Reviewer in Assessment of Student Learning

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The key takeaways are the principles of selecting instructional materials such as communication effectiveness, meaningfulness, and cost effectiveness. The passage also discusses the steps in using educational technology which are design, development, utilization, and evaluation.

The principles to consider in selecting instructional materials are communication effectiveness, meaningfulness, cost effectiveness, and concreteness.

The steps in using educational technology according to the passage are design, development, utilization, and evaluation.

Collated by: CADACIO, Juleus Cesar M.

BSN
Edtech1
What do you mean by the acronym PPPF?
A.Prepare yourself, Prepare your students, Present the material, Follow up
B.Prepare your school, Pass the exam, Present your talents, Follow the
leader
C.Prepare the food, Prepare yourself, Present the program, Follow your
dreams
D.Prepare your learning,Prepare your personality, Pass the exam, Follow
the steps
Who are the authors of on Instructional Media and gave the advise to use
PPPF?
A. Hayden kho and Thomas Aquinas B. Hayden Smith and Thomas
Nagel(Missed) C. Hayden Smith and St. Thomas D. Hayden Bruner and
Thomas Nage
What should be considered to be sure your instructional materials are
effective?
A.guidelines
B.taking it for granted
C.purchasing it without thinking many times
D.use materials immediately
What do you mean by R.O.G. Syndrome?
A. Run out of Glass B. Run out of Garbage C. Running out of Gas(Missed) D.
Running out of Glue
What do you call the things we use for effective teaching?
A. instructional materials B. contrived experiences C. Artifacts D. Visual Aids
.
1. Which of the following statements does NOT describe educational
technology?
.
A.
It is a profession composed of various job categories.
B.
It refers to the efficiency of teachers in using computers.
C.
It includes audiovisual materials, interactive multimedia and self-instructional
materials.
D.
It is the development, application, and evaluation of systems, techniques and
aids to improve human learning.
2. Which group of technologies has the highest degree of abstraction?
A. book, imaginative literature, programmed instruction
B. digital video, film, versatile compact disc
C. video, pictures and television
D. realia and computers
3. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of real objects and models in
teaching and learning?.
A. They are more concrete.
B. They pose problems on storage.

C. They provide hands-on learning experiences.


D. They are readily available in the environment, around school, and in the home.
4. Ms. De Leon, a fresh graduate teacher was hired to teach in an elementary school
where there are enough resources for instruction. The principal asked her to start
preparing her instructional materials. Which of the following processes would you
suggest her in using an educational technology?
A.
A. design utilization evaluation development
B.
B. design development utilization evaluation
C.
C. development design utilization evaluation
D.
D. development utilization evaluation design
5.
class.
A.
A.
B.
B.
C.
C.
D.
D.

5. Mr. Samson is planning to integrate the use of technology in his Science


Which of the
following would be his second step?
Set the objectives
Analyze the learners
Utilize the materials with showmanship
Evaluate the performance of the students

6.
6. Which of the following should Ms. Mesina primarily consider in determining
her teaching-learning objectives and use of instructional media?
A.
A. the learner
B.
B. the teacher
C.
C. instructional activity
D.
D. instructional strategy
7.
7. Which is the best reason why teachers state the objectives before using
instructional media?
A.
A. To be able to practice how to operate the equipment.
B.
B. To determine which media to use the best.
C.
C. To prepare the materials beforehand
D.
D. To secure available materials.

8.
8. Ms. Villegas is thinking of an educational technology that can relay
information clearly to her class. Which principle will guide in her in the selection of
the material?
A. interest
B. meaningfulness
C. cost effectiveness
D. communication effectiveness
9.
9. Mrs. Zinampan presented real samples of rocks when she discussed the
different forms of rocks. What principle in the selection of instructional material did
she apply?
A.
A.
interest
B.
B.
authenticity
C.
C. cost effective
D.
D. responsiveness
10.
10. Which is an incorrect statement about the contributions of technology to
the learning process?
A.
A. The quality of learning can be improved
B.
B. The delivery of instruction can be more interesting
C.
C. The role of the teacher can be changed into a demonstrator
D.
D. The method of teaching and learning becomes more interactive
11.
11. Which the pervasiveness of technologies nowadays, a learner-centered
instruction can be promoted. Which of the following statements support this
approach to teaching?
It focuses on transformation of facts.
It supports the use of lecture and drill methods.
It gives emphasis on collaboration and authentic assessment.
Students work on a tasks determined and controlled by the teacher.
A.
A.
I and II only
B.
B.
I and III only
C.
C.
II and IV only
D.
D.
III and IV only
12.
12. Ms. Gomez students use cooperative learning, inquiry based and projectbased learning approaches in creating their digital units plans. What can be
developed among the learners through these approaches?

A.
A. repetition and active learning
B.
B. repetition and information delivery
C.
C. information processing and active learning
D.
D. construction of knowledge and information exchange
13.
13. Which of these technologies are arranged from the most symbolic to
multisensory?
A.
A.
real objects, print, audio-visual materials, and visual materials
B.
B. visual materials, audio visual materials, print and computers
C.
C.
visual materials, print, audio-visual materials and regalia
D.
D.
print, audio, visual materials, and computers
14.
14. Which of the following is inappropriate in using printed visuals such as
charts, graphs, and drawings?
A.
A. provide written or verbal cues to highlight important aspect of visuals.
B.
B. allow the students to pass the materials from one person to another.
C.
C. use materials that everyone can see.
D.
D. present the material one at time.
15.
15. Prof. Arcilla would like to use audiocassette tape in teaching a lesson in
English. In which activity is audiocassette tape very effective in the teachinglearning process?
A.
A.
in developing listening skills
B.
B.
in teaching creative writing
C.
C.
in composing poems
D.
D.
in building concepts
1.
used
A.
A.
B.
B.
C.

Which is the most important reason why teachers preview materials to be


in class?
To gain confidence in using them.
To encourage viewers to be more focused.

C.
To avoid potential problems that might occur while materials are in use.
D.
D.
To ensure appropriateness of the materials with the objectives and target
audience.
2.
After Ms. Raca planned her lesson in English, she found out that the materials
at hand do not match her objectives. Which is the best thing that she can do?
A.
A.
Modify the available materials.
B.
B.
Teach the lesson the following day.
C.
C.
Change the objectives to match with the available materials.
D.
D.
Carry out the lesson s planned and use the materials at hand.
3.
Prof. Balagtas used worksheets, manipulatives and models in teaching math
to help her students understand the lesson and love the subject. What did she bear
in mind when she used these materials?
A.
A.
appropriateness
B.
B.
balance
C.
C. breadth
D.
D. variety
4.
With the increasing use of educational technology inside the classroom, what
role is expected of the teacher?
A.
A.
Facilitator
B.
B.
Researcher
C.
C. knowledge giver
D.
D. source of information
5.
Which of the following technologies provide iconic experience?
A.
A.
videos and computer
B.
B.
books and periodicals
C.
C.
radio and audio materials
D.
D.
printed and verbal symbols
6.
There are several reasons why teachers are reluctant in using electronic
media in the teaching-learning process. Which is the most common reason?

A.
A.
The limited exposure of teachers to new equipment.
B.
B.
Their incompatibility to diverse needs of the learners.
C.
C.
The difficulty in integrating technology in the community.
D.
D. None of the above
7.
These are countless things in the environment that you and your students
can be use to learn from such as trees, globes, pebbles, block etc. These real
objects and models are really effective if they are utilized properly. Which of the
following is incorrect about the use of real objects and models?
A.
A.
Familiarize yourself with the object or model.
B.
B.
Allow passing of a single object around the class.
C.
C.
Encourage students participation through questioning.
D.
D.
Make sure that objects/models are large enough to be seen by the whole
class.
8.
It is impractical to bring real object to the classroom so Aaron constructed a
three-dimensional visual instead. Which of the following did he construct?
A.
A.
cartoon
B.
B.
chart
C.
C. graphic
D.
D. model
9.
You asked your students to illustrate what they have understood from what
they have read. Which of the following non-projected visuals are you referring to?
A.
A.
print materials
B.
B.
graphics
C.
C. models
D.
D. realias
10.
Prof. Silva uses projected visuals such as overhead projector (OHP) in
presenting her lesson. What could be her main reason in using such an educational
technology?
A.
A.
The projected materials are readily available.
B.
B.
They more abstract than any other visuals.
C.
C.
Most projected visuals can be obtained at no cost.

D.
D.

She can easily prepare her own transparencies in advance.

11.
Mrs. Santos used a film clip in teaching science concepts to her grade Six
class. However, she found out that is was ineffectively used in the classroom. When
is technology considered ineffective?
A.
A.
When it promotes mastery the lesson.
B.
B.
When it makes viewing more interesting.
C.
C.
When it helps attain the objectives of the lesson.
D.
D.
When it induces alienation on the part of the learners.
12.
Your department would like to purchase a computer set as your project.
Which of the following advantages of computer will be the least consideration in
purchasing this technology?
A.
A.
It can enhance the teaching and learning process.
B.
B.
It can be used for interactive presentation.
C.
C.
It can be used for research activity.
D.
D.
It can be used for entertainment.
13.
Computers can be classified according to the roles they play namely
communicative tool, informative tool, and constructive tool. What is the other role of
computers in the options below?
A.
A.
instructional tool
B.
B.
situating tool
C.
C. utility tool
D.
D. application tool
14.
Which of the following categories of CAI will you use in your class if your
objective is to increase proficiency in a newly learned skill or refresh an existing
one?
A.
A.
Tutorial
B.
B.
Drill and practice
C.
C. simulation
D.
D. instructional game
15.
A.

Which of the following is an ineffective use of Presentation software?

A.
Darken the room
B.
B.
Use appropriate pacing
C.
C. read directly from the slides
D.
D. allow interaction with the learner
1.
It is the scientific and organized teaching learning process and or product.
A.
instructional technology
B.
educational technology
C.
educational media
D.
audio visual, media technology
2.
Refers to the preparation of sketch or some simple representation of the
visual one plans to use.
A.
models
B.
audio media
C.
books
D.
storyboarding
3.
Forms of media using transparency.
A.
CD'S, DVD'S internet
B.
slides
C.
overhead projects
D.
realia
4.
Scaled replicas of real objects.
A.
realia
B.
mock up
C.
models
D.
audio media
5.
Stands for real things that are to be studied.
A.
realia
B.

models
C.
mock up
D.
slides
6.
Used by teacher in connection with speech rehearsals, drama, musical
presentation, radio and T.V. broadcasting.
A.
books
B.
realia
C.
slides
D.
audio media
7.
Classified also as media
A.
radio slides
B.
story boarding
C.
slides
D.
books
8.
Examples of electronic materials available for teaching
A.
media
B.
educational technology
C.
cd's internet
D.
typewriter
9.
Visual messages
A.
design
B.
symbols
C.
pictures
D.
all of these
10.
Replica of an object that may be lorger or smaller in scale.
A.
realia
B.
mock-up
C.
models
D.

audio media
EDTECH 2
1.
The following are objectives of edtech 1 EXCEPT
A.
To expose students to the internet without limitations
B.
To introduce the learner to what is recognized as the third revolution
of education.
C.
To lend familiarization on how educational technology can be utilized
in teaching and learning process.
D.
To orient the learner to the pervasiveness of educational technology
in society.
2.
Educational technology 1 has truly paved the way for the learner to
become equipped, appreciative, and ___________ to use educational
technology tools ranging from traditional to modern educational media.
A.
evaluate
B.
assess
C.
aware
D.
all are correct
3.
What is considered as the third revolution in education?
A.
the cell phone
B.
the internet
C.
the computer
D.
the technology
4.
Which of the following is NOT a goal of edtech 1?
A.
To orient the learner to the pervasiveness of educational technology in
society.
B.
To train student teacher to program all educational files.
C.
To introduce the learner to computer.
D.
To uplift the learner to human learning through the use of learning
technology.
5.
What is the primary goal of edtech 2?
A.
Integrating technology into teaching and learning process.
B.
To train student teachers to become computer literate.

C.
To give awareness to student teachers about uses of computer in
teaching.
D.
To train student teacher to become IT professionals.
6.
The following are objectives of edtech 2 EXCEPT
A.
Exposing students to the internet without limitations.
B.
To engage students on information technology.
C.
To impart learning experiences in instructional technology-supported
instructional planning.
D.
To acquaint the students on information technology learning theories.
7.
To whom does edtech course is primarily intended to?
A.
parents
B.
teachers
C.
administration
D.
student teachers
8.
One of the IT initiatives of of this program is that the Government
should provide 40 computers for each primary school and 82 computers
for each secondary school.
A.
New Zealand 2001 ICT Goals and Strategy
B.
Australia IT Initiatives
C.
Malaysia Smart School-Level Technology Project
D.
Singapore Masterplan for IT in Education
E.
Hong Kong Education Program Highlights
9.
In this program, the physical and technology infrastructure should
be 2:1 pupil computer ratio and a broadband access service for highspeedy delivery of multimedia services on
island- wide basis ( they call
it WAN ).
A.
New Zealand 2001 ICT Goals and Strategy
B.
Australia IT Initiatives
C.
Malaysia Smart School-Level Technology Project
D.
Singapore Masterplan for IT in Education
E.

Hong Kong Education Program Highlights


10.
They call their school as SMART school wherein each classroom
should have multimedia, presentation facilities, e-mail and groupware
for collaborative work.
A.
New Zealand 2001 ICT Goals and Strategy
B.
Australia IT Initiatives
C.
Malaysia Smart School-Level Technology Project
D.
Hong Kong Education Program Highlights
11.
They e common features to planning, funding and implementation
strategies is fast local and stablished a coordinating and advisory body
called EdNA, wherein one of the wide area networks linking schools across
the state and territory.
A.
New Zealand 2001 ICT Goals and Strategy
B.
Australia IT Initiatives
C.
Malaysia Smart School-Level Technology Project
D.
Singapore Masterplan for IT in Education
E.
Hong Kong Education Program Highlights
12.
One of the strategies of this program is using ICT to support
curriculum. One of the focus areas is infrastructure for increasing
schools' access to ICTs to enhance education and one of the initiatives is
an on-line resource center with a centrally managed website
for the
delivery of multimedia resources to school.
A.
New Zealand 2001 ICT Goals and Strategy
B.
Australia IT Initiatives
C.
Malaysia Smart School-Level Technology Project
D.
Singapore Masterplan for IT in Education
E.
Hong Kong Education Program Highlights
13.
In this model of learning, the learner builds a personal
understanding through appropriate learning activities and a good learning
environment.
A.
meaningful learning
B.
discovery learning
C.

generative learning
D.
constructivism
14.
In this model of learning, we have active learners who attend to
learning events and generate meaning from this experience and draw
inferences thereby creating a personal model or explanation to the new
experience in the context of existing knowledge.
A.
meaningful learning
B.
. discovery learning
C.
generative learning
D.
constructivism
15.
Students perform tasks to uncover what is to be learned in this
model of learning.
A.
meaningful learning
B.
discovery learning
C.
generative learning
D.
constructivism
16.
This model of learning gives focus to new experience that is related
to what the learner already knows.
A.
meaningful learning
B.
discovery learning
C.
generative learning
D.
constructivism
17.
This IT-based project let the students to find their own facts and
information. The teacher will be the one to determine the topic for the
examination of the class.
A.
resource-based project
B.
simple creation
C.
guided hyper-media project
D.
web-based project
18.
The students in this type of project will produce their own
multimedia projects in which it can be an instructive tool or a
communication tool.

A.
resource-based project
B.
simple creation
C.
guided hyper-media project
D.
web-based project
19.
In this type of project, the students develop their own software such
as creative writer Kidwork or media weave.
A.
resource-based project
B.
simple creation
C.
guided hyper-media project
D.
web-based project
20.
page
A.
B.
C.
D.

This type of project encourage students to design their own web


for the topic assigned by the teacher.
resource-based project
simple creation
guided hyper-media project
web-based project

21.
II. True or FalseEducational technology 1 has paved the way for the
learner to become aware,
appreciative and equipped to use educational
technology tools while educational
technology 2 is concerned with
integrating technology to learning.
A.
true
B.
false
22.
Educational technology 1 teaches you how to operate computer
while educational technology 2 teaches you how to design computer
software.
A.
true
B.
false
23.
The ICT coordinating and advisory body of New Zealand is called
EdNA.
A.
true
B.
false
24.
EdNA refers to Educational Network Australia.
A.
true
B.
false
25.
A.

Masterplan for IT Education is the IT program of China.

true
B.
false
26.
Educational technology 2 is all about teaching computer skills to the
student teachers.
A.
true
B.
false
27.
VHS players are considered as high end educational tools of today.
A.
true
B.
false
28.
Constructivism gives stress to rote learning and simple
memorization.
A.
true
B.
false
29.
In a meaningful learning, students build a personal understanding
through appropriate
A.
true
B.
false
30.
Generative learning have active learners who attend to learning
events and generate meaning from this experience.
A.
true
B.
false
31.
Tell what conceptual model was manifested by the following
situations. Write the letter in the box that corresponds to the correct
answer on the space provided.Mila during her class in evaluating algebraic
expression didnt discuss, instead she give the students a step by step
procedure on how to evaluate algebraic expressions and give them 5
exercises to be submitted after the session.
A.
Meaningful Learning
B.
Discovery Learning
C.
Generative Learning
D.
Constructivism

32.
Knowing that the students already know how to add algebraic
variables, teacher Mila just let the students to add scientific notations
applying the same concept in adding variables.
A.
Meaningful Learning
B.
Discovery Learning
C.
Generative Learning
D.
Constructivism
33.
how
A.
B.
C.
D.

In the science laboratory, students are just given out handouts on


to conduct an experiment.
Meaningful Learning
Discovery Learning
Generative Learning
Constructivism

34.
After conducting a research on how to become a good student
teacher, teacher Therese let her students to generate from their result
what they had learned.
A.
Meaningful Learning
B.
Discovery Learning
C.
Generative Learning
D.
Constructivism
35.
Tell what type of IT-based project is being referred to by the
following. Write the letter
that corresponds to the correct answer on
the space provided.Teacher Sam during his class in history let his students
to research individually the
meaning of EDSA as their assignment and
to be taken up next meeting.
A.
Resource-based project
B.
Simple creation
C.
Guided hyper-media
D.
Web-based project
36.
Edtech 2 requires the students to come up with a blog using the
blogger.com of google.
A.
Resource-based project
B.
Simple creation
C.
Guided hyper-media
D.
Web-based project
37.
During science lesson, students are debating about what really is a
definition of the word relativity because all of them have their own source
of the meaning of it.
A.
Resource-based project
B.
Simple creation
C.
Guided hyper-media
D.
Web-based project

38.
Why we study educational technology1?
A.
To orient learner to the pervasiveness of educational technology in
the society.
B.
To introduce the learner to the third revolution of education.
C.
To uplift learner to human learning through the use of learning
technology.
D.
All are correct.
39.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Why we study educational technology 2?


To integrate information technology to teaching.
To expose students to the internet.
To learn how to compute grade automatically.
All answers are correct.

40.
Why we need to impose meaningful learning in the classroom?
A.
Students have already knowledge relevant to new learning.
B.
Students are willing to perform class work.
C.
Students themselves can find connection between what they already
know and what they can learn.
D.
All answers are correct.
41.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Why is constructivism so effective in the classroom?


It can help the learner directly responsible for learning.
It teaches students how to apply ICT in the classroom.
It develops students computer skills.
All answers are correct.

42.
Why do we have to involve the four models of learning in the
classroom?
A.
By applying this, learners can become emotionally stable.
B.
Learners can become active and purposeful.
C.
Learners can become environment friendly using the four models.
D.
All answers are correct
Curriculum Development
50. The environment is greatly abused which is why schools are teaching
sustainable development. Which is the best practice among the following?
A. focus the curriculum on environment
B. integrate sustainable development on the curriculum C. sustainable development
is not within the grasp of students D. promote environmental drive in the school
51. The curriculum is a total learning experience for an individual. This point of
view is considered to be of A. Traditional C. Materialist B. Progressivist D. Cognitivist

52. The grassroots approach insists that teacher who teach or implement the
curriculum should participate in developing it. This is based on the A. Ralph Tyler
Model C. Hilda Taba Model B. Sigmund Freud Model D. Allan Glatthorn Model 53.
When the curriculum includes materials resources that would help in the
implementation of the written curriculum such as textbooks, computers, audiovisual materials, laboratory equipment, playgrounds, zoos, and other facilities, this
curriculum could be categorized as A. Taught Curriculum C. Learned Curriculum B.
Assessed Curriculum D. Supported Curriculum 54. Which psychological foundation
explains that the curriculum should be organized so students experience success in
master the subject matter? A. Behaviorism C. Humanism B. Psychoanalysis D.
Gestalt 55. A teacher desire that her students realize the wholeness of the
problem. With this premise, the teachers is manifesting which psychological
principle? A. Cognitivism C. Humanistic B. Gestalt D. Existentialist 56. Which among
the following is NOT a component of the curriculum? A. Curriculum Aims, Goals and
Objectives B. Curriculum Content or Subject Matter C. Curriculum Experience D.
Curriculum Evaluation 57. Which of the following when partnered with the different
instructional strategies and methods would comprise the core of the curriculum? A.
Curriculum Aims, Goals and Objectives C. Curriculum Evaluation B. Curriculum
Experience D. Curriculum design 58. The objective to continue to promote the
objectives of elementary education and to discover and enhance the different
aptitudes and interests of the students so as to equip him with skills for productive
endeavour and/or prepare him for tertiary schooling can be found in which article
and selection under the Educational Systems. A. Article III Selection 21 C. Article III
Selection 23 B. Article III Selection 22 D. Article III Selection 24 59. The program of
Decentralized Educational Development or PRODED is supposed to be content
based curriculum. Therefore it A. Does not focus on the learner and learning process
B. Focuses on the learner and learning process C. Focuses on the learner only D.
Focuses on the learning process 60. Which period you could have probably lived if
the curriculum you follow includes the code of Klantiao and Maragtas? A. PreSpanish C. American B. Spanish D. Japanese 61. Which psychological view is
associated with the work of Lev Vygotsky? A. Child is an active agent in his or her
educational process B. Child a passive agent in his or her educational process C.
Morality is based on what other people feel D. Child learns by imitating other people
2. 62. Which curriculum model gave emphasis on backward design? A. NESC C.
RBEC B. NSEC D. UBD 63. The program that gives access to every Filipino the
access to early childhood education is A. Universal Kindergarten C. Generic
Elementary Education B. Bantay Bata D. Vocational School Program 64. Which
program address the learner and learning process? A. Program Decentralized
Educational Development (PRODED) B. The Basic Educational Curriculum (BEC) C.
Secondary Education Development Program (SEDP) D. Both b and c. 65. Building
proficiency through language in the K to 12 program expects a Grade 1 pupil to
____. A. gain knowledge in areas such as Biology, Geometry, Earth Science,
Chemistry, and Algebra B. can read in his or her Mother Tongue. C. choose a
specialization based on aptitude, interests, and school capacity D. acquire in-depth
knowledge, skills, values, and attitudes through continuity and consistency across
all levels and subjects. 66. Whose role is to be the curriculum leader and at the
same time instructional leader and is supposed to be the general manager? A. The
Principal B. The Are Chairman C. The Subject Teacher D. The School Guidance
Counselor 67. A curriculum is defined as a delivery system that provides children
with ___________. A. Guidance and feedback C. Enjoyment and knowledge B.

Finessed and motor skills D. Sequence and direction 68. Which three learning
domains are involved in teaching physical education? A. Cognitive, affective,
psychomotor B. Aerobic, strength, flexibility C. Motor Skill, manipulative skills,
physical fitness D. Behavioural, cognitive, psychological 69. The initial level in
curriculum design is to: A. Define objectives B. Define a philosophy of the subject C.
Organize a curriculum committee D. Define goals 70. The following are SubjectCantered Curriculum, which should NOT be include? A. Correlation Design C. Subject
Design B. Discipline Design D. Life-situations Design 71. The Principal shares the
thought with his teachers that the subject matter should help students understand
and appreciate themselves as unique individuals who accept complete responsibility
of their thoughts, feelings and actions. From which point of view is this thought
based? A. Essentialism C. Progressivism B. Rationalism D. Existentialism 72. Hilda
Tabs Grassroots approach believes: A. That teacher who teach or implement the
curriculum should participate in developing it. B. That schools should operate with a
specific curriculum C. That administrators are educational qualified in order to
facilitate an appropriate curriculum D. That school principals should implement rules
among teachers when teaching. 73. If teacher Angel wants to follow Piagets theory,
what should she provide for her pupils who are in the sensorimotor stage? A.
Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering B. games and
other physical activities to develop motor skills C. Activities which formulates
hypothesis D. Wide space with minimal object to play with.
3. 74. In what era could you possibly lived if education us characterized as practical
training satisfy basic needs and transmit social ideas, belief and traditions? A.
Spanish Era C. Pre-Spanish Era B. American Era D. Japanese Era 75. Learners at the
center of the curriculum implies the following EXCEPT. A. The learner is place at the
center B. The learners are the very reason a curriculum is developed. C. They are
the ones who are directly influenced by learning. D. Learners in all levels make or
unmake the curriculum by their passive and indirect involvement. Educational
Technology 76. Teacher Liah wants to show her class a magnified picture of Tall
Volcano fixed on a bond paper. Which among the following should she utilize to
accomplish her goal? A. Video Tape C. LCD projector B. Slides D. Opaque projector
77. Which of the computer based system instructional tool can help you revise
written work such as short stories and essays? A. Word processing C. Spreadsheet
B. Database D. Desktop 78. It refers to the lowest level of involvement using
computer technology. A. ICT C. E-Learning B. IT D. Web-browsing 79. Teacher Kylie
monitors, evaluate and facilitate students use of tools and applications to
collaborate, access information, and communicate to analyze and solve problems.
Her competency in ICT is considered as A. Basic C. Advanced B. Proficient none of
the above 80. The following are roles of information technology in Education, which
is supposed to be REMOVED: A. Mobile devices that utilize information and
communication technology give students and teachers more sources of information,
which makes learning nearly anything more accessible. B. Staff member can find
and send transcript information and other records quickly by accessing a digital
filing system, saving time and paper. C. Information and communication technology
opens the doors for better distance learning programs, allowing those in
disadvantaged areas to have access to the same education as the privileged. D.
Teachers can enter grades and assignment in their class records saving electricity
from computers. 81. Which of the following activity integrates technology to
education? A. Technology is mostly being used by the instructor. B. Technology is
mostly being used by the students. C. Technology is used purely for the sake of

using technology 82. What is the initial stage in educational technology? A. Coupled
with the use of aids like charts, maps, symbols, models, specimen and concrete
materials. B. Associated with the electronic revolution with the introduction and
establishment of sophisticated hardware and software. C. Linked with the
development of mass media which in turn led to communication revolution for
instructional purposes. D. Discernible by the individualized process of instruction.
The invention of programmed learning and programmed instruction provided a new
dimension to educational technology. 83. Which rationale of the used technology is
attributed to engagement? A. Using technology transforms the teacher from
authority-expert to facilitator when the students are guided to use technology to
find answers online. B. Students transformed from passive recipients of the
teachers knowledge to active participants in knowledge-seeking and knowledgeconstruction. C. Students using technology become active in learning process
instead of passive listeners. D. The internet provides access to an incredible array of
information sources, media, and communications. 84. Which of the following best
gives life to the subject matter? A. Instructional Materials C. individualized Learning
B. Computer Technology D. Mass Instruction 85. Teacher Angel want to supplement
learning for her SPEd class, which of the following may she utilized as a
supplemental material? A. Magazine C. Use LCD projectors
4. B. Mass Instruction D. Use slides 86. Teacher Mira will borrow audio-visual aids
from the library, which of the following should be REMOVED from her requisition
form? A. Motion Pictures C. Videotape B. Television D. Specimen 87. If teacher Leo
wants his students to see exhibits, which place should he arranged foa a tour? A.
Library C. Clinic B. Museum D. Schools storage room 88. Field trips falls under the
_______________. A. Demonstrations C. Programmed Instruction B. Graphic Materials
D. Community Resources 89. Mrs. Reyes asks her students to bring graphic
materials for tomorrows lessons. Which of the following should her students bring?
A. Maps and Globes C. Bulletin Board B. Television D. phonograph 90. Of which
mode of technology teaching should Sandy participate should she wants to give
emphasis much on the approach or technique rather than a reliance on specific type
of hardware? A. Mass Instruction C. Group Learning B. Individualized Learning D.
none of the above 91. State the best reason as not to bring snakes when the topic
to be discussed is about reptiles? A. Affordable C. Extreme B. Interesting D. Feasible
92. It is mentioned that the teacher is the best visual aid, why is this so? A. The
Teacher is always expected to prepare the best visual aids. B. The teacher acts as a
medium in the teaching-learning process. C. The teacher is able to utilize visual aids
expertly. D. The teacher is a source of mastery. 93. Teacher Biance was absent for 2
days because of flu. Which is the fastest way to send her lectures to her students so
they could read them? A. Email the lectures to her students B. Send the lecture
through their group in a social networking site. C. Blog the message D. Send it
through a courier 94. Sir Joey is a Grade 4 and 5 teacher in Polilo, Quezon. The place
has a ration of electricity which is switched on only from 2pm until 6am the
following day. The topic he has for his lesson this week ai all about the different
bodies of water. Which audio-visual material should he use for the lesson? A.
PowerPoint presentation C. transparencies and projector B. Video film D. pictures 95.
The following are different teaching methods that Ms. Cindy is utilizing. Which
method should she use if is going to utilize computers? A. Cooperative Learning C.
Individualized Instruction B. Role Play D. Distance Learning 96. What happen to your
files if you compress the? A. The size will be smaller B. The files will be bigger C. The
file size will be deleted D. The file will be infected by viruses 97. Technology like the

internet can be used so that students may visit museums, listen to or watch great
performances, and have their own music practice supported and analysed. This is
known as ____________. A. Virtual interaction C. Virtual communication B. Virtual
performance D. Virtual tour 98. Teacher Dora aims at developing deep competency
using the problem solving environment provided by the computer. Which rationale
of using technology is she using? A. Reflection of Current Practice B. ProblemSolving and Project-Based Learning C. Archiving D. Cooperative Grouping 99. The
following area are the contribution of ICT in the classroom EXCEPT A. Provision for
individual resources B. Shared learning spaces
5. C. The promotion of collaborative learning D. The movement towards
autonomous learning 100. An Act to integrate information technology into public
elementary and secondary curricula and approaching funds therefor can be found
in A. House Bill 845 C. RA 7610 B. BP 232 D. RA 90210

REVIEWER IN ASSESSMENT OF STUDENT LEARNING


1. Which of the following objectives is the highest level of Blooms taxonomy?
A. Identifies the meaning of item.
B. Identifies the order of the given events.
C. Interprets the meaning of an idea.
D. Improves defective test items.
2. What does a teacher do when she does a norm-referenced interpretation of
scores?
a. The teacher describes what should be the performance.
b. The teacher describes group performance in relation to a level of the master set
c. The teacher compares an individuals score with other scores
d. The teacher uses specified content as its reference
3. Which statement/s is/are true in constructing matching types of test? I. The
options and descriptions not necessarily homogeneous. II. The options must be
greater than the descriptions. III. The directions must state the basis of matching. IV.
Descriptions in Column A and options in Column B.
A. I, II and III C. I, II and IV B. II, III and IV I, II, III and IV
4. Which of the following statements are characteristics of imperfect type of
matching test? I. The minimum item is three. II. The item has no possible answer. III.
More options than descriptions. IV. Items not necessarily homogeneous.
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. II and IV only
5. Which of the following should be AVOIDED in constructing true or false test? I.
Verbal clues and specific determiner. II. Terms denoting definite degree or amount.
III. Taking statements directly from the book. IV. Keep true and false statement the
same in length.

A. I and III only


B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II and IV only
6. Which of the following test item can best effectively measure higher order of
cognitive learning objectives? A. Objective test B. Achievement test C. Completion
test D. Extended essay test
7. Here is a test item The improvement of basic education should be the top
priority of the Philippine government. Defend or refute this position. Under what
type of question does this test item fall? a. Low-level c. Analysis b. Evaluative d.
Convergent
8. Which statements best describe a short-answer test item? I. It is easy to write
test items. II. Broad range of knowledge outcomes can be measured. III. Adaptable
in measuring complex learning outcomes. IV. Scoring is NOT tedious and time
consuming. A. I, II and III B. I and II only C. II and IV only D. II, III and IV

SITUATION A. The data on the table below are results of test which was
administered to four subjects in which Ritz Glenn belong. Using the said data
answer the questions (9-14).
Subject
Ritz score
Mean
Standard Deviation
English
88
85
3.5
Math
95
97
5
Music
90
98
6.5
PE
94
91
4
9. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed best in relation to the performance of
the group?
A. English B. Music C. Mathematics D. PE
10. What type of learner is Ritz? A. Bodily Kinesthetic B. Logical C. Musical D.
Linguistic
11. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed poorly in relation to the group
performance? A. English C. Mathematics B. Music D.PE
12. In which subject the scores most dispersed? A. English C. Mathematics B. Music
D. PE
13. In which subject the scores less dispersed? A. English C. Mathematics B. Music
D. PE
14. Which statement best describe normal distribution?
A. Only few got average scores. B. The mean, the median are equal. C. Negatively
skewed distribution. D. Most of the scores lies at one end.

15. Standard deviation is to measure of Variation as_____is to Measures of central


tendency. A. Quartile deviation C. Range B. Mean deviation D. Mode
16. What type of measure of variation easily affected by the extreme scores? A.
Range C. Inter- quartile range B. Mean D. Standard deviation
17. Which measure/s of central tendency easily affected by the extreme scores? A.
Median C. Mode B. Mean D. Mean and Median
18. Adrians score in Statistics quizzes are as follows: 96, 90, 85, 89, 65, 99, 84, 82.
What is the mean value? A. 83.25 C. 85.25 B. 84.25 D. 86.25
19. Given the following scores: 88, 83, 89, 78, 89, 85, 85, 89, 75, 90, 95, and 95.
What characteristics best described the distribution? A. Normally distributed C.
Bimodal B. Unimodal D. Multi-modal
20. A type of error committed in grading the performance of the students by the
rater who avoids both extremes of the scale and tends to rate everyone as average.
A. generosity error C. logical error B. severity error D. central tendency error
21. What error committed by the rater if he overate the performance of the
student/s? A. generosity error C. logical error B. severity error D. central tendency
error
22. What error committed by the rater if the lower end of the scale is favored? A.
generosity error C. logical error B. severity error D. central tendency error
23. Which of the following assessment techniques best assess the objective plans
and design an experiment to be performed. A. Paper and pencil test C. Checklist B.
Rating scale D. Essay
24. Which measures of variation is the most stable? A. Range C. Quartile deviation
B. Inter- quartile range D. Standard deviation
25. Teacher Leila conducted a short quiz to get feedback on the learning progress of
the learners after discussing the lesson on multiplication of rational expressions.
This type of assessment is classified as a: A. Placement Assessment C. Diagnostic
assessment B. Formative Assessment D. Summative Assessment
26. Which of the following statements is NOT included in constructing table of
specification? A. Decide on the content areas to be included. B. Decide on the
number of test item per content. C. Decide the skills to measure in each content. D.
Decide on the number of answer sheets needed.
27. Teacher Gina is talking about grading on the curvein a teachers assembly.
This means that shes referring to what type of grading system? A. Cumulative
method of grading. B. Norm- reference grading C. Criterion- reference grading D.
Combination of B and C

28. The computed value of r= 0.95 in Mathematics and English. What does this
imply? A. Mathematics score is not related to English score. B. English score is
moderately related to Mathematics score. C. Mathematics score is highly positive
related to English score. D. English score is not anyway related to Mathematics
score.
29. Teacher Jean will conduct a test to measure her students ability to organize
thoughts and present original ideas. Which type of test is most appropriate? A.
Modified true-false test item C. Short answer test B. Completion type of test D.
Essay test
30. Teacher Hyacinth conducted 25 items test in Algebra. Students scores were as
follows: 20, 12, 13, 14, 15, 14, 20, 22, 20, 22, 23, 23, 24,
25,
Which measure/s of central tendency does score 20 represent? A. Mode only C.
Median and Mode B. Mean D. Mean, Median and Mode C.
31. What type of a multiple choice test is this? 5: 15 as 4: _____. A. 12 B. 15 C. 16 D.
18 A. Completion type B. Analogy C. Solving problem D. Short answer test
32. Teacher Jay constructed a matching type of test. In this column A of description
are combination of current issues, government agencies, data of events and
government officials. Which guidelines of constructing matching type of test NOT
FOLLOWED? A. Arrange the descriptions in alphabetical order. B. Make the
descriptions equal in length. C. Make the descriptions homogeneous. D. Make the
descriptions heterogeneous.
33. Which statement is true about normal curve? A. The scores are concentrated at
the left side of the distribution. B. The scores are concentrated at the right side of
the distribution. C. There are more high scores than scores. D. The value of the
mean is equal to the value of the median.
34. Which characteristics best described the given score distribution? The scores
are: 22, 23, 24, 24, 24, 25, 26, 26, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 39, 39, 40, 40, 45. A. Multimodal C. Normally distributed B. Bimodal D. skewed to the left
35. Which is true when the standard deviation is small? A. The scores are
concentrated near the mean value. B. The scores are spread apart within the mean
value. C. The scores concentrated at the right end of the distribution. D. The scores
are concentrated at the left end of the distribution.
36. All of the given statements are best practices of preparing multiple-choice test
items EXCEPT: A. Stem should be stated in positive form. B. Use the stem that could
serve as a short-answer item. C. Underline words or phrases in the stem to give
emphasis. D. Shorten the stem so that options can be written longer.
37. What is the best way to develop math concept? a. Solving problems using
multiple approaches b. Solving problems by looking for correct answer

4. c. Learning math as applied to situations, such as being a tool of science d.


solving problems by applying learned formulas
38. After reading an essay. Teacher B wants to help sharpen her students ability to
interpret. Which of these activities will be most appropriate? a. Drawing conclusions
b. Making inferences (not sure) c. Getting the main idea d. Listing facts separately
from opinion
39. Which of the following statement refers to criterion-reference interpretation? A.
Ritz got the highest score in Mathematics. B. Luis computed the problem solving
faster than his classmates. C. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes.
D. Lovelys test score is higher than 95% of the class..
40. Which of the following is an example of norm-reference interpretation? A. Lords
test score is higher than 89% of the class. B. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments
in 2 minutes. C. Harold must spell 25 words correctly out of 30 words. D. Mark
solves 5 problems correctly in 30 minutes.
41. Which of the following learning outcomes is the most difficult to assess
objectively? 1. A concept 3. An appreciation 2. An application 4. None of the above
How can you improve the test item? A. Rewrite the stem to statement form B.
Remove the indefinite articles a and an from the options. C. Change the option
none of the above with an interpretation. D. Change the numbers in the options to
letters.
42. What is the main advantage of using table of specification (TOS) when
constructing periodic test. A. It increases the reliability of the test result. B. It
reduces the scoring time. C. It makes test construction easier. D. It improves the
sampling of content areas.
43. The main objective of testing in teaching is: A. To assess students learning and
the effectiveness of instruction. B. To assess the effectiveness of teaching methods
used. C. To evaluate the instructional materials used. D. To evaluate the
performance of the teacher in that particular lesson.
44. The instructional objectives is very important in test construction when they are
stated in terms of: A. Teacher activities. C. stated in general terms. B. Learning
activities. D. student performance.
45. Which of the following statement is the main reason why should negative words
be avoided in constructing multiple-choice test? A. Increase the difficulty of the test
item. B. More difficult to construct options. C. Might be overlooked. D. Stems tend to
be longer.
46. Obtaining a dependable ranking of students is a major concern when using: A.
Teacher-made diagnostic test. B. Norm-reference summative test. C. Criterionreference formative test. D. Mastery achievement test.
47. Which of the following statement is an advantage of multiple-choice test items
over essay questions? A. Provide assessment of more complex learning outcomes.

B. It emphasis more on the low level of learning outcomes. C. Provide more


extensive sampling of the content area. D. Requires more time in preparing the test
items.
48. When a test is lengthened, the reliability is likely to___________________? A.
Increase C. not determined B. Decrease D. both A and B
49. All of the following best describe interpreting norm-reference scores EXCEPT: A.
Percentile rank C. Grade Equivalent scores B. Standard scores D. raw scores
50. Which of the following statements describe performance based assessment?
5. I. Evaluate complex learning outcomes and skills. II. Encourages the application of
learning to real life situation. III. Measure broad range of contents. A. I only C. III
only B. I and II D. I, II and III
51. Teacher Adrian conducted item analysis and he found out that more from the
lower group got the test item number 6 correctly. This means that the test
item_________. A. Has a low reliability B. Has a high validity C. Has a positive
discriminating power D. Has a negative discriminating power
52. Which is implied by a positively skewed score distribution? A. Most of the scores
are below the mean value. B. Most of the scores are above the mean value. C. The
mean is less than the median. D. The mean, the median and the mode are equal.
53. Most of the students who took the examination got scores above the mean.
What is the graphical representation of the score distribution? A. Skewed to the left
C. scores are normally distribute B. Skewed to the right D. positively skewed
54. Which statement best describes a negatively skewed score distribution? A. The
value of mean and median are equal. B. Most examinees got scores above the
mean. C. The value of mode corresponds to a low score. D. The value of median is
higher than the value of mode.
55. In a normal distribution a T- score of 80 is_____________. A. Two SDs below the
mean C. three SDs below the mean B. Two SDs above the mean D. three SDs
above the mean
56. The distribution of a class with academically poor students is more likely______.
A. Normally distributed C. skewed to the right B. Skewed to the left D. leptokurtic
57. Teacher Paul conducted item analysis and he found out that significantly greater
number from the upper group of the class got test item number 10 correctly. This
means that the test item_____________. A. Has a negative discriminating power B.
Has a positive discriminating power C. Has low reliability D. Has high validity
58. Mary Anne obtained a NAT percentile rank of 93. This imply that________. A. She
surpassed in performance 7% of the group. B. She got a score of 93. C. She
answered 93 items correctly. D. She surpassed in performance 93% of her fellow
examinees.

59. Which instructional objective below is the highest level of Blooms Taxonomy? A.
Define fraction B. Explain the different rules of addition of fractions C. Add fractions
correctly D. Determine the steps in solving fractions60. Under which assumption is
portfolio assessment based? A. Assessment should stress the reproduction of
knowledge. B. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment. C. An individual learner
is inadequately characterized by a test score. D. An individual learner is adequately
characterized by a test score.61. Which of the following statements best describes
the incorrect options in item analysis? A. Determining the percentage equivalent of
the cut off score. B. Determining the highest score C. Determining the effectiveness
of distracters D. Determining the cut of score
62. When points in a scatter diagram are spread evenly in all directions this means
that: A. The correlation between two variables is positive. B. The correlation
between two variables is low. C. The correlation between variables is high. D. There
is no correlation between two variables.
63. Roels score in Science test is 89 which is equal to 95th percentile. What does
this mean? A. 95% of Roels classmates got scores lower than 89. B. 95% of Roels
classmates got scores higher than 89.
6. C. Roels score is less than 89% of his classmates. D. Roels score is higher than
95% of his classmates.
64. Which applies when there are extreme scores? A. The median is very reliable
measure of central tendency. B. The mean will be very reliable measure of central
tendency. C. There is no reliable measure for central tendency. D. The mode will be
the most reliable measure of central tendency.
65. In a normal distribution, about how many percent of the cases fall between -1SD
to +1SD? A. 15.73% C. 49.86% B. 34.13% D. 68.26%
66. Teacher Kristy gave a chapter test, in which competency did her students find
greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of _____________. A. 0.25 C.0.75
B. 0.15 D. 1.00
67. Teacher Lawrence gave a test in Mathematics. The facility of item No. 10 is 75%.
The best way to describe item No. 10 is _______. A. very easy C. average item B.
easy item D. difficult item
68. At the end of the school year, all third year students presented their portfolio in
English subject. Students, teachers, and other stakeholders were asked to view and
give their comments regarding what was viewed. Which authentic assessment was
organized? A. Exhibits C. Conference B. Program D. Seminar
69. The point of departure of an inter-quartile range which indicate the spread of the
scores is_________. A. Upper limit C. mean B. Median D. range
70. The admissions office of a certain university conducted a qualifying test five
batches of examinees. The number of qualifiers and their mean scores are
presented below. Batch number Number of qualifiers Mean score Batch I 20 94

Batch II 10 85 Batch III 15 92 Batch IV 25 87 Batch V 10 95 What is the mean score


of the entire group of qualifiers? A. 90.44 B. 90.60 C. 5.66 d. 92.00
71. Josephs score in Science is 1.5 standard deviation above the mean of his group
and 2 standard deviation above mathematics. What does this mean? A. He excels
both in Science and in Mathematics. B. He is better in Mathematics than in Science.
C. He is better in Science than in Mathematics. D. He does not excel in both
subjects.
72. The criterion of success in Teacher Ofel objective is that the students must be
able to get 80% of the test items correctly. Luis and 24 other students in the class
answered only 20 out of 25 items correctly. This means that teacher Ofel________. A.
Attained her lesson objective because of her effective problem solving drills. B. Did
not attain her lesson objective because her students lack of attention. C. Attained
her lesson objective. D. Did not attain her lesson objective as far as the 25 students
are concerned.
73. The grading system of Department of Education is averaging. What is the
average final grade of Andie in English for four grading periods? English First Second
Third Fourth Final rating grading grading grading grading 90 88 93 95 ? A. 91.5 C.
94.00 B. 92.25 D. 95.00
74. The grading method which gives weight to the present grade and the previous
grade of the student such as (Third grading grade) + (Fourth grading grade) = Final
Grade is called__________. A. Averaging B. Criterion reference C. Norm reference D.
Cumulative
75. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test item, which of the following
should be done?
7. A. Make the stem short and clear B. Make the options homogeneous C. Make it
grammatically correct D. Make the options equal in lengthSituation B.
(Item Number 76 to 81)Given the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and
non-plausibility of distracters based onthe results of a try-out test in English. The
letter mark with an asterisk is the correct answer.Item No. 10 A* B C DUpper 27% 16
3 10 1Lower 27% 14 6 8 2
76. Based on the table, which group got more correct answer? A. Lower group C.
cant be determined B. Upper group D. either lower group or upper group
77. The table shows that the item analyzed has _____________. A. Positive
discriminating power B. Negative discriminating power C. High validity index D. High
reliability index
78. Based on the table in situation C, which is the most effective distracters? A.
Option A. C. Option C B. Option B D. option D
79. Based on the table in situation C, which distracters should be revised? A. Option
A. B. Option B C. Option C D. option D

80. What is the level of difficulty of item 6 in Situation C? A. Very easy C. moderately
difficult B. Easy D. difficult
81. What is discriminating index of item number 6 in Situation C? A. 3% B. 6% C. 7%
D. 50%
82. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE? A. They
emphasize on process as well as product. B. They also stress on doing, not only
knowing. C. Essay test are example of performance-based assessment. D. They
emphasize only on process.
83. Teacher Ritz wrote of Michael. When Michael came to class this morning, he
seemed very tired and slouched into his seat. He took no part in his class discussion
and seemed to have no interest in what was being discussed. This was very unusual
for he has been eager to participate and often monopolizes the class discussion.
What Teacher Ritz wrote is an example of a/an_______. A. Anecdotal report C.
personality report B. Observation report D. incidence report
84. Assessment is said to be authentic when the teacher__________. A. Considers
students suggestions in testing B. Gives valid and reliable paper-and-pencil test C.
Gives students real-life tasks to accomplish D. Includes parents in the determination
of assessment procedures.
85. If teacher Jerick Ivan want to test his students synthesizing skills. Which of the
following has the highest diagnostic value? A. Completion test C. Essay test B.
Performance test D. Multiple-choice test
86. Which of the following statement about marking on a normative basis? A. The
normal distribution curve should be followed B. Most of the students got low scores.
C. Most of the students got high scores. D. The grading should based from the given
criteria.
87. The discriminating index of item number 15 is 0.44. This means that__________.
A. More students from the upper group got the item correctly. B. More students from
the lower group got the item correctly. C. Equal number of students got the correct
answer from the upper and lower group. D. The test item is very easy.
88. The difficulty index of item 20 is 0.55 and the discrimination index is 0.33. What
should the teacher do with this item? A. Reject the item C. revise the item
8. B. Retain the item D. make the item bonus
89. The discriminating index of item number 1 is -0.15. This means that_______. A.
More students from the upper group got the item correctly. B. More students from
the lower group got the item correctly. C. Equal number of students got the correct
answer from the upper and lower group. D. The test item is very difficult.
90. The score distribution of set A and set B have equal mean but with different
SDs Set A has SD of 2.75 while Set B has SD of 3.25. Which statement is TRUE of
the score distributions? A. Majority of the scores in set B are clustered around the
mean. B. Majority of the scores in set A are clustered around the mean than in set B.

C. Scores in set A are more widely scattered. D. The scores of set B have less
variability than the scores in set A.
91. About how many percent of the cases fall between -2SD and +2SD in the normal
curve. A. 99.72 B. 95.44 C. 68.26 D. 34.13
92. In research analysis of variance utilizing the F-test is the appropriate
significance test to measure between: A. Frequency C. Two means only B. Median D.
Three or more means
93. Skewed score distribution means: A. The scores are normally distributed. B. The
mean and the median are equal. C. The mode, the mean, and the median are equal.
D. The scores are concentrated more at one end or the other end and the
distribution.
94. Which of the following describe norm-referenced statement? A. Gabby
performed better in spelling than 88% of his classmate. B. Gabby was able to spell
94% of the words correctly. C. Gabby was able to spell 94% of the words correctly
and spelled 38% words out of 50 correctly. D. Gabby spelled 38 words out of 50
correctly.
95. What type of validity is needed when you test course objectives and scopes? A.
Construct C. concurrent B. Criterion D. content
96. Teacher Anne gives achievement test to her 30 students. The test consists of
the 25 items. She wants to compare her students performance based on the test
result. What is the appropriate measure for the position? A. Percentage C. Z-score B.
Percentile rank D. standard nine
97. Teacher V give a 100 items multiple-choice test three students make scores of
94, 89 and 75, respectively, while the other 27 students in the class make scores
ranging from 33 to 67. The measure of central tendency which is best describes for
this group of 30 students is: A. Mean and median C. Mode B. Mean D. Median
98. With assessment of affective learning in mind, which does NOT belong to the
group? a. Cloze test c. Reflective writing b. Moral dilemma d. Diary entry
99. A test item has a difficult index of 0.89 and a discrimination index of 0.44. What
should the teacher do? a. Reject the item c. Make it a bonus item b. Retain the item
d. Make it a bonus item and reject it
100. The test results revealed that a great majority of the students failed. What is
the best action that an effective teacher should take to insure that learning will take
place? a. re-teach the items that are heavily missed c. give a more difficult test b.
analyze the difficulty, then test again d. scold the pupils

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