Basic Electronics

H3

1. Which of the following is currently being used to

describe the atomic structure?
a. JJ Thomsons model
b. Rutherfords model
c. Bohrs model
d. Armstrongs model

7.

is an example of a Hydrogen atom. Which

statement is true?
a. Hydrogen has an atomic number of 3
b. Hydrogen has an atomic mass of 1
c. Hydrogen has number of protons equals 3
d. Hydrogen has number of neutrons equals 2

2. Which of the following subatomic particles, according

to Bohrs model, is smallest?
a. proton
b. electron
c. neutron
d. magnetron

8. Atoms with same atomic number but different atomic

mass is called
a. isotopes
b. isobars
c. cation
d. anion

3. ____ is 1800 times as heavy as _____.

a. electron, proton
b. proton, neutron
c. neutron, proton
d. proton, electron

9.

4. Which of the following statements is true?

a. electron has a unit charge of +1
b. proton has a unit charge of -1
c. neutron has a unit charge of 0
d. none of the above.

10. 3rd shell is also known as

a. K-shell
b. L-shell
c. M-shell
d. N-shell

5. Which determines the atomic number of an element?

a. number of electrons
b. number of protons
c. number of neutrons
d. number of protons and neutrons

11. How many subshells are there in N-shell?

a. 5 subshells
b. 4 subshells
c. 3 subshells
d. 2 subshells

6. Which determines the atomic mass of an element?

a. number of electrons
b. number of protons
c. number of neutrons
d. number of protons and neutrons

12. f-subshell is the 4th subshell. What does f means?

a. false
b. factual
c. fundamental
d. finite

Ar40 and 20Ca40 atoms are considered as

a. isotopes
b. isobars
c. cation
d. anion
18

13. f-subshell can accommodate maximum of ____

electrons.
a. 14
b. 10
c. 8
d. 6
14. L-shell can accommodate maximum of ____
electrons.
a. 14
b. 10
c. 8
d. 6
15. Valence electrons are found at the _____
a. innermost shell
b. outermost shell
c. outermost subshell
d. nucleus
16. A silicon atom has an atomic number of 14.
Determine the number of its valence electrons.
a. 1
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
17. An atom is mechanically, chemically, and electrically
stale if the number of valence electrons is 8. This is
known as
a. Octet Rule
b. skin effect
c. Mongols Rule
d. none of the above
18. Which of the following atoms are considered to be
most stable?
a. atoms at Group I in the periodic table of elements
b. atoms at Group IV in the periodic table of
elements

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c. atoms at Group V in the periodic table of
elements
d. atoms at Group VIII in the periodic table of
elements
19. _____ are materials where atoms have valence
electrons equal to 4.
a. insulator
b. conductor
c. semiconductor
d. semi-insulator
20. Additional amount of energy required to elevate an
electron from valence band to conduction band.
a. energy gap
b. band gap
c. both a and b
d. neither a and b
21. Energy exerted by electrons is best presented in
a. joules
b. AV
c. electronvolts
d. watts
22. The valence electron of a copper atom experiences
what kind of attraction toward the nucleus?
a. none
b. weak
c. strong
d. impossible to say
23. The valence electron of a conductor is also called a
a. bound electron
b. free electron
c. nucleus
d. proton
24. A positively charged atom is sometimes called
a. Isotope
b. anion

c. acceptor atom
d. cation
25. What causes the current to be much denser near the
surface of a conductor than its center?
a. skin effect
b. dense effect
c. permeance
d. resistance effect
26. Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF
current than for DC?
a. Because of higher voltage
b. Because of skin effect
c. Because the insulation conducts current a radio
frequencies
d. Because conductors are non-linear devices
27. The process in which a high velocity beam of
electrons or ions is made to strike a metal surface and
the impinging ions gives sufficient energy to enable
them to overcome the barrier and escape.
a. thermionic emission
b. photoelectric emission
c. secondary emission
d. high field emission
28. The term semiconductor arises from
a. resistor-like properties of metal oxides.
b. variable conductive properties of some
materials.
c. the fact that there's nothing to call silicon.
d. insulating properties of silicon and GaAs.
29. _____ is an orderly pattern of combined silicon
atoms.
a. covalent bond sharing of valence electrons
b. valence orbit
c. semiconductor
d. crystal

30. Which of the following is not an advantage of

semiconductor devices over vacuum tubes?
a. Smaller size
b. Lower working voltage
c. Lighter weight
d. Ability to withstand high voltage spikes
31. An intrinsic electronic semiconductor behaves as ____ at absolute temperature.
a. A variable resistor
b. A conductor
c. A superconductor
d. An insulator
32. An intrinsic electronic semiconductor behaves as ____ above room temperature.
a. A variable resistor
b. A conductor
c. A superconductor
d. An insulator
33. The amount of time between the creation of a hole
and its disappearance is called
a. doping
b. lifetime
c. recombination
d. thermal energy
34. A hole in the semiconductor is defined as
a. a free electron
b. an incomplete part of an electron pair bond
c. a free proton
d. a free proton
35. This happens when a free electron returns to the
valence shell.
a. Hole
b. Ionization
c. Recombination
d. Lifetime

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d. taking electrons away.
36. Semiconductor whose electron and hole
concentrations are equal.
a. doped semiconductor
b. extrinsic semiconductor
c. intrinsic semiconductor
d. equal semiconductor
37. The purpose of doping is to
a. make the charge carriers move faster.
b. causes hole to flow.
c. gives a semiconductor material specific
properties.
d. protect devices from damage in case of
transients.
38. Arsenic and phosphorus are examples of
a. pentavalent impurity
b. trivalent impurity
c. free electrons
d. holes
39. Arsenic and phosphorus when added to a
semiconductor creates
a. bound electrons
b. valence electrons
c. free electrons
d. holes
40. Which is not a trivalent atom?
a. Al
b. Bi
c. In
d. B
41. A semiconductor material is made into N type
a. adding an acceptor impurity.
b. adding a donor impurity.
c. injecting electrons.

42. Which of the following does not result from adding an

acceptor impurity?
a. The material becomes P type.
b. Current flows mainly in the form of holes.
c. Most of the carriers have positive electric charge.
d. The substance has an electron surplus.
43. In a P type material, electrons are
a. majority carriers.
b. minority carriers.
c. positive charged.
d. entirely absent.
44. Which of the following refers to an electron in the
conduction band?
a. Electrons driven by photons.
b. Electrons that loses its charge easily.
c. Those electrons with lower energy than those in
the valence band.
d. Those electrons with higher energy than those
in the valence band.

a.
b.
c.
d.

negative
positive
zero
either positive or negative

48. Of the following substances, which is the most

commonly used semiconductor?
a. Germanium
b. Galena
c. Silicon
d. Copper
49. GaAs is a/an
a. compound.
b. element.
c. conductor.
d. gas.
50. A disadvantage of gallium-arsenide devices is that
the
a. charge carriers move fast.
b. the materials deos not react to ionizing radiation.
c. it is expensive to produce.
d. it must be used at high frequencies.

45. What happens to the resistance of the copper wire

when it is heated?
a. increases
b. remains the same
c. decreases
d. becomes zero

51. Selenium works especially well in

a. photocells.
b. high-frequency detectors.
c. radio frequency power amplifiers.
d. voltage regulators.

46. When the temperature of an extrinsic semiconductor

increases the pronounced effect is on
a. majority carriers
b. minority carriers
c. junction capacitance
d. majority and minority carriers

52. Of the following, which material allows the lowest

forward voltage drop in a diode?
a. Selenium
b. Silicon
c. Copper
d. Germanium

47. A semiconductor has _____ temperature coefficient

of resistance.

53. A pn junction is formed by

a. the recombination of electrons and holes

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b. ionization
c. the boundary of a p-type and an n-type material
d. the collision of a proton and a neutron
54. The depletion region is created by
a. ionization
b. diffusion
c. recombination
d. all of the above
55. The arrow in the schematic symbol for a diode points
which way?
a. Towards the cathode
b. In the direction of current flow
c. Towards the anode
d. Towards the magnetic north
56. As you increase the doping level of a crystal diode its
barrier potential _____.
a. destabilizes
b. decreases
c. increases
d. stabilizes
57. With the rise in temperature of a PN junction, which
of the following will increase?
a. width of the depletion layer
b. junction barrier of the voltage
c. reverse leakage current
d. all of the above
58. What happens to the width of the depletion region of
a pn junction when the doping level is increased?
a. increases
b. remains the same
c. decreases
d. vanishes
59. When a PN junction is reverse-biased, the
capacitance depends on all of the following except

a.
b.
c.
d.

the frequency.
the width of the depletion region.
the cross-sectional area of the junction.
the type of semiconductor material.

60. If the reverse bias exceeds the avalanche voltage in

a P-N junction,
a. the junction will be destroyed.
b. the junction will insulate; no current will flow.
c. the junction will conduct current.
d. the capacitance will become extremely high.
61. Avalanche voltage is routinely exceeded when a P-N
junction acts as a
a. current rectifier.
b. variable resistor.
c. variable capacitor.
d. voltage regulator.
62. When a diode is forward biased, the anode voltage
a. is negative relative to the cathode.
b. is positive relative to the cathode.
c. is at the same voltage as the cathode.
d. alternates between positive and negative relative
to the cathode.
63. If ac is applied to a diode, and the peak ac voltage
never exceeds the avalanche voltage, then the output
is
a. ac with half the frequency of the input.
b. ac with the same frequency as the input.
c. ac with twice the frequecncy of the input.
d. none of the choices.
64. How many diodes will you use in designing a halfwave rectifier power supply?
a. two
b. one
c. four
d. three

65. _____ is the output of a half-wave rectifier.

a. half-wave rectified signal
b. square wave signal
c. 100% AC signal
d. sinusoidal signal
66. A half-wave rectifier circuit utilizing one-half of an ac
input cycle have a frequency in its output equivalent
to
a. 60cps
b. 120cps
c. 110cps
d. 240cps
67. With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load
resistor, load current flows for what part of a cycle?
a. 0 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 180 degrees
d. 360 degrees
68. The voltage out of a bridge rectifier is a
a. Half-wave signal
b. Full-wave signal
c. Bridge-rectified signal
d. Sine wave
69. What is the peak load voltage in a full-wave rectifier if
the input voltage is 20 V RMS?
a. 0 V
b. 0.7 V
c. 14.1 V
d. 28.3 V
70. We want a peak load voltage of 40 V out of a bridge
rectifier. What is the approximate RMS value of
input?
a. 0 V
b. 14.4 V

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c. 28.3 V
d. 56.6 V
71. With a full-wave rectified voltage across the load
resistor, load current flows for what part of a cycle?
a. 0 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 180 degrees
d. 360 degrees
72. What is the peak load voltage out of a bridge rectifier
for an input voltage of 15 V RMS? (Use second
approximation.)
a. 9.2 V
b. 15 V
c. 19.8 V
d. 24.3 V
73. If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of a
half-wave rectifier is
a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 120 Hz
d. 240 Hz
74. Each diode in a center-tapped full-wave rectifier is
_____ -biased and conducts for _____ of the input
cycle.
a. forward, 90
b. reverse, 180
c. forward, 180
d. reverse, 90
75. What is the PIV across each diode of a centertapped rectifier with an input voltage of 20 V RMS?
a. 14.1 V
b. 20 V
c. 28.3 V
d. 56.6 V

76. A full wave rectifier has average power of 10mW.

Compute for the effective voltage across a 100 ohm
resistance.
a. 0.707 V
b. 1.11 V
c. 1.414 V
d. 2.22 V
77. The maximum rectification efficiency of a full-wave
rectifier
a. 40.6%
b. 89%
c. 50%
d. 81.2%
78. If the filter capacitance is increased, the ripple will
a. decrease
b. stay the same
c. increase
d. none of these
79. The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that
a. Components are expensive
b. Diodes must have power rating.
c. Output is difficult to filter
d. Uses transformer
80. If the load current is 5mA and the filter capacitance is
1000f, what is the peak to peak ripple out of the
bridge rectifier?
a. 21.3 pV
b. 56.3 nV
c. 41.1 mV
d. 41.7 mV
81. Find the filter capacitor that will provide 2.5% ripple
filtered voltage having a load of 120 mA, full-wave
rectified voltage of 36 Vdc and 60 Hz supply.
a. 3117 F
b. 3207 F

c. 311.7 F
d. 320.7 F
82. Find the voltage regulation giving a dc voltage of 67
V without load and with full load current drawn the
output voltage drops to 42 V.
a. 59.5%
b. 62.7%
c. 15.9%
d. 32.5%
83. What is the voltage across a reverse biased diode in
series with a 10V DC source and a 1k resistor?
a. 0V
b. 0.7V
c. 0.3V
d. 10V
84. If the diode in a series limiter is pointing to the left,
a. the input waveform above the reference or DC
bias is clipped.
b. the input waveform below the reference or DC
bias is clipped.
c. the input waveform is clamped above the
reference or DC bias.
d. the input waveform is clamped below the
reference or DC bias.
85. If the diode in a shunt limiter is pointing down,
a. the input waveform above the reference or DC
bias is clipped.
b. the input waveform below the reference or DC
bias is clipped.
c. the input waveform is clamped above the
reference or DC bias.
d. the input waveform is clamped below the
reference or DC bias.
86. A clamping network must have _____.

6
a.
b.
c.
d.

a capacitor
a diode
a resistive element
All of the above

87. If the diode in a dc restorer is pointing down,

a. the input waveform above the reference or DC
bias is clipped.
b. the input waveform below the reference or DC
bias is clipped.
c. the input waveform is clamped above the
reference or DC bias.
d. the input waveform is clamped below the
reference or DC bias.
88. The ratio of the total swing of the output of a clamper
to its input total swing is _____.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 0.5
d. 0