Detailed Solutions

of

IES-2014

Civil Engineering
Paper-I (Objective)

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions

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Civil Engineering (Set-B)

Q.1

In a reinforced concrete section, the shape of the nominal shear stress diagram
is
(a) parabolic over the full depth
(b) parabolic above the neutral axis and rectangular below the neutral axis
(c) rectangular over the full depth
(d) rectangular above the neutral axis and parabolic below the neutral axis

Ans.

(c)
Nominal shear stress diagram
avg

Q.2

Assuming the concrete below the neutral axis to be cracked, the shear stress
across the depth of a singly reinforced rectangular beam section
(a) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then drops abruptly to zero
value
(b) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then remains constant over
the remaining depth
(c) increases linearly to the neutral axis and then remains constant up to the
tension steel
(d) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then remains constant up to
the tension steel

Ans.

(d)
For cracked section,
Actual stress distribution

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Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.3

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Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is

(a) at a distance of effective depth of slab from the periphery of the column the
drop panel
(b) at a distance of

d
from the periphery of the column/the capital/the drop panel
2

(c) at the drop panel of the slab

(d) at the periphery of the column
Ans.

Q.4

Ans.

Q.5

[adopting standard notations]

(b)

The enlarged head of the supporting column of a flat slab is called

(a) capital

(b) drop

(c) panel

(d) block

(a)

The critical section for maximum bending moment in the footing under masonry
wall is located at
(a) the middle of the wall
(b) the face of the wall
(c) mid-way between the face and the middle of the wall
(d) a distance equal to the effective depth of footing from the face of the wall

Ans.

Q.6

(c)

The problems of lateral buckling can arise only in those steel beams which have
(a) moment of inertia about the bending axis larger than the other
(b) moment of inertia about the bending axis smaller than the other
(c) fully supported compression flange
(d) None of the above

Ans.

(a)

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.7

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Consider the following statements :

The design depth of the footing for an isolated column is governed by
1. maximum bending moment
2. maximum shear force
3. punching shear
Which of the above statements are correct?

Ans.

Q.8

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

(c)

Spalling stresses are produced in post-tensioned pre-stressed concrete members

at
(a) locations of maximum bending moment only
(b) locations of maximum shear zone
(c) anchorage zone
(d) bond-developing zone

Ans.

Q.9

(c)
Spalling stress (bursting) is occured for post tensioned beam at anchorage zone
due to heavy bearing stress.

In a pre-stressed member, it is advisable to use

(a) low-strength concrete
(b) high-strength concrete
(c) high-strength concrete and high-tension steel
(d) high-strength concrete and low-tension steel

Ans.

Q.10

(c)

The percentage loss of pre-stress due to anchorage slip of 3 mm in a concrete

beam of length of 30 m which is post-tensioned by a tendon subjected to an initial
stress of 1200 N/mm2 and modulus of elasticity equal to 2.1 105 N/mm2, is
(a) 0.0175%

(b) 0.175%

(c) 1.75%

(d) 17.5%

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Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Ans.

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(c)
Strain,

% loss =

3
= 10 4
3
30 10
E
100
1200

P o = 1200 MPa, E = 2 105 MPa

%loss =

10 4 2 105
100
1200

= 1.75%

Q.11

Engines are rated at specified conditions. Then which of the following statements
are correct?
1. Power developed increases as local temperature increases.
2. Power developed increases as local temperature decreases.
3. Power developed is not dependent on local temperature.
4. Power developed increases as local atmospheric pressure increases.
5. Power developed increases as local atmospheric pressure decreases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Ans.

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 5

(d) 2 and 4

(d)
H
T = constant
P

where,

Q.12

H Horse power of engine

P Pressure in mm of Hg
T Temperature in K

Consider the following statements in respect of mixers :

1. Mass batch mixing of ingredients is the most desirable method.
2. Charging all materials into a drum mixer is done at once.
3. The quantity of material fed into a mixer should be not more than the quantity
that can be used in less than 30 minutes after completion of mixing.
4. Reversing mixers have less capacity than tilting mixers.

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Paper-I (Objective) Solutions

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5. In large mixers, additional time of mixing is allowed.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Ans.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 4 and 5

(b)
1. Batch mixing is always desirable as per the mass or weight of ingredients.
2. Normally initial setting time is 30 minute, hence placing of concrete should
be done before it.
3. For large mixers, additional time of mixing is allowed.

Q.13

Consider the following statements about cranes :

1. Mobile cranes are suitable in small operations.
2. Whirley crane is a stationary crane with a long boom.
3. Tower crane is used in lifting heavy machinery.
4. A guy-derrick can operate in a limited area only.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Ans.

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

(a)
1. Whirty crane is not a stationary crane.
2. Tower crane is used in lifting construction materials.

Q.14

Extracts from the head-discharge characteristics of two centrifugal pumps are

tabulated with respective subscripts 1 and 2; manometric head hm is given in
metres; and discharge Q is given in lps:
Q

12

14

16

18

20

hm1

50.2

50.8

51.3

50.0

30.0

hm2

42.4

38.8

35.7

32.0

25.0

The pumps are connected in series against a static head of 80m; the estimate
of the total of head losses is

Q2
m. What is the delivered discharge?
120

(a) 15.80 lps

(b) 16.35 lps

(c) 17.35 lps

(d) 17.75 lps

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Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Ans.

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(d)
Static head = 80 m
Monometic head, hm = 80 +

Q2
120

From chart, when Q = 18 lps

hm = 50 + 32 = 82 m
Also,

hm = 80 +

Q2
= 82.7 m
120

Thus, answer should be very near to 18 lps. So, correct answer is (d).
For
Q = 17.75 lps
hm1 = 51.3

51.3 50
(17.75 16)
18 16

= 50.1625 m
hm2 = 35.7

35.7 32
(17.75 16)
18 16

= 50.1625 m
hm2 = 35.7

35.7 32
(17.75 16)
18 16

= 32.4625 m

hm = hm1 + hm2 = 82.6275 m

Also, manometric head required
hm = 80 +

17.752
= 82.6255 m
120

So, correct answer (d).

Q.15

Ans.

Q.16

Which system of network given below completely eliminates the use of dummy
activities?
(a) A-O-A (Activity-on-Arrow)

(b) A-O-N (Activity-on-Node)

(c) PERT

(d) CPM

(b)

Free float can be associated with which of the following?

1. In one of two sub-paths between any two adjacent nodes
2. In the last activity in the sub-paths, less by at least one of the sub-paths,
between any two nodes

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Paper-I (Objective) Solutions

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3. Following all sub-activities in a laddered network

4. Whenever mandatory calendar dates are prescribed for major milestone
events
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Ans.

Q.17

Ans.

Q.18

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

(c)

In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities follow

(a) normal distribution curve

(b) -distribution curve

(c) Poissons distribution curve

(d) binomial distribution curve

(b)

Three consecutive activities A, B and E (in that order) have their T-duration (in
days) vs. CDirect Cost (in monetary units) relationship expressed in the following
table:
A

15

11

14

12

10

16

13

What is the optimum duration for the corresponding minimum total direct cost
for all the three activities when taken up consecutively without pause or disruption?

Ans.

(a) 22 days

(b) 21 days

(c) 20 days

(d) 19 days

(c)
Minimum cost

A
B
C

14
6
11

9
7
4

Total duration = 9 + 7 + 4 = 20 days

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.19

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In an Activity-on-Arrow network, which of the following rules of network logic

are mandatory?
1. Any two events can be directly connected by not more than one activity.
2. Event numbers should not be duplicated in a network.
3. Before an activity may begin, all the activities preceding it must be completed.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Ans.

Q.20

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(d)

List the following processes in their correct sequence, from earliest to latest, in
project implementation planning :
1. Project duration
2. Resource histogram
3. Standardized input/performance for each activity including alternatives
4. WBS
5. Resource optimization considering constraints
6. Activities and their inter-relationships
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Ans.

Q.21

Ans.

Q.22

(a) 2, 1, 3, 5, 6 & 4

(b) 2, 6, 3, 5, 1 & 4

(c) 4, 1, 3, 5, 6 & 2

(d) 4, 6, 3, 5, 1 & 2

(d)

Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?

(a) IS : 4970-1973

(b) IS : 1708-1969

(c) IS : 1141-1958

(d) IS : 399-1963

(c)
IS 1141 Seasoning of timber

Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:

1. Increase in the life span of the member
2. Increase in the strength of the timber
3. Removal of moisture
4. Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them

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Paper-I (Objective) Solutions

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Which of the above are correct?

Ans.

Q.23

Ans.

Q.24

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

(a)
In the question we are asked about preservation and not preservative. So, all
are correction.

The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
(a) parallel to each other

(b) at right angle to one another

(c) 45 oblique to adjacent grain

(d) not constrained by any consideration

(b)

Which of the following is an ODD one as regards requirements of good brickearth?

(a) It must be free from lumps of lime
(b) It should not be mixed with salty water
(c) It must be non-homogeneous
(d) It should not contain vegetable and organic matter

Ans.

Q.25

Ans.

(c)

The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should be

not less than
(a) 440 kg/cm2

(b) 175 kg/cm2

(c) 100 kg/cm2

(d) 75 kg/cm2

(a)
The code for heavy duty bricks is IS 2180 and not IS 2980. As per Cl 3.1 2180,
the compressive strength should be classified as:Classification:
Class 400: Compressive strength not less than 40.0 0 N/mm2. (400 kgf/cm2)
Class 450: Compressive strength not less that 45.0 N/mm2. (450 kgf/cm2)

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Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.26

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Consider the following statements :

1. Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2. Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3. Bricks resist fire better than stones.
4. Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Ans.

Q.27

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

(b)
Brickwork will have low water fightness and stone work is preferred for moment
structures.
So, option (b) is correct.

Consider the following statements : A good soil for making bricks should contain
1. 30% alumina
2. 10% lime nodules
3. Only small quantity of iron oxides
4. 15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?

Ans.

Q.28

Ans.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

(b)
Composition:
Magnesia 1 %
Lime 4 5 %
So, option (b) is correct.

Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?

(a) Magnesium oxide

(b) Silica

(c) Alumina

(d) Calcium sulphate

(b)
Silica imparts strength to the coment. So, option (b) is correct.

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.29

Ans.

Q.30

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11

Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a

dam?
(a) Ordinary Portland

(b) High Alumina

(c) Low-heat Portland

(d) Portland Pozzollona

(c)
Since, low heat coment has very low heat of hydration which is suitable for mass
concreting such as dams, so, option (c) is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding setting of cement :

1. Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2. Final setting time decides the strength of cement.
3. Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes.
4. Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
5. Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Ans.

Q.31

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2, 3 and 5

(c)
Low heat coment sets slower than OPC. Setting time has no relation with
strength of cement. So, option (c) is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding strength of cement :

1. Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement sand mix.
2. Water to be used for the paste is 0.25P, where P is the water needed for normal
consistency.
3. The normal consistency is determined on Le Chateliers apparatus.
4. Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each
layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Ans.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

(c)
Water to be used is 0.85 P. Le chateliers apparatus is used to determine
soundness due to lime. So, option (c) is correct.

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.32

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Which of the following ingredients refer to binding materials of mortar?

1. Cement

2. Lime

3. Sand

4. Ashes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
Ans.

Q.33

(b) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3

(c)

Consider the following statements :

1. Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2. Mortars make bricks damp proof.
3. Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4. Addition of lime improves workability.
5. Marine constructions need sulphate resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for cement mortar?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 4 and 5

Ans.

Q.34

(b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3, 4 and 5

(c)

Consider the following parameters of concrete:

1. Impermeability
2. Compactness
3. Durability
4. Desired consistency
5. Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for water-cement ratio?
(a) 4 and 5
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4

Ans.

Q.35

(d) 3 and 5

(d)

Consider the following statements : Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads to
1. Expansive reaction in concrete
2. Cracking of concrete
3. Disruption of concrete
4. Shrinkage of concrete

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Paper-I (Objective) Solutions

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Which of the above statements are correct?

Ans.

Q.36

Ans.

Q.37

Ans.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

(c)

The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to

be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg),
for M 20 grade of concrete, is
(a) 625

(b) 480

(c) 330

(d) 250

(d)
As per Table 9, IS 456:2000, for M20 it is 250 kg.

If aggregate size of 5040 mm is to be tested for determining the proportion of

elongated aggregates, the slot length of the gauge should be
(a) 45 mm

(b) 53 mm

(c) 81 mm

(d) 90 mm

(c)
Slot length of guage
= 1.8 (Mean site of agregate)
50 + 40
2
= 81 mm

= 1.8

Q.38

Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expressed in appropriate

proportion in water content between
(a) a wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
(b) a dry aggregate and an oven-dry aggregate
(c) a saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
(d) a saturated surface-dry aggregate and an oven-dry aggregate

Ans.

(d)

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Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.39

Ans.

Q.40

Ans.

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Consider the following statements concerning elasticity of concrete.

1. Stress-strain behaviour of concrete is a straight line up to 10% of ultimate stress.
2. Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3. Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(b)
Strain determination is obtained from secant modulus. So, option (b) is correct.

Consider the following statements : The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in

1. increased shrinkage
2. decreased setting time
3. decreased shrinkage
4. increased setting time
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
(d)
CaCl2 acts as a accelerator. Therefore, it decreases setting time and increase the
shrinkage. So, option (d) is correct.

Directions: Each of the following twenty (20) items consists of two statements, one labelled
as Statement (I) and the other as Statement (II). You are to examine these two statements
and select the answers to these items using the code given below.
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement
(II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement
(II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Q.41

Statement (I) : Bricks are soaked in water before using in brick masonry for
removing dirt and dust.
Statement (II) : Bricks are soaked in water before using in brick masonry so
that bricks do not absorb moisture from the bonding cement mortar.

Ans.

(d)

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Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.42

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Statement (I) : Brick masonry in mud mortar is weak in strength.

Statement (II) : Cement mortar enhances the strength of the bricks relative
to mud mortar.

Ans.

Q.43

(b)

Statement (I) : Quick-setting cement with initial setting time of 5 minutes is

used in underwater constructions.
Statement (II) : Aggregate and cement are mixed dry, and the mixture is then
dumped in water.

Ans.

Q.44

(c)

Statement (I) : Water needed for hydration decides the quantity of the water
to be used in mortar preparation.
Statement (II) : Excess water in mortar reduces its strength.

Ans.

Q.45

(d)

Statement (I) : Preparing mortar by using masonry cement improves workability

as well as the finish during plastering.
Statement (II) : Masonry cement is easy to handle.

Ans.

Q.46

(a)

Statement (I) : Grading of concrete is based on 28-day strength.

Statement (II) : Concrete does not gain any further strength after 28-day curing.

Ans.

Q.47

(c)

Statement (I) : Addition of admixture improves the workability of concrete.

Statement (II) : Addition of admixture increases the strength of concrete.

Ans.

(b)

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.48

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Statement (I) : There are two independent elastic constants for an isotropic
material.
Statement (II) : All metals at micro-level are isotropic.

Ans.

Q.49

(c)

Statement (I) : Mohrs theory is based on logical arrangement of experimental

results.
Statement (II) : Mohrs theory generalizes Coulombs theory.

Ans.

Q.50

(c)

Statement (I) : The most-suited failure theory for concrete is maximum shear
strength theory.
Statement (II) : Ductile materials are limited by their shear strength.

Ans.

Q.51

(d)

Statement (I) : In simple bending, strain in the bent beam varies linearly across
the beam depth.
Statement (II) : As per Hookes law, within elastic limit, the stress is proportional
to the strain.

Ans.

Q.52

(b)

Statement (I) : The failure surface of a standard cast iron specimen of circular
cross-section subjected to torsion is on a helicoidal surface at 45 to its axis.
Statement (II) : The failure occurs on a plane of the specimen subjected to
maximum tensile stress, and cast iron is weak in tension.

Ans.

(a)

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.53

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Page
17

Statement (I) : A simply supported beam AB of constant EI throughout, when subjected

to pure terminal couples as shown in the figure, will bend into an arc of a circle.
M
A

Statement (II ) : Theory of simple bending establishes relationships from among

M, f, R, y, E and I.
Ans.

(a)
M

BMD

Now, bending equation;

E f
M
=
=
R y
I
EI
M
Now, M, E and I are constant
R constant
which is true only in the case of circle,
So, answer is (a).

Q.54

R=

Statement (I) : Concrete of desired strength can be achieved by weight-batching

method.
Statement (II) : Volume-batching method does not take into account bulking
of aggregates, hence concrete of desired strength cannot be achieved by volumebatching.

Ans.

Q.55

(c)
We consider bulking of sand while using volume batching method.

Statement (I) : Hoe is not very advantageous in digging trenches and basements.
Statement (II) : In a hoe, the digging action results from the drag of the bucket.

Ans.

(d)

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.56

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Page
18

Statement (I) : In close-range works of excavation, power shovel is suitable.

Statement (II) : Power shovel has greater rigidity and gives greater output than
draglines.

Ans.

Q.57

(c)

Statement (I) : Reciprocating pump is self-priming.

Statement (II) : Reciprocating pump is used to pump dirty water in excavations.

Ans.

Q.58

(c)

Statement (I) : A linked-bar chart is premised on a resource-based scheduled

network, and so is unique to the relevant project.
Statement (II) : A squared scheduled network drawn after allocating activity
durations, with consideration of floats that have been originally available, may
yet have the inputs-scheduling pending.

Ans.

Q.59

(a)

Statement (I) : A dummy job takes zero time to perform.

Statement (II) : It is used solely to illustrate precedence relationship.

Ans.

Q.60

(a)

Statement (I) : In resource levelling, project completion time is not extended

provided there is no constraints on availability of resources.
Statement (II) : There is generally a constraint against exceeding the project
duration time.

Ans.

(a)
In resource levelling, project completing time is extended only when availability
of resources is less than the required resources.
But if there is no constraint on availability of resources, project completion time
is never extended.
So, correct answer is (a).

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.61

Ans.

Ans.

Page
19

If the Poissons ratio for a material is 0.5, then the elastic modulus for the material
is
(a) three times its shear modulus

(b) four times its shear modulus

(c) equal to its shear modulus

(d) not determinable

(a)
Elastic modulus
Shear modulus
E
Given,

Q.62

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=
=
=
=
=

E
G
2G (1 + )
0.5, E = 2 1.5 G
3G

A metal bar of 10 mm diameter when subjected to a pull of 23.5 kN gave an

elongation of 0.3 mm on a gauge length of 200 mm. The Youngs modulus of
elasticity of the metal will nearly be
(a) 200 kN/mm2

(b) 300 kN/mm2

(c) 360 kN/mm2

(d) 400 kN/mm2

(a)
l = 200 mm
P

P = 23.45 kN
Dia = 10 mm

l = 0.3 mm

l
0.3
=
l
200

P
= E
A

23.5 103
2

/ 4 10

2.3
E
200
235
200

 200 103N/mm2
0.785 0.3

E=

E = 200 kN/mm2

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.63

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Page
20

A steel rod, 2 m in length, 40 mm in diameter, is subjected to a pull of 70 kN

as shown in the figure
70 kN

70 kN
2m

To what length should the bar be bored centrally from one end so that total
extension will increase by 20% under the same force (the bore diameter is 25 mm
and E is 2 105 N/mm2)?

Ans.

(a) 0.46 m

(b) 0.55 m

(c) 0.87 m

(d) 0.62 m

(d)

70 kN

70 kN
x

(2 x)

l =

Pl
AE

Initially when no boring,

l1 =

70 103 2 103
/ 4 402 2 105

70 103 X 103

After boring,

l2 =

Given,

l2 = 1.2 l1

/ 4 (402 252 ) 2 105

350 x
350(2 x)
1.2 400
+
=
/ 4 65 15 /4 1600
1600

1.2 2
x
2 x
+
=
64
3 13
64

70 103 (2 X) 103
/ 4 402 2 105

64 x + 78 39 x
2.4
=
39 64
6.4

25x = 39 2.4 78
x = 0.624 m

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.64

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Page
21

A member ABCD is subjected to a force system as shown in the figure

A

C
365

45

450

130

The resistive force in the part BC is

Ans.

(a) 365 (compressive)

(b) 450 (tensile)

(c) 85 (compressive)

(d) 320 (compressive)

(d)
B

450
365

45

130

For part BC (365) 45 ()

= 320 comvpressive

Q.65

Ans.

Consider the following statements:

If the planes at right angles carry only shear stress of magnitude q in a certain
instance, then the
1. diameter of Mohrs circle would be equal to 2q.
2. centre of Mohrs circle would lie at the origin
3. principal stresses are unlike and are of magnitude q each
4. angle between the principal plane and the plane of maximum shear would be 45
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d)
(0, q)

q
(q, 0)

(0, 0)

(q, 0)

(0, q)

Its a case of pure shear. Hence Mohrs circle is as shown

Diameter of Mohrs circle = 2q
Centre is at origin
Principal stress are q and q.
Hence they are equal in magnitude but unlike in direction.
Angle between normal to principal plane and normal to maximum shear is 90
in Mohrs circle. so it would be 45.

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.66

Ans.

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Page
22

The state of two-dimensional stresses acting on a concrete lamina consists of a

direct tensile stress x = 1.5 N/mm2 and shear stress = 1.20 N/mm2, when
cracking of concrete is just impending. The permissible tensile strength of the
concrete is
(a) 1.50 N/mm2

(b

2.17 N/mm2

(c) 2.08 N/mm2

(d) 2.29 N/mm2

(b)
x = 1.5 MPa
y = 0
xy = 1.2 MPa
2

x + y
1
x y
2

+ x y
=
2
2
2

1 = 2.17 N/mm2
2 = 0.665 N/mm2
Hence, option (b) is correct

Q.67

Two-dimensional stress system on a block made of a material with Poissons ratio

of 0.3 is shown in the figure

B
60 N/mm

The limiting magnitude of the stress so as to result in no change in length AB

of the block is
(a) 60 N/mm2
(c) 200
Ans.

(b) 120 N/mm2

N/mm2

(d) 240 N/mm2

(c)
For no change in lenght
L = 0
i.e.

y
x

= 0
E
E

y =

x
60
= 200 MPa
=

0.3

So, option (c) is correct.

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.68

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Page
23

The principal stresses at a point in a bar are 160 N/mm2 (tensile) and 80 N/mm2
(compressive). The accompanying maximum shear stress intensity is
(a) 100 N/mm2

(b) 110 N/mm2

(c) 120 N/mm2

(d) 140 N/mm2

(c)
Maximum shear stress
=
=

x y
2

160 ( 80 )

2
= 120 MPa
So, option (c) is correct.

Q.69

An element of a certain material in plane strain has

x = 800 106
y = 400 106
xy = 300 106
What is the maximum shearing strain?

Ans.

(a) 150 106

(b) 355 106

(c) 250 106

(d)

500 106

(d)
x = 800 106
y = 400 106
xy = 300 106
Maximaum shear strain
max
=
2

= 250 10 6

max = 500 106

Q.70

x y
xy
2 + 2

Consider a circular member of diameter D subjected to a compressive load P. For

a condition of no tensile stress in the cross-section, the maximum radial distance
of the load from the centre of the circle is
(a)

D
6

(b)

D
8

(c)

D
12

(d)

D
4

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
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Page
24

(b)

e
A

A = 0
P M

y = 0
A
I

/ 4D2

Pe
D4
64

e =

Q.71

D
= 0
2

D
8

At a point in the web of a girder, the bending and the shearing stresses are
90 N/mm2 (tensile) and 45 N/mm2 respectively. The principal stresses are
(a) 108.64 N/mm2 (tensile) and 18.64 N/mm2 (compressive)
(b) 107.60 N/mm2 (compressive) and 18.64 N/ mm2 (tensile)
(c) 108.64 N/m2 (compressive) and 18.64 N/ mm2 (tensile)
(d) 0.64 N/mm2 (tensile) and 0.78 N/mm2 (compressive)

Ans.

(a)
x = 90 N/mm2
y = 0
Txy = 45 N/mm2

1/2 =

x + y
2

x y

+ Txy2

90 + 0
90 0

+ 45
2
2

1 = 108.63 N/mm2
2 = 18.63 N/mm2

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.72

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Page
25

In a two-dimensional stress system, the principal stresses are 1 = 200 N/mm2

(tensile) and 2 (compressive). The yield stress in both simple tension and
compression is 250 N/mm2, with = 0.25. What will be the value of 2 according
to the maximum normal strain theory?
(a) 160 N/mm2

(b) 100 N/mm2

(c) 200 N/mm2

(d) 250 N/mm2

(c)
According to maximum normal strain theory,
1 2 y
200 0.25 () 250

200 + 0.25 = 250

=

50
= 200 N / mm 2
0.25

and also

Q.73

Ans.

2 1 >
50 >
+ 50 <
<

y
250
250
200 N/mm2

A simply supported beam has uniform cross-section, b = 100 mm, d = 200 mm,
throughout its length. The beam is subjected to a maximum bending moment
of 6 107 N-mm. The corresponding bending stress developed in the beam is
(a) 30 N/mm2

(b) 60 N/mm2

(c) 90 N/mm2

(d) 120 N/mm2

(c)
=

M
y =
I

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6 107
200

= 90 N/mm2
3
200 2
100

12

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.74

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Page
26

A steel plate is bent into a circular arc of radius 10 m. If the plate section be
120 mm wide and 20 mm thick, with E = 2 105 N/ mm2, then the maximum
bending stress induced is
(a) 210 N/mm2

(b) 205 N/mm2

(c) 200 N/mm2

(d) 195 N/mm2

(c)
120

120

M E
=
=
y
I
R
=

Q.75

M Ey
=
I
R
20
2 = 200 N / mm2
10 103

2 105

A flitched beam composed of two different pieces, each having breadth b and depth
d, supports an external load. This statement implies that
1. the two different material are rigidly connected
2. there will be relative movement between the two materials
3. for transforming into an equivalent single-material, section under strength
considerations, the depth is kept constant and only the breadth is varied
Which of the above statements are correct?

Ans.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(b)
In flitched beam, two different materials are rigidly connected. Thus, it prevents
relative movement between two materials. So, option (b) is correct.

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.76

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Page
27

A solid shaft of 80 mm diameter is transmitting 100 kW of power at 200 r.p.m.

The maximum shear stress induced in the shaft will nearly be
(a) 60 N/mm2

(b) 56 N/mm2

(c) 52 N/mm2

(d) 48 N/mm2

(d)
d = 800 mm, P = 100 kN
N = 200 rpm

P=

2NT
60

T=

100 103 60
N-m
2 200

max =

T
=
Zp

100 103 60
2 200 N-mm

803
16
= 46.875 N/mm2

Q.77

Ans.

The power transmitted by a 75 mm diameter shaft at 140 r.p.m., subjected to

a maximum shear stress of 60 N/mm2, is nearly
(a) 68 kW

(b) 70 kW

(c) 73 kW

(d) 76 kW

(c)
D = 75 mm
N = 140 rpm
max = 60 N/mm2

max =

T
2NT
,P =
Zp
60

T = 60

P=

753
16

2 140 60 753
16 60
= 73.8 kW

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.78

Ans.

(a) proportional to D3

(b) proportional to D4

(c) inversely proportional to D3

(d) inversely proportional to D4

(c)

Ans.

Page
28

A circular shaft of diameter D is subjected to a torque T. The maximum shear

stress of the shaft will be

max =

Q.79

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max

T
T 16
=
Zp
D3
1
D3

A hollow shaft of 16 mm outside diameter and 12 mm inside diameter is subjected

to a torque of 40 N-m. The shear stresses at the outside and inside of the material
of the shaft are respectively
(a) 62.75 N/mm2 and 50.00 N/mm2

(b) 72.75 N/mm2 and 54.54 N/mm2

(c) 79.75 N/mm2 and 59.54 N/mm2

(d) 80.00 N/mm2 and 40.00 N/mm2

(b)
D0 = 16 mm,

T T
=
r J

Di = 12 mm
T = 40 N-m

T=

Tr
J

J=

(164 124 )
32

16
2 = 72.75 N / mm2
T0 =
4
(16 124 )

32
40 103

Ti =

72.7 12
= 54.54 N/mm2
16 2

2

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.80

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Page
29

A rigid bar shown in the figure is hinged at A, is supported by a rod at B, and

carries a load W at C.

l/2

l/2
B

The resistive force in the rod is

Ans.

(a) 0.5W

(b) 1.0W

(c) 1.5W

(d) 2.0W

(d)

R
R
A

l/2

l/2

MA = 0

WlR

Q.81

Ans.

Q.82

Ans.

l
= 0
2
R= 2 W

An angle ISA 50 50 6 is connected to a gusset plate 5 mm thick, with 16 mm

bolts. What is the bearing strength of the bolt when the hole diameter is 16 mm
and the allowable bearing stress is 250 MPa?
(a) 8 kN

(b) 20 kN

(c) 22.5 kN

(d) 24 kN

(b)

The effective length of a battened strut of actual length L, effectively held in

position at both ends but not restrained in direction, is taken as
(a) L

(b) 1.1L

(c) 1.5L

(d) 1.8L

(b)
In case of battened structure, effective length is increased by 10%

Le = 1.1 L

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.83

Ans.

Q.84

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Page
30

The slenderness ratio (as per IS : 800) of a member, carrying compressive loads
arising from combined dead loads and imposed loads, should not exceed
(a) 180

(b) 250

(c) 350

(d) 380

(a)

A mild steel tube of mean diameter 20 mm and thickness 2 mm is used as an

axially loaded tension member. If fy = 300 MPa, what is the maximum load that
the member can carry?
(a) 11.25 kN
(b) 22.5 kN
(c) 30.0 kN
(d) 37.5 kN
(b)
T = A (0.6 fy)
= 20 2 0.6 300 = 37.5 kN

Q.85

Ans.

Q.86

Ans.

Q.87

Ans.

Localized bearing stress caused by the transmission of compression from the wide
flange to the narrow web causes a failure called
(a) web buckling
(b) web shear flow
(c) web bearing
(d) web crippling
(d)

The best-suited rolled steel section for a tension member is

(a) angle section
(b) T-section
(c) channel section
(d) flat section
(b)
In T-section and flat section only, force pass through CG of section so (a) and
(c) ruled out. Since flat section flutter during wind or any dynamic loading that
is why we prefer T-section as best for tension member.

In a plate girder, the web is primarily designed to resist

(a) torsional moment
(b) shear force
(c) bending moment
(d) diagonal buckling
(b)

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.88

Ans.

Q.89

Ans.

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Page
31

Lacing of compound steel columns

(a) increases the load-carrying capacity
(b) decreases the chances of local buckling
(c) decreases overall buckling of the column
(d) assures unified behaviour
(d)

A welded plate girder, consisting of two flange plates of 350 mm 16 mm each

and a web plate of 1000 mm 6 mm, requires
(a) no stiffeners

(b) horizontal stiffeners

(c) intermediate vertical stiffeners

(d) vertical and horizontal stiffeners

(c)
=

1000
= 166.66
6

85 < < 200 hence only intermediate vertical stiffners are required.

Q.90

When designing steel structures, one must ensure that local buckling in webs
does not take place. This check may not be critical when using rolled steel sections
because
(a) quality control at the time of manufacture of rolled sections is very good
(b) web depths available are small
(c) web stiffness is built-in in rolled sections
(d) depth to thickness ratio of the web is always appropriately adjusted

Ans.

Q.91

Ans.

(d)

Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against web buckling

due to
(a) shear

(b) compressive force in bending

(c) tensile force in bending

(d) heavy concentrated load

(b)

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.92

Ans.

Q.93

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Page
32

In an industrial steel building, which of the following elements of a pitched roof

primarily resist loads parallel to the ridge?
(a) Bracings

(b) Purlins

(c) Columns

(d) Trusses

(a)

For a compression member with double angle section, which of the following
sections will give larger value of minimum radius of gyration?
(a) Equal angles back-to-back
(b) Unequal angles with long legs back-to-back
(c) Unequal angles with short legs back-to-back
(d) None of the above

Ans.

Q.94

Ans.

Q.95

Ans.

(b)

According to IS : 875 Part 3, design wind speed is obtained by multiplying the

basic wind speed by factors k1, k2 and k3, where k3 is
(a) terrain height factor

(b) structure size factor

(c) topography factor

(d) risk coefficient

(c)

The length of beam over which the moment is greater than the yield moment
is called as the plastic hinge length. What is the plastic hinge length for a simply
supported beam of circular cross-section loaded at mid-span (shape factor for the
section = 5/3)?
(a) 0.15l

(b) 0.33l

(c) 0.4l

(d) 0.5l

(c)
Plastic hinge length

= l 1
S.F.

for simply supported beam loaded at mid-sapn

= l 1
= 0.4 l
5/3

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.96

Ans.

Q.97

Ans.

Q.98

Ans.

Q.99

Ans.

Q.100

Ans.

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33

Battens provided for a compression member shall be designed to carry a transverse

shear equal to
(a) 2.5% of axial force in the member

(b) 5% of axial force in the member

(c) 10% of axial force in the member

(d) 20% of axial force in the member

(a)

In which of the following cases is the compression flange most susceptible to buckle
laterally?
(a) An I-section supporting a roof slab with shear connection
(b) Purlin of a roof supporting dead and live loads
(c) Encased beam
(d) A steel I-section supporting a point load when acting as a cantilever
(d)
The end of the cantilever is free, hence not laterally restrained.

The serviceability criterion for a plate girder design is based upon

(a) width of flange
(b) depth of web
(c) minimum thickness of web
(d) stiffness of web
(d)
Depth of web fulfils deflection criteria and thickness of web fulfil corrosion so
combindely we can say that stiffness is for serviceability.

If any tension reinforcement in an RC beam attains its yield stress during loading before
the concrete in the compression zone fails due to crushing, the beam is said to be
(a) under-reinforced
(b) over-reinforced
(c) balanced
(d) non-homogeneous
(a)

The distance between the centroid of the area of tension reinforcement and the
maximum compressive fibre in a reinforced concrete beam design is known as
(a) overall depth
(b) effective depth
(c) lever arm
(d) depth of neutral axis
(b)

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.101

Ans.

Q.102

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34

The symmetry of the stress tensor at a point in a body when at equilibrium is

obtained from
(a) conservation of mass

(b) force equilibrium equations

(c) moment equilibrium equations

(d) conservation of energy

(c)

A hinged support in a real beam

(a) becomes an internal hinge in a conjugate beam
(b) changes to a free support in a conjugate beam
(c) changes to a fixed support in a conjugate beam
(d) remains as a hinged support in a conjugate beam

Ans.

Q.103

(d)

For portal frame shown in the figure, collapse load W has been calculated as per
combined mechanism as W =

16 M p
3l

W
B

W/4

E
l/2

MP

C
l/2

2MP l

MP l

What is the bending moment at B at collapse conditions?

(a)

Wl
16

(b)

Wl
8

(c)

3Wl
16

(d)

3Wl
8

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Ans.

(a)

W=
M

16M P
3l

MP

C
C

B
W/4

MP

l/2

l/2

From FBD of BC
W=

16M P
3l

W=

16M P
3l

MP

MP

MP

l/2

l/2

4M P
3l

4M P
3l

MP M
4M P
=
l/2
3l

MP M =

4M P
3l

4M P
3l

2M P
3

M = MP

M=

2M P
M
= P
3
3

3WL
WL
=
16 3
16

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Page
35

IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.104

The simply supported beam shown in the figure

W

is

Ans.

Q.105

(a) determinate and stable

(b) determinate and unstable

(c) indeterminate and stable

(d) indeterminate and unstable

(b)

The bending moment at C for the beam shown in the figure

2 kN
D 1.6 m

E
1 kN

1.2 m
B

C 1.6 m

3.2 m

is

Ans.

(a) 3.2 kN-m

(b) 4.4 kN-m

(c) 6.2 kN-m

(d) 7.2 kN-m

(b)
2 kN

3.2 kNm
1 kN

1 kN

1.6 m
2 kN
2 kN

1 kN

3.2 kN

1.2 kN
4.4 kN
1 kN

2 kN

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36

IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions

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Page
37

Alternatively
BM at C = Moment from either left end or right end at that section
Moment from left end at C
= 2 1.6 + 1 1.2
= 4.4 kNm (hogging)
Thus BM at C = 4.4 kNm

Q.106

Ans.

Q.107

A close helical spring of 100 mm mean diameter is made of 10 mm diameter rod,

and has 20 turns. The spring carries an axial load of 200 kN with
G = 8.4 104 N/mm2. The stiffness of the spring is nearly
(a) 5.25 N/mm

(b) 6.50 N/mm

(c) 7.25 N/mm

(d) 8.50 N/mm

(a)

For the plane frame as shown in the figure

Hinge

the degree of kinematic indeterminacy, neglecting axial deformation, is

Ans.

(a) 3

(b) 5

(c) 7

(d) 9

(d)
Neglecting axial deformation
Dk = 3j (r + m)
No. of joints,
j = 4, reactions, r = 4
members,
M= 3

Dk = 3 4 (4 + 3) = 12 7 = 5
So, option (b) is correct.

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.108

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Page
38

The carry-over factor CAB for the beam as shown in the figure
Internal hinge
A

is

Ans.

(a) 0.25

(b) 0.50

(c) 0.75

(d) 1.00

(d)
Internal hinge
A

a
b
a= b = L
c.o.f. = 1

c.o.f. =

Hence,

Q.109

The ratio of (i) the moment required for unit rotation of the near end of a prismatic
member with its far end fixed to (ii) that of a different moment required for the
same effect when the far end is hinged is
(a) 1

(b)

3
4

4
3

(d)

1
2

(c)
Ans.

(c)
Ratio =

Q.110

Ans.

4EI / l 4
=
3EI / l 3

Force method in structural analysis always ensures

(a) compatibility of deformation

(b) equilibrium of forces

(c) kinematically admissible strains

(d) overall safety

(a)

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.111

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Page
39

Fixed end moments at A and B for the fixed beam shown in the figure, subjected
to the indicated uniformly varying load, are respectively

W/unit length

Ans.

Q.112

Ans.

(a)

Wl 2
Wl 2
and
30
20

(b)

Wl 2
Wl 2
and
20
30

(c)

Wl 2
Wl 2
and
12
8

(d)

Wl 2
Wl 2
and
8
12

(a)

Fixed end moments developed at both the ends in a fixed beam of span L and
flexural rigidity. EI, when its right-side support settles down by , is
(a)

6 EI
(sagging)
L2

(b)

12 EI
(sagging)
L2

(c)

6 EI
(hogging)
L2

(d)

12 EI
(hogging)
L2

(
)
6 EI
(anticlockwise)
L2

Q.113

The Muller-Breslau principle for influence line is applicable for

(a) simple beams

(b) continuous beams

(c) redundant trusses

(d) all of the above

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Ans.

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Page
40

(d)
W

3L/4

L/4
W

MP

MP

MP

MP

3L
L
=
=
4
4
= 3
By virtual work principle,
W = MP( + + + )
W

Q.114

For a fixed beam with a concentrated load W at 1/4 of span from one end, the
ultimate load is
(a)

(c)
Ans.

Q.115

3L
L
=

4
4
32M P
W=
3L

16 M p
3L
32 M p
3L

(b)

(d)

4 Mp
L
6 Mp
L

(c)

The plastic modulus of a section is 4.8 104 m3. The shape factor is 1.2. The
plastic moment capacity of the section is 120 kN-m. The yield stress of the
material is
(a) 100 MPa

(b) 240 MPa

(c) 250 MPa

(d) 300 MPa

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Ans.

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Page
41

(c)
Zp = 4.8 104 m3
S.F. = 1.2
Mp = 120 kN-m
Mp = fy Zp
fy =

Q.116

120 10 6 N-mm
4.8 10 4 10 9 mm 3

= 250 MPa

A propped cantilever beam shown in the figure has a plastic moment capacity
of M0.
P
C

L/2

L/2

The collapse load is

Ans.

(a)

4 M0
L

(b)

6 M0
L

(c)

8 M0
L

(d)

12 M0
L

(b)
P
B

L/2

L/2

MP

MP

By principle of virtual work,

P = MP( + + )

L
= MP(3)
2

P=

6M P
L

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.117

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Page
42

The dimensions of a T-section are shown in the figure

b
10 mm

110 mm

10 mm

For the depth of plastic neutral axis from the top of the T-section to be 9.583 mm,
the flange width b must be

Ans.

(a) 100 mm

(b) 110 mm

(c) 120 mm

(d) 130 mm

(c)
Plastic NA divides the section into equal areas.
Hence,

9.583 b = (10 9.583) b + 10 110

b = 120 mm

b
10 mm

9.583

110 mm

10 mm

Q.118

Ans.

The shape factors of a triangle section and a diamond section are respectively
(a) 2.343 and 2.0

(b) 2.0 and 2.343

(c) 1.343 and 2.0

(d) 2.0 and 1.343

(a)

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IES 2014: Civil Engineering

Paper-I (Objective) Solutions
Q.119

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Page
43

For a skeletal frame shown in the figure

static and kinematic indeterminacies are

Ans.

(a) 3 and 11

(b) 3 and 9

(c) 3 and 6

(d) 6 and 3

(
)

Ds = 3C R1
= 3 4 (1 + 2) = 9
Kinematic indeterminacy,
DK = 3 9 (3 + 2 + 1) 10 = 11

Q.120

Ans.

The effective length of a fillet weld is taken as the actual length

(a) plus twice the size of the weld

(b) minus twice the size of the weld

(c) plus the size of the weld

(d) minus the size of the weld

(b)

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