Solutions Manual 1ed
Solutions Manual 1ed
Solutions Manual 1ed
Contents
1 Finance
3 On Value Additivity
5 Present Value
6 Capital Budgeting
15
20
24
9 Introduction to derivatives.
27
10 Pricing Derivatives
33
35
38
13 Warrants
39
41
48
54
59
64
68
69
72
Finance
Chapter 1
Finance
Chapter 2
On Value Additivity
Chapter 3
On Value Additivity
Problems
3.1 Ketchup [2]
As an empirical investigation, check your local supermarket. Does 2 ketchup bottles of 0.5 litres cost the same
as one ketchup bottle of 1 liter? What does this tell you about value additivity in financial markets?
3.2 Milk [2]
Why is skimmed milk always cheaper than regular milk even if it is healthier?
Solutions
3.1 Ketchup [2]
3.2 Milk [2]
Chapter 4
Solutions
4.1 Interest Rates [2]
Remember the first lesson about market efficiency: Markets have no memory. Just because long-term interest rates
are high relative to past levels does not mean that they wont go higher still. Unless you have special information
indicating that long-term rates are too high, issuing long-term bonds should be a zero-NPV transaction. So
should issuing short-term debt or common stock.
4.2 Semistrong [3]
All of these are public information, you do not expect them to explain future changes in stock price. Hence, can
not expect to make excess returns using this information. You can only use private information to generate excess
returns.
4.3 UPS [3]
Once the announcement is made and the price has reacted (downward) to the lower (discounted) future dividend
stream, there is no further effect. The average return over the next five years will still be determined solely by
risk and not by the fact that dividends will be $2 million lower. For instance, if risk continues to be high, average
returns will also be.
4.4 Management [3]
The evidence that the 17 well-managed firms did not outperform the market merely confirms an implication of
the efficient markets hypothesis: Average returns are only determined by risk. The fact that the firms were run
by good managers was known 8 years earlier and already properly reflected in prices at that time.
4.5 TTC [3]
1. The changes in the accounting treatment do not change cash flows, even if reported earnings change. A
possible channel for cash flow changes could have been the timing of taxes, but that is explicitly ruled out.
The stock price should therefore not be affected by the accounting change.
4.6 Investing? [3]
No. Average returns are determined solely by risk. If there is a lot of risk, average returns are high, etc. The
economic situation does not affect average returns.
Present Value
Chapter 5
Present Value
Problems
5.1 Present Value [3]
You are given the following prices Pt today for receiving risk free payments t periods from now.
t
Pt
=
=
1
0.95
2
0.9
3
0.85
1. Calculate the implied interest rates and graph the term structure of interest rates.
2. Calculate the present value of the following cash flows:
t
Xt
=
=
1
100
2
100
3
100
=
=
1
0.95
2
0.9
3
0.95
There are traded securities that offer $1 at any future date, available at these prices.
1. How would you make a lot of money?
5.4 Bank loans [2]
Your company is in need of financing of environmental investments. Three banks have offered loans. The first
bank offers 4.5% interest, with biannual compounding. The second bank offers 4.3% interest, with monthly
compounding. The third bank offers 4.25% with annual compounding.
1. Determine which is is the best offer.
5.5 Bonds [4]
You are given the following information about three bonds.
Bond
A
B
C
Year of
Maturity
2
2
3
Coupon
10%
20%
8%
Yield to
Bond
Maturity
Price
7.5862% 1, 043.29
7.6746% 1, 220.78
9.7995% 995.09
Coupons are paid at the end of the year (including the year of maturity). All three bonds have a face value of
1,000 at maturity.
Present Value
1. Find the time zero prices, P1 , P2 , and P3 , of one dollar to be delivered in years 1, 2, and 3, respectively.
2. Find the 1, 2, and 3 year spot rates of interest r1 , r2 and r3 .
5.6 Stock [4]
A stock has just paid a dividend of 10. Dividends are expected to grow with 10% a year for the next 2 years.
After that the company is expecting a constant growth of 2% a year. The required return on the stock is 10%.
Determine todays stock price.
5.7 Bonds [6]
You observe the following three bonds:
Bond
A
B
C
Price
95
90
85
Cashflow in period
1
2
3
100
0
0
10 110
0
10
10
110
Cashflow in period
1
2
3
20 20
520
Cashflow in period
1
2
3
4
10 10 10 110
2. If the market does not allow any free lunches (arbitrage), what is the maximal price that bond E can have?
5.8 Growing perpetuity [8]
The present value of a perpetuity that pays X1 the first year and then grows at a rate g each year is:
PV =
X
X1 (1 + g)t1
(1 + r)t
t=1
X1
rg
T
X
t=1
X
1 1
1
=X
(1 + r)t
r
r (1 + r)T
Present Value
T
X
X(1 + g)(t1)
(1 + r)t
t=1
Face
value
1000
1000
1000
Solutions
5.1 Present Value [3]
1. The implied interest rates rt are found as:
P1 = 0.95 =
r1 =
1
1 + r1
1
1 = 5.26%
0.95
P2 = 0.9 =
r
r2 =
1
1 + r2
2
1
1 = 5.41%
0.9
Annual
coupon rate
4%
7.5%
8.5%
Maturity
Price
1 year
17 years
25 years
990
990
990
Present Value
P3 = 0.85 =
r
r3 =
1
1 + r3
3
1
1 = 5.57%
0.85
1
1.0526
+ 100
1
1.0541
2
+ 100
1
1.0557
3
265
0.1
4
4
1 10.38%
When borrowing, one wants the lowest possible interest rate, which means that the 10.5% interest rate offered
by BankThree is dominated by the 10.38% interest rate (in annual terms) offered by BankTwo.
5.3 Arbitrage [4]
1. This data implies an arbitrage opportunity. Note that the price of the risk free security offering $1 in period
3 is higher than the price of the risk free security offering $1 in period 2. What does this mean? It means
you have to pay less today for receiving money sooner! To make a lot of money, short the risk free security
for period 3, and use $0.9 of the $0.95 proceeds to buy the period 2 risk free security. The $1 you get in
period 2 can be kept as money and used to cover your obligation in period 3. For each of these transactions
you get $0.05 now. To get very rich, do a lot of these transactions.
5.4 Bank loans [2]
1. Annualize the interest rates to make them comparable:
First bank:
2
0.045
1+
1 = 4.55%
2
Second bank:
12
0.043
1+
1 = 4.39%
12
Third bank
4.25%
The offer from the third bank is preferable.
10
Present Value
Bond
Period
1
2
3
100 1100
200 1200
80
80 1080
1
2
3
=
100P1 + 1100P2
=
200P1 + 1200P2
= 80P1 + 80P2 + 1080P3
= 100P1 + 1100P2
= 200P1 + 1200P2
2 1043.29 1220.78
= 0.8658
1000
1
1 + r1
Present Value
r1 =
11
1
1 = 9.89%
0.9091
P2 = 0.8658 =
r
r2 =
P3 = 0.7529 =
r3 =
2
1
1 = 7.47%
0.8658
1
1 + r2
1
1 + r3
3
1
1 = 9.92%
0.7529
12.34
D3
=
= 154.27
rg
0.1 0.02
P0 =
D1
D2 + P2
11
12.1 + 154.27
+
=
+
= 10 + 137.5 = 147.5
1.1
1.12
1.1
1.12
100
0
0
0
C = 10 110
10
10 110
and the vector B contain the bond prices:
95
B = 90
85
For a given vector P of prices of zero coupon bonds
P1
P = P2
P3
we leave it to the reader to confirm that the bond prices B can be found as:
B = CP.
12
Present Value
0
110
10
0
0
110
B =
95
90
85
calculate P as:
P = inv(C)*B
0.95000
0.73182
0.61983
The current value of receiving one dollar at time 3 is thus 0.61983.
If we now consider bond E. It lasts for 4 periods, one period more than we have data for. Since holding money
is always an option, the current value of receiving one dollar at time 4 can never be more than the current value
of receiving one dollar at time 3, which is 0.61983. This can easily be argued by arbitrage arguments. We can
therefore use the discount factors P given by
Pstar =
0.95000
0.73182
0.61983
0.61983
to find the maximal price the bond can have
Defining the cash flows of the new bond as
C =
10
10
10
110
Present Value
13
1
1
) = X1
1+r
1+r
r
1
= X1
1+r
1+r
P V = X1
1
r
= X [ 1r ]
Perpetuity
from T+1 onwards
Annuity
1
1
= X [ (1+r)
T r]
h
i
1
1
= X 1r (1+r)
T r
T +1
Value
5
= 55.56
0.14 0.05
= X [ 1r ]
Perpetuity
from T+1 onwards
Annuity
1
1
= X [ (1+r)
T r]
h
i
1
1
= X 1r (1+r)
T r
T +1
Value
Now we want to adjust this for the fact that the annuity also grows by g each period
Time
Growing perpetuity from
1 onwards
1
X
T +1
Value
X(1 + g)T
1
= X [ rg
]
X(1 + g)T
= X
= X
Growing perpetuity
from T + 1 onwards
Annuity
h
(1+g)T 1
(1+r)T rg
1
rg
1+g
1+r
T
1
rg
14
Present Value
55000
= 45248.64
(1 + 0.05)4
She needs to invest 45248.64 today at 5% to have 55000 4 years from now.
2. Solve directly. Let C be the amount invested.
C 1.054 + 1.053 + 1.052 + 1.05 = 55000
C=
55000
4.5256
C = 12, 153
Can also be calculated using annuities from an annuity table. The annuity factor A for an interest rate of
r = 0.05 and n = 4 years is 3.54595.
P V = C A(1 + r)
The (1 + r) is because the investment is at the beginning of the period.
(1 + r)4 P V = F V = 55000 = C A(1 + r)(1 + r)4
C=
55000
55000
=
= 12, 153.
A(1 + r)4
3.54595 (1 + 0.05)5
1040
= 971.96
1.07
PB = 75Ar=7%,n=17 +
1000
= 75 9.76322 + 316.57 = 1048.82
1.0717
PC = 85Ar=7%,n=25 +
1000
= 85 11.6536 + 184.25 = 1174.80
1.0725
Capital Budgeting
15
Chapter 6
Capital Budgeting
Problems
6.1 Projects [2]
Two projects A and B have the following cashflows:
A
B
X0
4, 000
2, 000
X1
2, 500
1, 200
X2
3, 000
1, 500
1. Find the Payback periods for the two projects. Which project has the shortest payback period?
2. Calculate the Internal Rate of Return on the two projects. Which project has the higher IRR?
3. The discount rate is 10%. How would the NPV rule rank these two projects?
6.2 Projects [3]
A project costs 100 today. The project has positive cash flows of 100 in years one and two. At the end of the life
of the project there are large environmental costs resulting in a negative cash flow in year 3 of 95. Determine
the internal rate(s) of return for the project.
6.3 Machine [4]
A company is considering its options for a machine to use in production. At a cost of 47 they can make some
small repairs on their current machine which will make it last for 2 more years. At a higher cost of 90 they can
make some more extensive repairs on their current machine which will make it last for 4 more years. A new
machine costs 300 and will last for 8 years. The company is facing an interest rate of 10%. Determine the best
action.
6.4 PI and NPV [2]
Show that a project with a positive NPV will always have a profitability index greater than 1.
6.5 Project [4]
A project has a cost of 240. It will have a life of 3 years. The cost will be depreciated straightline to a zero
salvage value, and is worth 40 at that time. Cash sales will be 200 per year and cash costs will run 100 per year.
The firm will also need to invest 60 in working capital at year 0. The appropriate discount rates is 8%, and the
corporate tax rate is 40%. What is the projects NPV?
6.6 C&C [4]
The C&C company recently installed a new bottling machine. The machines initial cost is 2000, and can be
depreciated on a straightline basis to a zero salvage in 5 years. The machines per year fixed cost is 1500, and
its variable cost is 0.50 per unit. The selling price per unit is 1.50. C&Cs tax rate is 34%, and it uses a 16%
discount rate. Calculate the machines accounting breakeven point on the new machine (i.e., the production
rate such that the accounting profits are zero), as well as the present value breakeven point(i.e., the production
rate such that the NPV is zero).
16
Capital Budgeting
Solutions
6.1 Projects [2]
1. Payback. For project A it takes 1.5 years before the initial investment is recouped, for project B it takes
1.53 years.
Project
A
B
2. Internal rate of return
Project A:
0=
2500
3000
4000
+
1 + IRR (1 + IRR)2
IRR = 23.32%
Project B:
0=
1200
1500
+
2000
1 + IRR (1. + IRR)2
IRR = 21.65%
3. Net present value
N P VA =
2500
3
+
4000 752
1.1
(1.1)2
N P VB =
1200
1.5
+
2000 330
1.1
(1.1)2
Payback
1.5 years
1.53 years
Capital Budgeting
17
95
100
100
+
2
1 + y (1 + y) (1 + y)3
10
5
0
-5
NPV-10
-15
-20
-25
-30
-30
-20
-10
0
interest
10
20
30
0
47
2
47
N P V = 47 +
4
47
6
47
47
47
47
+
+
= 144.475
(1 + 0.1)2
(1 + 0.1)4
(1 + 0.1)6
Larger repairs
t
Ct
=
=
0 1 2 3
90 0 0 0
N P V = 90 +
4
90
90
= 151.471
(1 + 0.1)4
PV
C0
N P V = P V C0
If N P V > 0 then P V > C0 and hence
PV
C0
> 1.
18
Capital Budgeting
240
0.4 = 92 (t = 1, 2)
3
c3 = c2 + 40(1 0.4) + 60 = 92 + 84
1
1
1
84
N P V = 300 +
+
+
92 +
=4
2
3
1.08 1.08
1.08
1.083
6.6 C&C [4]
Accounting break-even:
2000
1500 + x(15 0.5) = 0
5
x = 1900
NPV break even (note use of accounting profits to compute taxes):
c0 = 2000
2000
ct = x(1.5 0.5) 1500 0.34 x(1.5 0.5) 1500
5
Capital Budgeting
19
1
1
+
1.13 1.132
+ 15.84
1
1.133
+ 1.36
1
1
1
+
+
1.18 1.182
1.183
20
Chapter 7
E[r]
12.5%
16%
15%
20%
Plot, in a mean standard deviation diagram, expected return and standard deviation for portfolios with weights in
A of 0, 0.25, 0.5, 0.75 and 1.0. Do this for correlations between the returns of A and B of 1, 0 and +1. What
does this tell you about how diversification possibilities varies with covariances?
7.2 CAPM [2]
The current risk free interest rate is 5%. The expected return on the market portfolio is 14%. What is the
expected return of a stock with a beta value of 0.5?
7.3 Beta [2]
Stock A has an expected rate of return of 15%. Todays expected return on the market portfolio is 10%. The
current risk free interest rate is 7,5%. What is the beta of stock A?
7.4 Project [3]
A project with a beta of 1.5 has cash flows 100 in year 1, 200 i year 3, 500 in year 4 and 100 in year 6. The
current expected market return is 10%. The risk free interest rate is 5%. What is the highest cost that makes
this project worth investing in?
7.5 Portfolio [2]
Stock A has an expected return of 10% and a standard deviation of 5%. Stock B has an expected return of 15%
and a standard deviation of 20%. The correlation between the two is shares is 0.25. You can invest risk free at
a 5% interest rate. What is the standard deviation for a portfolio with weights 25% in A, 25% in B and 50% in
the risk free asset?
7.6 Q [2]
Equity in the company Q has an expected return of 12%, a beta of 1.4 and a standard deviation of 20%. The
current risk free interest is 10%.
1. What is the current expected market return?
7.7 Line [4]
You can invest in two assets. One is a risk free asset yielding an interest rate of rf . The other is an asset with
expected return E[r1 ] and standard deviation 1 . Show that combinations of these two assets map as a straight
line in a mean-standard deviation plot.
7.8 1&2 [2]
21
A portfolio is made up of 125% of stock 1 and 25% of stock 2. Stock 1 has a standard deviation of 0.3,
and stock 2 has a standard deviation of 0.05. The correlation between the stocks is 0.50. Calculate both the
variance and the standard deviation of the portfolio.
7.9 A, B & C [4]
You are given the following information about three stocks
Stock
A
B
C
Expected
Return
0.06
0.1
0.2
Standard
Deviation
0
0.1
0.375
Solutions
7.1 Portfolio [3]
22
0.15 0.075
r rf
=
=3
(E[rm ] rf )
0.1 0.075
500
100
100
200
+
+
= 590.83
+
1 + 0.125 (1.125)3
(1.125)4
(1.125)6
0.12 0.1
E[r] rf
+ rf =
+ 0.1 = 11.4%
1.4
1
1
rA + rB
2
2
1
1
rA + rC
2
2
1
1
rB + rC
2
2
23
24
Chapter 8
Security
1
2
Price
5
4
Payoff in state
A
B
10
10
10
6
1. Determine the prices of digital securities that pays off in the two states.
2. Determine the current risk free interest rate.
3. What is the current price of a security that pays $ 20 in state A and $ 25 in state B?
8.2 Probability [6]
Let I s be the current price of a digital option that pays 1 if state s occurs. ps is the time 1 value of investing I s
s
s
at
P time 0, p = I (1 + r), where r is the one period risk free interest rate. Show that the sum over all states s,
s ps , sum to one.
8.3 Digital options [3]
There are three possible states next period. The risk free interest rate is 5%, and there are two digital options
traded, with prices 0.43 and 0.33. What is the price of a digital option for the third state?
8.4 Price [2]
An asset has two possible values next period, X u = 50 and X d = 500. If you are told that the state price
probability in the u state is 0.4 and the risk free interest rate is 10%, what is the value of the asset?
Solutions
8.1 States [4]
Note: The solution is shown by exerpts from the calculation as done in a matlab-like environment.
If we let A be the matrix of payoffs,
A =
10
10
10
6
25
Ps =
r=
1
1
1=
1 = 2 1 = 1 = 100%
Ps
0.5
3. To find the price of a security that pays C = (20, 25), just multiply q with the payoffs
> C
C =
20 25
> q
q =
0.25000
0.25000
> C*q
ans = 11.250
8.2 Probability [6]
Know that
X
Is =
1
1+r
I s = (1 + r)
1
1+r
or
X
I s (1 + r) =
1+r
=1
1+r
Replacing I s (1 + r) with ps :
X
s
ps = 1
26
1
1+r
equals the sum of the digital options for all states, solve for P as
1
= 0.43 + 0.33 + P
1 + 0.05
P =
1
0.43 0.33 0.1924
1 + 0.05
1
1
320
pu X u + pd X d
(0.4 50 + (1 0.4) 500) =
= 290.91
1+r
1 + 0.1
1.1
Introduction to derivatives.
27
Chapter 9
Introduction to derivatives.
Problems
9.1 XYZ option [2]
The current price of an American call option with exercise price 50, written on ZXY stock is 4. The current price
of one ZXY stock is 56. How would you make a lot of money?
9.2 Put lower bound [5]
Show that the following is an lower bound on a put price
Pt
K
St
(1 + r)(T t)
where Pt is the current put price, K is the exercise price, r is the risk free interest rate, (T t) is the time to
maturity and St is the current price of the underlying security.
9.3 Options [4]
A put is worth $10 and matures in one year. A call on the same stock is worth $15 and matures in one year also.
Both options are European. The put and call have the same exercise price of $40. The stock price is $50. The
current price of a (risk free) discount bond (zero coupon bond) paying $1 that matures in one year is $0.90. How
do you make risk free profits given these prices?
9.4 Put Upper bound [5]
Show that the following is an upper bound for the price of a put option
Pt
K
(1 + r)(T t)
where Pt is the current put price, K is the exercise price, r is the risk free interest rate and (T t) is the time
to maturity of the option.
9.5 American put. [4]
An American put option with exercise price 50 has a time to maturity of one year. The price of the underlying
security has fallen to 10 cents. The risk free interest rate is 5%.
Show that it is optimal to exercise this option early.
9.6 Convexity [8]
Consider three European options written on the same underlying security. The options mature on the same date.
The options have different exercise prices X1 , X2 and X3 . Assume X1 < X2 < X3 . All other features of the
options are identical.
Let be a number between 0 and 1 satisfying
X2 = X1 + (1 )X3
Show that the following inequality must hold to avoid arbitrage (free lunches):
C(X2 ) C(X1 ) + (1 )C(X3 ),
where C(X) is the price for an option with exercise price X.
28
Introduction to derivatives.
Solutions
9.1 XYZ option [2]
Buy the option for 4, exercise immediately paying 50 to get the stock, sell the stock for 56. Net proceeds
4 50 + 56 = 2. Repeat indefinitely.
9.2 Put lower bound [5]
To show this, consider the following strategies.
Short stock
Invest K
Total
Buy put
Payments
Time t
Time T
S
ST
K
K (1+r)1(T t)
r(T t)
S Ke
K ST
p
max(0, K ST )
ST < K
K ST (> 0)
K ST
ST K
K ST ( 0)
0
pK
1
(1 + r)(T t)
1
S
(1 + r)(T t)
Introduction to derivatives.
29
6Put
K
K (1+r)1(T t)
@
@
@
@
@
@
@
@
@
@
ST
S P V (X) = 50 P V (40) 10
No need to calculate PV(40), since it must be less than or equal 40, but can do it using
r=
1
1 = 11.11%
0.9
S P V (X) = 50
40
= 14
1 + 0.1111
pK
1
(1 + r)(T t)
30
Introduction to derivatives.
6Put
K
K (1+r)1(T t) @
@
@
@
@
@
@
@
@
@
K (1+r)1(T t)
ST
T
X 2 S T < X3
(ST X2 )
(ST X1 )
0
X 3 ST
(ST X2 )
(ST X1 )
(1 )(ST X3 )
Introduction to derivatives.
31
Case X2 < ST < X3 : Total payoff is positive. This takes a bit of algebra to show.
Total payoff:
(ST X2 ) + (ST X1 ) = X2 ST + (ST X1 )
First, using the definition of , substitute for in terms of the Xes:
X2 = X1 + (1 )X3
=
X3 X2
X3 X1
X3 X2
X3 X1
(ST X1 )
28
X2
= 1 + 30
= 7.7
1+R
1.2
But C(X1 ) = 8!
9.8 M$ option [4]
Under absence of arbitrage opportunities,
C SK
1
(1 + r)T t
8 104 100
1
= 8.65
1.10.5
No arbitrage is violated. Exploit by buying a call and investing in K bonds with face value $1, sell short stock.
32
Introduction to derivatives.
1
2 < 55 1
(1 + 0.1)0.5
OK.
= 2.56.
Pricing Derivatives
33
Chapter 10
Pricing Derivatives
Problems
10.1 MLK [4]
The current price of security MLK is 100. Next period the security will either be worth 120 or 90. The risk free
interest rate is 33.33%. There are two digital options traded. One pays $1 if MLK is at 120 next period. This
option is trading at 0.35. The other pays $1 if MLK is at 90 next period. This option is trading at 0.40.
1. Price a put option on MLK with exercise price K = 90.
2. Price a put option on MLK with exercise price K = 100.
3. Price a call option on MLK with exercise price K = 100.
4. Price a call option on MLK with exercise price K = 120.
Solutions
10.1 MLK [4]
Value of MLK
* 120
H 100
HH
H
HH
H
j 90
H
* 0.35
H
HH
H
HH
H
j 0.40
H
34
Pricing Derivatives
H
H
H
j max(0, 90 90) = 0
H
Note that this option never has any future positive payoffs, its value today is zero.
2. The put option with exercise price K = 100 has terminal payoffs:
* max(0, 100 120) = 0
HH
HH
HH
H
j max(0, 100 90) = 10
H
It value is calculated by noting that this option is equal to 10 units of the digital options paying off in the
lowest state. This option has a price of 0.35.
value = 10 0.35 = 3.50
3. The call option with exercise price K = 100 has terminal payoffs:
* max(0, 120 100) = 20
H
HH
H
HH
H
j max(0, 90 100) = 0
H
and value
value = 20 0.40 = 8.00
4. The final call option is never in the money, and is therefore valued at zero today.
35
Chapter 11
2. Price a (two period) put option on MLK with exercise price K = 100.
3. Price a (two period) call option on MLK with exercise price K = 100.
4. Price a (two period) call option on MLK with exercise price K = 120.
Solutions
11.1 MLK [5]
Value of MLK
* 120
* HH
H100
HH
H
HH
HH
j
H
HH
HH
H
HH
j 100
H
*
HH
j 90
H
36
*
* HH
H
H
j 0.25
H
*
H
j
H
H
H
H
j 0.25
H
* HH
H
HH
HH
HH
HH
j
H
HH
HH
H
HH
j max(0, 90 100) = 0
H
*
HH
j max(0, 90 90) = 0
H
Note that this option never has any future positive payoffs, its value today is zero.
2. The put option with exercise price K = 100 has terminal payoffs:
* max(0, 100 120) = 0
HH
HH
* HH
HH
HH
H
j max(0, 100 100) = 0
H
*
HH
H
j
H
HH
HH
HH
H
j max(0, 100 90) = 10
H
It value is calculated by noting that this option is equal to 10 units of the digital options paying off in the
lowest state. This option has a price of 0.25.
value = 10 0.25 = 2.50
3. The call option with exercise price K = 100 has terminal payoffs:
37
max(0, 120 100) = 20
*
* HH
H
H
H
j max(0, 100 100) = 0
H
*
H
j
H
H
H
H
j max(0, 90 100) = 0
H
and value
value = 20 0.35 = 7.00
4. The final call option is never in the money, and is therefore valued at zero today.
38
Chapter 12
Solutions
12.1 MOP [4]
Given
r = 4%
u
* S = 90
H S0 = 50
HH
HH
H
H
j S u = 40
H
S0 = 50 =
1
(pu 90 + (1 pu )50)
1+r
50 1.04 40
= 0.24
50
Warrants
39
Chapter 13
Warrants
Problems
13.1 Option/Warrant [2]
Consider a warrant and a call option, both written on IBM stock,
(a) Which of these securities has been issued by IBM?
Consider two scenarios.
(1) You own a warrant on IBM with maturity 6 months and exercise price 100.
(2) You own a call option on IBM with maturity 6 months and exercise price 100.
(b) Will you be indifferent between these two alternatives?
(c) If not, which one would you prefer?
13.2 Warrants [6]
A firm has issued 500 shares of stock, 100 warrants and a straight bond. The warrants are about to expire and
all of them will be exercised. Each warrant entitles the holder to 5 shares at $25 per share. The market value of
the firms assets is 25,000. The market value of the straight bond is 8,000. That of equity is 15,000.
1. Determine the postexercise value of a share of equity.
2. What is the mispricing of equity?
3. From the proceeds of immediate exercise, value the warrant.
4. Now assume that the market value of debt becomes $9,000, to reflect the increase in the value of the firm
upon warrant exercise (which lowers the probability of bankruptcy). Recompute the value of the warrants
and of equity.
Solutions
13.1 Option/Warrant [2]
Warrants are call-options issued by corporations. They entitle buyers to purchase newly created stock of the firm
at a given strike price at a certain date.
1. The warrant is issued by IBM, the call is a pure side-bet on the stock price.
2. The call. When a warrant is exercised, new stock is created, which decreases the value of each share. It is
therefore less valuable to exercise a warrant than a (straight) option.
13.2 Warrants [6]
1. The new value of the firm V 0 , equals the pre-exercise value of the firm, V , plus the proceeds from exercise:
V 0 = V + 500 25 = 25, 000 + 12, 500 = 37, 500
40
Warrants
Using value additivity, the new value of equity, E 0 , can be obtained from V 0 and teh value of the bonds, B:
E 0 = V 0 B = 37, 500 8, 000 = 29, 500
So, the new per-share value, s0 , is
s0 =
E0
29, 500
=
= 29.5
500 + 100 5
1, 000
2. The old share value, s, is 15,000/500 = 30. That is 0.50 to much, knowning that the shares will be worth
only 29.5 after exercise of the warrants.
3. The warrants generate 5 $29.5 per piece, i.e., $147.5. For that, the older pays 5 $25, i.e., $125. So the
warrants value is (147.5 125) = 22.
4. Since B changes to B 0 = 9000, the new value of equity is
E 0 = V 0 B 0 = 37, 500 9, 000 = 28, 500
Hence, the per share value is s0 = 28.5. The new value of the warrants is
5 $28.5 5 $25 = 142.5 125 = $17.5
41
Chapter 14
42
Solutions
14.1 ud [1]
* 60
50
H
HH
H
HH
H
j 48
H
S u = 60 = uS0 = u50
u=
60
= 1.2
50
d=
48
= 0.96
50
H S0 = 50
HH
HH
H
and
pu =
1.05 0.9
= 0.75
1.1 0.9
H
j S d 47.50
H
43
pd = 1 pu = 1 0.75 = 0.25
First find the call payoff at the terminal date:
C u = max(0, 55.5 50) = 5
C d = max(0, 47.5 50) = 0
u
* C =5
H
HH
HH
H
j Cd = 0
H
1
1
pu C u + pd C d =
(0.75 5 + 0.25 0) = 3.33
1+r
1.05
*
C
H 0 = 3.33
HH
HH
H
H
j
H
Note: The interest rate was originally given as 10% in the first edition of the book. Can you see why this would
give you problems in solving this?
14.3 Call option [4]
We have the following payoff next period:
u
* S = 175
H S0 = 160
HH
HH
H
H
j S d = 150
H
44
H C0 =?
H
H
H
H
j C d = max(0,150 155) = 0
H
(a) How to get a risk free hedge by buying m call options? Need payoff in each period to be equal
S d + mC d = S u + mC u
Sd Su
150 175
=
= 1.25
u
d
C C
20 0
m=
150
= 0.9375
160
1
1
(qC u + (1 q)C d ) =
(0.784 20) = 14.79
1+r
1 + 0.06
(c) With an exercise price of 180, the call will never be exercised. It is worthless.
14.4 Calls, hedge [6]
A perfect hedge implies that total payoffs are equal in each state.
Cashflows are
now
Sell 3 calls
Buy stock
Borrow
60
200
140
0
Maturity
ST = 75
ST = 150
0
-150
150
300
140(1 + r) 140(1 + r)
150 140(1 + r)
45
Something that costs nothing to establish now, should have a zero payoff in the future. (By no arbitrage).
Hence,
150 140(1 + r) = 0
140(1 + r) = 150
150
140
150
r=
= 17.1%
140
1+r =
H S0 = 96
HH
HH
H
H
j S d = 95
H
Find u and d:
u=
120
= 1.25
96
d=
95
= 0.989583333333
96
Then find pu . Need to find the risk free rate for a 5 week period, approximate as
r
5 0.06
= 0.005769
52
pu =
1.005769 0.989
(1 + r) d
=
= 0.077
ud
1.25 0.989
1
1
(pu C u + (1 pu )C d ) =
(0.077 8 + 0) = 0.6109
1+r
1+r
46
14.6 [4]
u
* S = 42
H S = 40
H
H
H
H
H
j S d = 38
H
r = 8%
X = 39
T t = 1 month
u=
42
Su
=
= 1.05
S
40
d=
Sd
38
=
= 0.95
S
40
q=
e0.08 12 0.95
ert d
=
= 0.567
ud
1.05 0.95
1 q = 0.433
C0 = ert (qC u + (1 q)C d )
Cu = 3
Cd = 0
1
1
E [max(32 S, 0)
1+R
1
(0.5741 0 + (1 0.5741)(32 25)) = 2.91
1.05
1
1
(1 + r) 2
E [S] =
1
(0.5741 35 + (1 0.5741)25) = 30.00
1.05
47
48
Chapter 15
Solutions
15.1 ud [2]
S0 = 100
uuS0 = S uu
uu100 = 121
r
121
u=
= 1.1
100
r
d=
81
= 0.9
100
uu
* S = 121
u = uS0 = 110
* HS
H
H
H
H
H
H
j S ud = 99
H
0 = 100
HS
*
H
HH
HH
d
H
j S
H
H = 90
HH
HH
H
H
j S dd = 81
H
15.2 Call [3]
First we find the possible evolution of the price of the underlying
S u = uS0 = 1.1 50 = 55
S d = dS0 = 0.95 50 = 47.50
uu
* S = 55 1.1 = 60.5
u
S
* HH = 55
HH
HH
S
H 0 = 50
HH
H
HH
H
j S ud = 55 0.95 = 52.25
H
*
H
j S d 47.50
H
H
HH
HH
H
j S dd = 47.5 0.95 = 45.125
H
and
pu =
1.05 0.9
= 0.75
1.1 0.9
pd = 1 pu = 1 0.75 = 0.25
First find the call payoff at the terminal date:
C uu = max(0, 60.5 50) = 10.5
49
50
* HH
H
H
H
j C ud = 2.25
H
*
H
j
H
H
HH
HH
H
j C dd = 0
H
And then roll back by first finding the two possible call values in the first period
Cu =
1
1
pu C uu + pd C ud =
(0.75 10.5 + 0.25 2.25) = 8.04
1+r
1.05
Cd =
1
1
pu C du + pd C dd =
(0.75 2.25 + 0.25 0) = 1.61
1+r
1.05
u
* C = 8.04
H
HH
HH
H
j C d = 1.61
H
1
1
pu C u + pd C d =
(0.75 8.04 + 0.25 1.61) = 6.13
1+r
1.05
*
H C0 = 6.13
HH
HH
H
H
j
H
Note: The interest rate was originally given as 10% in the first edition of the book. Can you see why this would
give you problems in solving this?
51
Su = 11250
* HH
H
H
H
H
H
j S = 9000
H
ud
HS = 9000
*
H
H
H
H
H
H
j Sd = 7200
H
H
H
H
H
HH
H
j Sdd = 5760
H
Start by calculating the value of an option at time 1, with exercise price 9000.
6
q=
ert d
e0.2 12 0.8
=
= 0.678
ud
1.25 0.8
1 q = 0.322
Cu
Cd = 0
You are now offered to pay C0 for the ability to choose to pay $1,500 in month 6 for this option.
This can be analyzed on a tree. Clearly, you will not pay 1,500 in the down state, but will pay it in the up-state.
H C0 =?
HH
H
HH
H
j 0
H
= ert (q 1605.74 + (1 q) 0)
= e0.20.5 (0.678 1605.74 + 0)
= 985.08
52
H C0 =?
H
H
H
H
j 1500
H
C0
15.4 HS [4]
Consider the possible evolution of the underlying stock.
* 225
* H150
HH
H
100
H
HH
H
HH
H
j 100
H
*
HH
H
j 66.66
H
H
HH
HH
H
j 44.44
H
Clearly one would at time 1 want to hold a call option when in the up state and a put option in the down state.
The terminal payments for the compound option is thus
* 125
* H?H
HH
H?H
HH
H
j 0
H
*
HH
HH
H
j ?
H
HH
HH
HH
H
j 55.55
H
To find the current value of this, just use the usual backward induction.
q=
e0.05 0.66667
er d
=
0.46
ud
1.5 0.66667
1 q = 0.54
Let P be the value of the compound option
Pu = e0.05 (0.46 125 + 0.54 0) 54.70
Pd = e0.05 (0.46 0 + 0.54 55.55) 28.53
P0 = e0.05 (0.46 54.70 + 0.54 28.53) 38.59
* Puu = 125
u = 54.70
* HP
H
HH
HH
H
j P =0
H
HP0 = 38.59
* ud
HH
HH
H
H
j Pd = 28.53
H
H
HH
HH
H
H
j Pdd = 55.55
H
53
54
Chapter 16
110
80
150
40
Final value =
Project B:
Final value =
55
Solutions
16.1 Conversion [1]
There are no cash flow consequences for the firm, it only changes the distribution of claims between the owners.
16.2 Bond Covenants [3]
1. The covenants protect bondholders from managers acting in behalf of shareholders and undertaking inefficient investment proficiencies during the time of financial distress.
2. These benefit the stockholders by allowing them to borrow from the bondholders at a reduced interest rate.
16.3 [3]
Can use the equity to determine implied probabilities.
Value of equity in the various states.
* max(0, 100 50) = 50
40
HH
HH
HH
H
j max(0, 20 50) = 0
H
40 =
1
(pu 50 + (1 pu )0)
1+r
40 =
1 u
p 50
1.1
56
pu =
40
1.1 = 0.88
50
B
H 0
H
H
H
j min(50, 20) = 20
H
B0 =
1
(pu 50 + (1 pu )20) = 42.18
1 + 0.1
110
80
+ 0.2 1 = 16%
90
90
E[rB ] = 0.5
40
150
+ 0.5 1 = 6%
90
90
1
(pu 110 + (1 pu )80) .
1 + 0.05
Hence pu = 0.483. The value of debt, and hence the money raised from the debt issue, is
D=
1
1
(pu 85 + (1 pu )80) =
(0.483 85 + 0.517 80) = 78
1 + 0.05
1 + 0.05
The value of equity (and the amount raised from the equity issue) is:
E = V B = 90 78 = 12
3. Because the company changes projects, the state price probabilities also change.
Now pu solves:
90 =
1
(pu 150 + (1 pu )40) .
1 + 0.05
1
1
(pu 85 + (1 pu )40) =
(0.496 85 + 0.504 40) = 59
1 + 0.05
1 + 0.05
57
1
1
E [V ] =
(pu 1500 + (1 pu )800).
1+r
1.05
Hence, pu = 0.357.
Applying our formula to value the convertible bonds (100 of them), we obtain:
B = 100
1
1
(pu 13.64 + (1 pu )8) = 100
(0.357 13.64 + (1 0.357)8) = $954
1+r
1.05
1
1
(pu 13.64 + (1 pu )0) = 100
(0.357 13.64 + 0.643 0) = $46
1+r
1.05
1
(p150 + (1 p)50)
1.1
p = 0.6
Hence B should be
B=
1
1
(p100 + (1 p)150) =
(0.6 100 + 0.4 150) = 72.77
1.1
1.1
58
1
1
33 +
(p(50 33) + (1 p)0) = 39.28
1.1
1.1
1
(p150 + (1 p)50)
1.1
59
Chapter 17
60
Note: In the question you are asked to assume risk neutrality. This means that the state price probabilities are
not colored by risk aversion (fear) so they are equal to the estimated probabilities in the question.
Good Time Co. is a regional chain department store. It will remain in business for one more year. The estimated
probability of boom year is 60% and that of recession is 40%. It is projected that Good Time will have total cash
flows of $250 million in a boom year and $100 million in a recession. Its required debt payment is $150 million
per annum. Assume a one-period model.
Assume risk neutrality and an annual discount rate of 12% for both the stock and the bond.
1. What is the total stock value of the firm?
2. If the total value of bond outstanding for Good Time is $108.93 million, what is the expected bankruptcy
cost in the case of recession?
3. What is the total value of the firm?
4. What is the promised return on the bond?
17.7 V&M [5]
Note: In the question you are asked to assume risk neutrality. This means that the state price probabilities are
not colored by risk aversion (fear) so they are equal to the estimated probabilities in the question.
VanSant Corporation and Matta, Inc., are identical firms except that Matta, Inc., is more levered than VanSant.
The companies economists agree that the probability of a recession next year is 20% and the probability of a
continuation of the current expansion is 80%. If the expansion continuous, each firm will have EBIT of 2 million.
If a recession occurs, each firm will have EBIT of 0.8 million. VanSants debt obligation required the firm to make
750,000 in payments. Because Matta carries more debt, its debt payment obligations are 1 million.
Assume that the investors in these firms are risk-neutral and that they discount the firms cash flows at 15%.
Assume a oneperiod example. Also assume there are no taxes.
1. Duane, the president of VanSant, commented to Mattas president, Deb, that his firm has a higher value
than Matta, Inc, because VanSant has less debt and, therefore, less bankruptcy risk. Is Duane correct?
2. Using the data of the two firms, prove your answer.
3. What might cause the firms to be valued differently?
17.8 Negative NPV? [3]
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Explain your answer.
A firms stockholders would never want the firm to invest in projects with negative NPV.
Solutions
17.1 Debt/Equity [7]
1. Cash flows.
Cash flow
Debt payment
Equity payment
Firm Z
100
0.10DZ
100 .10DZ
Firm Y
100
100
61
0.10 100
0.1 (0.10 DZ )
0.1 (100 0.1 DZ )
VY
Cost
VY
VZ DZ
DZ
+ VZ > 0
Next period
100
(100 0.1DZ )
0.1DZ
0
4. New firm values after tax of 40%. Let VY , VZ be the no tax values of Y and Z.
Since Y has no debt, its value goes down by 40%, to 0.60 VY .
For firm Z, its value is adjusted for the tax shelter of debt:
Firm Z goes to
0.6VZ + 0.4DZ
=
0.6VY + 0.4DZ
D
E
1
= 18%
3
17.3 JB [4]
1. When the firm is an all-equity firm, the cost of equity capital (18%) is the same as the cost of capital for the
firm. When the firm does not pay taxes, the cost of capital for the firm is not affected by the debt-equity
mix.
The cost of capital thus remains the same, 18%.
2. To find equity capital, use
rE
= r + (r rD )
D
E
D
E
400
2, 000 400
0.18 + 0.08
400
1, 600
0.18 + 0.02 = 20%.
62
1
1
E [max(V 0 D, 0)] =
(0.6 150 + 0.4 0) = 54
1+r
1.12
2. Without bankruptcy costs, the value of debt B nocost , would have been:
B nocost =
1
(0.6 150 + 0.4 100) = 116
1.12
Since the bonds are actually selling for B = 190 (rounded), the value of the bankruptcy cost, BC, equals
BC = B nocost B = 116 109 = 7
3. Using value additivity, the value of the firm, V , equals
V = E + B = 54 + 109 = 163
4. The promised return, i.e., the yield, y, equals
y=
150
1 = 38%
109
Note: one can imply the actual bankruptcy costs upon default, A, form the value of the firm. By our
valuation formula
V =
1
1
E [V 0 ] =
(0.6 250 + 0.4 (100 A)) = 163
1+r
1.12
Hence A = 18.6.
17.7 V&M [5]
V 0 , next years value of either firm, is $2 (in millions) in the up state or $0.8 in the down state. the state-price
probability for the up state is 0.8. Debt has a face falue of DV = 0.75 for Van Sant, and DM = 1 for Matta.
The risk free rate equals 15%.
1. Duane is wrong. Both firms have the same cash flows from assets, and hence, the same firm value.
63
1
(0.8 2 + 0.2 0.8) = 1.53
1.15
1
(0.8 2 + 0.2 0.8) = 1.53
1.15
3. Suppose there are bankruptcy costs of A = 0.1. Since VanSant never defaults (in the down state, it has 0.8
to cover a debt of 0.75), its value is not affected by the presence of A. Matta, on the other hand, changes
value, down to
VM =
1
(0.8 2 + 0.2 (0.8 0.1)) = 1.51
1.15
64
Chapter 18
65
2. In their model that includes corporate taxes, what do Modigliani and Miller assume about C , B and
C(B)? What do these assumptions imply about a firms optimal debtequity ratio?
3. Assume that IBM is certain to be able to use its interest deductions to reduce its corporate tax bill. What
would the change in the value of IBM be if the company issued $1 billion in debt and used the proceeds
to repurchase equity? Assume that the personal tax rate on bond income is 20%, the corporate tax rate is
34%, and the costs of financial distress are zero.
18.6 NORSK [7]
NORSK, Inc., is valued at V = 100. Tomorrows value, V 0 , will be either 150 (up state) or 50 (down state),
with equal chance. NORSK is presently an all-equity firm, but they are considering issuing a corporate bond with
face value $100 and coupon $10, because they were told that they can reduce their taxable earnings with the
amount of the coupon. The corporate tax rate is 50%. According to their accountants, NORSK will have $10 in
taxable earnings in the up state, and $5 in the down state. The risk free rate is 10%.
1. How does the value of the firm change upon the bond issue?
2. Value the bond. Use this to re-value the firm, now using the APV formula, unlike in your previous answer.
3. Why is there a discrepancy between the values of the (levered) firm you obtained in the previous two
answers?
18.7 Infty.com [4]
Infty.com will generate forever a beforetax cash flow of $15. The corporate tax rate is 50%. The risk free rate
is 10%.
1. Value the firm if it is allequity
2. Value the firm if it issues a perpetual bond with coupon $5.
Solutions
18.1 Leverage [6]
1. Let us use the data for the unlevered firm to find r . We are given the (before-tax) operating income X.
The value of the unlevered firm is
VU =
after-tax income
r
r =
r =
after-tax income
VU
X(1 )
600(1 0.4)
=
= 18%
VU
2, 000
For the unlevered firm, this is also the cost of equity capital, rE = r = 18%.
Use this to find the value of the levered firm.
rE
D
E
0.18 + (0.18 0.10)(1 0.4) 1
22.8%.
= r + (r rD )(1 )
=
=
66
2.
W ACCU = 18%
W ACCL
=
=
=
1
1
rE + (1 )rD
2
2
1
1
0.228 + (1 0.4)0.10
2
2
14.4%
3. The equity is riskier, hence the return on equity for the levered firm is higher. The lower W ACC reflects
the tax savings from the leverage.
18.2 Bond issue [4]
Currently, the value of the firm is $3.5 million, the same as the value of equity. The repurchase of $1 million
decreases the value of equity by $1 million, to 2,500 million.
But this does not account for the tax shield of the new bond issue. If the bonds are perpetual, the value of the
firm increases by 1 million , where is the tax rate. In this case = 30%. Thus the tax shield is 300,000,
and the value of equity is 2.5 mill + 300,000 = 2,800,000.
18.3 LMN [3]
The value without leverage is
VU = 7 mill
The tax advantage of issuing 10 mill worth of debt.
Given
rD = 10%
C = 30%
P D = 25%
P E = 20%
With everybody taxable, find the value with leverage by multiplying D with
(1 C )(1 P E )
1
(1 P D
1
(1 0.3)(1 0.2)
= 0.25
1 0.25
1 (1 0.34)
1 (1 C )
B=
1 = $0.425(billion)
1 B
1 0.2
1
(p150 + (1 p)50)
1.1
p = 0.6
The increase in the value of the firm is the PV of the tax shields
=
1
(0.6 (50% 10) + 0.4 (50% 5)) = 3.64
1.1
2. Bond
B=
1
(0.6 110 + 0.4 50) = 78.18.
1.1
15 0.5
= 75
0.1
VL = 75 + 0.5
5
= 100
0.1
67
68
Chapter 19
0
150, 000
1
60, 000
2
60, 000
3
60, 000
If the project is allequity financed it has a required rate of return of 15%. To finance the project the firm issues
a 4 year bond with face value of 100,000 and an interest rate of 5%. Remaining investments are financed by the
firms current operations. The company is facing a tax rate of 30%.
Determine the NPV of the project.
19.2 Bond issue [2]
A company issues a one year, zero coupon bond with face value of 25 million. The bond has an interest rate of
8%. The company is paying tax with 28%. Determine the value of the debt tax shield.
Solutions
19.1 Project [3]
Without the tax advantage
t
Ct
=
0
= 150
N P V = 150 +
1
60
2
60
3
60
60
60
60
+
+
= 13.0065
(1 + 0.15)1
(1 + 0.15)2
(1 + 0.15)3
=
=
NPV =
0
0
1
1500
2
1500
3
1500
4
1500
1500
1500
1500
1500
+
+
+
= 5318.93
1
2
3
(1 + 0.05)
(1 + 0.05)
(1 + 0.05)
(1 + 0.05)4
Project NPV is
N P V = 13000 + 5318 = 7682
19.2 Bond issue [2]
560,000
69
Chapter 20
70
Solutions
20.1 Dividend Inc [2]
P = 139 11 = 128
20.2 Dividends and taxes [4]
The tax you pay you calculate as follows: Dividends:
Tax = i (3 100) = i 300
Wealth = 100(27 + 3(1 i ))
Wealth = 2700 + 300(1 i ))
Sell shares:
Tax = g (10 (30 20)) = g 100
Wealth = 90 30 + 30 10 10 10g
Wealth = 2700 + 300 100g
Wealth = 3000 100g
To find the exact wealth, plug in the tax rates.
1. i = 0.28, g = 0.28.
Wealth = 2700 + 300(1 i )) = 2916
Wealth = 3000 100g = 2972
2. i = 0.40, g = 0.16.
Wealth = 2700 + 300(1 i )) = 2880
Wealth = 3000 100g = 2984
20.3 Dividends [4]
71
1. Remember
P0 =
E[d1 ] + E[P1 ]
1+r
1 + E[P1 ]
1 + 0.20
and
E[P1 ] = 10(1 + 0.20) 1 = $11
If the firm skipped the dividend, would have
E[P1 ] = 10 (1 + 0.20) = $12
2. Investment of $200,000. The firm pays dividends of 100, 000 1 = $100, 000 out of earnings of $200,000.
It will have to get $100,000 of new capital to finance the investment. At an ex-dividend price of $11, this
means an issue of
100, 000/11 9091 stocks.
3. The new value of the firm
(100, 000 + 9091) stocks $11 = 1, 200, 000
Without the dividend, the value of the firm would have been
100, 000 stocks $12 = $1, 200, 000
20.4 Stable Rest [3]
The market thinks profitability of Stable, Inc is lessened.
20.5 Dividend amount [4]
0.77 mill
20.6 Stock [2]
50 =
E[X1 ]
0.1 0.05
E[X1 ] = 2.5
72
Chapter 21
73
2. Suppose instead that the portfolio is invested with equal weights in two stocks, each with the same expected
return and standard deviation 25%. If the correlation between the two shares is positive, but less than one,
will the VaR of the portfolio be smaller or larger than the previous VaR? What if the correlation is negative?
21.7 Are You Lucky [5]
The current value of equity in the Are You Lucky Gold Mine (AYLGM) is 50. One period from now the stock
price will be one of 58.2 or 45.8. The risk free interest rate is 5% per period.
1. Calculate the price of a call option on one AYLGM stock with exercise price 50.
2. What is the forward price for delivery of one AYLGM stock one period from now?
3. If you want to create a portfolio of forward contracts and risk free borrowing and lending that has the same
payoffs as the call option with exercise price of 50, what is your position in forwards and risk free borrowing
and lending?
21.8 T bill future [3]
Today, a Treasury bill (which carries no coupon) is selling for 91.5% (of par value). A futures contract for the
delivery of the Treasury bill tomorrow carries a futures price of 91.5% (of par value). You dont know the actual
oneperiod risk free rate, but you know it is positive. Is there a free lunch?
Solutions
21.1 Binomial Options [4]
* Suu = 132.25
u = 115
* HS
H
HH
HH
S
HH0 = 100
HH
HH
H
j S = 103.50
H
* ud
H
j
H
d = 90
HS
H
HH
H
HH
j Sdd = 81
H
90 115
Sd Su
= 1.66
=
Cu Cd
15
2. Similarly, let C be the number of stocks options necessary to hedge 1 call option
S Su + Cu = S Sd + Cd
S =
0 15
15
Cd Cu
=
=
= 0.6
Su Sd
115 90
25
74
3. Next want to find the number of stocks S to hedge one call at time 2. Need to know the values of the
call option at time 1.
q=
er d
e0.025 0.9
=
= 0.501
ud
1.15 0.9
1 q = 0.499
Cu = er (qCuu + (1 q)Cud ) = e0.025 (0.501 32.25 + 0.499 3.50) = 17.46
Cd = er (qCud + (1 q)Cuu ) = e0.025 (0.501 3.50 + 0) = 1.7
S =
1.70 17.46
Cd Cu
=
0.63
Su Sd
115 90
C =
Sd Su
90 115
=
1.59
Cu Cd
17.46 1.70
Sd Su
150 175
=
= 1.25
Cu Cd
20 0
m = 1.25
21.3 Futures price [5]
The case without storage cost c has already been discussed in the book
we considered a forward contract on an underlying asset that provides no income. There are also no restrictions
on shortselling of the underlying asset. Then the forward price F has to satisfy
F = S(1 + r)(T t) ,
the forward price is the future value of the current price of the underlying. It is easy to show that violations of
this will lead to free lunches. Let us start with the case where
F > S(1 + r)(T t)
Table 21.1 illustrates how we would set up a portfolio to exploit this free lunch.
Table 21.1 Arbitrage strategy for case F > S(1 + r)(T t)
Sell forward
Borrow St
Buy underlying
Total
t
0
St
St
0
Time
T
F ST
S(1 + r)(T t)
ST
F S(1 + r)(T t) > 0
On the other hand, if F < S(1 + r)(T t) , it is also easy to exploit the free lunch, as table 21.2 illustrates
75
Buy forward
Invest S
Short underlying
Total
t
0
S
S
0
Time
T
ST F
S(1 + r)(T t)
ST
S(1 + r)(T t) F > 0
1
0.25 = 0.01581
250
Another acceptable interpretation of this could be to use actual days, in which case you would calculate
SDdaily =
1
0.25 = 0.013
365
0.1
= 0.0004
250
76
Daily VaR:
E[r] k(r)
0.0004 2.33 0.01581 = 3.64%
giving a VaR of 3.64 million.
2. As long as the correlation is less than +1, the standard deviation (and hence the VaR) of the portfolio will
be smaller, and smaller the lower the correlation.
21.7 Are You Lucky [5]
Assumptions of the problem about the underlying security:
u
* S = 58.2
S0 = 50
HH
HH
H
HH
j S d = 45.8
H
Price of option
u = 1.165
d = 0.916
q=
1.05 0.916
= 0.54
1.165 0.916
C0 =
1
(qCu + (1 q)Cd ) = 4.22
1+r
Forward price
F = 50 1.05 = 52.4
To set up a hedge portfolio involving a forward, solve the following set of equations
Cu = wF (Su F ) + wB 1
Cd = wF (Sd F ) + wB 1
Here wF is the number of forward contracts, and wB the number of risk free discount bonds to buy.
Solve for wF and wB :
wF =
wB =
Tomorrow:
liquidate futures
Short t bill offset
divest at R
B 0.95
B
0.95
zero no matter what B is
77