Mock Paper 2
Mock Paper 2
Mock Paper 2
Instructions:
1. For every wrong answer you will score 25% negative marks.
2. All questions in a section carry equal marks.
3. The sequence of the sections may differ but the weightage remains the same as mentioned in the SNAP
bulletin.
Sections
Total Marks
No. of Questions
General English
Quantitative, Data Interpretation, Data Sufficiency
General Awareness
Analytical and Logical
40
40
40
60
40
40
40
30
**Please note, this is just a mock paper and in no way predicts the exact nature of the actual paper on 21st
December, 2014. Use this as a means to prepare and test yourself.
VERBAL ABILITY
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 3: The passage given below is followed by a set of three
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
I was recently shocked to read that several city councils in the UK are getting ready to expunge everyday Latin
words from the English lexicon. Along with via and etc would be banished viz and i.e., not to speak of inter
alia and bona fide. There goes away that exotic literary advantage. It was only recently that Amrita, my 10year-old, fighting against a tide of domestic protestations voted against romantic French and prevalent Spanish
and chose Latin as her second language in middle school. I had cheered her and actually promised to help out
with the homework, given that three out of five words in English are of Latin origin. Blame this vicarious decision
on my formative years but growing up in Mumbai, Latin was never an option in my school, as our national
language Hindi was strictly enforced. Shiv Sainiks had decreed that local Marathi was de rigueur for all citizens of
the city. I therefore ended up needing to speak three additional languages, not to forget Tamil, my mother
tongue. Languages rarely heard have always fascinated me. I always had this burning desire to speak them,
particularly when my travel stints exposed me to the strangest of tongues. Language CDs didnt help me a whole
lot. The thing about languages is that though you may be gifted with the art of penmanship, spoken word skills
are mostly inherited or acquired after birth. I have always packed my dog-eared phrasebook along with my
toothbrush and shaving cream for my travels. These havent helped me much either, often eliciting that
controlled giggle or even outright laughter at my stuttered attempts. Printed words wont tell you that Thai is a
tonal language with grammatical minefields or Mandarin and Cantonese have a lilt to them flowing like Indian
ink applied with a Chinese brush. These city councils argue that they needed to create a language devoid of such
linguistic minefields. However, there could be far-reaching consequences in the professional community. Just
like abstruse scientific papers and brain-twisting mathematical theorems, legal documents are made to sound
pompous with Latin words sprinkled generously all over those reams of printed matter. With Latin slowly oozing
out of our English dictionary our lawyers will be hard-pressed to retain their mystifying status quo.
1) Which of the following is a suitable title for the passage?
(a) My Fascination with Languages
(b) Languages Seldom Spoken
(c) Should English be pruned?
(d) Latin: The Legal Language
2) According to the passage, why did the author choose to help his daughter?
(a) The author felt that his daughters choice of language was relevant in light of its close links with English.
(b) The author felt that his daughters choice of language was justified given that he had never been allowed to
study Latin.
(c) The author felt that his daughters choice of language was practical and much better than
romantic French and prevalent Spanish.
(d) The author felt that his daughters choice of language was relevant since it would give her an exotic literary
advantage.
3) According to the passage, why have councils in the UK decided to remove Latin from the English lexicon?
(a) They feel that the linguistic hurdles in Latin make it difficult to gain mastery over it.
(b) They want to create a language that does not have the linguistic problems associated with the use of Latin.
(c) They find themselves unable to overcome the linguistic hurdles provided by Latin.
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(d) They want to create a language that will help them remove the ambiguities associated with the use of Latin
which has now become an obsolete language.
DIRECTIONS for questions 4 to 6: Mark as the answer the pair of words which have a relationship between them
most similar to the relationship between the capitalised pair.
4) DOUBT : FAITH
a. Atheist : Religious
b. Sceptic : Pious
c. Cerebral : Dull
d. Impolite : Courteous
5) DEMAND : SUPPLY
a. Labour : Capital
b. Require : Offer
c. Give : Take
d. Accept : Reject
6) MALAPROPISM : WORDS
a. anachronism: time
b. ellipsis : sentence
c. jinjanthropism : apes
d. catechism : religion
DIRECTIONS for questions 7 to 9: In each of the following questions, a part of a sentence is left blank. From
among the four options given below each question, pick the one which would best fill the blanks.
7) Political power is just as permanent as todays newspaper. Ten years down the line, _____ who the most
powerful man in any state was today.
a. who cares
b. nobody will remember what was written in todays newspaper or
c. few will know, or care about
d. when a lot of water will have passed under the bridge, who will care
8) When we call others dogmatic, what we really object to is ____________.
a. their giving the dog a bad name
b. their holding dogmas that are different from our own.
c. the extremism that goes along with it.
d. the subversion of whatever they actually believe in concomitantly.
9) Although it has been more than 50 years since Satyajit Ray made Pather Panchali, ________ refuse to go away
from the mind.
DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 17: Pick the word that is most opposite in meaning to the given word.
14) Quiescent
a) active
b) dormant
c) weak
d) unconcerned
e) dilapidated
15) Flagitious
a) innocent
b) vapid
c) ignorant
d) industrious
e) loyal
16) Subservient
a) aggressive
b) straightforward
c) dignified
d) introverted
e) calm
17) Ebullient
a) depressed
b) exuberant
c) enthusiastic
d) happy
e) zestful
DIRECTIONS for questions 18 to 21: Pick the word that is closest in meaning to the given word.
18) Chastise
a) reprimand
b) praise
c) thank
d) applaud
e) copy
19) Rabble
a) dust
b) crowd
c) sand
d) rattle
e) pebble
20) Inebriate
a) disable
b) intoxicate
c) reduce
d) mitigate
e) shock
21) Mendacious
a) provocative
b) meticulous
c) false
d) encouraging
e) discouraging
DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 26: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer to each question.
Eye surgeon Virendar Sangwan has perfected a procedure so cutting-edge that most who have tried it have
failed. In an operating theatre in the central Indian city of Hyderabad, he
surgically implants corneas grown in a petri dish from stem cells by his colleague Geeta Vemuganti in patients
with damaged eyes. Together they perform about 80 corneal regeneration procedures a year, making the L.V.
Prasad Eye Institute, where they work, one
of the most prolific facilities in the world using stem cells to regenerate tissues of any kind.
The Sangwan-Vemuganti team uses stem cells found in the tissues of living adults, not ones derived from
embryos. Teams all over the world are working with adult stem cells, trying to coax them to regrow cells in
hearts, brains, livers and other organs, but progress is slow. Besides corneas, scientists have had some success
regrowing skin cells and bone tissues, but those procedures remain experimental. A number of programs
around the world have tried to perfect this treatment, but they have had bad outcomes, says University of
Cincinnati eye surgeon and stem cell specialist Edward Holland. It is impressive what they are doing at Prasad.
In addition to the Hyderabad project, only Hollands program and a half-dozen others in the world conduct
operations using corneas grown from stem cells. The treatment uses stem cells harvested from the limbus,
located where the cornea touches the white of the eye. For those with damaged corneas, these cells called
limbic and conjunctiva - are harvested from a patients good eye, if he has one, or from a close relative. They
are placed in a petri dish and chemically tweaked to grow into the lower layer of a cornea, called epithelium. It is
then transplanted into the eye of the patient where in most cases it takes hold and grows. In 56% of the cases at
the Prasad Institute, patient could still see clearly after 40 months later. Indians are well known for reverse
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engineering, meaning they can deduce how drugs are made in order to produce generic versions. But in this
case, Sangwan and Vemuganti, a pathologist, developed the technique on their own from reading papers and
running experiments in the lab. Sangwan says he had a number of patients with burned eyes who could not
helped with standard corneal transplants from cadavers, so he persuaded Vemuganti to try growing corneas in
her lab. You know how to grow cells, and I know how to do the transplant surgery. Vemuganti recalls him
saying. Why dont we work together? She smiles and shakes her head. I had no clue if this was going to
work. Vemugantis major innovation was developing a platform on which to grow corneas. First she designed a
circular glass tube about the size of a stack of coins. Then she overlaid the glass with tissue from a human
placenta which is a good surface to grow corneas on. She says. After that she placed stem cells in four places
around a circle, added a growth medium, and watched the
corneas begin to grow. Commercial interests among stem cell companies for the procedure has been scant
because of the perceived small volume of patients, says venture capitalist Antoun Nabhan of Bay Capital, who
sits on the board of Cellerant, a leading stem cell company in San Carlos. Calif. But corneal stem cell treatment
may have wider applications, say ophthalmologist Ivan Schwab of Unversity of California at Davis. These stem
cells are similar to others in the body that make mucous membrane, he say. These techniques
of growing stem cells might one day be used to treat mucous membrane tissue in the sinuses, bladder, and
other organs.
22) According to the article Sangwan-Vemuganti teams cuttingedge procedure of implanting cornea grown from
stem cells is considered a major advancement by the experts because
(a) They derive stems cells from embryos.
(b) Their labs are customised to grow stem cells.
(c) They regrow cells in hearts, brains, livers with stems cells from tissues of living adults.
(d) They derive stem cells from tissues of living adults and grow cells in labs.
23) Sangwan-Vemuganti procedure is carried out on
(a) Patients requiring any corneal transplant
(b) Patients with damaged corneas
(c) Patients with damaged eyes of any kind
(d) None of the above
24) The world recognises this Indian innovation because Indian scientists are normally known
(a) To be good at analysing and finding out a method of how an existing drug is made.
(b) As they are good researchers of drugs.
(c) As they are good at carrying out experiments to create generic drugs.
(d) As they are able to carry out drug trials on large samples.
25) The pathologist, Vemuganti, started growing cornea in a petri dish
(a) By following procedures published in research papers
(b) By inventing a totally new procedure
(c) By experimenting with procedures published in journals
(d) By following the instruction of the transplant surgeon.
26) In the context of the passage choose the correct set of meanings for the words: PLATFORM and GENERIC
(a) Lab table; related to genes
(b) Method; related to genes
(c) Lab experiments; without a brand name
(d) Methodology; without a brand name
27) Choose the option which is closest in meaning to the word SUBTLE
(a) Innocent
(b) Elusive
(c) Dangerous
(d) Insidious
28) The following sentence has a missing punctuation mark, choose the right answer.
My mother who is from the village is very superstitious.
(a) Brackets
(b) Comma
(c) Semicolon
(d) Apostrophe
29) For the pair of sentences below choose the right option.
1. Those are them.
2. Those are they.
(a) The first sentence has an error.
(b) The second sentence is erroneous.
(c) Both sentences are incorrect.
(d) Both sentences are correct.
DIRECTIONS for questions 30-35: Rearrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
30) (a) Many of our youth felt that their homes had protected them against facing their emotional weaknesses.
(b) By excluding contact with peers the homes had given them a very narrow base for relationships.
(c) The parents in a self-centred way had mortgaged their growth and social maturity to the role of achieving
son alone with their short-sighted view of growth.
(d) In the achievement-oriented environment there was little scope for the youth to experiment with
themselves and their emotions.
(a) dabc
(b) acbd
(c) cdba
(d) cdab
31) (a) Achievement was a bargain for acceptance.
(b) The fear of losing status and significance by even a slight fall in academic performance raised storms of guilt,
anxiety and self-condemnation.
(c) The primacy of academic achievement to the exclusion of all other significant aspects of socialization and its
linking up with the sense of self-worth, in retrospect, created a very
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(d) There is a striking analogy between matter and mind, and the present disorganization of society warns us
that in the dethronement of woman we have let loose the elements of violence and ruin that she only has the
power to curb.
(a) bcda
(b) dabc
(c) cdba
(d) abcd
35) (a) It is a sign of the health and wholeness of Indias spiritual genius that the advent of religious traditions
resulted in spiritual ferments and the revitalization of an already
multifarious spiritual heritage.
(b) When the Western Hemisphere was busy coercing conformity and suppressing free thinking as heresy, the
Sufi saints were wandering freely in the garden of truth and to us, the
domain of the Spirit, as Swami Vivekananda argues, has been a sphere of pure freedom; Indian spirituality is an
inspired protest against confining God to places of worship.
(c) In other cultures, the arrival of extraneous religious traditions activated negative reactions of insecurity and
intolerance
(d) The spiritual marriage of Hinduism and Islam, powered by Persian mysticism, gave rise to a philosophy of
dissent inspiringly captured, among others, by Kabir. Christianity, which arrived in South India in A.D. 52, long
before Europe heard the Gospel, touched and was touched by the soul of India.
(a) abcd
(b) dcab
(c) dabc
(d) bacd
Directions for question 36 and 37: Choose the correct option to fill the blank for correct grammatical use.
36) She is a close friend of ____________.
(a) my
(b) I
(c) me
(d) mine
37) He took care of her _____________ she was restored to health.
(a) when
(b) before
(c) after
(d) till
38) Choose the correct option: The man ______________ his appearance completely since then.
(a) is changing
(b) changed
(c) has changed
(d) is changed
39) From the options below, choose the word with the incorrect spelling:
(a) Diarrhea
(b) Diaper
(c) Dichotomy
(d) Dias
40) Choose the word spelt correctly:
(a) superintendant
(b) sieve
(c) alloted
(d) dissipate
50) Which among the seven was the first bus stop?
(a) T
(b) P
(c) V
(d) Cannot be determined
51) Which among the seven was the last bus stop?
(a) S
(b) R
(c) V
(d) Cannot be determined
52) If the average speed of the bus between P and S was different from the average speed of the bus between T
and Q, then which bus stop was immediately before R?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) V
(d) Q
Directions for questions 53 to 55: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Four security officers Andrew, Joseph, Parry and Lucas were responsible for guarding the Kohinoor diamond
during a 1-day exhibition held recently. The exhibition started at 10 a.m. and finished at 5 p.m. The officers
operated in 1-hour shifts and at least one officer guarded the diamond in each of the seven shifts. None of the
officers operated in two consecutive shifts and none of them joined or left a shift midway.
It is also known that:
(i) Andrew operated in exactly four shifts.
(ii) Two officers were operating at 12:40 p.m. One of the two was Joseph.
(iii) Parry operated in exactly three shifts. He was operating at 01:20 p.m.
(iv) Lucas operated in exactly two shifts and he operated alone in both of them.
(v) Each of the four officers operated in at least two shifts. Joseph and Parry never operated together in any of
the shifts.
53) In how many shifts did Joseph operate?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
54) How many shifts were there in which just one of the four officers operated?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) Cannot be determined
55) At what time did Joseph leave for his home if it is known that he left immediately after his last shift ended on
the day of the exhibition?
(a) 3 p.m.
(b) 5 p.m.
(c) 4 p.m.
(d) 2 p.m.
Directions for questions 56 and 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each of the five players Saurabh, Yubraj, Vajendar, Gombzi and Ambata was picked by one of the two teams
Delhi Devils and Kolkata Riders in the auction of players for Timbaktu Premier League. Two among the five
players were batsmen and the rest three were bowlers. Each of the two teams picked at least one batsman and
at least one bowler. Also, these five were the only players available for auction and they were offered for
bidding in a particular order. It is also known that:
(i) Kolkata Riders picked exactly two players successively.
(ii) The two batsmen were picked successively. Exactly two out of the three bowlers were picked successively.
(iii) The number of players picked between Yubraj and Vajendar is the same as the number of players picked
between Saurabh and Gombzi.
(iv) Exactly two players were picked between Ambata and Yubraj.
56) If Vajendar was a batsman picked by Delhi Devils, then which of the following cannot be true?
(a) Yubraj was a batsman picked by Delhi Devils.
(b) Yubraj was a bowler picked by Kolkata Riders.
(c) Saurabh was a batsman picked by Kolkata Riders.
(d) Saurabh was a bowler picked by Delhi Devils.
57) If Saurabh was a bowler, then who among the following players was definitely a batsman?
(a) Vajendar
(b) Gombzi
(c) Yubraj
(d) None of these
58) Ashu, Banu and Charu are three students from Science stream and Diya, Ellie and Fana are three students
from Commerce stream. Diya is shorter than Ellie but taller than the Science student who is shorter than Banu.
The same Science student is taller than Fana but shorter than Charu. Who is the shortest among the six?
(a) Fana
(b) Charu
(c) Banu
(d) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 59 to 61: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A company has five directors Parjit, Manjit, Charjit, Daljit and Jasjit. Two of the directors are females. All the
directors have different ages. Their annual incomes (in Rs. Lakhs) are 40, 45, 50, 60 and 75, in no particular
order. It is also known that:
(i) The director with the least annual income is not the oldest. The director with the highest annual income is
older than one of the two female directors and younger than the other.
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(ii) The absolute difference between the annual incomes of Manjit and Daljit is Rs. 15 lakhs.
(iii) The annual income of Charjit is not the highest among the five directors.
(iv) The annual income of the older female director is more than that of the younger female director.
(v) Manjit is the youngest among the male directors and Jasjit is the older of the two female directors. Parjit was
older than both Manjit and Jasjit.
(vi) The annual income of one among Parjit, Daljit and Jasjit is the average of the annual incomes of the other
two.
59) What is the annual income (in Rs. Lakhs) of Parjit?
(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 50
(d) Cannot be determined
60) What is the annual income (in Rs. Lakhs) of the oldest among the five directors?
(a) 45
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 75
61) What is the absolute difference (in Rs. Lakhs) between the annual incomes of the younger female director
and the youngest male director?
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 15
(d) None of these
Directions for questions 62 and 63: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five persons Ashoka, Bachan, Chandra, Mallya and Tendulkar driving five different cars among Accord, Audi,
BMW, Honda City and Skoda, not necessarily in the same order, are standing in a queue at a check post. The five
cars are of the different colours among Black, Red, Silver, Violet and White, in no particular order. It is also
known that:
(i) Accord is ahead of Honda City and is not Red in colour.
(ii) Bachan is not driving Audi and his car is behind Mallyas car.
(iii) Skoda, which is Violet in colour, is not being driven by Tendulkar.
(iv) Ashokas car is behind the White car and is not Silver in colour.
(v) Chandra is not driving Accord and his car is immediately ahead of the Black car.
(vi) The Red car, which is ahead of three other cars, is being driven by Bachan.
(vii) The only car between BMW and Honda City is White in colour.
(viii) Mallya is not driving the Silver car. Honda City is not Black in colour.
62) Who is driving Audi?
(a) Ashoka
(b) Chandra
(c) Mallya
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(d) Tendulkar
63) Which car is Tendulkar driving?
(a) Honda City
(b) Audi
(c) Accord
(d) BMW
Directions for questions 64 and 65: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Four teams Alveston, Blackpool, Chelsea and Dunstable reached the semifinal stage in a football tournament.
Two of the four teams played against each other in the first semifinal and the rest two played against each other
in the second semifinal. The winners of these two matches played the final and the winner of the final match
was declared the Champion of the tournament. The following observations were made during the semifinals and
the final match:
(i) Ten goals were scored in the three matches. At least one goal was scored by each of the four teams. Each
team scored a distinct number of goals.
(ii) The team that scored the maximum number of goals in the three matches was not the Champion of the
tournament.
(iii) Alveston did not play against Blackpool but Chelsea played against Dunstable.
(iv) Neither Blackpool nor Dunstable was the Champion of the tournament. The absolute difference between the
total goals scored by these two teams in the three matches was 2.
64) How many goals were scored in the final match of the tournament?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
65) How many goals did the Champion of the tournament score in its semifinal match?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Directions for questions 66 and 67: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each of the three boys Amar, Brijesh and Chirag plays at least one of the four games among Hockey, Football,
Cricket and Squash. Further information is given below.
(i) If a boy plays Football, then he doesnt play Squash.
(ii) At least one of the three boys plays Football and at least one plays Cricket.
66) Chirag plays exactly three games. Amar and Brijesh play exactly two games each such that none of the
games is played by both of them. Which of the following statements must be true?
(a) Amar plays Hockey.
(b) If Football is played by exactly one of the three boys, then Brijesh plays Squash.
(c) Squash is played by exactly two of the boys.
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(d) Hockey and Cricket are played by exactly two boys each.
67) Brijesh plays Squash and Chirag plays Hockey. Neither Amar nor Chirag plays Cricket. None of the games is
played by both Brijesh and Chirag. Which of the following statements must be true?
(a) Amar plays Football.
(b) Brijesh plays Cricket.
(c) Chirag plays Football.
(d) Amar plays Squash.
Directions for questions 68 and 69: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Seven books, two each of Mathematics and Chemistry and three of Physics, are to be placed in order on a shelf.
The two Mathematics books are of Algebra and Geometry, the two Chemistry books are of Organic and
Inorganic and the three Physics books are of Kinetics, Thermodynamics and Electromagnetics.
The following conditions are to be kept in mind while placing the books:
(i) All the books of a subject must be placed together.
(ii) The Chemistry books should be placed between Mathematics and Physics books.
(iii) The Thermodynamics book must be placed before the Electromagnetics book.
(iv) The Algebra book must be placed before the Geometry book.
68) If the Electromagnetics book is placed immediately before the Kinetics book, then which of the following
statements may be true?
(a) The Thermodynamics book is placed at the second position.
(b) The Thermodynamics book is placed at the third position.
(c) The Geometry book is placed at the sixth position.
(d) The Geometry book is placed at the seventh position.
69) If a Chemistry book is placed adjacent to the Thermodynamics book, then which of the following statements
must be false?
(a) The Kinetics book is placed before the Geometry book.
(b) The Kinetics book is placed before the Electromagnetics book.
(c) The Inorganic book is placed before the Thermodynamics book.
(d) The Electromagnetics book is placed before the Kinetics book.
Directions for question 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A jeweller has 8 beads which he wants to use in making a necklace. There are 3 different beads of Red colour
Striped Red, Matt Red and Sparkling Red. Similarly, there are 3 different beads of Blue colour Striped Blue,
Matt Blue and Sparkling Blue. The other two beads are Green and Yellow in colour respectively.
The conditions given below must be followed while making the necklace.
(i) Striped Red and Striped Blue beads must always be put adjacent to each other.
(ii) Green and Yellow beads must always be put adjacent to each other.
(iii) No two beads of same colour should be put adjacent to each other.
70) If none of the other two Red beads is to be put opposite the Striped Red bead then which of the following
statements can be true?
(a) The Green bead is put opposite the Matt Red bead.
(b) The Yellow bead is put opposite the Matt Red bead.
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(c) The Yellow bead is put opposite the Striped Blue bead.
(d) The Yellow bead is put adjacent to the Striped Blue bead.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
71) The integers 34041 and 32506 when divided by a 3 digit integer n leave the same remainder. Find the value
of n.
a)
289
b)
367
c)
453
d)
307
72) In a 500 m A beats B by 5 sec or 100 m. They decide to run another race and this time A gives B a head
start of 200 m. If As speed is twice his previous speed and Bs speed is two and a half times his previous speed,
then how far from the start should the winning post be so that they finish at the same time?
a)
500 m
b)
1000 m
c)
1500 m
d)
2000 m
73) Find the number of integral solutions to |x| + |y| + |z| = 10.
a)
304
b)
402
c)
202
d)
502
a
b
74) If N = 3 * 3 where 1<= a, b <=6, then find the probability that N is a multiple of 729.9
a)
5/18
b)
5/11
c)
13/18
d)
13/11
75) There are 4 letters and 4 corresponding envelopes. In how many ways can we put the letters into the
envelopes such that none of the letters go into the right envelope?
a)
16
b)
9
c)
12
d)
24
76) A train X starts from Agra at 5 PM and reaches Delhi at 10 PM. Another train starts from Delhi at 7 PM and
reaches Agra at 11 PM. At what time do the trains meet?
a)
7:40 PM
b)
8:00 PM
c)
9:00 PM
d)
8:20 PM
77) There are two inlet pipes A and B. A fills the tank in 8 hours and B fills it in 12 hours. If they are opened at
alternate hours starting with A at 10 AM, find out in how many hours will the tank be filled?
a)
10.5 hours
b)
9 hours
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c)
10 hours
d)
9.5 hours
78) What is the remainder when 12 107 is divided by 37? (34)
a)
34
b)
36
c)
3
d)
11
79) A, B and C are three consecutive odd numbers. If ABC = 531117, find A + B + C? (243)
a)
243
b)
223
c)
93
d)
263
80) How many numbers below 100 can be expressed as a difference of two perfect squares in only one way?
(25)
a)
25
b)
26
c)
34
d)
35
81) Consider a circle with radius r. Tangents is drawn to it from an external point such that the tangents are
perpendicular to each other. All points from which such tangents can be drawn are connected by a smooth
curve. M and N are any two points on that curve. What can be the maximum length of MN?
a)
2r * (2)
b)
3r * (2)
c)
r * (2)
d)
4r
82) Distance between P and Q is 100 km. A and B start from P and Q respectively and keep on moving to and fro
between the two stations. If their first meeting is at 60 km from P, then find the point of their 5 th meeting. (60
km from P)
a)
60 km from P
b)
60 km from Q
c)
20 km from Q
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d)
None of these
83) A trader professes to sell his goods at a loss of 8% but weights 900 grams in place of a kg weight. Find his real
loss or gain per cent.
a)
2% loss
b)
2.22% gain
c)
2% gain
d)
None of these
84) Between two junctions X and Y there are 12 intermediate stations. Find the number of ways in which a train
can be made to stop at 4 of these stations so that no two of these halting stations are consecutive? (126)
a)
70
b)
126
c)
212
d)
None of these
85) A boy is throwing stones at a target. Probability of his hitting the target is . Find the probability of hitting
the target for the 5th time in the 10th row? (63/512)
a)
1//2
b)
63/512
c)
449/512
d)
189/512
86) After travelling 50 km, a train met with an accident and then travelled at 3/4 th of the usual speed and
reaches 45 minutes late. Had the accident happened 10 km further on, the train would have reached just 35
minutes late. Find the usual speed of the train. (20 km/hr)
a)
15 km/hr
b)
20 km/hr
c)
25 km/hr
d)
30 km/hr
87) If log2X + log4X = log0.25 and x > 0, then x is (i)
a)
6-1/6
b)
61/6
c)
61/3
d)
3-1/3
88) In the figure, O is the centre of the circle. Find x + y. (z)
a)
2z
b)
z/2
c)
z
d)
3z
89) An airplane flying at 3000 m above the ground passes vertically above another plane at an instant when the
angle of elevation of the two planes from the same point on the ground are 60 and 45 degrees respectively. Find
the height of the lower plane from the ground. (i)
a)
1000 * (3)1/2 m
b)
1000/(3)1/2 m
c)
500 m
d)
1500 (1 + (3)1/2) m
90) Find the length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 20 cm whose centres are 25 cm apart.
a)
24 cm
b)
25 cm
c)
15 cm
d)
20 cm
91) Ten books are arranged in a row on a bookshelf. A student has to select three out of these ten books in such
a way that no two books selected by him must have been lying adjacently. In how many ways can he make the
selection?
a) 56
b) 64
c) 72
d) None of these
92) Rohan is asked to figure out the marks scored by Sunil in three different subjects with the help of certain
clues. He is told that the product of the marks obtained by Sunil is 72 and the sum of the marks obtained by
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Sunil is equal to the Rohans current age (in completed years). Rohan could not answer the question with this
information. When he was also told that Sunil got the highest marks in Physics among the three subjects, he
immediately answered the question correctly. What is the sum of the marks scored by Sunil in the two subjects
other than Physics?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) Cannot be determined
93) The sequence 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 9, 10, 12, 14, 16, 17,. has one odd number followed by the next two even
numbers, then the next three odd numbers followed by the next four even numbers and so on. What is the
2003rd term of the sequence?
a) 3953
b) 3943
c) 3940
d) 3950
94) In a Table Tennis tournament, the number of male participants was twice the number of female participants.
Each player played a match with each of the rest of the players exactly once. Each match involved exactly two
players. No match ended in a draw. The number of matches won by the female players was equal to the number
of matches won by the male players. Which of the following can be the total number of matches in which a male
player defeated a female player?
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 39
(d) 30
95) In how
than 1?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
many ways can 1000 be written as a sum of n consecutive natural numbers, where n is greater
0
1
2
3
96) The exterior angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 4 : 7. What is the sum of the largest and the
smallest interior angles of the quadrilateral?
(a) 72
(b) 144
(c) 168
(d) 192
97) A circle is drawn inside a trapezium such that it touches all the four sides of the trapezium. The line joining
the midpoints of the non-parallel sides divides the trapezium in two parts with areas in the ratio 3 : 5. If the
lengths of the non-parallel sides are 6 cm and 10 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of the longer parallel side of
the trapezium?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
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(b) 256
(c) 400
(d) 512
108) What is the remainder obtained when the sum of the squares of any thirty consecutive natural numbers is
divided by 12?
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 11
(d) Cannot be determined
109) What is the area (in square units) of the quadrilateral ABCD formed by the points
and D(2, 8) in the x-y plane?
(a) 40
(b) 32
(c) 56
(d) 48
110) The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the following
instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Q. If (347)x (467)y = N, where x and y are positive integers, then what is the unit digit of N?
A. x + y = 9
B. x = 5
GENERAL AWARENESS
111) Who authored All the King's Men an Pulitzer Prize winner for Fiction ?
(A) Shirley Ann Grau
(B) Larry McMurtry
(C ) Robert Penn Warren
(D) William Faulkner
112) Who was the recipient of the Dronacharya Awards in 2014 for athletics?
(A) Jose Jacob
(B) Tintu Luka
(C ) Amit Kumar Saroha
(D) N.Lingappa
113)The Dr Rajendra Prasad Cup is associated with which among the following
sports?
(A) Tennis
(B) Hockey
(C ) Cricket
(D)Shooting
114) The Death of Ivan Ilyich was written by?
(A) Hugo Reid
(B) George Bernard Shaw
(C )Leo Tolstoy
(D) Robert Browning
115) Who among the following is the Prime Minister of Finland ?
(A) Jyrki Tapani Katainen
(B) Manuel Valls
(C )Laurent Lamothe
(D) Irakli Garibashvili
116) In which year Mother Teresa was awarded Nobel Prize and for what?
(A) 1981/Religion
(B) 1979/ Peace
(C ) 1980/ Peace
(D) 1979/ Service to Humanity
117)what is the only industrialized country in the world that has not ratified the
kyoto protocol
(A) Japan
(B) United States
(C France
(D) Brazil
118) In which of the following areas do international environmental treaties
exist?
(A)Ocean Pollution
(B) Fisheries
(C)Protection of wildlife species
(D)All of the above
119) Who is know as the father of microcredit?
(A) Dr. Akhtar Hameed Khan
(B) Muhammad Yunus
(C ) Roshaneh Zafar
(D) None of the above
127) The Economic and Social Council of UN has how many Regional Economic
Commissions?
(A) Ten
(B) Seven
(C ) Five
(D) Three
128) Which of the following international organizations is dedicated to the cause
of wild life conservation?
(A) UNEP- WCMC
(B) WHO
(C ) UNESCO
(D) UNFPQ
129) India's biggest residential building in located at:
(A) Jaipur, Rjasthan
(B) New Delhi
(C ) Rameshwaram, Tamil Nadu
(D) Mumbai
130) MODVAT refers to
(A) Education Policy
(B) House Tax
(C ) Excise Duty
(D) None of these
131) David Cohen prize is givenin the field of
(A) Journalism
(B) Literature
(C ) Sports
(D) Religion
132) Who is the author of the famous play Halla Bol?
(A) Uma Shankar
(B) Vatsyayan
(C ) Safdar Hashmi
(D) Khuswant Singh
133) Gate of Tears' is
(A) Aberdeen (Scotland)
(B) Bab-el-mandab (Jerusalem)
(C )Prairies (Australia)
(D) Pamirs (Central Asia)
(D) America
149) CENTCOM is
(A) An organ of the UNO
(B) US central command
(C ) The name of the ship acquired by india
(D) None of these
150) Who wrote 'An Equal Music' ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Nirad Chaudhari
(C ) Vikram Bhatt
(D) Khuswant Singh