivity
16. Corporate cultures have both gross and subtle manifestations that provide clues to the underlying
norms and beliefs.
(a) True

(b) False

17. What are the main features of 'Western' culture?

a) Belief in universal rationality
b) Progress through empirical science
c) Goals involving mastery of nature
d) All of the above
18. The key characteristic of organizational culture that addresses the degree to which management
decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization is termed:
a. team orientation.

b. attention to detail.

c. outcome orientation.

d. people orientation.

19. According to the socialization process, the stage when a new employee adjusts to his/her work
groups values and norms is called:
a. resolution
b. acceptance.
c. commitment.
d. metamorphosis.
20. The concept of culture is particularly important when attempting to manage organization-wide
change.
(a) True
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2.(b)
3.(d)
6. (c)
7.(c)
8.(a)
11. (c)
12.(d)
13.(c)
16. (a)
17.(d)
18.(d)

(b) False

4.(b)
9.(a)
14.(b)
19.(d)

5.(c)
10.(a)
15.(a)
20.(a)

Chapter-7 CULTURAL CHANGE IN THE ORGANIZATION

Self Assessment Questions

1. Change is a feature of organizational life with many influential practitioners suggesting that the pace,
size and necessity for change have increased. It therefore seems surprising that failure rates are high with
up to 70% of business process re-engineering and possibly 90% of total quality management initiatives
failing to achieve their objectives. What main reason could be given for failure?
a. Failure rates do not apply to smaller organizations as these are easier to control and manage
b. Research literature is too vague to provide a logical structured change management plan
c. The inadequacy or appropriateness of the actions taken
d. Too much attention has been paid to culture when this is not an influential facto
2. Organizational culture has been considered as central to organizational success and strongly influences
all who work within an organization. Cummings and Huse analysed different definitions of culture and
produced a composite model with four main components. Three of these are basic assumptions, artefacts,
and values but what is the fourth?

a. Culture
b. Norms
c. Role
d. Trust
3. The organizational culture inventory is a known method of assessing culture but changing culture is a
complex process with proponents arguing that cultural change is likely to fail if:
a. there are high levels of dissatisfaction.
b. there are different groups within the organization.
c. no attempt is made to understand the nature of the existing culture and how it is sustained.
d. none of the above.
4. Lewin is well known for developing a planned approach to organisational change. Models of change
management have been produced over the years and the planned approach to change is closely related to
the practice of organisational development. One of the main values underpinning the work of organisation
development practitioners is:
a. all of the below.
b. promotion of a culture of collaboration.
c. creating openness in communications.
d. empowering employees to act.
5. Lewin was a productive theorist and practitioner in the development of planned change. Three models
resulted from his work, one of which starts with an acceptance that change is required. The next phase
entails those involved learning to analyse the situation correctly, to then formulate and apply the most
appropriate solution. What is this model?
a. The empowerment, collaboration and change model
b. The three-step model of change
c. The action research model
d. The phases of planned change model
6. There has been a shift in emphasis by some practitioners from improving group effectiveness to
transformational organizational development. While these changes are understandable, what do
Cummings and Huse (1989) advocate is crucial to achieving successful culture change?

a. All of the below

b. A clear strategic vision
c. Top management commitment
d. Symbolic leadership
7. The organization must plan where it wants to go after trying to make any changes in the organizational
culture.
(a) True

(b) False

8. Those who advocate the emergent approach to organisational change have a common belief that change
is a dynamic and continuous process emerging in an unplanned process. As such, they would support the
view that:
a. managerial support is preferable.
b. there is no simple strategy for managing transitional change successfully.
c. organizational culture is an inevitable outcome of ineffective management.
d. managed change can take place but takes significantly longer than planned change strategies.
9. The traditional role of managers is that of directing and controlling within an organization but the
emergent approach sees a shift. If managers are to gain the commitment of others, it is essential that:
a. they attend training courses.
b. managers change their own behavior.
c. they focus on operational issues.
d. they rely upon their own experiences as tried and tested methods to gain consensus from employees.
10. The organizational culture was not formed over years of interaction between the participants in the
organization.
(a) True

(b) False

11. To what extent and for how long an organization can function with structures, practices and cultures
out of balance with its environment revolves around Child's (1972) concept of:
a. equifinality.
b. inter-dependent and intra-dependent accommodation.
c. collaboration conflict.
d. the synergistic dilemma.

12. A number of approaches may be used to bring about effective change within an organization, often
called intervention strategies, these include:
a. survey research and feedback.
b. sensitivity training and team building.
c. grid training.
d. all of the above.
13. According to Deal and Kennedy, in a dynamic organization characterised by fun and action, where
employees take few risks and games, meetings, promotions and conventions are encouraged to help
maintain motivation, the type of culture can be described as:
a. bet-your-company culture.
b. tough-guy, macho culture.
c. process culture.
d. work-hard/play-hard culture.
14. Organizational climate is based on the ____________ of members.
a. perceptions
b. loyalty
c. commitment
d. none of the above
15. .. can be viewed in terms of mental attitudes which people have towards their tasks and
responsibilities.
a. Teamwork
b. Compliance
c. Cohesion
d. Morale
16. Conflict can be seen as behavior intended to . the achievement of some other person's goals.
a. promote
b. enhance
c. obstruct

d. control
17. Changing a culture is a large-scale undertaking, and eventually all of the organizational tools for
changing minds will need to be put in play.
(a) True

(b) False

18. Two dominant approaches to change exist but they cannot cover every possible change situation and
how they are managed. In an attempt to bring some kind of structure to the field, Burnes (2004) provided:
a) a framework for change.
b) a new inventory of change which is easy to administer and produces a timeline of change activities.
c) a meta-analysis of research findings.
d) none of the below.
19. In contrast to planned change, those who support the emergent change approach see change as a
continuous, dynamic process with an unpredictable and unplanned outcome. As such, advocates of this
approach see organizations as:
a. rational entities seeking to maximise their effectiveness.
b. being at the mercy of events outside their control.
c. shifting coalitions of individuals and groups with different interests.
d. following consistent strategies.
20. Executives in the organization must support the cultural change, and in ways beyond verbal support.
(a) True

Answers for Self Assessment Questions

1. (c)
2.(b)
3.(c)
6. (a)
7.(b)
8.(b)
11. (a)
12.(d)
13.(d)
16. (c)
17.(a)
18.(a)

(b) False

4.(a)
9.(b)
14.(a)
19.(c)

5.(c)
10.(b)
15.(d)
20.(a)

Chapter-8 DATA AND INFORMATION

Self Assessment Questions

1. Gaining unauthorized access to a computer system would fall under which category of computer
crime?
a. Hacking.
c. Destruction of data and software.

b. Theft.
d. Data theft.

e. Theft of services.
2. Which legislation covers the act of selling or disclosing personal data?
a. Computer Misuse Act (1990).
b. Copyright, Designs & Patents Act (1988).
c. Data Protection Act (1984).
d. Criminal Damage Act (1971).
3. Which legislation would cover acts such as electronic eavesdropping?
a. Computer Misuse Act (1990).
b. Criminal Damage Act (1971).
c. Data Protection Act (1984).
d. None of the above.
4. Intercepting personal communications, such as telephone calls, is known as:
a. electronic eavesdropping.

b. copyright theft.

c. hacking.

d. reverse engineering.

5. Duplicating the design of an item or computer program is known as:

a. copyright theft.

b. electronic eavesdropping.

c. reverse engineering.

d. hacking.

computer monitoring.
6. Which group of individuals might be described as those who seek to obtain data by any means
necessary, whether legal or illegal?
a. Computer criminals.

b. Information warriors.
c. Software pirates.
d. Hackers.
Crackers.
7. Using Information Technology as a means of observing the actions of individuals is known as:
a. reverse engineering.
b. electronic eavesdropping.
c. hacking.
d. computer monitoring.
8. The main purpose of the data protection act is to:
a. protect personal privacy.
b. increase the security of computer systems.
c. reduce project failures.
d. prevent viruses.
9. The freedom of information act requires publication of:
a. an acceptable use policy.
b. a publications scheme listing all classes of information made available by the organization.
c. employee communications monitoring.
10. Employee communications monitoring is:
a. unrestricted due to government fears about terrorism.
b. permitted provide its extent is limited and fully explained to employees.
11. Contention-based medium access control is an example of fully distributed control.
(a) True
12. Which of the following correctly describes slot time?
a. The collision window.
b. Twice the worst-case signal propagation delay time.

(b) False

c. The worst-case signal propagation delay time plus a safety margin.

d. Twice the worst-case signal propagation delay time plus a safety margin.
13. An Ethernet NIC frame that repeatedly collides continues attempting transmission until successful.
(a)True

(b) False

14. When a station detects that a collision has occurred it:

a. waits until the medium becomes free and then retransmits.
b. waits a random interval in time and then retransmits.
c. waits a random interval in time and then re-examines the medium to see if it is free.
15. An Ethernet station waiting for the medium to become free transmits immediately it becomes so.
a. True

b. False

16. An L_DATA.request frame in the IEEE802.3 standard is:

(a) a connectionless, acknowledgement.
(b) a connectionless, unnumbered frame.
(c) a connectionless, unnumbered acknowledgement.
17. Subrate multiplexing may be defined as:
a. a form of multiplexing that is adequate but incurs some loss of performance.
b. dividing a data channel into two, or more, lower rate data channels.
c. multiplexing a number of channels in such a way that the aggregate bandwidth is less than the sum of
the bandwidths of each channel being multiplexed.
18. Loading the contents of routing tables into a router prior to it being put into service is an example of
which routing protocol?
a. Static.
b. Distance vector.
c. Flooding.
d. Link-state shortest-path-first.
19. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is necessary in an IP network because:

a. when a datagram is passed to layer 2, a MAC layer frame is formed which must include the layer 2
address of the destination host to which the frame is to be sent. ARP is used to find the appropriate MAC
address, based upon the IP destination address contained within the datagram.
b. ARP is used to find the appropriate IP address, given a MAC address.
c. when a datagram is passed to layer 2, a MAC layer frame is formed which must include the IP address
of the destination host to which the frame is to be sent. ARP is used to find the required IP address.
20. Which of the following definitions correctly describes the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
(DHCP)?
a. DHCP enables a NIC to determine the IP address for a given MAC address.
b. DHCP enables a NIC to determine the MAC address for a given IP address.
c. DHCP is a technique whereby IP addresses are assigned centrally by a server to each host.
d. DHCP is a routing protocol run by routers within a network.

Answers for Self Assessment Questions

1. (a)
2.(c)
3.(d)
6. (b)
7.(d)
8.(a)
11. (a)
12.(b)
13.(b)
16. (b)
17.(b)
18.(a)

4.(a)
9.(b)
14.(c)
19.(a)

5.(c)
10.(b)
15.(b)
20.(c)

Chapter-9 MANAGERIAL DECISION MAKING

Self Assessment Questions

1. Decisions fall into two categories:
a. programmed and non-programmed
b. every day and crisis
c. large and small
d. production and administrative
2. Which of the following is not a step in the decision-making process?
a. evaluate and choose an alternative
b. identify the problem
c. seek expert assistance

d. generate alternative solutions

3. The possibility that a chosen action could lead to losses rather than the results intended is
a. uncertainty
b. bad decision-making
c. risk
d. unfortunate
4. When individuals deny the importance of a danger or an opportunity they are exhibiting
a. complacency
b. ignorance
c. defensive avoidance
d. satisficing
5. A difficulty serious enough to require immediate action is
a). an opportunity problem
b) a drastic problem
c) an impact problem
d) a crisis problem
6. Managerial decisions are deliberate choices made from a range of one-way.
(a) True
7. Which of the following is not an advantage of group decision-making?
a) groupthink
b) greater acceptance of decisions
c) increased number of alternatives considered
d) more information and knowledge focussed on the issue
8. Biases in decision-making can include all of the following except
a) framing
b) selectivity

(b) False

c) representativeness
d) anchoring
9. The belief that managers behave randomly in making non-programmed decisions is the
a) incremental model
b) bounded-rationality model
c) satisficing model
d) rubbish-bin model
10. The belief that a manager's ability to make perfectly rational decisions is limited by cognitive capacity
and time constraints is
a) rational decision-making
b) bounded rationality
c) satisficing
d) non-rational decision-making
11. Which of the factors listed below is not a reason for decision making in organizations being a
complex process?
a. Several stakeholders will have an interest in the decision
b. People have to make decisions in a historical context
c. Factors in the current context of the organization affect the decision
d. Modern information systems enable people to evaluate a range of possible outcomes
12. Decisiveness is a quality which distinguishes very good managers from very bad managers.
(a) True

(b) False

13. A manager who is helping a customer return some shoes they purchased last week is dealing with
what type of decision?
a. Programmed decision
b. Bounded rationality
c. Uncertainty
d. Non-programmed decision

14. A solution to a problem that is arrived at through an unstructured process of decision making is called
a:
a. Uncertainty
b. Bounded rationality
c. Non-programmed decision
d. Programmed decision
15. If a manager at Wipro wants to award a contract for printing the company's promotional literature and
has obtained quotations from several printers, the manager can select a printer and know with .
what the printing should cost.
a. Ambiguity

b. Certainty

c. Risk

d. Uncertainty

16. Decision making situations can be categorized along a scale which ranges from:
a. Certainty to risk to uncertainty
b. Certainty to uncertainty to risk
c. Certainty to risk to uncertainty to ambiguity
d. Uncertainty to certainty to risk
17. When a manager knows little about the intended goals of a decision and the outcomes of the options
are unclear, what type of situation are they in?
a. Uncertainty
b. Ambiguity
c. Risk
d. Certainty
18. The overall process of decision making in, for example, staff selection includes which of these stages?
a. Deciding which candidate to appoint
b. Identifying the need for a new member of staff
c. Agreeing the job specification
d. All of the above

19. The cognitive process of developing an idea, commodity or discovery viewed as novel by its creator
or a target audience is
a. product development
b. market research
c. creativity
d. cognitive thinking
20. Decision-making describes the process by which a course of action is selected to deal with a specific
problem.
(a) True

(b) False

Answers for Self Assessment Questions

1. (a)
2.(c)
3.(c)
6. (b)
7.(a)
8.(b)
11. (d)
12.(a)
13.(a)
16. (c)
17.(b)
18.(d)

4.(c)
9.(d)
14.(c)
19.(c)

5.(d)
10.(b)
15.(b)
20.(a)

Chapter-10
1. Which of the factors listed below is not a reason for decision making in organizations
being a complex process?
a.
b.
c.
d.

People have to make decisions in a historical context

Factors in the current context of the organization affect the decision
Several stakeholders will have an interest in the decision
Modern information systems enable people to evaluate a range of possible
outcomes

2. The overall process of decision making in, for example, staff selection includes which
of these stages?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Deciding which candidate to appoint

Identifying the need for a new member of staff
Agreeing the job specification
All of these

3. A manager who is helping a customer return some shoes they purchased last week is
dealing with what type of decision?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Bounded rationality
Non-programmed decision
Programmed decision
Uncertainty

4. A solution to a problem that is arrived at through an unstructured process of decision

making is called a:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Bounded rationality
Uncertainty
Non-programmed decision
Programmed decision

5. As a manager moves to higher positions in an organisation the ability to make

.. becomes . important.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Non-programmed; less
Programmed; more
Non-programmed; more
Programmed; much more

6. Decision making situations can be categorized along a scale which ranges from:
a. Uncertainty to certainty to risk
b. Certainty to risk to uncertainty to ambiguity
c. Certainty to uncertainty to risk
d. Certainty to risk to uncertainty
7. When a manager knows little about the intended goals of a decision and the
outcomes of the options are unclear, what type of situation are they in?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Certainty
Ambiguity
Risk
Uncertainty

8. If a manager at Wipro wants to award a contract for printing the company's

promotional literature and has obtained quotations from several printers, the manager
can select a printer and know with .. what the printing should cost.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Ambiguity
Certainty
Uncertainty
Risk

9. In Herbert Simon's theory, a manager who accepts the first satisfactory solution to a
problem has made a decision, while a manager who continues to search for
the best possible solution is seeking to find a .. decision
a.
b.
c.
d.

Maximising; minimising
Satisficing; maximising
Maximising; satisficing
Minimising; maximising

10. The decision making model which emphasises that organizations contain diverse
interest groups who will bargain about goals and alternative actions, often with
incomplete information is known as the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
11. Decision

Administrative or incremental model

Political model
Computational or rational model
Inspirational or garbage can model
making helps the organization to face and tackle new problems and

challenges.
a. True
b. False
12. Decision-making groups may be relatively informal in nature, or formally
designated and charged with a specific goal.
a. True
b. False
13. Group decision-making, ideally, takes disadvantage of the diverse strengths and
expertise of its members.

a. True
b. False
14. Decisions can also be put in a matrix of...
a. urgent
b. non-urgent
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
15. Cross-functional teams working together in problem solving is an example of
.of group decision making.
a) positive implementation
b) negative implementation
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
16. Each member must actively suggest and solicit opinions, inputs and alternatives
during the decision making process.
a) Inclusive
b) Participatory
c) Cooperative
d) None of these
17. The group would only resort to the most logical decision if there is lack of
cooperation from the members.
a) most Logical
b) solution-oriented
c) egalitarian
d) None of these
18. Group polarization may also happen which refers to the tendency of the group to
settle for extreme and high-risk solutions to address problems.
a) True
b) False
19. In many situations, groups are expected to produce creative or imaginative solutions to
organizational problems.

a)
b)
c)
d)

Brain Storming
Delphi technique
Nominal Group Technique (NGT)
None of these

20. PMI tool is not used for arriving at quick decisions that do not quite have problems.
a) True
b) False

Ans
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c)

5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c)

10. (b)

11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 18. (a) 20. (b)

Chapter-11
1. Direct instruction is most appropriate when
a. cooperative learning is not an option.
b. the teacher needs to arouse or heighten student interest.
c. attempting to achieve content mastery and overlearning of fundamental
facts.
d. both b and c.

2. The first step in the direct instruction model is

a.
b.
c.
d.

presenting and structuring new content.

daily review and checking.
guided student practice.
independent practice.

3. In direct teaching, divide and conquer means to

a.
b.
c.
d.

divide the class into small groups.

focus on one idea at a time.
teach half of the lesson one day and half the next day.
both a and b.

4. By introducing a lesson topic in the its most general form and then dividing it into
easy-to-distinguish subdivisions, the teacher is using
a.
b.
c.
d.

part-whole relationships.
sequential relationships.
combinations of relationships.
comparative relationships.

5. Teaching content according to the way in which facts and rules to be learned occur in
the real world is called
a. part-whole relationships.
b. sequential relationships.
c. combinations of relationships.
d. comparative relationships.
6. When attempting to elicit responses from students, Mr. Henry remembers that the
most appropriate way to be successful is to
a. elicit the response in a nonevaluative atmosphere as possible.
b. ask the students that are most likely to answer correctly.
c. check for student understanding by prompting wrong answers to right
ones.
d. both a and c.

7 Modeling
a. is a direct teaching activity.
b. is seldom used by effective teachers.
c. allows students to imitate from demonstration or infer from observation
the behavior to be learned.
d. both a and c.

8. Demonstrations are more likely to be remembered when they

a.
b.
c.
d.

are linked to previous skills they have learned.

include concise labels or vivid images that help them to remember.
are short and to the point.
both a and b.

9. Directing is a key managerial function to be performed by the manager along

with.
a) planning
b) organizing
c) staffing and controlling.
d) All of these
10. Communication is not a basic organizational function. Communication is the
process by which a person transmits information or messages to other persons.
a) True
b) False
11. refers to the direction and flow of official communication amongst
members of an organization.
a) Formal communication
b) Informal communication
c) Both a and b
d) Nome of these
12. The main purpose of managerial leadership is to get willing cooperation of the
workgroup in pursuit of the goals.
a) True
b) False
13. The situational theories or contingency theories began in the .
a) 1959s
b) 1960s
c) 1961s
d) 1962s
14. Motivation requires the use of means to fulfill the needs and desires that may induce
individuals to apply their best abilities in work.
a) True
b) False
15. Motivation helps managers in getting things done more efficiently by the...
a) Customers
b) Users
c) Employees
d) All of these

16. Workers should then be given appropriate training and tools so they can work as
efficiently as possible on one set task.
a) True
b) False
17. An effective leader needs to diagnose the needs and wants of followers and then
react accordingly, remembering all the while that the group is not becoming more
experienced and less dependent on direction.
a) True
b) False
18. Leadership improves the performance of the ..
a)
b)
c)
d)

Consumer
People
Employees
None of these

19. Communication can also be amongst members at the . in the organization.

a) Same level
b) Different level
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
20. Communication is the process by which a person transmits information or messages to other
persons.

a) True
b) False

Ans
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a)

5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b)

11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 18. (a) 20. (a)

Chapter-12
1. "Quality is defined by the customer" is
a. an unrealistic definition of quality

b. a user-based definition of quality

c. a manufacturing-based definition of quality
d. a product-based definition of quality
2. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
a. customer dissatisfaction costs
b. inspection costs
c. scrap costs
d. maintenance costs
3. Inspection, scrap, and repair are examples of
a. internal costs
b. external costs
c. costs of dissatisfaction
d. None of these
4. ISO 9000 seeks standardization in terms of
a. products
b. production procedures
c. suppliers' specifications
d. procedures to manage quality
5. Total Quality Management emphasizes
a. the responsibility of the Quality Control staff to identify and solve all qualityrelated problems
b. a commitment to quality that goes beyond internal company issues to suppliers and
customers
c. a system where strong managers are the only decision makers
d. a process where mostly statisticians get involved 2
6. A successful TQM program incorporates all of the following except
a. continuous improvement
b. employment involvement
c. benchmarking
d. centralized decision making authority
7. The philosophy of zero defects is
a.
b.
c.
d.

unrealistic
prohibitively costly
an ultimate goal; in practice, 1 to 2% defects is acceptable
consistent with the commitment to continuous improvement

8. Quality Circles members are

a. paid according to their contribution to quality
b. external consultants designed to provide training in the use of Quality tools
c. always machine operators
d. none of the above, all of the statements are false
9. The process of identifying other organizations that are best at some facet of your
operations and then modeling your organization after them is known as ..
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.

continuous improvement
employee empowerment
benchmarking
patent infringement
Costs of dissatisfaction, repair costs, and warranty costs are elements of cost in the

a. Taguchi Loss Function

b. Pareto Chart
c. ISO 9000 Quality Cost Calculator
d. Process Chart
11. A quality loss function utilizes all of the following costs except..
a. the cost of scrap and repair
b. the cost of customer dissatisfaction
c. inspection, warranty, and service costs
d. sales costs
e. costs to society 3
12. Pareto charts are used to
a. identify inspection points in a process
b. outline production schedules
c. organize errors, problems or defects
d. show material flow
13. Pareto charts are used to .
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

identify inspection points in a process

organize errors, problems or defects
outline production schedules
show an assembly sequence
provide guidelines for quality training

14. Among the tools of TQM, the tool ordinarily used to aid in understanding the
sequence of events through which a product travels is a ..
a. Pareto chart
b. Flow chart
c. check sheet
d. Taguchi map
15. The process improvement technique that sorts the "vital few" from the "trivial many"
is
a. Taguchi analysis
b. Pareto analysis
c. benchmarking
d. Yamaguchi analysis
16. A fishbone diagram is also known as a .
a. cause-and-effect diagram
b. poka-yoke diagram
c. Kaizen diagram
d. Taguchi diagram
17. Which of the following is true regarding control charts?
a. Values above the upper and lower control limits indicate points out of adjustment.
b. Control charts graphically present data.
c. Control charts plot data over time.
d. All of these
18. The goal of inspection is to ..
a. detect a bad process immediately
b. add value to a product or service
c. correct deficiencies in products
d. correct system deficiencies
19. Which of the following is not a typical inspection point?
a.
b.
c.
d.
20.

upon receipt of goods from your supplier

during the production process
before the product is shipped to the customer
after a costly process

Total Quality Control is one of the most important components of Quality Management. In a
nutshell it can be defined as the most necessary inspection control of all.
a. True

b. False

Ans
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a)

4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c)

10. (c)

11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 18. (d) 20. (a)