Exam Name:

Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 1
Who is responsible for establishing access permissions to network resources in the DAC access
control model?
A. The system administrator.
B. The owner of the resource.
C. The system administrator and the owner of the resource.
D. The user requiring access to the resource.
Answer: B
Question: 2
The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and
procedures needed to create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates. The public
key infrastructure is based on which encryption schemes?
A. Symmetric
B. Quantum
C. Asymmetric
D. Elliptical curve
Answer: C
Question: 3
Why will a Faraday cage be used?
A. To find rogue access points
B. To allow wireless usage
C. To mitigate data emanation
D. To minimize weak encryption
Answer: C
Question: 4
Which definition best defines what a challenge-response session is?
A. A challenge-response session is a workstation or system that produces a random challenge
string that the user provides, when prompted, in conjunction with the proper PIN (Personal
Identification Number).
B. A challenge-response session is a workstation or system that produces a random login ID that
the user provides, when prompted, in conjunction with the proper PIN (Personal Identification
Number).
C. A challenge-response session is a special hardware device used to produce random text in a
cryptography system.
D. A challenge-response session is the authentication mechanism in the workstation or system
that does not determine whether the owner should be authenticated.
Answer: A
Question: 5
The hashing algorithm is created from a hash value, making it nearly impossible to derive the
original input number. Which item can implement the strongest hashing algorithm?
A. NTLMv2
B. LANMAN
Page 1 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

C. NTLM
D. VLAN
Answer: A
Question: 6
For which reason are clocks used in Kerberos authentication?
A. Clocks are used to ensure proper connections.
B. Clocks are used to ensure that tickets expire correctly.
C. Clocks are used to generate the seed value for the encryptions keys.
D. Clocks are used to both benchmark and specify the optimal encryption algorithm.
Answer: B
Question: 7
Network utilization is the ratio of current network traffic to the maximum traffic that the port can
handle. Which of the following can most effectively determine whether network utilization is
abnormal?
A. Application log
B. Performance baseline
C. Systems monitor
D. Security log
Answer: B
Question: 8
To reduce vulnerabilities on a web server, an administrator should adopt which of the following
preventative measures?
A. Use packet sniffing software on all inbound communications
B. Apply the most recent manufacturer updates and patches to the server.
C. Enable auditing on the web server and periodically review the audit logs
D. Block all Domain Name Service (DNS) requests coming into the server.
Answer: B
Question: 9
A travel reservation organization conducts the majority of its transactions via a public facing
website. Any downtime to this website will lead to serious financial damage for this organization.
One web server is connected to several distributed database servers. Which statement is correct
about this scenario?
A. RAID
B. Warm site
C. Proxy server
D. Single point of failure
Answer: D
Question: 10
Which of the following is a common type of attack on web servers?
A. Birthday
Page 2 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. Buffer overflow
C. Spam
D. Brute force
Answer: B
Question: 11
An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is software and/or hardware designed to detect unwanted
attempts at accessing, manipulating, and/or disabling of computer systems, mainly through a
network, such as the Internet. When an IDS is configured to match a specific traffic pattern, then
which of the following is this referring to?
A. Signature-based
B. Behavior-based
C. Anomaly-based
D. Heuristic-based
Answer: A
Question: 12
The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers.
The MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant
messaging:
A. Communications are a drain on bandwidth
B. Communications are open and unprotected
C. Has no common protocol
D. Uses weak encryption
Answer: B
Question: 13
How is access control permissions established in the RBAC access control model?
A. The system administrator.
B. The owner of the resource.
C. The role or responsibilities users have in the organization.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
Question: 14
Removable storage has been around almost as long as the computer itself. Which of the
following is the GREATEST security risk regarding removable storage?
A. Availability of data
B. Integrity of data
C. Not enough space available
D. Confidentiality of data
Answer: D
Question: 15
A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over:

Page 3 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. An intranet
B. A modem
C. A network interface card
D. The Internet
Answer: D
Question: 16
In which authentication model a ticket granting server is an important concept?
A. CHAP
B. PAP
C. Kerberos
D. RADIUS
Answer: C
Question: 17
Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot
claim that the email was not received?
A. Anti-aliasing
B. Data integrity
C. Asymmetric cryptography
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D
Question: 18
Coaxial cable is a cable consisting of an inner conductor, surrounded by a tubular insulating layer
typically made from a flexible material with a high dielectric constant, all of which is then
surrounded by another conductive layer (typically of fine woven wire for flexibility, or of a thin
metallic foil), and then finally covered again with a thin insulating layer on the outside. Which is
the primary security risk with coaxial cable?
A. Crosstalk between the wire pairs
B. Data emanation from the core
C. Refraction of the signal
D. Diffusion of the core light source
Answer: A
Question: 19
Which of the following portions of a company's network is between the Internet and an internal
network?
A. IDS
B. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
C. Filter router
D. Bastion host
Answer: B
Question: 20

Page 4 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A technician is conducting a forensics analysis on a computer system. Which step should be

taken FIRST?
A. Search for Trojans.
B. Look for hidden files.
C. Get a binary copy of the system.
D. Analyze temporary files.
Answer: C
Question: 21
Which of the following is MOST often used to allow a client or partner access to a network?
A. Extranet
B. Intranet
C. VLAN
D. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
Answer: A
Question: 22
In a secure environment, which authentication mechanism will perform better?
A. RADIUS because it encrypts client-server passwords.
B. TACACS because it encrypts client-server negotiation dialogs.
C. TACACS because it is a remote access authentication service.
D. RADIUS because it is a remote access authentication service.
Answer: B
Question: 23
Which of the following types of firewalls provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model?
A. Application-proxy
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Packet filters
D. Stateful inspection
Answer: A
Question: 24
Which threat is increased by the availability of portable external storage such as USB hard drives
to networks?
A. Increased loss business data
B. Introduction of material on to the network
C. Removal of sensitive and PII data
D. Introduction of rogue wireless access points
Answer: C
Question: 25
Which goals can be achieved by use of security templates? (Select TWO).
A. To ensure that PKI will work properly within the companys trust model
Page 5 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. To ensure that performance is standardized across all servers

C. To ensure that servers are in compliance with the corporate security policy
D. To ensure that all servers start from a common security configuration
Answer: C, D
Question: 26
A newly hired security specialist is asked to evaluate a company's network security. The security
specialist discovers that users have installed personal software; the network OS has default
settings and no patches have been installed and passwords are not required to be changed
regularly. Which of the following would be the FIRST step to take?
A. Install software patches.
B. Disable non-essential services.
C. Enforce the security policy.
D. Password management
Answer: C
Question: 27
Which of the following can be used to implement a procedure to control inbound and outbound
traffic on a network segment?
A. Proxy
B. NIDS
C. ACL
D. HIDS
Answer: C
Question: 28
Giving each user or group of users only the access they need to do their job is an example of
which of the following security principals?
A. Least privilege
B. Defense in depth
C. Separation of duties
D. Access control
Answer: A
Question: 29
Which one of the following is not Bluetooth threat?
A. Blue jacking.
B. Bluesnarfing.
C. Discovery mode.
D. A smurf attack.
Answer: D
Question: 30
A company implements an SMTP server on their firewall. This implementation would violate
which of the following security principles?

Page 6 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. Keep the solution simple

B. Use a device as intended
C. Create an in-depth defense
D. Address internal threats
Answer: B
Question: 31
In computing, the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS , also known as the System BIOS, is a de
facto standard defining a firmware interface for IBM PC Compatible computers. A user is
concerned with the security of their laptops BIOS. The user would not like anyone to be able to
access control functions except themselves. Which of the following could make the BIOS more
secure?
A. Password
B. Flash the BIOS
C. Encrypt the hard drive
D. Create an access-list
Answer: A
Question: 32
A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor
and network segment to see each other's traffic. Which of the following network devices should
be used?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Firewall
Answer: C
Question: 33
In computing, a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is a type of Uniform Resource Identifier (URI)
that specifies where an identified resource is available and the mechanism for retrieving it. When
a user attempts to go to a website, he notices the URL has changed, which attack will MOST
likely cause the problem?
A. ARP poisoning
B. DLL injection
C. DNS poisoning
D. DDoS attack
Answer: C
Question: 34
A system administrator reports that an unauthorized user has accessed the network. Which of the
following would be the FIRST action to take?
A. Notify management.
B. Determine the business impact.
C. Contact law enforcement officials.
D. Contain the problem.

Page 7 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: D
Question: 35
What does the DAC access control model use to identify the users who have permissions to a
resource?
A. Predefined access privileges.
B. The role or responsibilities users have in the organization
C. Access Control Lists
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
Question: 36
After analyzing vulnerability and applying a security patch, which non-intrusive action should be
taken to verify that the vulnerability was truly removed?
A. Update the antivirus definition file.
B. Apply a security patch from the vendor.
C. Repeat the vulnerability scan.
D. Perform a penetration test.
Answer: C
Question: 37
A companys security' specialist is securing a web server that is reachable from the Internet. The
web server is located in the core internal corporate network. The network cannot be redesigned
and the server cannot be moved. Which of the following should the security specialist implement
to secure the web server? (Select TWO).
A. Router with an IDS module
B. Network-based IDS
C. Router with firewall rule set
D. Host-based IDS
E. Network-based firewal
F. Host-based firewall
Answer: D, F
Question: 38
A denial-of-service attack (DoS attack) or distributed denial-of-service attack (DDoS attack) is an
attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users. Which method can be
used to perform denial of service (DoS) attacks?
A. Adware
B. Botnet
C. Spyware
D. Privilege escalation
Answer: B
Question: 39
The CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) sends a logon request from the client
to the server, and the server sends a challenge back to the client. At which stage does the CHAP
protocol perform the handshake process? Choose the best complete answer.
Page 8 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. At the stage when the connection is established and at whichever time after the connection
has been established.
B. At the stage when the connection is established and when the connection is disconnected.
C. At the stage when the connection is established.
D. At the stage when the connection is disconnected.
Answer: A
Question: 40
A network intrusion detection system (NIDS) is an intrusion detection system that tries to detect
malicious activity such as denial of service attacks, port scans or even attempts to crack into
computers by monitoring network traffic. Which NIDS configuration is solely based on specific
network traffic?
A. Anomaly-based
B. Host-based
C. Behavior-based
D. Signature-based
Answer: D
Question: 41
Which of the following are nonessential protocols and services?
A. Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
B. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol).
C. Domain Name Service (DNS)
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Answer: B
Question: 42
You work as a network technician for your company. The company policy for availability needs
full backups on Sunday and incremental backups each week night at 10 p.m. The file server
crashes on Wednesday afternoon; how many types are required to restore the data on the file
server for Thursday morning?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: C
Question: 43
Which of the following protocols are not recommended due to them supplying passwords and
information over the network?
A. Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
B. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).
C. Domain Name Service (DNS)
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Answer: B
Page 9 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 44
Which is the correct order in which crucial equipment should draw power?
A. Backup generator, UPS battery, UPS line conditioner
B. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) battery, UPS line conditioner, backup generator
C. Backup generator, UPS line conditioner, UPS battery
D. UPS line conditioner, UPS battery, and backup generator
Answer: D
Question: 45
Most key fob based identification systems use which of the following types of authentication
mechanisms? (Select TWO).
A. Kerberos
B. Biometrics
C. Username/password
D. Certificates
E. Token
Answer: C, E
Question: 46
Alexander works as a network administrator for an organization which has 33,000 users. Now,
Alexander wants to store six months of Internet proxy logs on a dedicated logging server for
analysis and content reporting. The reports are not time critical, but are required by upper
management for legal obligations. When determining the requirements for the logging server,
which of the following will not be applied?
A. Log storage and backup requirements.
B. Log details and level of verbose logging.
C. Performance baseline and audit trails.
D. Time stamping and integrity of the logs.
Answer: C
Question: 47
Which item will MOST likely permit an attacker to make a switch function like a hub?
A. MAC flooding
B. DNS spoofing
C. ARP poisoning
D. DNS poisoning
Answer: A
Question: 48
Which of the following describes a server or application that is accepting more input than the
server or application is expecting?
A. Denial of service (DoS)
B. Syntax error
C. Buffer overflow
D. Brute force
Page 10 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: C
Question: 49
The IP Authentication Header (AH) is used to provide connectionless integrity and data origin
authentication for IP datagrams (hereafter referred to as just "authentication"), and to provide
protection against replays. Which of the following is correct about authentication headers (AH)?
A. The authentication information is a keyed hash based on all of the bytes in the packet.
B. The authentication information may be the same on different packets if the integrity remains in
place.
C. The authentication information hash will increase by one if the bytes remain the same on
transfer.
D. The authentication information hash will remain the same if the bytes change on transfer.
Answer: A
Question: 50
Which of the following refers to the ability to be reasonably certain that data is not modified or
tampered with?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B
Question: 51
Which description is correct about the form used while transferring evidence?
A. Evidence log
B. Booking slip
C. Chain of custody
D. Affidavit
Answer: C
Question: 52
Disguising oneself as a reputable hardware manufacturer's field technician who is picking up a
server for repair would be described as:
A. A phishing attack
B. A Trojan horse
C. A man-in-the-middle attack
D. Social engineering
Answer: D
Question: 53
A graphical user interface (GUI) is a type of user interface which allows people to interact with
electronic devices such as computers; hand-held devices such as MP3 Players, Portable Media
Players or Gaming devices; household appliances and office equipment. Which of the following
will allow a technician to restrict a user accessing to the GUI?

Page 11 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. Use of logical tokens

B. Group policy implementation
C. Password policy enforcement
D. Access control lists
Answer: B
Question: 54
A security specialist has downloaded a free security software tool from a trusted industry site. The
source has published the MD5 hash values for the executable program. The specialist performs a
successful virus scan on the download but the MD5 hash is different. Which of the following steps
should the specialist take?
A. Avoid executing the file and contact the source website administrator
B. Ignore the MD5 hash values because the values can change during IP fragmentation.
C. Re-run the anti-virus program to ensure that it contains no virus execute
D. Install the executable program because there was probably a mistake with the MD5 value.
Answer: A
Question: 55
Which authentication method will prevent a replay attack from occurring?
A. RADIUS
B. L2TP
C. Kerberos
D. CHAP
Answer: C
Question: 56
Which of the following identifies the layer of the OSI model where SSL provides encryption?
A. Application
B. Network
C. Session
D. Transport
Answer: C
Question: 57
Which of the following refers to the ability to be reasonably certain that data is not disclosed to
unintended persons?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Integrity
C. Authentication
D. Confidentiality
Answer: D
Question: 58
Which of the following can be used by a technician to detect staff members that are connecting to
an unauthorized website?

Page 12 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. Protocol analyzer
B. Host routing table
C. HIDS
D. Bluesnarfing
Answer: A
Question: 59
Which of the following would be the BEST reason to disable unnecessary services on a server?
A. Not starting a service will save system memory and reduce startup time.
B. If a service doesn't support the function of the server the service won't be missed.
C. Attack surface and opportunity for compromise are reduced
D. Services can be re-enabled if needed at a later time
Answer: C
Question: 60
For the following items, which is an example of an attack that executes once a year on a certain
date?
A. Rootkit
B. Virus
C. Logic bomb
D. Worm
Answer: C
Question: 61
Access controls based on security labels associated with each data item and each user are
known as:
A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
B. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. List Based Access Control (LBAC)
D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Answer: A
Question: 62
Which tool can help the technician to find all open ports on the network?
A. Router ACL
B. Performance monitor
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Network scanner
Answer: D
Question: 63
A user is assigned access rights explicitly. This is a feature of which of the following access
control models?
A. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
B. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Page 13 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

C. Rule Based Access Control (RBAC)

D. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Answer: A
Question: 64
Which algorithms can best encrypt large amounts of data?
A. Asymmetric key algorithms
B. Symmetric key algorithms
C. ECC algorithms
D. Hashing algorithms
Answer: B
Question: 65
Which of the following describes an attacker encouraging a person to perform an action in order
to be successful?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Social engineering
C. Back door
D. Password guessing
Answer: B
Question: 66
During which phase of identification and authentication does proofing occur?
A. Authentication
B. Testing
C. Verification
D. Identification
Answer: D
Question: 67
A user has received an email from a mortgage company asking for personal information including
bank account numbers. This would BEST be described as:
A. Spam
B. Phishing
C. Packet sniffing
D. A hoax
Answer: B
Question: 68
Hashing is the transformation of a string of characters into a usually shorter fixed-length value or
key that represents the original string. Hashing is used to index and retrieve items in a database.
Which description is correct when a hashing algorithm generates the same hash for two different
messages?
A. A one-way hash occurred.
B. A hashing chain occurred.
Page 14 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

C. A collision occurred.
D. A deviation occurred.
Answer: C
Question: 69
Which item can reduce the attack surface of an operating system?
A. Installing HIDS
B. Patch management
C. Installing antivirus
D. Disabling unused services
Answer: D
Question: 70
Which of the following connectivity is required for a web server that is hosting an SSL based web
site?
A. Port 443 inbound
B. Port 443 outbound
C. Port 80 inbound
D. Port 80 outbound
Answer: A
Question: 71
For the following items, which is a protocol analyzer?
A. Cain Abel
B. WireShark
C. Nessus
D. John the Ripper
Answer: B
Question: 72
Malicious port scanning is a method of attack to determine which of the following?
A. Computer name
B. The fingerprint of the operating system
C. The physical cabling topology of a network
D. User IDs and passwords
Answer: B
Question: 73
Which description is correct about a way to prevent buffer overflows?
A. Apply all security patches to workstations.
B. Monitor P2P program usage through content filters.
C. Apply security templates enterprise wide.
D. Apply group policy management techniques.
Answer: A
Page 15 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 74
Which of the following is used to determine equipment status and modify the configuration or
settings of network devices?
A. SNMP
B. DHCP
C. SMTP
D. CHAP
Answer: A
Question: 75
Which item will effectively allow for fast, highly secure encryption of a USB flash drive?
A. 3DES
B. SHA-1
C. MD5
D. AES256
Answer: D
Question: 76
Which of the following describes the process by which a single user name and password can be
entered to access multiple computer applications?
A. Single sign-on
B. Encryption protocol
C. Access control lists
D. Constrained user interfaces
Answer: A
Question: 77
Network traffic is data in a network. Which tool can be used to review network traffic for clear text
passwords?
A. Port scanner
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Firewall
D. Password cracker
Answer: B
Question: 78
To preserve evidence for later use in court, which of the following needs to be documented?
A. Audit trail of systems usage
B. Disaster recovery plan
C. Chain of certificates
D. Chain of custody
Answer: D
Question: 79
Page 16 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Which of the following describes a type of algorithm that cannot be reversed in order to decode
the data?
A. Symmetric
B. One Way Function
C. Asymmetric
D. Pseudorandom Number Generator (PRNG)
Answer: B
Question: 80
What are best practices while installing and securing a new system for a home user? (Select
THREE).
A. Use a strong firewall.
B. Install remote control software.
C. Apply all system patches.
D. Apply all service packs.
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 81
Which of the following is a major reason that social engineering attacks succeed?
A. Strong passwords are not required
B. Lack of security awareness
C. Multiple logins are allowed
D. Audit logs are not monitored frequently
Answer: B
Question: 82
Which security action should be finished before access is given to the network?
A. Identification and authorization
B. Identification and authentication
C. Authentication and authorization
D. Authentication and password
Answer: B
Question: 83
Which of the following types of backups requires that files and software that have been changed
since the last full backup be copied to storage media?
A. Incremental
B. Differential
C. Full
D. Delta
Answer: B
Question: 84
Which port must be open to allow a user to login remotely onto a workstation?

Page 17 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. 53
B. 636
C. 3389
D. 8080
Answer: C
Question: 85
The authentication process where the user can access several resources without the need for
multiple credentials is known as:
A. Discretionary Access Control (DAC).
B. Need to know
C. Decentralized management
D. Single sign-on
Answer: D
Question: 86
Which item best describes an instance where a biometric system identifies legitimate users as
being unauthorized?
A. False acceptance
B. False positive
C. False rejection
D. False negative
Answer: C
Question: 87
The purpose of the SSID in a wireless network is to:
A. Define the encryption protocols used.
B. Secure the WAP
C. Identify the network
D. Protect the client
Answer: C
Question: 88
Which of the following is the best description about the method of controlling how and when users
can connect in from home?
A. Remote access policy
B. Remote authentication
C. Terminal access control
D. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
Answer: A
Question: 89
Which of the following would be the MOST common method for attackers to spoof email?
A. Web proxy
B. Man in the middle attacks
Page 18 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

C. Trojan horse programs

D. Open relays
Answer: D
Question: 90
CRL is short for Certificate Revocation List. Which types of keys are included in a CRL?
A. Both public and private keys
B. Public keys
C. Steganographic keys
D. Private keys
Answer: A
Question: 91
The implicit deny will block anything you didn't specifically allow but you may have allowed stuff
that you don't need. A technician is reviewing the system logs for a firewall and is told that there
is an implicit deny within the ACL. Which is an example of an implicit deny?
A. An implicit deny statement denies all traffic from one network to another.
B. Each item is denied by default because of the implicit deny.
C. Items which are not specifically given access are denied by default.
D. An ACL is a way to secure traffic from one network to another.
Answer: C
Question: 92
Which of the following is often misused by spyware to collect and report a user's activities?
A. Persistent cookie
B. Web bug
C. Tracking cookie
D. Session cookie
Answer: C
Question: 93
Which of the following is not identified within the penetration testing scope of work?
A. A complete list of all network vulnerabilities.
B. Handling of information collected by the penetration testing team.
C. IP addresses of machines from which penetration testing will be executed.
D. A list of acceptable testing techniques and tools to be utilized.
Answer: A
Question: 94
Choose the figure which represents the number of ports in the TCP/IP (Transmission Control
Protocol/Internet Protocol) which are vulnerable to being scanned, attacked, and exploited.
A. 32 ports
B. 1,024 ports
C. 65,535 ports
D. 16,777,216 ports
Page 19 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: C
Question: 95
Tom is a network technician of his company. Now, he is making a decision between implementing
a HIDS on the database server and implementing a NIDS. Why NIDS may be better to
implement? (Select TWO).
A. Many HIDS only offer a low level of detection granularity.
B. Many HIDS are not able to detect network attacks.
C. Many HIDS have a negative impact on system performance.
D. Many HIDS are not good at detecting attacks on database servers.
Answer: B, C
Question: 96
Which of the following would be considered a detrimental effect of a virus hoax? (Select TWO).
A. The email server capacity is consumed by message traffic.
B. Technical support resources are consumed by increased user calls.
C. Users are tricked into changing the system configuration.
D. Users are at risk for identity theft.
Answer: B, C
Question: 97
Which types of keys will be used if a server and workstation communicate via SSL? (Select
TWO).
A. Public key
B. Recovery key
C. Session key
D. Keylogger
Answer: A, C
Question: 98
To keep an 802.11x network from being automatically discovered, a user should:
A. Turn off the SSID broadcast.
B. Leave the SSID default.
C. Change the SSID name.
D. Activate the SSID password
Answer: A
Question: 99
Which security policy will be most likely used while attempting to mitigate the risks involved with
allowing a user to access company email via their cell phone?
A. The cell phone should require a password after a set period of inactivity.
B. The cell phone should have data connection abilities disabled.
C. The cell phone should only be used for company related emails.
D. The cell phone data should be encrypted according to NIST standards.

Page 20 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: A
Question: 100
Which of the following BEST describes the baseline process of securing devices on a network
infrastructure?
A. Enumerating
B. Hardening
C. Active prevention
D. Passive detection
Answer: B
Question: 101
Secret Key encryption is also known as:
A. Symmetrical
B. Replay
C. One way function.
D. Asymmetrical
Answer: A
Question: 102
In computing, virtualization is a broad term that refers to the abstraction of computer resources.
Which is a security reason to implement virtualization throughout the network infrastructure?
A. To implement additional network services at a lower cost
B. To analyze the various network traffic with protocol analyzers
C. To isolate the various network services and roles
D. To centralize the patch management of network servers
Answer: C
Question: 103
Which of the following types of removable media is write-once and appropriate for archiving
security logs?
A. Tape
B. CD-R
C. Hard disk
D. USB drive
Answer: B
Question: 104
After installing new software on a machine, what needs to be updated to the baseline?
A. Honeypot
B. Signature-based NIPS
C. Signature-based NIDS
D. Behavior-based HIDS
Answer: D

Page 21 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 105
Which of the following could cause communication errors with an IPSec VPN tunnel because of
changes made to the IP header?
A. SOCKS
B. NAT
C. DNS
D. Private addressing
Answer: B
Question: 106
A PC is rejecting push updates from the server; all other PCs on the network are accepting the
updates successfully. What should be examined first?
A. Password expiration
B. Local firewall
C. Anti-spyware
D. Pop-up blocker
Answer: B
Question: 107
A company wants to connect the network to a manufacturer's network to be able to order parts.
Which of the following types of networks should the company implement to provide the
connection while limiting the services allowed over the connection?
A. Scatternet
B. Extranet
C. VPN
D. Intranet
Answer: B
Question: 108
Malware, a portmanteau from the words malicious and software, is software designed to infiltrate
or damage a computer system without the owner's informed consent. A network technician
suspects that a piece of malware is consuming too many CPU cycles and slowing down a
system. Which item can help determine the amount of CPU cycles being consumed?
A. Install malware scanning software.
B. Run performance monitor to evaluate the CPU usage.
C. Use a protocol analyzer to find the cause of the traffic.
D. Install HIDS to determine the CPU usage.
Answer: B
Question: 109
Which of the following ports are typically used by email clients? (Select TWO)
A. 3389
B. 194
C. 143
D. 110
E. 49
Page 22 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

F. 23
Answer: C, D
Question: 110
In order to allow for more oversight of past transactions, a company decides to exchange
positions of the purchasing agent and the accounts receivable agent. Which is an example of
this?
A. Separation of duties
B. Least privilege
C. Implicit deny
D. Job rotation
Answer: D
Question: 111
Fiber optic cable is considered safer than CAT5 because fiber optic cable: (Select TWO).
A. Is not susceptible to interference.
B. Is hard to tap in to.
C. Is made of glass rather than copper.
D. Can be run for a longer distance
E. Is more difficult to install
Answer: A, B
Question: 112
Why do security researchers often use virtual machines?
A. To offer an environment where new network applications can be tested
B. To offer a secure virtual environment to conduct online deployments
C. To offer a virtual collaboration environment to discuss security research
D. To offer an environment where malware can be executed with minimal risk to equipment and
software
Answer: D
Question: 113
Virtualized applications, such as virtualized browsers, can protect the underlying operating
system from which of the following?
A. Malware installation from suspects Internet sites
B. DDoS attacks against the underlying OS
C. Man-in-the-middle attacks
D. Phishing and spam attacks
Answer: A
Question: 114
How to make sure that when an employee leaves the company permanently, the company will
have access to their private keys?
A. Store the keys in escrow.
B. Store them in a CRL.
Page 23 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

C. Obtain the employees hardware token.

D. Immediately delete the account.
Answer: A
Question: 115
A DNS (Domain Name Service) server uses a specific port number. Choose this port number
from the options.
A. Port 32
B. Port 1,024
C. Port 65,535
D. Port 16,777,216
Answer: B
Question: 116
An outside auditor has been contracted to determine whether weak passwords are being used on
the network. In order to achieve this goal, the auditor is running a password cracker against the
master password file. Which of the following is an example of this?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Malware scan
C. Baselining
D. Fingerprinting
Answer: A
Question: 117
Which of the following access attacks would involve looking through your files in the hopes of
finding something interesting?
A. Interception
B. Snooping
C. Eavesdropping
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Question: 118
Identify the service provided by message authentication code (MAC) hash:
A. Data recovery.
B. Fault tolerance.
C. Key recovery.
D. Integrity
Answer: D
Question: 119
A company wants to implement a VLAN. Senior management believes that a VLAN will be secure
because authentication is accomplished by MAC addressing and that dynamic trunking protocol
(DTP) will facilitate network efficiency. Which of the following issues should be discussed with
senior management before VLAN implementation?

Page 24 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. MAC addresses can be spoofed and DTP allows rogue network devices to configure ports
B. MAC addresses can be spoofed and DTP allows only authenticated users.
C. MAC addresses are a secure authentication mechanism and DTP allows rogue network
devices to configure ports.
D. MAC addresses are a secure authentication mechanism and DTP allows only authenticated
users.
Answer: A
Question: 120
John works as a network administrator for his company. On the monthly firewall log, he discovers
that many internal PCs are sending packets on a routine basis to a single external PC. Which
statement correctly describes what is happening?
A. The remote PC has a zombie slave application running and the local PCs have a zombie
master application running.
B. The remote PC has a zombie master application running and the local PCs have a zombie
slave application running.
C. The remote PC has a spam slave application running and the local PCs have a spam master
application running.
D. The remote PC has a spam master application running and the local PCs have a spam slave
application running.
Answer: B
Question: 121
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) uses a PKI Trust Model where no certificate authority (CA) is
subordinate to another. The model with no single trusted root is known as:
A. Peer-to-peer
B. Downlevel
C. Hierarchical
D. Hybrid
Answer: A
Question: 122
Which key can be used by a user to log into their network with a smart card?
A. Public key
B. Cipher key
C. Shared key
D. Private key
Answer: D
Question: 123
Which of the following would be an effective way to ensure that a compromised PKI key can not
access a system?
A. Reconfigure the key
B. Revoke the key
C. Delete the key
D. Renew the key

Page 25 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: B
Question: 124
What does the MAC access control model use to identify the users who have permissions to a
resource?
A. Predefined access privileges.
B. The role or responsibilities users have in the organization
C. Access Control Lists
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Question: 125
Which description is true about the process of securely removing information from media (e.g.
hard drive) for future use?
A. Deleting
B. Reformatting
C. Sanitization
D. Destruction
Answer: C
Question: 126
Which of the following provides the MOST secure form of encryption?
A. 3DES
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. DES
D. AES
Answer: D
Question: 127
Users on a network report that they are receiving unsolicited emails from the same email
address. Which action should be performed to prevent this from occurring?
A. Install an ACL on the firewall to block traffic from the sender and filter the IP address.
B. Configure a rule in each users router and restart the router.
C. Install an anti-spam filter on the domain mail servers and filter the email address.
D. Configure rules on the users host and restart the host.
Answer: C
Question: 128
Which of the following describes the validation of a message's origin?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Non-repudiation
D. Asymmetric encryption
Answer: C

Page 26 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 129
Users are using thumb drives to connect to USB ports on company workstations. A technician is
concerned that sensitive files can be copied to the USB drives. Which mitigation technique would
address this concern? (Select TWO).
A. Disable the USB root hub within the OS.
B. Apply the concept of least privilege to USB devices.
C. Disable USB within the workstations BIOS.
D. Run spyware detection against all workstations.
Answer: A, C
Question: 130
Using software on an individual computer to generate a key pair is an example of which of the
following approaches to PKI architecture?
A. Decentralized
B. Centralized
C. Hub and spoke
D. Distributed key
Answer: A
Question: 131
Which description is true about how to accomplish steganography in graphic files?
A. Replacing the most significant bit of each byte
B. Replacing the most significant byte of each bit
C. Replacing the least significant byte of each bit
D. Replacing the least significant bit of each byte
Answer: D
Question: 132
Which of the following types of encryption would be BEST to use for a large amount of data?
A. Asymmetric
B. Symmetric
C. ROT13
D. Hash
Answer: B
Question: 133
Which one of the following options is a vulnerability assessment tool?
A. AirSnort
B. John the Ripper
C. Cain Abel
D. Nessus
Answer: D
Question: 134

Page 27 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Malicious software that travels across computer networks without user assistance is an example
of a:
A. Worm
B. Virus
C. Logic bomb
D. Trojan hors
Answer: A
Question: 135
For the following items, which one is a collection of servers setup to attract hackers?
A. Honeypot
B. VLAN
C. Honeynet
D. DMZ
Answer: C
Question: 136
You work as a network administrator for your company. Your company has just detected a
malware incident. Which will be your first response?
A. Removal
B. Containment
C. Recovery
D. Monitor
Answer: B
Question: 137
When setting password rules, which of the following would lower the level of security of a
network?
A. Passwords must be greater than six characters and contain at least one non-alpha.
B. All passwords are set to expire at regular intervals and users are required to choose new
passwords that have not been used before.
C. Complex passwords that users can not remotely change are randomly generated by the
administrator and given to users
D. After a set number of failed attempts the server will lock out any user account forcing the user
to call the administrator to re-enable the account.
Answer: C
Question: 138
You are a network technician of your company. You have just detected an intrusion on your
company??s network from the Internet. What should be checked FIRST?
A. The firewall logs
B. The performance logs
C. The DNS logs
D. The access logs
Answer: A
Page 28 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 139
A person pretends to be a telecommunications repair technician, enters a building stating that
there is a networking trouble work order and requests that a security guard unlock the wiring
closet. The person connects a packet sniffer to the network switch in the wiring closet and hides
the sniffer behind the switch against a wall. This is an example of:
A. A vulnerability scan
B. Social engineering
C. A man in the middle attack
D. A penetration test
Answer: B
Question: 140
Which method could identify when unauthorized access has occurred?
A. Implement session termination mechanism.
B. Implement previous logon notification.
C. Implement session lock mechanism.
D. Implement two-factor authentication.
Answer: B
Question: 141
Which of the following definitions would be correct regarding Eavesdropping?
A. Placing a computer system between the sender and receiver to capture information.
B. Someone looking through your files.
C. Listening or overhearing parts of a conversation
D. Involve someone who routinely monitors network traffic.
Answer: C
Question: 142
Which practice is the best to secure log files?
A. Copy or save the logs to a remote log server.
B. Change security settings to avoid corruption.
C. Log all failed and successful login attempts.
D. Deny administrators all access to log files to prevent write failures.
Answer: A
Question: 143
Which of the following definitions would be correct regarding Active Inception?
A. Someone looking through your files
B. Involve someone who routinely monitors network traffic
C. Listening or overhearing parts of a conversation
D. Placing a computer system between the sender and receiver to capture information.
Answer: D
Question: 144
Page 29 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

How to test the integrity of a company's backup data?

A. By reviewing the written procedures
B. By conducting another backup
C. By restoring part of the backup
D. By using software to recover deleted files
Answer: C
Question: 145
Nmap has been run against a server and more open ports than expected have been discovered.
Which of the following would be the FIRST step to take?
A. All ports should be closed and observed to see whether a process tries to reopen the port.
B. Nmap should be run again and observed to see whether different results are obtained.
C. All ports should be left open and traffic monitored for malicious activity
D. The process using the ports should be examined.
Answer: D
Question: 146
Which of the following statements regarding the MAC access control models is TRUE?
A. The Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model is a dynamic model.
B. In the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) the owner of a resource establishes access privileges
to that resource.
C. In the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) users cannot share resources dynamically.
D. The Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model is not restrictive.
Answer: C
Question: 147
Which statement best describes a static NAT?
A. A static NAT uses a many to many mapping.
B. A static NAT uses a one to many mapping.
C. A static NAT uses a many to one mapping.
D. A static NAT uses a one to one mapping.
Answer: D
Question: 148
Which of the following would be MOST desirable when attacking encrypted data?
A. Sniffed traffic
B. Block cipher
C. Weak key
D. Algorithm used
Answer: C
Question: 149
Which scanner can find a rootkit?
A. Email scanner
Page 30 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. Malware scanner
C. Anti-spam scanner
D. Adware scanner
Answer: B
Question: 150
Social engineering attacks would be MOST effective in which of the following environments?
(Select TWO).
A. A locked, windowless building
B. A military facility with computer equipment containing biometrics.
C. A public building that has shared office space.
D. A company with a dedicated information technology (IT) security staff.
E. A company with a help desk whose personnel have minimal training.
Answer: C, E
Question: 151
What is steganography primarily used for?
A. Data integrity
B. Message digest
C. Hide information
D. Encrypt information
Answer: C
Question: 152
Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an administrator to determine what security
holes reside on a network?
A. Perform a vulnerability assessment
B. Run a port scan
C. Run a sniffer
D. Install and monitor an IDS
Answer: A
Question: 153
For the following sites, which one has the means (e.g. equipment, software, and communications)
to facilitate a full recovery within minutes?
A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Reciprocal site
Answer: B
Question: 154
A company has instituted a VPN to allow remote users to connect to the office. As time
progresses multiple security associations are created with each association being more secure.
Which of the following should be implemented to automate the selection of the BEST security
association for each user?
Page 31 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. AES
B. 3DES
C. SHA
D. IKE
Answer: D
Question: 155
Which item is not a logical access control method?
A. Biometrics
B. Group policy.
C. ACL
D. Software token.
Answer: A
Question: 156
The concept that a web script is run in its own environment and cannot interfere with any other
process is known as a:
A. Honey pot
B. VLAN
C. Quarantine
D. Sandbox
Answer: D
Question: 157
Which description is correct about an application or string of code that could not automatically
spread from one system to another but is designed to spread from file to file?
A. Botnet
B. Adware
C. Worm
D. Virus
Answer: D
Question: 158
Which description is true about the external security testing?
A. Conducted from outside the perimeter switch but inside the border router
B. Conducted from outside the perimeter switch but inside the firewall
C. Conducted from outside the organizations security perimeter
D. Conducted from outside the building that hosts the organizations servers
Answer: C
Question: 159
A small manufacturing company wants to deploy secure wireless on their network. Which of the
following wireless security protocols could be used? (Select TWO).
A. WEP
Page 32 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. IPX
C. WPA
D. WAN
Answer: A, C
Question: 160
What should be established immediately upon evidence seizure?
A. Forensic analysis
B. Start the incident respond plan
C. Chain of custody
D. Damage and loss control
Answer: C
Question: 161
Which of the following uses private key / public key technology to secure web sites?
A. SSL
B. TCP
C. Media Access Control (MAC)
D. Access Control List (ACL)
Answer: A
Question: 162
Which one of the following options will permit an attacker to hide the presence of malicious code
through altering the systems process and registry entries?
A. Trojan
B. Logic bomb
C. Worm
D. Rootkit
Answer: D
Question: 163
Which of the following is the MOST significant flaw in Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) authentication?
A. Private keys can be compromised.
B. A user must trust the public key that is received
C. It is subject to a man-in-the-middle attack
D. Weak encryption can be easily broken
Answer: B
Question: 164
Patch management must be combined with full-featured systems management to be effective.
Determining which patches are needed, applying the patches and which of the following are three
generally accepted activities of patch management?
A. Backing up the patch file executables to a network share
B. Updating the firewall configuration to include the patches
C. Auditing for the successful application of the patches
Page 33 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

D. Running a NIDS report to list the remaining vulnerabilities

Answer: C
Question: 165
The MOST common exploits of Internet-exposed network services are due to:
A. Illicit servers
B. Trojan horse programs
C. Active content (e.g. Java Applets)
D. Buffer overflows
Answer: D
Question: 166
Which option is correct about a hash algorithms ability to avoid the same output from two
guessed inputs?
A. Collision strength
B. Collision resistance
C. Collision strength
D. Collision metric
Answer: B
Question: 167
Which of the following would be an example of a hardware device where keys can be stored?
(Select TWO).
A. PCI card
B. Smart card
C. PCMCIA card
D. Network interface card (NIC)
Answer: B, C
Question: 168
Which of the following are types of certificate-based authentication? (Select TWO)
A. Many-to-one mapping
B. One-to-one mapping
C. One-to-many mapping
D. Many-to-many mapping
Answer: A, B
Question: 169
Encryption is the conversion of data into a form, called a ciphertext that cannot be easily
understood by unauthorized people. Which encryption is the strongest by use of mathematical
evaluation techniques?
A. 3DES
B. ROT13
C. AES
D. DES
Page 34 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: C
Question: 170
The Diffie-Hellman encryption algorithm relies on which of the following?
A. Tunneling
B. Digital signatures
C. Key exchange
D. Passwords
Answer: C
Question: 171
Which technology is able to isolate a host OS from some types of security threats?
A. Kiting
B. Virtualization
C. Cloning
D. Intrusion detection
Answer: B
Question: 172
Non-repudiation is enforced by which of the following?
A. Secret keys
B. Digital signatures
C. PKI
D. Cipher block chaining
Answer: B
Question: 173
Your company has already implemented two-factor authentication and wants to install a third
authentication factor. If the existing authentication system uses strong passwords and PKI
tokens, which item would provide a third factor?
A. Six digit PINs
B. Pass phrases
C. Fingerprint scanner
D. Elliptic curve
Answer: C
Question: 174
Which of the following would be the MOST effective backup site for disaster recovery?
A. Cold site
B. Warm site
C. Hot site
D. Reciprocal agreement
Answer: C

Page 35 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 175
Which one of the following options will create a security buffer zone between two rooms?
A. Mantrap
B. Anti-pass back
C. DMZ
D. Turnstile
Answer: A
Question: 176
Which of the following describes backing up files and software that have changed since the last
full or incremental backup?
A. Full backup
B. Differential backup
C. Incremental backup
D. Delta backup
Answer: C
Question: 177
Which is the primary objective to implement performance monitoring applications on network
systems from a security standpoint?
A. To detect host intrusions from external networks
B. To detect network intrusions from external attackers
C. To detect integrity degradations to network attached storage
D. To detect availability degradations caused by attackers
Answer: D
Question: 178
Human resource department personnel should be trained about security policy:
A. Guidelines and enforcement.
B. Maintenance.
C. Monitoring and administration
D. Implementation
Answer: A
Question: 179
In computer security, an access control list (ACL) is a list of permissions attached to an object.
Which log will reveal activities about ACL?
A. Performance
B. Mobile device
C. Firewall
D. Transaction
Answer: C
Question: 180
Which of the following can affect heaps and stacks?
Page 36 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. SQL injection
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Buffer overflows
D. Rootkits
Answer: C
Question: 181
An enclosure that prevents radio frequency signals from emanating out of a controlled
environment is BEST described as which of the following?
A. Faraday cage
B. Mantrap
C. Grounded wiring frame
D. TEMPEST
Answer: A
Question: 182
Which of the following is not a step in the incident response?
A. Recovery.
B. Repudiation
C. Containment
D. Eradication
Answer: B
Question: 183
In a classified environment, a clearance into a Top Secret compartment only allows access to
certain information within that compartment. This is known as:
A. Dual control.
B. Need to know.
C. Separation of duties
D. Acceptable use.
Answer: B
Question: 184
On the basis of certain ports, which of the following will allow wireless access to network
resources?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11n
C. 802.1x
D. 802.11g
Answer: C
Question: 185
An organization has a hierarchical-based concept of privilege management with administrators
having full access, human resources personnel having slightly less access and managers having
access to their own department files only. This is BEST described as:
Page 37 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. Discretionary Access Control (DAC).

B. Rule Based Access Control (RBAC).
C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Answer: D
Question: 186
Identify the item that can determine which flags are set in a TCP/IP handshake?
A. Network mapper
B. FIN/RST
C. Protocol analyzer
D. SYN/ACK
Answer: C
Question: 187
A representative from the human resources department informs a security specialist that an
employee has been terminated. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take?
A. Disable the employee's user accounts and keep the data for a specified period of time.
B. Disable the employee's user accounts and delete all data.
C. Contact the employee's supervisor regarding disposition of user accounts
D. Change the employee's user password and keep the data for a specified period.
Answer: A
Question: 188
Which one of the following processes is best to remove PII data from a disk drive before reuse?
A. Reformatting
B. Sanitization
C. Degaussing
D. Destruction
Answer: B
Question: 189
One of the below options are correct regarding the DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack?
A. Listening or overhearing parts of a conversation
B. Placing a computer system between the sender and receiver to capture information
C. Use of multiple computers to attack a single organization
D. Prevention access to resources by users authorized to use those resources
Answer: C
Question: 190
The ability to logon to multiple systems with the same credentials is typically known as:
A. Decentralized management
B. Single sign-on
C. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Page 38 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

D. Centralized management
Answer: B
Question: 191
Why malware that uses virtualization techniques is difficult to detect?
A. The malware may be implementing a proxy server for command and control.
B. A portion of the malware may have been removed by the IDS.
C. The malware may be using a Trojan to infect the system.
D. The malware may be running at a more privileged level than the antivirus software.
Answer: D
Question: 192
An SMTP server is the source of email spam in an organization. Which of the following is MOST
likely the cause?
A. The administrator account was not secured.
B. X.400 connectors have not been password protected.
C. Remote access to the email application's install directory has not been removed.
D. Anonymous relays have not been disabled.
Answer: D
Question: 193
A graphical user interface (GUI) is a type of user interface which allows people to interact with
electronic devices such as computers; hand-held devices such as MP3 Players, Portable Media
Players or Gaming devices; household appliances and office equipment. Which of the following
will permit a technician to restrict a users?? Access to the GUI?
A. Use of logical tokens
B. Group policy implementation
C. Password policy enforcement
D. Access control lists
Answer: B
Question: 194
The first step in creating a security baseline would be:
A. Identifying the use case.
B. Installing software patches.
C. Vulnerability testing
D. Creating a security policy
Answer: D
Question: 195
Which key is generally applied FIRST to a message digest to provide non-repudiation by use of
asymmetric cryptography?
A. Private key of the receiver
B. Private key of the sender
C. Public key of the sender
Page 39 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

D. Public key of the receiver

Answer: B
Question: 196
Default passwords in hardware and software should be changed:
A. If a threat becomes known.
B. Once each month
C. When the hardware or software is turned on.
D. When the vendor requires it
Answer: C
Question: 197
An organization needs to monitor all network traffic as it traverses their network. Which item
should be used by the technician?
A. Honeypot
B. Protocol analyzer
C. HIDS
D. Content filter
Answer: B
Question: 198
Which of the following types of programs autonomously replicates itself across networks?
A. Trojan horse
B. Worm
C. Virus
D. Spyware
Answer: B
Question: 199
An accountant has logged onto the company's outside banking website. An administrator uses a
TCP/IP monitoring tool to discover that the accountant was actually using a spoofed banking
website. What most likely cause this attack? (Select TWO).
A. Altered hosts file
B. Bluesnarfing
C. Network mapper
D. DNS poisoning
Answer: A, D
Question: 200
Which of the following is employed to allow distrusted hosts to connect to services inside a
network without allowing the hosts direct access to the internal networks?
A. VLAN
B. Extranet
C. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
D. Intranet
Page 40 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: C
Question: 201
For the following options, which is an area of the network infrastructure that allows a technician to
put public facing systems into it without compromising the entire infrastructure?
A. VLAN
B. VPN
C. NAT
D. DMZ
Answer: D
Question: 202
You work as a network administrator for your company. Your company requires you to improve
the physical security of a data center located inside the office building. The data center already
maintains a physical access log and has a video surveillance system. Which additional control
can be performed?
A. ACL
B. Defense-in-depth
C. Logical token
D. Mantrap
Answer: D
Question: 203
Which of the following BEST describes an attempt to transfer DNS zone data?
A. Evasion
B. Fraggle
C. Teardrop
D. Reconnaissance
Answer: D
Question: 204
Which method is the LEAST intrusive to check the environment for known software flaws?
A. Port scanner
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. Penetration test
D. Protocol analyzer
Answer: B
Question: 205
A honeypot is used to:
A. Provide an unauthorized user with a place to safely work.
B. Give an unauthorized user time to complete an attack.
C. Trap attackers in a false network.
D. Allow administrators a chance to observe an attack.

Page 41 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: D
Question: 206
Which item can easily create an unencrypted tunnel between two devices?
A. PPTP
B. AES
C. L2TP
D. HTTPS
Answer: C
Question: 207
Which of the following are components of host hardening? (Select TWO).
A. Removing a user's access to the user's data.
B. Adding users to the administrator group.
C. Disabling unnecessary services.
D. Configuring the Start menu and Desktop
E. Applying patches
Answer: C, E
Question: 208
In order to encrypt credit card data, which will be the most secure algorithm with the least CPU
utilization?
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. SHA-1
D. MD5
Answer: B
Question: 209
Which of the following statements regarding authentication protocols is FALSE?
A. PAP is insecure because usernames and passwords are sent over the network in clear text.
B. CHAP is more secure than PAP because it encrypts usernames and passwords before they
are sent over the network.
C. RADIUS is a client/server-based system that provides authentication, authorization, and
accounting services for remote dial-up access.
D. MS-CHAP version 1 is capable of mutual authentication of both the client and the server.
Answer: D
Question: 210
Which solution can be used by a user to implement very tight security controls for technicians that
seek to enter the users' datacenter?
A. Combination locks and key locks
B. Smartcard and proximity readers
C. Magnetic lock and pin
D. Biometric reader and smartcard

Page 42 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: D
Question: 211
Which of the following is a protocol analyzer?
A. John the Ripper
B. WireShark
C. Cain Abel
D. Nessus
Answer: B
Question: 212
Which of the following would be MOST important to have to ensure that a company will be able to
recover in case of severe environmental trouble or destruction?
A. Disaster recovery plan
B. Alternate sites
C. Offsite storage
D. Fault tolerant systems
Answer: A
Question: 213
In a secure environment, which authentication mechanism performs better?
A. RADIUS because it is a remote access authentication service.
B. TACACS because it encrypts client-server negotiation dialogs.
C. RADIUS because it encrypts client-server passwords.
D. TACACS because it is a remote access authentication service.
Answer: B
Question: 214
Which of the following common attacks would the attacker capture the user's login information
and replay it again later?
A. Back Door Attacks
B. Replay Attack
C. Spoofing
D. Man In The Middle
Answer: C
Question: 215
After auditing file, which log will show unauthorized usage attempts?
A. Application
B. Performance
C. Security
D. System
Answer: C
Question: 216
Page 43 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Which of the following encryption algorithms relies on the inability to factor large prime numbers?
A. Elliptic Curve
B. AES256
C. RSA
D. SHA-1
Answer: C
Question: 217
While monitoring application activity and modification, which system should be used?
A. NIDS
B. RADIUS
C. HIDS
D. OVAL
Answer: C
Question: 218
The difference between identification and authentication is that:
A. Authentication verifies a set of credentials while identification verifies the identity of the
network.
B. Authentication verifies a user ID belongs to a specific user while identification verifies the
identity of a user group.
C. Authentication verifies a set of credentials while identification verifies the identity of a user
requesting credentials.
D. Authentication verifies the identity of a user requesting credentials while identification verifies a
set of credentials.
Answer: C
Question: 219
The main objective of risk management in an organization is to reduce risk to a level:
A. Where the ALE is lower than the SLE.
B. Where the ARO equals the SLE.
C. The organization will mitigate.
D. The organization will accept.
Answer: D
Question: 220
Following a disaster, which of the following functions should be returned FIRST from the backup
facility to the primary facility?
A. Web services
B. Systems functions
C. Executive functions
D. Least critical functions
Answer: D
Question: 221
Page 44 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and
procedures needed to create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates. An
executive uses PKI to encrypt sensitive emails sent to an assistant. In addition to encrypting the
body of the email, the executive wants to encrypt the signature so that the assistant can verify
that the email actually came from the executive. Which asymmetric key should be used by the
executive to encrypt the signature?
A. Shared
B. Private
C. Hash
D. Public
Answer: B
Question: 222
Which of the following is a reason to use a vulnerability scanner?
A. To identify open ports on a system
B. To assist with protocol analyzing
C. To identify remote access policies
D. To assist with PKI implementation
Answer: A
Question: 223
Which access control system allows the system administrator to establish access permissions to
network resources?
A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.
Answer: A
Question: 224
Remote authentication allows you to authenticate Zendesk users using a locally hosted script.
Which of the following is an example of remote authentication?
A. A user on a metropolitan area network (MAN) accesses a host by entering a username and
password pair while not connected to the LAN.
B. A user on a campus area network (CAN) connects to a server in another building and enters a
username and password pair.
C. A user in one building logs on to the network by entering a username and password into a host
in the same building.
D. A user in one city logs onto a network by connecting to a domain server in another city.
Answer: D
Question: 225
Your company's website permits customers to search for a product and display the current price
and quantity available of each product from the production database. Which of the following will
invalidate an SQL injection attack launched from the lookup field at the web server level?
A. NIPS
Page 45 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. Security template
C. Buffer overflow protection
D. Input validation
Answer: D
Question: 226
The FIRST step in creating a security baseline would be:
A. Identifying the use case
B. Installing software patches
C. Vulnerability testing.
D. Creating a security policy
Answer: D
Question: 227
Look at the following intrusion detection systems carefully, which one uses well defined models of
how an attack occurs?
A. Anomaly
B. Protocol
C. Signature
D. Behavior
Answer: C
Question: 228
A computer system containing personal identification information is being implemented by a
company's sales department. The sales department has requested that the system become
operational before a security review can be completed. Which of the following can be used to
explain the reasons a security review must be completed?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Risk assessment
C. Corporate security policy
D. Need to know policy
Answer: C
Question: 229
You work as a network technician. You have been asked to reconstruct the infrastructure of an
organization. You should make sure that the virtualization technology is implemented securely.
What should be taken into consideration while implementing virtualization technology?
A. The technician should perform penetration testing on all the virtual servers to monitor
performance.
B. The technician should verify that the virtual servers and the host have the latest service packs
and patches applied.
C. The technician should verify that the virtual servers are dual homed so that traffic is securely
separated.
D. The technician should subnet the network so each virtual server is on a different network
segment.
Answer: B
Page 46 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 230
Which of the following attacks are being referred to if the attack involves the attacker gaining
access to a host in the network and logically disconnecting it?
A. TCP/IP Hijacking
B. UDP Attack
C. ICMP Attacks
D. Smurf Attacks
Answer: A
Question: 231
Which protocol can be used to ensure secure transmissions on port 443?
A. HTTPS
B. SHTTP
C. Telnet
D. SFTP
Answer: A
Question: 232
Which of the following protocols is used to transmit data between a web browser and a web
server?
A. SSH
B. HTTP
C. SFTP
D. IMAP4
Answer: B
Question: 233
Which method can be used to correct a single security issue on a workstation?
A. A patch
B. Configuration baseline
C. A service pack
D. Patch management
Answer: A
Question: 234
Which of the following logs shows when the workstation was last shutdown?
A. DHCP
B. Security
C. Access
D. System
Answer: D
Question: 235

Page 47 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Documentation describing a group expected minimum behavior is known as:Documentation

describing a group? expected minimum behavior is known as:
A. The need to know
B. Acceptable usage
C. The separation of duties
D. A code of ethics
Answer: D
Question: 236
Which one of the following options overwrites the return address within a program to execute
malicious code?
A. Buffer overflow
B. Rootkit
C. Logic bomb
D. Privilege escalation
Answer: A
Question: 237
Which of the following attacks are being referred to if packets are not connection-oriented and do
not require the synchronization process?
A. TCP/IP Hijacking
B. UDP Attack
C. ICMP Attacks
D. Smurf Attacks
Answer: B
Question: 238
Which security application can not proactively detect workstation anomalies?
A. HIPS
B. NIDS
C. Antivirus software
D. Personal software firewall.
Answer: B
Question: 239
One of the below is a description for a password cracker, which one is it?
A. A program that can locate and read a password file.
B. A program that provides software registration passwords or keys.
C. A program that performs comparative analysis.
D. A program that obtains privileged access to the system.
Answer: C
Question: 240
Risk assessment is a common first step in a risk management process. Risk assessment is the
determination of quantitative or qualitative value of risk related to a concrete situation and a
Page 48 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

recognized threat (also called hazard). As a best practice, risk assessments should be based
upon which of the following?
A. An absolute measurement of threats
B. A qualitative measurement of risk and impact
C. A quantitative measurement of risk, impact and asset value
D. A survey of annual loss, potential threats and asset value
Answer: C
Question: 241
Which of the below options would you consider as a program that constantly observes data
traveling over a network?
A. Smurfer
B. Sniffer
C. Fragmenter
D. Spoofer
Answer: B
Question: 242
Which of the following will require setting a baseline? (Select TWO).
A. Anomaly-based monitoring
B. Signature-based monitoring
C. NIPS
D. Behavior-based monitoring
Answer: A, D
Question: 243
From the listing of attacks, choose the attack which exploits session initiation between a
Transport Control Program (TCP) client and server within a network?
A. Buffer Overflow attack
B. SYN attack
C. Smurf attack
D. Birthday attack
Answer: B
Question: 244
Which statement correctly describes the difference between a secure cipher and a secure hash?
A. A hash can be reversed, a cipher cannot.
B. A hash produces a variable output for any input size, a cipher does not.
C. A cipher can be reversed, a hash cannot.
D. A cipher produces the same size output for any input size, a hash does not.
Answer: C
Question: 245
Which of the following assessment tools would be MOST appropriate for determining if a
password was being sent across the network in clear text?
Page 49 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. Protocol analyzer
B. Port scanner
C. Password cracker
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: A
Question: 246
What maybe happen when hashing two different files creates the same result?
A. A mirror
B. A collision
C. A duplication
D. A pseudo-random event
Answer: B
Question: 247
A peer-to-peer computer network uses diverse connectivity between participants in a network and
the cumulative bandwidth of network participants rather than conventional centralized resources
where a relatively low number of servers provide the core value to a service or application. Which
of the following is a security risk while using peer-to-peer software?
A. Licensing
B. Cookies
C. Data leakage
D. Multiple streams
Answer: C
Question: 248
From the listing of attacks, which analyzes how the operating system (OS) responds to specific
network traffic, in an attempt to determine the operating system running in your networking
environment?
A. Operating system scanning.
B. Reverse engineering.
C. Fingerprinting
D. Host hijacking.
Answer: C
Question: 249
For the following items, which one is a collection of servers setup to attract hackers?
A. VLAN
B. DMZ
C. Honeynet
D. Honeypot
Answer: C
Question: 250

Page 50 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

From the listing of attacks, choose the attack which misuses the TCP (Transmission Control
Protocol) three-way handshake process, in an attempt to overload network servers, so that
authorized users are denied access to network resources?
A. Man in the middle attack
B. Smurf attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. SYN (Synchronize) attack
Answer: D
Question: 251
Both the server and the client authenticate before exchanging dat a. This is an example of which
of the following?
A. SSO
B. Biometrics
C. Mutual authentication.
D. Multifactor authentication
Answer: C
Question: 252
A technician is helping an organization to correct problems with staff members unknowingly
downloading malicious code from Internet websites. Which of the following should the technician
do to resolve the problem?
A. Use Java virtual machines to reduce impact
B. Disable unauthorized ActiveX controls
C. Implement a policy to minimize the problem
D. Install a NIDS
Answer: B
Question: 253
A protocol analyzer will most likely detect which security related anomalies?
A. Many malformed or fragmented packets
B. Passive sniffing of local network traffic
C. Decryption of encrypted network traffic
D. Disabled network interface on a server
Answer: A
Question: 254
One type of network attack sends two different messages that use the same hash function to
generate the same message digest. Which network attack does this?
A. Man in the middle attack.
B. Ciphertext only attack.
C. Birthday attack.
D. Brute force attack.
Answer: C

Page 51 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 255
In computing, a stateful firewall (any firewall that performs stateful packet inspection (SPI) or
stateful inspection) is a firewall that keeps track of the state of network connections (such as TCP
streams, UDP communication) traveling across it. You have been studying stateful packet
inspection and want to perform this security technique on the network. Which device will you use
to BEST utilize stateful packet inspection?
A. Switch
B. Hub
C. IDS
D. Firewall
Answer: D
Question: 256
To which of the following viruses does the characteristic when the virus will attempt to avoid
detection by masking itself from applications. It may attach itself to the boot sector of the hard
drive, form part of?
A. Polymorphic Virus
B. Trojan Horse Virus
C. Stealth Virus
D. Retrovirus
Answer: C
Question: 257
The DAC (Discretionary Access Control) model has an inherent flaw. Choose the option that
describes this flaw.
A. The DAC (Discretionary Access Control) model uses only the identity of the user or specific
process to control access to a resource. This creates a security loophole for Trojan horse
attacks.
B. The DAC (Discretionary Access Control) model uses certificates to control access to
resources. This creates an opportunity for attackers to use your certificates.
C. The DAC (Discretionary Access Control) model does not use the identity of a user to control
access to resources. This allows anyone to use an account to access resources.
D. The DAC (Discretionary Access Control) model does not have any known security flaws.
Answer: A
Question: 258
The NIC should be placed in which mode to monitor all network traffic while placing a NIDS onto
the network?
A. Promiscuous
B. Half-duplex
C. Full-duplex
D. Auto
Answer: A
Question: 259
Which of the following is an installable package that includes several patches from the same
vendor for various applications?
Page 52 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. Hotfix
B. Patch template
C. Service pack
D. Patch rollup
Answer: C
Question: 260
Which item can be commonly programmed into an application for ease of administration?
A. Back door
B. Trojan
C. Worm
D. Zombie
Answer: A
Question: 261
To which of the following viruses does the characteristic when the virus may attempt to infect your
boot sector, infect all of your executable files, and destroy your applications files form part of?
A. Multipartite Virus
B. Armored Virus
C. Companion Virus
D. Phage Virus
Answer: A
Question: 262
Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing adware?
A. Firewall
B. HIDS
C. Antivirus
D. Pop-up blocker
Answer: D
Question: 263
Choose the most effective method of preventing computer viruses from spreading throughout the
network.
A. You should require root/administrator access to run programs and applications.
B. You should enable scanning of all e-mail attachments.
C. You should prevent the execution of .vbs files.
D. You should install a host based IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
Answer: B
Question: 264
Choose the correct order in which crucial equipment should draw power.
A. Backup generator, UPS battery, UPS line conditioner
B. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) battery, UPS line conditioner, backup generator
Page 53 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

C. Backup generator, UPS line conditioner, UPS battery

D. UPS line conditioner, UPS battery, and backup generator
Answer: D
Question: 265
Choose the statement that best details the difference between a worm and a Trojan horse?
A. Worms are distributed through e-mail messages while Trojan horses do not.
B. Worms self replicate while Trojan horses do not.
C. Worms are a form of malicious code while Trojan horses are not.
D. There is no difference between a worm and a Trojan horse.
Answer: B
Question: 266
Recently, your company has implemented a work from home program. Employees should
connect securely from home to the corporate network. Which encryption technology can be used
to achieve this goal?
A. L2TP
B. IPSec
C. PPPoE
D. PPTP
Answer: B
Question: 267
Choose the statement which best defines the characteristics of a computer virus.
A. A computer virus is a find mechanism, initiation mechanism and can propagate.
B. A computer virus is a learning mechanism, contamination mechanism and can exploit.
C. A computer virus is a search mechanism, connection mechanism and can integrate.
D. A computer virus is a replication mechanism, activation mechanism and has an objective.
Answer: D
Question: 268
The CEO of your company is worrying about staff browsing inappropriate material on the Internet
via HTTPS. Your company is advised to purchase a product which can decrypt the SSL session,
scan the content and then repackage the SSL session without staff knowing. Which type of attack
is similar to this product?
A. TCP/IP hijacking
B. Replay
C. Spoofing
D. Man-in-the-middle
Answer: D
Question: 269
After the maximum number attempts have failed, which of the following could set an account to
lockout for 30 minutes?
A. Account lockout threshold
Page 54 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. Account lockout duration

C. Password complexity requirements
D. Key distribution center
Answer: B
Question: 270
Choose the attack or malicious code that cannot be prevented or deterred solely through using
technical measures.
A. Dictionary attacks.
B. Man in the middle attacks.
C. DoS (Denial of Service) attacks.
D. Social engineering.
Answer: D
Question: 271
A Faraday cage or Faraday shield is an enclosure formed by conducting material, or by a mesh of
such material. Such an enclosure blocks out external static electrical fields. Faraday cages are
named after physicist Michael Faraday, who built one in 1836. Which of the following would a
Faraday cage prevent usage of?
A. Cell phone
B. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
C. Storage drive
D. USB key
Answer: A
Question: 272
An Auditing system is necessary to prevent attacks on what part of the system?
A. The files.
B. The operating system.
C. The systems memory
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Question: 273
Which encryption algorithm depends on the inability to factor large prime numbers?
A. SHA-1
B. AES256
C. RSA
D. Elliptic Curve
Answer: C
Question: 274
Choose the network mapping tool (scanner) which uses ICMP (Internet Control Message
Protocol).
A. A port scanner.
Page 55 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. A map scanner.
C. A ping scanner.
D. A share scanner.
Answer: C
Question: 275
Look at the following items, which one usually applies specifically to a web browser?
A. Anti-spyware
B. Pop-up blocker
C. Personal software firewall
D. Antivirus
Answer: B
Question: 276
One type of port scan can determine which ports are in a listening state on the network, and can
then perform a two way handshake. Which type of port scan can perform this set of actions?
A. A TCP (transmission Control Protocol) SYN (Synchronize) scan
B. A TCP (transmission Control Protocol) connect scan
C. A TCP (transmission Control Protocol) fin scan
D. A TCP (transmission Control Protocol) null scan
Answer: A
Question: 277
Which one of the following options will allow for a network to remain operational after a T1
failure?
A. Redundant servers
B. Redundant ISP
C. RAID 5 drive array
D. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
Answer: B
Question: 278
Which of the following has largely replaced SLIP?
A. SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol)
B. PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)
C. VPN
D. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)
Answer: B
Question: 279
You work as the network administrator at Certkiller .com. The Certkiller .com network uses the
RBAC (Role Based Access Control) model. You must plan the security strategy for users to
access resources on the Certkiller .com network. The types of resources you must control access
to are mailboxes, and files and printers. Certkiller .com is divided into distinct departments and
functions named Finance, Sales, Research and Development, and Production respectively. Each
user has its own workstation, and accesses resources based on the department wherein he/she
Page 56 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

works. You must determine which roles to create to support the RBAC (Role Based Access
Control) model. Which of the following roles should you create?
A. Create mailbox, and file and printer roles.
B. Create Finance, Sales, Research and Development, and Production roles.
C. Create user and workstation roles.
D. Create allow access and deny access roles.
Answer: B
Question: 280
In cryptography, a pre-shared key or PSK is a shared secret which was previously shared
between the two parties using some secure channel before it needs to be used. Pre-shared keys
can be applied to which of the following?
A. TPM
B. PGP
C. Digital signature
D. CA
Answer: B
Question: 281
Which of the following definitions fit correctly to RADIUS?
A. Is an older protocol that was used in early remote access environments
B. Has largely replaced SLIP and offers multiple protocol support including AppleTalk, IPX, and
DECnet
C. are used to make connections between private networks across a public network, such as the
Internet
D. is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections
Answer: D
Question: 282
Which description is correct about a tool used by organizations to verify whether or not a staff
member has been involved in malicious activity?
A. Mandatory vacations
B. Time of day restrictions
C. Implicit deny
D. Implicit allow
Answer: A
Question: 283
Which of the following definitions fit correctly to TACACS?
A. Is an older protocol that was used in early remote access environments
B. Has largely replaced SLIP and offers multiple protocol support including AppleTalk, IPX, and
DECnet
C. are used to make connections between private networks across a public network, such as the
Internet
D. It allows credentials to be accepted from multiple methods, including Kerberos.

Page 57 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: D
Question: 284
Which access control method gives the owner control over providing permissions?
A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
B. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. Rule-Based Access control (RBAC)
D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Answer: D
Question: 285
Which of the following needs to be backed up on a domain controller to be able to recover Active
Directory?
A. System files
B. User date
C. System state
D. Operating system
Answer: C
Question: 286
Which item best describes an instance where a biometric system identifies legitimate users as
being unauthorized?
A. False acceptance
B. False positive
C. False rejection
D. False negative
Answer: C
Question: 287
Which of the following definitions fit correctly to PPTP?
A. It supports encapsulation in a single point-to-point environment
B. It was created by Cisco as a method of creating tunnels primarily for dial-up connections
C. It is primarily a point-to-point protocol
D. It is a tunneling protocol originally designed for UNIX systems.
Answer: A
Question: 288
Which one of the following options is an attack launched from multiple zombie machines in
attempt to bring down a service?
A. TCP/IP hijacking
B. DoS
C. DDoS
D. Man-in-the-middle
Answer: C

Page 58 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 289
From the list of protocols, which two are VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunneling protocols?
Choose two protocols.
A. PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol).
B. SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol).
C. L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol).
D. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).
E. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol).
Answer: C, E
Question: 290
Sending a patch through a testing and approval process is an example of which option?
A. Acceptable use policies
B. Change management
C. User education and awareness training
D. Disaster planning
Answer: B
Question: 291
Which of the following is correct about an instance where a biometric system identifies
unauthorized users and allows them access?
A. False positive.
B. False rejection.
C. False acceptance.
D. False negative.
Answer: C
Question: 292
You work as the security administrator at Certkiller .com. You must configure the firewall to
support TACACS. Which port(s) should you open on the firewall?
A. Port 21
B. Port 161
C. Port 53
D. Port 49
Answer: D
Question: 293
Which security measures should be recommended while implementing system logging
procedures? (Select TWO).
A. Collect system temporary files.
B. Apply retention policies on the log files.
C. Perform CRC checks.
D. Perform hashing of the log files.
Answer: D

Page 59 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 294
Which of the following network attacks cannot occur in an e-mail attack?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Trojan Horse
C. Phage Virus
D. Polymorphic Virus
Answer: A
Question: 295
Which media is LEAST susceptible to a tap being placed on the line?
A. Fiber
B. Coaxial
C. UTP
D. STP
Answer: A
Question: 296
Which of the following attacks are being referred to if someone is accessing your e-mail server
and sending inflammatory information to others?
A. Trojan Horse.
B. Phage Virus.
C. Repudiation Attack.
D. Polymorphic Virus.
Answer: C
Question: 297
Tom is a network administrator of his company. He suspects that files are being copied to a
remote location during off hours. The file server does not have logging enabled. Which logs will
be the BEST place to look for information?
A. Antivirus logs
B. Firewall logs
C. DNS logs
D. Intrusion detection logs
Answer: B
Question: 298
A technician is auditing the security posture of an organization. The audit shows that many of the
users have the ability to access the company's accounting information. Which of the following
should the technician recommend to address this problem?
A. Changing file level audit settings
B. Implementing a host based intrusion detection system
C. Changing the user rights and security groups
D. Implementing a host based intrusion prevention system
Answer: C

Page 60 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 299
Job rotation is a cross-training technique where organizations minimize collusion amongst staff.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question: 300
A security specialist is reviewing firewall logs and sees the information below. Which of the
following BEST describes the attack that is occurring?
s-192.168.0.21:53 --> d-192.168.0.1:0
s-192.168.0.21:53 --> d-192.168.0.1:1
s-192.168.0.21:53 --> d-192.168.0.1:2
s-192.168.0.21:53 --> d-192.168.0.1:3
s-192.168.0.21:53 --> d-192.168.0.1:4
s-192.168.0.21:53 --> d-192.168.0.1:5
s-192.168.0.21:53 --> d-192.168.0.1:6
s-192.168.0.21:53 --> d-192.168.0.1:7
s-192.168.0.21:53 --> d-192.168.0.1:8
A. ARP poisoning
B. DNS spoofing
C. Port scan
D. PING sweep
Answer: C
Question: 301
Choose the access control model that allows access control determinations to be performed
based on the security labels associated with each user and each data item.
A. MACs (Mandatory Access Control) method
B. RBACs (Role Based Access Control) method
C. LBACs (List Based Access Control) method
D. DACs (Discretionary Access Control) method
Answer: A
Question: 302
Which description is true about penetration testing?
A. Simulating an actual attack on a network
B. Establishing a security baseline
C. Hacking into a network for malicious reasons
D. Detecting active intrusions
Answer: A
Question: 303
Which of the following would be MOST useful in determining which internal user was the source
of an attack that compromised another computer in its network?
A. The firewall's logs
Page 61 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. The attacking computer's audit logs

C. The target computer's audit logs.
D. The domain controller's logs.
Answer: C
Question: 304
Which encryption algorithms can be used to encrypt and decrypt data?
A. NTLM
B. MD5
C. SHA-1
D. RC5
Answer: D
Question: 305
By which means do most network bound viruses spread?
A. E-mail
B. Floppy
C. CD-Rom
D. Mass storage devices
Answer: A
Question: 306
The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol or LDAP is an application protocol for querying and
modifying directory services running over TCP/IP. A user needs to implement secure LDAP on
the network. Which port number will secure LDAP use by default?
A. 53
B. 389
C. 443
D. 636
Answer: D
Question: 307
Which of the following definitions should BEST suit the functions of an e-mail server?
A. Detect the viruses in the messages received from various sources and send warnings to the
recipient to warn him/her of the risky mail.
B. Notify you that a message carries a virus.
C. Forms a platform on which messages are sent.
D. Makes use of a port used specifically for messages to be sent through.
Answer: A
Question: 308
On a company's LAN, port 3535 is typically blocked for outbound traffic. An end-user has recently
purchased a legitimate business program that needs to make outbound calls through this port.
Which step should be taken by a technician to allow this? (Select TWO).
A. Change the users subnet mask.
Page 62 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. Open the port on the companys firewall.

C. Open the port on the VLAN.
D. Open the port on the users personal software firewall.
Answer: B, D
Question: 309
Choose the primary disadvantage of using a third party mail relay.
A. Spammers can utilize the third party mail relay.
B. A third party mail relay limits access to specific users.
C. A third party mail relay restricts the types of e-mail that maybe sent.
D. A third party mail relay restricts spammers from gaining access.
Answer: A
Question: 310
Which method is the easiest to disable a 10Base2 network?
A. Remove a vampire tap.
B. Introduce crosstalk.
C. Remove a terminator.
D. Install a zombie.
Answer: C
Question: 311
Choose the option that details one of the primary benefits of using S/MIME /Secure Multipurpose
Internet Mail Extension)?
A. S/MIME allows users to send both encrypted and digitally signed e-mail messages.
B. S/MIME allows users to send anonymous e-mail messages.
C. S/MIME allows users to send e-mail messages with a return receipt.
D. S/MIME expedites the delivery of e-mail messages.
Answer: A
Question: 312
For the following items, which is a security limitation of virtualization technology?
A. A compromise of one instance will immediately compromise all instances.
B. It increases false positives on the NIDS.
C. Patch management becomes more time consuming.
D. If an attack occurs, it could potentially disrupt multiple servers.
Answer: D
Question: 313
Host intrusion detection systems (HIDS) and network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are
methods of security management for computers and networks. A HIDS is installed to monitor
which of following?
A. Temporary Internet files
B. CPU performance
C. System files
Page 63 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

D. NIC performance
Answer: C
Question: 314
On the topic of comparing viruses and hoaxes, which statement is TRUE? Choose the best
TRUE statement.
A. Hoaxes can create as much damage as a real virus.
B. Hoaxes are harmless pranks and should be ignored.
C. Hoaxes can help educate users about a virus.
D. Hoaxes carry a malicious payload and can be destructive.
Answer: A
Question: 315
The purpose of a DNS server is to enable people and applications to lookup records in DNS
tables. Why implement security logging on a DNS server?
A. To monitor unauthorized zone transfers
B. To control unauthorized DNS DoS
C. To measure the DNS server performance
D. To perform penetration testing on the DNS server
Answer: A
Question: 316
Choose the scheme or system used by PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) to encrypt data.
A. Asymmetric scheme
B. Symmetric scheme
C. Symmetric key distribution system
D. Asymmetric key distribution system
Answer: A
Question: 317
Which security threat will affect PCs and can have its software updated remotely by a command
and control center?
A. Zombie
B. Adware
C. Worm
D. Virus
Answer: A
Question: 318
Which of the following web vulnerabilities is being referred to when it receives more data than it is
programmed to accept?
A. Buffer Overflows.
B. Cookies.
C. CGI.
D. SMTP Relay
Page 64 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: A
Question: 319
Which of the following will permit an administrator to find weak passwords on the network?
A. A password generator
B. A network mapper
C. A hash function
D. A rainbow table
Answer: D
Question: 320
Which of the following is a security reason to implement virtualization throughout the network
infrastructure?
A. To analyze the various network traffic with protocol analyzers
B. To centralize the patch management of network servers
C. To isolate the various network services and roles
D. To implement additional network services at a lower cost
Answer: C
Question: 321
Which security measure should be used while implementing access control?
A. Password complexity requirements
B. Disabling SSID broadcast
C. Time of day restrictions
D. Changing default passwords
Answer: A
Question: 322
Which of the following web vulnerabilities is being referred to when it has a feature designed into
many e-mail servers that allows them to forward e-mail to other e-mail servers?
A. Buffer Overflows.
B. Cookies.
C. CGI
D. SMTP Relay
Answer: D
Question: 323
A company's new employees are asked to sign a document that describes the methods of and
purposes for accessing the company's IT systems. Which of the following BEST describes this
document?
A. Privacy Act of 1974
B. Authorized Access Policy
C. Due diligence form
D. Acceptable Use Policy

Page 65 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: D
Question: 324
Study the following items carefully, which one will permit a user to float a domain registration for a
maximum of five days?
A. Spoofing
B. DNS poisoning
C. Domain hijacking
D. Kiting
Answer: D
Question: 325
Which of the following definitions BEST suit Java Applet?
A. It is a programming language that allows access to system resources of the system running
the script
B. The client browser must have the ability to run Java applets in a virtual machine on the client
C. It can also include a digital signature to verify authenticity
D. It allows customized controls, icons, and other features to increase the usability of web
enabled systems
Answer: B
Question: 326
A programmer plans to change the server variable in the coding of an authentication function for
a proprietary sales application. Which process should be followed before implementing the new
routine on the production application server?
A. Change management
B. Secure disposal
C. Password complexity
D. Chain of custody
Answer: A
Question: 327
Which of the following definitions BEST suit Buffer Overflow?
A. It receives more data than it is programmed to accept.
B. It is used to provide a persistent, customized web experience for each visit.
C. It's an older form of scripting that was used extensively in early web systems
D. It has a feature designed into many e-mail servers that allows them to forward e-mail to other
e-mail servers
Answer: A
Question: 328
An administrator wants to make sure that no equipment is damaged when encountering a fire or
false alarm in the server room. Which type of fire suppression system should be used?
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Deluge sprinkler
C. Hydrogen Peroxide
Page 66 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

D. Wet pipe sprinkler

Answer: A
Question: 329
An end-to-end traffic performance guarantee made by a service provider to a customer is a:
A. DRP.
B. BCP.
C. SLA.
D. VPN
Answer: C
Question: 330
The staff must be cross-trained in different functional areas in order to detect fraud. Which of the
following is an example of this?
A. Implicit deny
B. Least privilege
C. Separation of duties
D. Job rotation
Answer: D
Question: 331
Which of the following would allow an administrator to find weak passwords on the network?
A. A network mapper
B. A hash function
C. A password generator
D. A rainbow table
Answer: D
Question: 332
When power must be delivered to critical systems, which of the following is a countermeasure?
A. Backup generator
B. Warm site
C. Redundant power supplies
D. Uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs)
Answer: A
Question: 333
Which of the following statements are true regarding File Sharing?
A. FTP is a protocol, a client, and a server.
B. Security was based on the honor system.
C. As discussed earlier, SSH is a program that allows connections to be secured by encrypting
the session between the client and the server.
D. When files are stored on a workstation, the connection is referred to as a peer-to-peer
connection.

Page 67 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: D
Question: 334
You work as a network administrator for your company. Taking personal safety into consideration,
what fire suppression substances types can effectively prevent damage to electronic equipment?
A. Halon
B. CO
C. Water
D. Foam
Answer: B
Question: 335
Which password management system best provides for a system with a large number of users?
A. Self service password reset management systems
B. Locally saved passwords management systems
C. Multiple access methods management systems
D. Synchronized passwords management systems
Answer: A
Question: 336
Who is finally in charge of the amount of residual risk?
A. The senior management
B. The DRP coordinator
C. The security technician
D. The organizations security officer
Answer: A
Question: 337
Which of the following is the BEST place to obtain a hotfix or patch for an application or system?
A. An email from the vendor
B. A newsgroup or forum
C. The manufacturer's website
D. A CD-ROM
Answer: C
Question: 338
Tom is a network administrator of his company. He guesses that PCs on the internal network may
be acting as zombies participating in external DDoS attacks. Which item will most effectively
confirm the administrators?? suspicions?
A. AV server logs
B. HIDS logs
C. Proxy logs
D. Firewall logs
Answer: D

Page 68 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Question: 339
Choose the terminology or concept which best describes a (Mandatory Access Control) model.
A. Lattice
B. Bell La-Padula
C. BIBA
D. Clark and Wilson
Answer: A
Question: 340
Password cracking tools are available worldwide over the Internet. Which one of the following
items is a password cracking tool?
A. Wireshark
B. Nessus
C. John the Ripper
D. AirSnort
Answer: C
Question: 341
Which authentication method does the following sequence: Logon request, encrypts value
response, server, challenge, compare encrypts results, authorize or fail referred to?
A. Certificates
B. Security Tokens
C. CHAP
D. Kerberos
Answer: C
Question: 342
IDS is short for Intrusion Detection Systems. Which option is the MOST basic form of IDS?
A. Signature
B. Statistical
C. Anomaly
D. Behavioral
Answer: A
Question: 343
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Security Token system?
A. If your token does not grant you access to certain information, that information will either not
be displayed or your access will be denied. The authentication system creates a token every
time a user or a session begins. At the completion of a session, the token is destroyed.
B. A certificate being handed from the server to the client once authentication has been
established. If you have a pass, you can wander throughout the network. BUT limited access
is allowed.
C. The authentication process uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to orchestrate the entire
process. The KDC authenticates the network. Principles can be users, programs, or systems.
The KDC provides a ticket to the network. Once this ticket is issued, it can be used to

Page 69 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

authenticate against other principles. This occurs automatically when a request or service is
performed by another network.
D. The initiator sends a logon request from the client to the server. The server sends a challenge
back to the client. The challenge is encrypted and then sent back to the server. The server
compares the value from the client and if the information matches, the server grants
authorization. If the response fails, the session fails and the request phase starts over
Answer: A
Question: 344
Which statement is true about the cryptographic algorithm employed by TLS to establish a
session key?
A. Blowfish
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. IKE
D. RSA
Answer: B
Question: 345
To aid in preventing the execution of malicious code in email clients, which of the following should
be done by the email administrator?
A. Spam and anti-virus filters should be used
B. Regular updates should be performed
C. Preview screens should be disabled
D. Email client features should be disabled
Answer: A
Question: 346
Which of the following access control models uses roles to determine access permissions?
A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
Question: 347
Internet filter appliances/servers will most likely analyze which three items? (Select THREE).
A. Certificates
B. CRLs
C. Content
D. URLs
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 348
Which of the following types of publicly accessible servers should have anonymous logins
disabled to prevent an attacker from transferring malicious data?

Page 70 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. FTP
B. Email
C. Web
D. DNS
Answer: A
Question: 349
Which practice can best code applications in a secure manner?
A. Input validation
B. Object oriented coding
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Rapid Application Development (RAD)
Answer: A
Question: 350
In addition to bribery and forgery, which of the following are the MOST common techniques that
attackers use to socially engineer people? (Select TWO)
A. Phreaking
B. Dumpster diving
C. Whois search
D. Flattery
E. Assuming a position of authority
Answer: D, E
Question: 351
Which of the following will restrict access to files according to the identity of the user or group?
A. MAC
B. CRL
C. PKI
D. DAC
Answer: D
Question: 352
Which of the following would be an easy way to determine whether a secure web page has a
valid certificate?
A. Right click on the lock at the bottom of the browser and check the certificate information
B. Contact Thawte or Verisign and ask about the web page
C. Contact the web page's web master
D. Ensure that the web URL starts with 'https:\\'.
Answer: A
Question: 353
Which description is correct concerning the process of comparing cryptographic hash functions of
system executables, configuration files, and log files?
A. File integrity auditing
Page 71 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. Stateful packet filtering

C. Host based intrusion detection
D. Network based intrusion detection
Answer: A
Question: 354
A software or hardware device that allows only authorized network traffic in or out of a computer
or network is called a:
A. Firewall
B. Packet sniffer
C. Honeypot
D. Anti-virus program
Answer: A
Question: 355
While hardening an operating system, which item is LEAST effective?
A. Configuration baselines
B. Limiting administrative privileges
C. Installing HIDS
D. Install a software firewall
Answer: C
Question: 356
Which of the following types of attacks is BEST described as an attacker capturing part of a
communication and later sending that communication segment to the server while pretending to
be the client?
A. TCP/IP hijacking
B. Replay
C. Back door
D. Man in the middle
Answer: B
Question: 357
Given: John is a network administrator. He advises the server administrator of his company to
implement whitelisting, blacklisting, closing-open relays and strong authentication techniques.
Question: Which threat is being addressed?
A. Viruses
B. Adware
C. Spam
D. Spyware
Answer: C
Question: 358
In computer networking, network address translation (NAT) is the process of modifying network
address information in datagram packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device for

Page 72 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

the purpose of remapping a given address space into another. Which description is true about a
static NAT?
A. A static NAT uses a many to many mapping.
B. A static NAT uses a one to many mapping.
C. A static NAT uses a many to one mapping.
D. A static NAT uses a one to one mapping.
Answer: D
Question: 359
Malicious code that enters a target system, lays dormant until a user opens the certain program
then deletes the contents of attached network drives and removable storage devices is known as
a:
A. Worm
B. Trojan horse
C. Logic bomb
D. Honeypot
Answer: C
Question: 360
Which action should be performed when discovering an unauthorized wireless access point
attached to a network?
A. Unplug the Ethernet cable from the wireless access point.
B. Change the SSID on the wireless access point.
C. Run a ping against the wireless access point.
D. Enable MAC filtering on the wireless access point.
Answer: A
Question: 361
Which of the following network authentication protocols uses symmetric key cryptography, stores
a shared key for each network resource and uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC)?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. PKI
Answer: C
Question: 362
In cryptography, MD5 (Message-Digest algorithm 5) is a widely used cryptographic hash function
with a 128-bit hash value. As an Internet standard (RFC 1321), MD5 has been employed in a
wide variety of security applications, and is also commonly used to check the integrity of files. A
user sees an MD5 hash number beside a file that they wish to download. Which description is
true about a hash?
A. A hash is a unique number that is generated after the file has been encrypted and used as the
SSL key during download.
B. A hash is a unique number that is generated based upon the TCP/IP transmission header and
should be verified before download.
Page 73 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

C. A hash is a unique number that is generated based upon the files contents and used as the
SSL key during download.
D. A hash is a unique number that is generated based upon the files contents and should be
verified after download.
Answer: D
Question: 363
The risks of social engineering can be decreased by implementing: (Select TWO)
A. Security awareness training
B. Risk assessment policies
C. Operating system patching instructions
D. Vulnerability testing techniques
E. Identity verification methods
Answer: A, E
Question: 364
When a new network device is configured for first-time installation, which of the following is a
security threat?
A. Denial of Service (DoS)
B. Attacker privilege escalation
C. Installation of a back door
D. Use of default passwords
Answer: D
Question: 365
Which of the following access control models uses subject and object labels?
A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
B. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. Rule Based Access Control (RBAC)
D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Answer: A
Question: 366
Encryption is the conversion of data into a form, called a ciphertext, that cannot be easily
understood by unauthorized people. Which of the following is considered the weakest encryption?
A. SHA
B. DES
C. RSA
D. AES
Answer: B
Question: 367
Which of the following access decisions are based on a Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
environment?
A. Access control lists
Page 74 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. Ownership
C. Group membership
D. Sensitivity labels
Answer: D
Question: 368
Most current encryption schemes are based on:
A. Digital rights management
B. Time stamps
C. Randomizing
D. Algorithms
Answer: D
Question: 369
Which tool can best monitor changes to the approved system baseline?
A. Enterprise antivirus software
B. Enterprise performance monitoring software
C. Enterprise key management software
D. Enterprise resource planning software
Answer: B
Question: 370
Audit log information can BEST be protected by: (Select TWO).
A. Using a VPN
B. An IDS
C. Access controls that restrict usage
D. An intrusion prevention system (IPS)
E. Recording to write-once media.
F. A firewall that creates an enclave
Answer: C, E
Question: 371
Which method will most effectively verify that a patch file downloaded from a third party has not
been modified since the time that the original manufacturer released the patch?
A. Compare the final MD5 hash with the original.
B. Compare the final LANMAN hash with the original.
C. Download the patch file through a SSL connection.
D. Download the patch file over an AES encrypted VPN connection.
Answer: A
Question: 372
Non-essential services are often appealing to attackers because non-essential services: (Select
TWO)
A. Consume less bandwidth
B. Are not visible to an IDS
Page 75 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

C. Provide root level access

D. Decrease the surface area for the attack
E. Are not typically configured correctly or secured
F. Sustain attacks that go unnoticed
Answer: E, F
Question: 373
Which action should be performed to harden workstations and servers?
A. Report all security incidents.
B. Install only needed software.
C. Log on only as the administrator.
D. Check the logs regularly.
Answer: B
Question: 374
A user downloads and installs a new screen saver and the program starts to rename and delete
random files. Which of the following would be the BEST description of this program?
A. Worm
B. Virus
C. Trojan horse
D. Logic bomb
Answer: C
Question: 375
John works as a network administrator for his company. He uses a tool to check SMTP, DNS,
POP3, and ICMP packets on the network. This is an example of which of the following?
A. A vulnerability scan
B. A protocol analyzer
C. A penetration test
D. A port scanner
Answer: B
Question: 376
Which of the following types of malicious software travels across computer networks without
requiring a user to distribute the software?
A. Virus
B. Worm
C. Trojan horse
D. Logic bomb
Answer: B
Question: 377
What will be implemented by a technician to mitigate the chances of a successful attack against
the wireless network?
A. Implement an authentication system and WEP.
Page 76 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. Implement an identification system and WPA2.

C. Implement an authentication system and WPA.
D. Implement a biometric system and WEP.
Answer: C
Question: 378
Which of the following should be done if an audit recording fails in an information system?
A. Log off the user
B. Overwrite the oldest audit records
C. Stop generating audit records
D. Send an alert to the appropriate personnel
Answer: D
Question: 379
Many unauthorized staff has been entering the data center by piggybacking authorized staff. The
CIO has mandated to stop this behavior. Which technology should be installed at the data center
to prevent piggybacking?
A. Mantrap
B. Token access
C. Security badges
D. Hardware locks
Answer: A
Question: 380
In order to recover discarded company documents, which of the following might an attacker resort
to?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Phishing
C. Dumpster diving
D. Insider theft
Answer: C
Question: 381
Which of the following types of authentication BEST describes providing a username, password
and undergoing a thumb print scan to access a workstation?
A. Multifactor
B. Mutual
C. Biometric
D. Kerberos
Answer: A
Question: 382
Which item specifies a set of consistent requirements for a workstation or server?
A. Patch management
B. Vulnerability assessment
Page 77 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

C. Imaging software
D. Configuration baseline
Answer: D
Question: 383
Which of the following steps is MOST often overlooked during the auditing process?
A. Reviewing event logs regularly
B. Enabling auditing on the system
C. Auditing every system event
D. Deciding what events to audit
Answer: A
Question: 384
Users would not like to enter credentials to each server or application to conduct their normal
work. Which type of strategy can solve this problem?
A. Biometrics
B. Smart card
C. Two-factor authentication
D. SSO
Answer: D
Question: 385
Kerberos uses which of the following ports by default?
A. 23
B. 88
C. 139
D. 443
Answer: B
Question: 386
What should be taken into consideration while executing proper logging procedures? (Select
TWO).
A. The information that is needed to reconstruct events
B. The password requirements for user accounts
C. The virtual memory allocated on the log server
D. The amount of disk space required
Answer: A, D
Question: 387
Turnstiles, double entry doors and security guards are all prevention measures for which of the
following types of social engineering?
A. Piggybacking
B. Looking over a co-workers should'er to retrieve information
C. Looking through a co-worker's trash to retrieve information
D. Impersonation
Page 78 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

Answer: A
Question: 388
In computer programming, DLL injection is a technique used to run code within the address
space of another process by forcing it to load a dynamic-link library. Which activity is MOST
closely associated with DLL injection?
A. Penetration testing
B. SQL servers
C. Network mapping
D. Vulnerability assessment
Answer: A
Question: 389
Spam is considered a problem even when deleted before being opened because spam:
A. Verifies the validity of an email address
B. Corrupts the mail file
C. Wastes company bandwidth
D. Installs Trojan horse viruses
Answer: C
Question: 390
Which of the following types of cryptography is typically used to provide an integrity check?
A. Public key
B. Asymmetric
C. Symmetric
D. Hash
Answer: D
Question: 391
Alex is a network administrator of his company. He is backing up all server data nightly to a local
NAS device. Which additional action should Alex perform to block disaster in the case the primary
site is permanently lost?
A. Backup all data at a preset interval to removable disk and store the disk in a fireproof safe in
the buildings basement.
B. Backup all data at a preset interval to tape and store those tapes at a sister site in another city.
C. Backup all data at a preset interval to tape and store those tapes at a sister site across the
street.
D. Backup all data at a preset interval to removable disk and store the disk in a safety deposit box
at the administrators home.
Answer: B
Question: 392
Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow
attacks?
A. Input validation
Page 79 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

B. Nested loops
C. Signed applets
D. Automatic updates
Answer: A
Question: 393
Which description is correct about the standard load for all systems?
A. Configuration baseline
B. Group policy
C. Patch management
D. Security template
Answer: A
Question: 394
Which of the following authentication systems make use of the KDC Key Distribution Center?
A. Certificates
B. Security Tokens
C. CHAP
D. Kerberos
Answer: D
Question: 395
A digital signature or digital signature scheme is a type of asymmetric cryptography. For
messages sent through an insecure channel, a properly implemented digital signature gives the
receiver reason to believe the message was sent by the claimed sender. While using a digital
signature, the message digest is encrypted with which of the following keys?
A. Senders public key
B. Receivers private key
C. Receivers public key
D. Senders private key
Answer: D
Question: 396
Which of the following authentication methods increases the security of the authentication
process because it must be in your physical possession?
A. Smart Cards.
B. Kerberos
C. CHAP
D. Certificate
Answer: A
Question: 397
Users need to access their email and several secure applications from any workstation on the
network. In addition, an authentication system implemented by the administrator requires the use
of a username, password, and a company issued smart card. This is an example of which of the
following?
Page 80 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

A. Three factor authentication

B. SSO
C. ACL
D. Least privilege
Answer: B
Question: 398
When deploying 50 new workstations on the network, which of following should be completed
FIRST?
A. Install a word processor.
B. Run the latest spyware.
C. Apply the baseline configuration.
D. Run OS updates.
Answer: C
Question: 399
Your system has just stopped responding to keyboard commands. You noticed that this occurred
when a spreadsheet was open and you dialed in to the Internet. Which kind of attack has
probably occurred?
A. Logic bomb
B. Worm
C. Virus
D. ACK attack
Answer: A
Question: 400
Which of the following would be BEST to use to apply corporate security settings to a device?
A. A security patch
B. A security hotfix
C. An OS service pack
D. A security template
Answer: D
Question: 401
An administrator has implemented a new SMTP service on a server. A public IP address
translates to the internal SMTP server. The administrator notices many sessions to the
server, and gets notification that the servers public IP address is now reported in a spam realtime block list. Which of the following is wrong with the server?
A. SMTP open relaying is enabled.
B. It does not have a spam filter.
C. The amount of sessions needs to be limited.
D. The public IP address is incorrect.
Answer: A
Question: 402
Page 81 of 82

Exam Name:
Exam Type:
Exam Code:

CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

CompTIA
SY0-201

Total Questions:

402

You're explaining the basics of security to upper management in an attempt to obtain an increase
in the networking budget. One of the members of the management team mentions that they??ve
heard of a threat from a virus that attempts to mask itself by hiding code from antivirus software.
What type of virus is he referring to?
A. Armored virus
B. Polymorphic virus
C. Worm
D. Stealth virus
Answer: A
End of Document

Page 82 of 82