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Anantomy Test

This document contains questions and feedback related to anatomy of the head and neck region, neuroanatomy, and hematology. Some key points covered include: - Structures that pass through various openings in the skull - Nerve innervation of muscles in the head and neck - Anatomical landmarks and relationships - Parts of the brain and ventricle system - Causes of anemia and indications of iron overload

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zeeshan78
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118 views6 pages

Anantomy Test

This document contains questions and feedback related to anatomy of the head and neck region, neuroanatomy, and hematology. Some key points covered include: - Structures that pass through various openings in the skull - Nerve innervation of muscles in the head and neck - Anatomical landmarks and relationships - Parts of the brain and ventricle system - Causes of anemia and indications of iron overload

Uploaded by

zeeshan78
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Head & Neck

Anatomy
Q1: Which of the following passes through the inferior orbital fissure?
A Infraorbital nerve
B Mandibular nerve (CN V3)
C Abducens nerve
D Maxillary nerve (CN V2)
Q2: All of the following are innervated by Ansa Cervicalis EXCEPT
A Thyrohyoid
B Sternothyroid
C Omohyoid
D Sternohyoid
FEEDBACK:
Thyrohyoid is the only infrahyoid muscle not innervated by Ansa Cervicalis. It is
innervated by C1
Q3: Which of the following is supplied by a different nerve to the others?
A Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles
B Vocalis muscles
C Cricothyroid muscles
D Oblique arytenoid muscles
FEEDBACK:
All of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve
except the cricothyroid muscles which are supplied by the external laryngeal nerve
Q4: All of the following are located in the posterior triangle of the neck
EXCEPT
A Accessory Nerve (CN XI)
B Upper trunk of brachial plexus
C Apex of lung
D Ansa cervicalis
Q5: Which structure is found at the level of C3?
A Bifurcation of common carotid arteries
B Hyoid bone
C Cricoid cartilage
D Upper border of thyroid cartilage
Q6: The lingual nerve provides
A Motor innervation to the tongue
B Special sense innervation to the tongue
C General and special sense innervation to the tongue
D General sense innervation to the tongue
Q7: Which of the following does not pass through the jugular foramen?
A Accessory Nerve (CN XI)
B Vagus Nerve (CN X)

C Glossopharyneal (CN IX)


D Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)
FEEDBACK:
The hypoglossal nerve passes through the hypoglossal canal
Q8: What is the surface marking for the internal jugular veins?
A Mastoid process to sternoclavicular joint
B Earlobe to sternoclavicular joint
C Mastoid process to mid-clavicle
D Earlobe to mid-clavicle
Q9: Which hole in the skull does the internal carotid artery pass through?
A Foramen lacerum
B Carotid canal
C Foramen magnum
D Foramen ovale
Q10: Which of the following does NOT pass through Foramen Magnum?
A Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)
B Vetebral arteries
C Medulla Oblongata / spinal cord
D Internal jugular veins
FEEDBACK:
The jugular veins pass through the jugular foramen
Q11: What is the first branch of the external carotid artery?
A Lingual artery
B Facial artery
C Maxillary artery
D Superior thyroid artery
Q12: What is Ptosis
A Palsy of the oculomotor nerve
B Double vision
C Dilation of the pupils
D Drooping of the eyelid
Q13: Which of the following is NOT a muscle of mastication?
A Temporalis
B Lateral & medial pterygoids
C Masseter
D Buccinator
Q14: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A The upper border of the thyroid cartilage lies at the level of C4
B The surface landmark of the internal jugular vein runs from the earlobe to the
sternoclavicular joint
C The common carotid arteries bifurcate at the level of C3
D Ansa cervicalis takes roots from C1-C4 spinal nerves
Q15: Asking the patient to look laterally tests...
A Orbicularis orbis muscle
B Levator palpabrae muscle
C Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)

D Abducens Nerve (CN VI)


Q16: Which of the following forms the lateral border of the posterior
triangle of the neck?
A Omohyoid muscle
B Sternocleidomastoid muscle
C Trapezius muscle
D Levator scapulae muscle
Q17: The external jugular veins lie deep to the sternocleidomastoids
A False
B True
FEEDBACK:
The external jugulars run along the surface of the sternocleidomastoids (they are
superficial to it)
Q18: Which of the following does NOT pass through the carotid sheath?
A External jugular vein
B Internal jugular vein
C Vagus nerve
D Common carotid artery
Q19: Which muscle allows for suckling in neonates?
A Buccinator
B Lateral pterygoid
C Occularis orbis
D Masseter
Q20: The superior oblique muscle is innervated by the Abducens nerve (CN
VI)
A True
B False
FEEDBACK:
It is innervated by the Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)
Q21: Which of the following provides sensory innervation to the forehead?
A Ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve
B Temporal branch of facial nerve
C Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve
D Cervical branch of facial nerve
Q22: Depression of the TMJ (opening of the mouth) is enabled by
A Masseter
B Medial pterygoids
C Temporalis
D Lateral pterygoids
Q23: Which of the following is NOT an infrahyoid muscle?
A Thyrohyoid
B Sternothyroid
C Stylohyoid
D Omohyoid

FEEDBACK:
Stylohyoid is a suprahyoid muscle
Q24: Which foramina does CN V3 pass through
A Internal acoustic meatus
B Foramen ovale
C Foramen rotundum
D Superior orbital fissure
Q25: The internal carotid artery has no branches in the neck
A False
B True

Neuroanatomy
Q1: What type of fibres are found in the corpus callosum?
A Commisural
B Transmission
C Projection
D Association
FEEDBACK:
Comissural fibres are those that transmit information from one side of the brain to
the other
Q2: Which of the following is NOT a part of Corpus Striatum?
A Caudate Nucleus
B Globus Pallidus
C Putamen
D Substantia Nigra
Q3: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A The lateral ventricles connect to each other by the interventricular foramina
B A pituitary adenoma may compress the optic chiasm, causing visual field defects
C The primary somatosensory area is found on the post-central gyrus of the frontal
lobe
D The infundibulum is also known as the pineal stalk
Q4: Where is the primary auditory cortex located?
A On the cingulate gyrus
B On the middle gyrus of the temporal lobe
C On the superior gyrus of the temporal lobe
D On the parahippocampal gyrus
Q5: What is the name of the dense white matter structure containing
projection fibres from the cerebrum to the lower brain?
A Hypothalamic commisure
B Anterior commisure
C Internal capsule
D Globus pallidus
Q6: Which of the following structures is most lateral?
A Caudate nucleus

B Putamen
C Thalamus
D Lateral ventricle
Q7: Where is CSF produced?
A Epididymal cells of choroid plexuses
B Ependymal cells of choroid plexuses
C Arachnoid granulations in the ventricles
D Arachnoid granulations in venous sinuses
Q8: The third and fourth ventricles are connected by
A The interventricular foramina
B The central canal
C The cerebral aqueduct
D The obex
Q9: The lentiform nucleus is composed of which two structures
A Globus pallidus and putamen
B Putamen and lateral ventricles
C Caudate nucleus and putamen
D Globus pallidus and caudate nucleus
Q10: The calcarine sulcus is a feature of
A the parietal lobe
B the occipital lobe
C the temporal lobe
D the frontal lobe
Q11: What is apraxia?
A Inability to move skeletal muscles, resulting from damage to the primary motor
area
B Inability to carry out purposeful movements, resulting from damage damage to the
secondary motor areas
C Inability to carry out purposeful movements, resulting from damage damage to the
primary motor areas
D Inability to move skeletal muscles, resulting from damage to the secondary motor
area
Q12: The prefrontal cortex is involved in
A Olfaction
B Integration of information from different modalities
C Memory
D Regulation of moods and feelings
Q13: Which of the following is not true about Broca's area?
A Found on both hemispheres
B Located between the auditory cortex and the angular gyrus
C Involved with production of speech
D Damage results in aphasia

HAEMATOLOGY

Reticulocytosis is seen in all except :


a) P.N.H.
b) Hemolysis
c) Nutritional anemia
d) Dyserythropoietic syndrome

A 21 year old male presents with anemia and mild hepatosplenomegaly. His
hemoglobin is 5 gm/dL history of single blood transfusion is present till
date. Most probable diagnosis is :
a) Thalassemia major
b) Thalassemia minor
c) Thalasseniia intermedia
d) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A patient presents with increased serum ferritin, decreased TIBC,


increased serum iron, % saturation increased. Most probable diagnosis is
a) Anemia of chronic disease
b) Sideroblastic anemia
c) Iron deficiency anemia
d) Thalassemia minor

Earliest phenotypic manifestation of Idiopathic hereditary


hemochromatosis is :
a) Post prandial increase in serum iron concentration
b) Elevated serum ferritin level
c) Slate grey pigmentation of skin
d) Increased transferrin saturation

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