Miller (Q&a)
Miller (Q&a)
Miller (Q&a)
Introductory Topics
1. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in
accordance with the low-frequency intelligence to create a
modulated signal?
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Time
d. Amplitude
2. Communication systems are most often categorized by what
characteristic?
a. Modulation frequency
b. Carrier frequency
c. Transmission distance
d. Information transmitted
3 Voltage gain in decibels is
a. 10 ln
b. 10 log
c. 20 ln
d. 20 log
4 Which expression indicates a measurement using a 1-W
reference
a. dBm(1)
b. dB1
c. dBW
d. dB(W)
5 An amplifier operating over a 2-Mhz bandwidth has a 75 input
resistance. If it is operating at 22 C and
has a voltage gain of 300, the noise produced at the output of
this amplifier would be approximately
a.
b.
c.
d.
6 Which of the following is not an example of external noise
a. Fluorescent light
b. Solar emission
c. Resistor noise
d. Lightning
7 An amplifier's output signal has 25 mV p-p of desired signal
mixed in with 45 V rms
of undesired noise. The load
impedance is 50 . What is the amplifier's output S/N level in
dB?
a. 22.9 dB
b. 54.9 dB
c. 45.9 dB
d. 51.9 dB
8 Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a greater bandwidth
than a 2-kHz sinewave?
a. The square wave has a larger frequency than the sinewave.
b. The square wave has an infinite number of harmonics,
whereas the sinewave has
only one.
c. The square wave is much easier to cover by noise.
d. The square wave must also include an offset (dc) voltage,
whereas the sinewave
does not.
9 The relationship between information and bandwidth is called
a. Information theory
b. Fourier analysis
c. FFT
d. Hartley's law
10 Aliasing can be defined as errors occurring when
a. The input frequency exceeds the sample rate.
b. The bandwidth is less than the input frequency.
c. The type of modulation has been incorrectly identified.
d. The sampling signal has been incorrectly identified.
11 Which of the following does not hold true for a parallel
resonant circuit?
a. At the resonant frequency the impedance of the circuit is a
minimum.
b. If Q>10, the resonant frequency is the same as it would be if
it were a series.
c. It is commonly referred to as a tank circuit.
d. At the resonant frequency, the circuit draws minimum
current from the constant-voltage source.
12 The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank
circuit for swamping out the effect of the
transistor's internal capacitances is the
a. Hartley design
b. Clapp design
c. Colpitts design
d. Crystal design
13 The ability of a crystal to oscillate at its resonant frequency is
due to
a. The flywheel effect
b. Barkhausen criteria
c. The piezoelectric effect
d. Frequency synthesis
d. Troubleshooting
15 Which of the following can be called a troubleshooting plan?
a. Symptoms as clues to faulty stages
b. Signal tracing and signal injection
c. Voltage and resistance measure
d. Substitution
e. All the above
b. Varicap diodes
c. VVC diodes
d. All the above
6. The image frequency for a standard broadcast receiver using
a 455-kHz IF and tuned to a station at 680
kHz would be
a. 1135 kHz
b. 225 kHz
c. 1590 kHz
d. 1815 kHz
7. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem of
a. Image frequency
b. Tracking
c. Diagonal clipping
d. Poor sensitivity
8. An auxiliary AGC diode
a. Reduces selectivity
b. Increases sensitivity
c. Decreases sensitivity
d. All the above
9. Which of the following would occur in a receiver not having
AGC?
a. The speaker output level would drastically change while
tuning from a weak signal to a strong signal.
b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in the
speaker.
c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume
control as the weather and ionosphere change.
d. All the above
10. The only roadblock to having a complete receiver
manufactured on an integrated circuit is
a. Tuned circuits and volume controls
b. Cost
c. Phase-locked loops
d. Ceramic filters
11. The decibel difference between the largest tolerable receiver
input signal and its sensitivity is called
a. The decibel power gain of the receiver
b. Automatic gain control (AGC)
c. The dynamic range of the receiver
d. The IF amplifier gain
12. The simplest AM detector is the
a. Synchronous detector
b. Product detector
c. Heterodyne detector
d. Diode detector
13. Tracking in a superhet receiver is accomplished using a
a. Trimmer capacitor
b. Padder capacitor
c. Varicap diode
d. a and b
e. All the above
14. If no stations are picked up on the lower half of the AM band,
the likely problem is
a. Low RF gain
b. Poor AGC operation
c. IF selectivity
d. LO tracking
15. If no sound is heard from a receiver, the most likely problem
area is the
a. Power supply
b. RF section
c. Audio amplifier
d. AGC diode
Chapter 4: Single-Sideband Communications
1. An SSB signal with a maximum level of 200 V p-p into a 50
load results in a PEP rating of
a. 200 W
b. 50 W
c. 100 W
d. 800 W
2. State the chief advantage(s) of a standard SSB system.
a. Maximum signal range with minimum transmitted power
b. Easy carrier reinsertion
c. Elimination of carrier interference
d. a and c
3. The noise advantage of SSB over AM is
a. 35 dB
b. 57 dB
c. 810 dB
d. 1012 dB
4. What is the difference between a balanced modulator and a
regular modulator?
a. There is no carrier produced in the output of a balanced
modulator.
b. In a balanced modulator, there is 180 phase shift between
the upper and lower sidebands.
c. In a balanced modulator, only one sideband is produced.
d. In a balanced modulator, harmonics of the sidebands are
suppressed.
5. In a balanced-ring modulator, the carrier suppression is
accomplished by
a. A dual-gate FET having symmetry
b. Center-tapped transformers causing canceling magnetic
fields
c. The nonlinearity of the diodes that are used
d. Symmetrical differential amplifier stages
b. Phase modulator
c. Lattice modulator
d. All the above
14. Describe the oscilloscope waveform of an SSB transmitter's
balanced modulator if it exhibits carrier
leakthrough.
a. Trapezoidal wave
b. Sinewave
c. FM wave
d. AM wave
15. The two-tone test is used to
a. Test carrier suppression
b. Test filter ripple
c. Test amplifier linearity
d. None of the above
Chapter 5: Frequency Modulation Transmission
1 Angle modulation includes the following types of modulation:
a. FM
b. PM
c. AM
d. All the above
e. a and b
2 The amount of frequency increase and decrease around the
center frequency in an FM signal is called the
a. Index of modulation
b. Frequency deviation
c. Phase deviation
d. Bandwidth of the FM signal
3 The amount of frequency deviation is dependent on the
intelligence frequency in
a. An FM signal
b. A PM signal
c. Both FM and PM signals
d. Neither FM nor PM signals
4 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 2 kHz and a
maximum deviation of 10 kHz. If its carrier frequency is set at
162.4 Mhz, what is its index of modulation?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 2
d. 20
5 The amount an FM carrier frequency deviates for a given
amplifier stages.
d. FM receivers need RF amplifier stages to be able to
decode stereo signals.
3
a.
b.
c.
d.
a. Multiplier
b. Expander
c. Pump chain
d. All the above
13 The purpose of the matrix network in a stereo FM broadcast
transmitter is to
5
14 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 5 kHz and a
maximum deviation of 25 kHz. Its index of modulation is
a. Limiter
b. Discriminator
c. Deemphasis network
d. All the above
2
a. 125
b. 0.2
c. 5
d. 6
15 Frequency multipliers
b. Attenuation
c. Complexity
d. All the above
10
11
12
13
14
15
d.Specified input
8 A receiver has a 30-dB noise figure, a 1.5 Mhz bandwidth, a
6-dBm third intercept point, and a 3-dB signal-to-noise ratio.
Its sensitivity is
a. 94 dB
b. 82.2 dB
c. 79.2 dB
d. 81 dB
9 Two-modulus dividers are used in the synthesis of
frequencies into the VHF band due to
a. Its ability to work at practical power consumptions
b. Its ability to work at practical speeds
c. The insufficient speed and power of the basic
programmable divider designs
d. All the above
10 The disadvantage of direct digital synthesizers (DDS) over
analog frequency synthesizers is
a. Its complexity and cost
b. Its limited maximum output frequency
c. Its higher phase noise
d. All the above
11 The G.E. Phoenix radio is an example of
a. An HF amateur transceiver using AM and SSB modulation
modes
b. A VHF commercial transceiver using the FM modulation
mode and a channel guard function
c. A military transceiver using all modes on HF frequencies
d. A cellular telephone transceiver
12 The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly
switched frequency or time transmissions is known as
a. Synthesizing
b. Facsimile
c. Spread spectrum
d. Compression
13 The acronym CDMA refers to ________.
a. Carrier-division multiple-access systems
b. Capture-division multiple-access systems
c. Code-division multiple-access systems
d. Channel-division multiple-access systems
14 A typical problem encountered when troubleshooting a
frequency synthesizer is
a. Quantile interval
b. Codec
c. BCC
d. Syndrome
13 Which of the following is not an example of code error
detection and correction in a data communication channel?
a. Parity
b. Frequency-shift keying
c. Block-check character
d. Hamming code
14 Error-correcting techniques that allow for correction at the
receiver are called
a. Cyclic redundancy checks (CRC)
b. Block-check characters (BCC)
c. Forward error correcting (FEC)
d. Parity
15 Codes producing random data that closely resemble digital
noise are
a. Systematic codes
b. PN codes
c. Pseudonoise codes
d. b and c
Chapter 9 Digital Communications Transmission
1 Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data bits
that provide information on noise, jitter, and linearity is called
a(n)
a. Constellation pattern
b. Loopback
c. Statistical Concentration
d. Eye pattern
2 Why isn't Morse code well suited to today's telegraphic
equipment?
a. It uses an automatic request for repetition.
b. It has excessive redundancy built into the code.
c. The parity bit is difficult to detect.
d. Differing between various widths of the pulses is an
extremely complicated process.
3 A special digital modulation technique that achieves high data
rates in limited-bandwidth channels is called
a. Delta modulation
b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM)
c. Radio facsimile
d. Radio telemetry
11 The bit error rate is
a. The number of bit errors that occur for a given number of
bits transmitted
b. The most common method of referring to the quality of a
digital communication system
c. Virtually the same as the error probability
d. All the above
12 The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is
a. Excessive noise producing errors
b. Slope overload
c. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal
d. Complexity of design
13 The capacity of a telephone channel that has an S/N of 2047
if its bandwidth is 3.5 kHz is
a. 30,000 bits per second
b. 33,000 bits per second
c. 38,500 bits per second
d. 35,000 bits per second
14 The AT&T T1 lines
a. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
b. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channels
c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
d. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels
15 A digital transmission has an error probability of
is
and
a.
b.
c.
d.
a. Bridge
b. Gateway
c. Router
d. Node
9 In telephony, traffic is defined in
a. Hundred-call seconds
b. Average number of calls in a specific period of time
c. Erlang
d. All the above
10 The Internet and the WWW are
a. The same thing
b. Completely different
c. Related
d. Local area networks
11 In a telephone system, the grade of service is
a. The ratio of calls lost to calls offered
b. The ratio of traffic lost to traffic offered
c. The ratio of calls offered to calls lost
d. The ratio of traffic offered to traffic lost
e. a and b
12 The following term is not a major concept in cellular phone
systems.
a. Frequency reuse
b. Cell reuse
c. Cell splitting
d. Handoff
13 In local area networks, the following topology or topologies
are seldom used.
a. Star
b. Ring
c. Bus
d.a and b
14 The following numeric describing data rates for copper coax
and twisted pair is rarely used
a. 10 Base 2
b. 10 Base 5
c. 10 Base T
d. 100 Base FX
e. a and b
15 The xDSL service with the highest projected data rate is
a. VDSL
b. SDSL
c. HDSL
d. IDSL
e. ADSL
load impedance
a. 6
b. 0.166
c. 0.714
d. 1.4
14 A cable has an inductance of 1 nH/ft and capacitance of 1
nF/ft. The delay introduced by a 1-ft section is
a. Not able to be calculated with the given information
b.
c.
d.
15 A transmission line can be used as a(n)
a. Inductor
b. Capacitor
c. Filter
d. Matching section
e. All the above
Chapter 13 Antennas
1 The process of interchangeability of receiving and
transmitting operations of antennas is known as
a. Polarization
b. Reciprocity
c. Efficiency
d. Counterpoise
2 A half-wave dipole antenna is also known as
a. Marconi antenna
b. Hertz antenna
c. Vertical antenna
d. Phased array
3 An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long connected such
that the ground acts as a reflecting quarter-wavelength
section is called a
a. Hertz antenna
b. Dipole antenna
c. Marconi antenna
d. All the above
4 The angular separation between the half-power points on an
antenna's radiation pattern is the
a. Bandwidth
b. Front-to-back ratio
c. Lobe distribution
d. Beamwidth
5 The input impedance at the center of a dipole antenna is
approximately
a. 36.6
b. 50
c. 73
d. 300
6 As the height of a half-wavelength antenna is reduced below
a quarter-wavelength, the radiation resistance
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. All the above
7 A dipole antenna is being fed with a 300 transmission line.
If a quarter-wave matching transformer is to be used as the
non-resonant matching section, what must be the
characteristic impedance of the cable used in the matching
transformer?
a. 186.5
b. 103.9
c. 122.5
d. 147.9
8 An impedance-matching device that spreads the transmission
line as it approaches the antenna is called a
a. Delta match
b. Quarter-wave matching device
c. Director
d. Counterpoise
9 A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in order to
c.Klystron oscillator
d. Magnetron oscillator
6 Which is not an advantage of the Gunn gallium arsenide
oscillator?
a. Ease of removing heat from the chip
b. Small size
c. Ruggedness
d. Lack of filaments
e. Low cost of manufacture
b. Baritt diode
c. Zener diode
d. Tunnel diode
13 Which of the following represent typical failure mode(s) for a
TWT amplifier?
a. Low gain
b. Spurious modulation
c. Poor frequency response
d. Low RF output
e. All the above
a. Alignment
b. Convergence
c. Interleaving
d. Interlacing
a. 50 nW
b. 500 nW
c. 5 uW
d. 50 uW
9 Which is not an important characteristic of a light detector?
a. Responsitivity
b. Dark current
c. Power consumption
d. Response speed
e. Spectral respons
10 The dispersion in fiber optics is termed
a. Modal
b. Chromatic
c. Polarization mode
d. All the above
e. a and b above
ANSWER KEY
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