1.

Optic disk oedema is seen in all except

Papilloedema
CRVO
Open angle glaucoma
Hypertensive retinopathy
Papilitis
2.The first line of treatment in chemical injury is
admission if severe
topical antibiotics
topical cycloplegia
neutralization of pH by irrigation
oral analgesia
3.The most common cause of proptosis is
orbital infection
orbital hemorrhage
orbital tumor
orbital pseudo-tumor
thyroid ophthalmopathy
4.Calculation of IOL power is called
Biometry
Pachymetry
Tonometry
Keratometry
Ophthalmoscopy
5.Aphakia can be corrected by following
Specticles
Contact lenses
Anterior chamber IOL
Posterior chamber IOL
All of above
By KHALID CHAN
6.A patient with sudden painless loss of vision and no fundal view
was possible. Which of the investigation is helpful to see the

retina.
Keratometry
Pachymetry
B-Scan
A-Scan
Indirect ophthmoscopy
7.Direct Ophthalmology is done for
Examination peripheral retina
Examination of central retina
Refractive power of eye
Axial length of eye
To find out the power of IOL
8.A patient presented with gross painful decrease of vision. On
torch examination there was conjunctival congestion and pupil
irregular miosed. Which is the probable diagnosis
Anterior uveitis
Acute congestive glaucoma
Conjunctivitis
Scleritis
Foreign body
9.Regarding Myopia
It is also called Far sightedness
Correction is with concave lens
Correction is with convex lens
Image formed behind the retina
Eye ball is small
10.A patient who was operated for cataract four years back
comes to you with foggy vision. On examination there was
posterior capsular thickening, which mode of treatment is most
useful.
Excimer laser
YAG-Laser
Argon laser

Krypton laser
Diode laser
11.Esotropia is
Divergent squint
Latent convergent squint
Associated with accommodation reflex
Associated with accommodation and hypermetropia
None of above
12.Which of the following regarding atropine is true
Increases IOP
Used in neovasular glaucoma
Miosis
Atropine is weak cycloplegic
All of above
13.Pathognomic clinical signs of proliferative diabetic retinopathy
is
Micro aneurysms
Hard exudates
Deep retinal hemorrhages
Neovascularization of retina
Vitreous hemorrhage
14.A child of one year old presented with watering in left eye and
sticky discharge. On examination regurgitation test was positive.
What is the
diagnosis?
Nasolacrimal duct block
Common canaliculus block
Punctal atresia
Buphthalmos
None of above
15.In Hypermetropia all are true except
Axial length of eye ball is small
Correction with convex lens
Image formed behind the retina

Refractive error can be diagnosed by retinoscopy

Rays of light converged behind the retina when
accommodation reflex is active
16.Exophthalmos associated with thyroid ophthalmopathy have
following clinical signs except
Proptosis
Ptosis
Lid retraction
Conjunctival chemosis
Extraocular muscle thickening
17.Nasolacrimal duct opens in
Superior meatus
Inferior meatus
Middle meatus
Nasopharynx
None of above
18.Trachoma is associated with except
Tranatas dots
Follicles
Papillae
Herbit pits
Corneal pannus
19.A patient presented with diplopia in primary position along
with ptosis in left eye. The eye was deviated infrolaterally. The
diagnosis will be
Fourth nerve palsy
Third nerve palsy
Sixth nerve palsy
Seventh nerve palsy
All above
20.A young boy presented in emergency with watering and
photophobia in right eye. Which test is appropriate?
a. Schirmer test
b. Tear breakup time

c.
d.
e.

Rose Bengal staining

Applanation tonometry
Flouroscine staining

21.According to WHO a person is blind when

vision in better eye is less than 2/60 and/or visual field is less than
30 degrees in better eye
vision in better eye is less than 3/60 and/or visual field is
less than 30 degrees in better eye
vision in better eye is less than 3/60 and/or visual field is less than
20 degrees in better eye
vision in better eye is less than 3/60 and/or visual field is less than
60 degrees in better eye
vision in better eye is less than 5/60 and/or visual field is less than
30 degrees in better eye
22.Complications of contact lenses include all of the following
except
Allergy
Corneal infiltrates
Corneal ulcer
Permanent loss of vision
Corneal pigmentation
23.WHO grading of trachoma includes all except
TF follicles
TI inflammation
TS scarring
TT trichiasis
TP pannus
24.Least common cause of sudden loss of vision is
Vitreous hemorrhage
Optic neuritis
Central retinal venous occlusion
Central retina artery occlusion
Retinal detachment
25.Symptoms of cataract include all of the following except

Halos
Decreased vision in low illumination
Decreased vision in bright light
Glare
Sudden loss of vision
26.The best choice for a ten year child with unilateral traumatic
cataract is:
Extra capsular surgery with contact lens
Intra/extra capsular surgery with spectacles
Extra capsular surgery with intraocular lens.
Intra capsular surgery with contact lens
Phacoemulsification with foldable IOL
27.Iridodonesis is seen in:
Intumescent cataract
Closed angle glaucoma
Subluxation of lens
Acute anterior Uveitis
High Myopia
28.Main cause of Dendritic corneal ulcer is:
Fungal
Bacterial
Parasitic
Viral.
Toxic
29.Dry eye is usually seen in:
Lowes syndrome
Sjogrens syndrome.
Refsums syndrome
Marfans syndrome
Perinaud syndrome
30.Regarding probing and syringing test, which statement is true
Recommended for acute dacryocystitis
Regurgitation is positive
Congental nasolacrimal duct block

Chronic dacryocystitis in old age

None of above
1.

The first line of treatment in chemical injury is

a.

admission if severe

b.

topical antibiotics

c.

topical cycloplegia

d.

neutralization of pH by irrigation

e.

oral analgesia

2. In blow out fracture the commonest bone to fracture is

a.

maxillary (floor)

b.

zygomatic (lateral wall)

c.

lachrymal (medial wall)

d.

frontal (roof)

e.

ethmoidal (medial wall)

3. Following are the features of orbital floor fracture

a. diplopa on upgaze and downgaze

b.

damage to supra-orbital nerve

c.

haemoptysis

d.

numbness of lateral canthus

e.

haziness of ethmiodal sinus on x ray

4. The commonest painless lid swelling is

a. stye

b.
c.
d.
e.

cyst of moll
cyst of zeis
internal hordeolum
chalazion

5. The most commont cause of proptosis is

a.

orbital infection

b.

orbital hemorrhage

c.

orbital tumor

d.

orbital pseudo-tumor

e.

thyroid ophthalmopathy

By KHALID CHAN

6. A patient presents with red eye, decreased visual acuity, raised Intraocular pressure &
shallow anterior chamber. The likely diagnosis is
a.

cataract

b.

open angle glaucoma

c.

retinal detachment

d.

hyphema

e.

acute angle closure glaucoma

7. Female with uncontrolled diabetes presents with painful red eye and visual acuity is also
decreased. On examination there was raised Intraocular Pressure and new blood vessels on
the iris. The treatment includes all except.
a.

atropine

b.

beta blockers

c.

steriods

d.

pain killers

e.

pilocarpine

8. The commonest cause of cataract is

a.

trauma

b.

diabetes

c.

hypo-parathyroidism

d.

TORCH infections

e.

old age

9. Regarding Phaco-Emulsification, better visual outcome is expected when

a.

Operation is performed via superior clear corneal incision

b.

Operation is performed via superior scleral tunnel incision

c.

Operation is performed via supero-temperal clear corneal incision

d.

Operation is performed via temporal clear corneal incision

e.

Operation is performed via temporal scleral tunnel operation

10. Phaco-Emulsification is done except in

a.

Immature cataract

b.

Mature cataract

c.

Hyper-mature cataract

d.

Hype-mature morgagnian cataract

e.

Dislocated cataract

11. On gonioscopy following structures are visible

a.

Most anterior is bowmans layer

b.

Next is trabecular meshwork

By KHALID CHAN

c.

Next scleral spur

d.

Next ciliary body

e.

And lastly iris recess

12. In Addition to High IOP and High vertical cup-disc ratio, risk factors for POAG include
all of the following except
a. Old age
b. Family history
c. Retinal nerve fibre defects
d. Parapapillary changes
e. Hypermetropia
13. The earliest visual field defect in POAG is
a. Isolated paracentral nasal scotoma
b.
Bjerrums scotoma
c.
Arcuate scotoma
d.
Altitudinal Scotoma
e.
Centrocecal scotoma
14. Chronic simple glaucoma, is a generally bilateral, but not always symmetrical disease,
characterized by:
a.

An IOP 21mmHg.

b.

Angle grade II.

c.

Glaucomatous optic nerve head damage.

d.

Altitudinal field defects

15. Specific sign of glaucomatous damage is

a.

Baring of circumlinear blood vessels

b.

Bayoneting

c.

The laminar dot sign

d.

Disc haemorrhages

e.

Superior or inferior polar notching of the cup

By KHALID CHAN

By; KHALID CHAN

16. in myopia
a.

Length of eye ball is short

b.

Corneal radius of curvature is less

c.

Lens is less spherical

d.

Image forms in front of the retina when the patient accommodates

e.

Patient can see far objects clearly when he exerts accommodation

17. Symptoms of cataract include all of the following except

a.

Halos

b.

Decreased vision in low illumination

c.

Decreased vision in bright light

d.

Glare

e.

Sudden loss of vision

18. Treatment options in POAG may include all except

a.

pilocarpine

b.

beta blockers

c.

prostaglandin analogues

d.

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

e.

atropine

19. WHO grading of trachoma includes all except

a.

TF follicles

b.

TI inflammation

c.

TS scarring

d.

TT trichiasis

e.

TP pannus

20. Least common cause of sudden loss of vision is

a.

Vitreous hemorrhage

b.

Optic neuritis

c.

Central retinal venous occlusion

d.

Central retina artery occlusion

e.

Retinal detachment

By KHALID CHAN

21. Best vision in moderate myopia is achieved by

a.

glasses

b.

soft contact lenses

c.

rigid gas permeable lenses

d.

Laser vision correction procedures

e.

kerato-melieusis

22. Complications of contact lenses include all of the following except

a.

Allergy

b.

Corneal infiltrates

c.

Corneal ulcer

d.

Permanent loss of vision

e.

Corneal pigmentation

23. Pupil in acute anterior uveitis is

a.

miosed and regular with poor reaction

b.

miosed and irregular with poor reaction

c.

dilated and irregular with good reaction

d.

dilated and regular with poor reaction

e.

mid-dilated and oval with poor reaction

24. According to WHO a person is blind when

a.

vision in better eye is less than 2/60 and/or visual field is less than 30 degrees in better
eye

b.

vision in better eye is less than 3/60 and/or visual field is less than 30 degrees in
better eye

c.

vision in better eye is less than 3/60 and/or visual field is less than 20 degrees in better
eye

d.

vision in better eye is less than 3/60 and/or visual field is less than 60 degrees in better
eye

e.

vision in better eye is less than 5/60 and/or visual field is less than 30 degrees in better
eye

25. The most common cause of reduced vision in the world is

a.

trachoma

b.

diabetic retinopathy

c.

refractive errors

d.

glaucoma

e.

cataract

By KHALID CHAN

26. Ayoung male of 22years present with gradual decrease of visual acuity in both eyes and
change of refractive error on examination with retinoscope there was high astigmatism.
Give likely diagnosis?
a.
keratoglobus

b.
c.
d.
e.

keratoconus
megalocornea
buphthalmos
keratitis

27. A young boy presented in emergency with watering and photophobia in right eye. Which
test is appropriate?
a. Schirmer test
b. Tear breakup time
c.
Rose Bengal staining
d.
Applanation tonometry
e.
Flouroscine staining
28.When the eye is medially rotated, the prime depressor muscle of eye ball
a.
Inferior rectus
b.
Inferior oblique
c.
Superior oblique
d.
Inferior rectus and inferior oblique
e.
Lateral rectus
29. A patient on slit lamp examination shows hypopyeon in anterior chamber after trauma,
which is due to
a. Pus in anterior chamber
b. Cells in anterior chamber
c. Protein in anterior chamber
d. Blood in anterior chamber
e. Foreign body in anterior chamber
30. A patient have blunt trauma with tennis ball and having hyphema, which is
a. Pus in anterior chamber
b. Foreign body in anterior chamber
c. Uveal tissue
d. Blood in anterior chamber
e. Cells in anterior chamber
31. Calculation of IOL power is called
a.

Biometry

b.

Pachymetry

c.

Tonometry

d.

Keratometry

e.

Ophthalmoscopy

By KHALID CHAN

32. Benign tumors of eye except

a. Limbal dermoid
b. Chlazion
c. Orbital cyst
d. Dermoid cyst
e. Rhabdomyosarcoma
33. An infant presented with sticky discharge both eyes and extreme congestion of
conjunctiva. Provisional diagnosis is the ophthalmia neonatroum which is caused by
a.

Gonococcus

b.

E.Coli

c.

Staph.aureous

d.

Streptococcus

e.

Diphtheria

34. Timolol is
a. Beta blocker
b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
c. Antibiotic
d. Alpha blocker
e. Calcium channel blocker
35. Aphakia can be corrected by following
a.

Specticles

b.

Contact lenses

c.

Anterior chamber IOL

d.

Posterior chamber IOL

e.

All of above

36. A patient presented with diplopia in primary position along with ptosis in left eye. The
eye was deviated infrolaterally. The diagnosis will be
a.

Fourth nerve palsy

b.

Third nerve palsy

c.

Sixth nerve palsy

d.

Seventh nerve palsy

e.

All above

By KHALID CHAN

37. Retinoscopy is done for

a.

Examination retina

b.

Examination optic nerve

c.

Refractive power of eye

d.

Axial length of eye

e.

To find out the power of IOL

38. A patient presented with sudden painless loss of vision in left eye. Patient is known
diabetic. How you are going to examine the patient except
a.

Retinoscopy

b.

Direct ophthalmoscopy

c.

Indirect ophthalmoscopy

d.

Slit lamp examination

e.

Examination with triple mirror

39. A young patient presented with Rosette shaped cataract which is characteristic of
a.

Senile cataract

b.

Complicated cataract

c.

Secondary to diabetes

d.

Radiation induced cataract

e.

Traumatic cataract with blunt trauma

40. A patient presented with photophobia and watering in left eye. On examination with
fluorescein staining revealed dendritic ulcer which is caused by
a.

Staphylococci

b.

Fungal

c.

Herpes simplex virus

d.

Herpes zoster virus

e.

Mycobacterium

41.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Distichiasis is
Misdirected eye lashes
Accessory row of lashes
Everted lid margin
Inverted lid margin
Drooping of upper lid

42. Traucoma is associated with except

a.

Tranatas dots

b.

Follicles

c.

Papillae

d.

Herbit pits

e.

Corneal pannus

43. Nasolacrimal duct opens in

a.

Superior meatus

b.

Inferior meatus

c.

Middle meatus

d.

Nasopharynx

By KHALID CHAN

e.

None of above

44. A patient of 45 years old presented with facial palsy. The epiphora in this patient was
due to
a. Ectropion
b. Entropion
c. Lagophthalmos
d. Lacrimal pump failure
e. Hyper screction of tears
45. foreign body sensation can be produced by all except
a. Allergic conjunctivitis
b. Viral conjunctivitis
c. Cataract
d. Contact lens wear
e. Trichiasis
46. Exophthalmos associated with thyroid ophthalmopathy have following clinical signs
except
a. Proptosis
b. Ptosis
c. Lid retraction
d. Conjunctival chemosis
e. Extraocular muscle thickening
47. A patient presented with gross decrease of vision. On torch examination there was
conjunctival congestion and pupil miosed. Which is the probable diagnosis
a. Anterior uveitis
By KHALID CHAN
b. Acute congestive glaucoma
c. Conjunctivitis
d. Scleritis
e. Foreign body
48. A patient with sudden painless loss of vision and no fundal view was possible. Which of
the investigation is helpful to see the retina.
a. Keratometry
b. Pachymetry
c. B-Scan
d. A-Scan
e. Indirect ophthmoscopy
49. A hypertensive and diabetic patient presented with sudden painless loss of vision.
What are the possibilities except
a. CRAO
b. CRVO

c. Vitrous Hemorrhage
d. Retinal detachment
e. Neovascular glaucoma
50. Myopia is a condition which is
a. Farsightedness
b. Correction with concave lens
c. Correction with convex lens
d. Image formed behind the retina
e. Eye ball is small
51. Hypermetropia is a condition in which except
a. Axial length of eye ball is small
b. Correction with convex lens
c. Image formed behind the retina
d. Refractive error can be diagnosed by retinoscopy
e. Rays of light converged behind the retina when accommodation reflex is active
52. A patient who was operated for cataract four months back comes to you with foggy
vision. On examination there was posterior capsular thickening, which mode of treatment
is most useful.
a. Excimer laser
b. YAG-Laser
c. Argon laser
d. Krypton laser
e. Diode laser
53. In diabetic retinopathy the new vessel formation is due to following pathology
a. Retinal hemorrhage
By KHALID CHAN
b. Vitreous hemorrhage
c. Retinal oedema
d. Retinal ischemia
e. Retinal breaks
54. Esotropia is
a. Divergent squint
b. Latent convergent squint
c. Associated with accommodation reflex
d. Associated with accommodation and hypermetropia
e. None of above
55. Exophoria is
a. Latent convergent squint
b. Alternate divergent squint
c. Associated with accommodation reflex
d. Latent divergent squint

e.

None of above

56. Which of the following regarding atropine is true

a. Increases IOP
b. Used in neovasular glaucoma
c. Miosis
d. Atropine is weak cycloplegic
e. All of above
57. Pathognomic clinical signs of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is
a. Micro aneurysms
b. Hard exudates
c. Deep retinal hemorrhages
d. Neovascularization of retina
e. Vitreous hemorrhage
58. A child of one year old presented with watering in left eye and sticky discharge. On
examination regurgitation test was positive. What is the diagnosis?
a. Nasolacrimal duct block
b. Common canaliculus block
c. Punctal atresia
d. Buphthalmos
e. None of above
59. Regarding probing and syringing test, which statement is true
a. Recommended for acute dacryocystitis
b. Regurgitation is positive
c. Congental nasolacrimal duct block
d. Chronic dacryocystitis in old age
By KHALID CHAN
e. None of above
60. Optic disk oedema is seen in all except
a. Papilloedema
b. CRVO
c. Open angle glaucoma
d. Hypertensive retinopathy
e. Papilitis

By KHALID CHAN