IBPS GBO Grandtest

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IBPS RRBs Officer Scale-I (General Banking Officer)
Grand Test
Part A: Reasoning
Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circle facing the centre. O is sitting
between L and R. Q is second to the right of R and P is second to the right of Q. N
is not an immediate neighbor of R.
1. Which of the following is not correct?
1) R is second to the right of L 2) M is second to the left of N
3) L sits exactly between O and P 4) P and N are immediate neighbors
5) P sits to the opposite of N

2. How many persons are seated between L and Q if we count anti-clockwise
from L to Q?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four

3. Who is the immediate left of P?
1) L 2) N 3) M 4) O 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 4-5): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their
seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group?

4. 1) QPN 2) MOR 3) LRO 4) RQM 5) ROL

5. 1) LP 2) RM 3) MQ 4) NP 5) OR

Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code,
829 means how art thou,
953 means thou art good and
15873 means thy good and thou bad.

6. What may be the possible code for thy?
1) 1 or 4 2) 7 3) 3 4) 5 5) None of these

7. What is the code for thou?
1) 9 2) 6 3) 2 4) 5 5) None of these

8. What is the code for how?
1) 5 2) 8 3) 2 4) 9 5) None of these

9. Which of the following may possibly be the code for thou no good?
1) 508 2) 780 3) 507 4) 870 5) None of these

10. What is the code for how good thou art?
1) 7589 2) 8295 3) 7183
4) 8795 5) cannot be determined

Directions (Q. 11-15): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences
which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage? You have to examine each
inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth
or falsity.
Mark answer (1): if the inference is definitely true, i.e., it properly follows from
the statement of facts given.
Mark answer (2): if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in
the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (3): if the data is inadequate, i.e., from the facts given, you cannot
say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4): if the inference is probably false though not definitely false
in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (5): if the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be
drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

Note: Each of the five questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have
the same answer. If you get the same answer for more than one question, consider both
again and decide which one of the two would more definitely be that answer and in the
same way review the others also.

Cardiovascular disease is so prevalent that virtually all businesses are likely to have
employees who suffer from, or may develop, this condition. Research shows that
between 50-80% of all people who suffer a heart attack are able to return to work.
However, this may not be possible if they have previously been involved in heavy
physical work. In such cases, it may be possible to more the employee to lighter
duties, with appropriate retraining where necessary. Similarly, high pressure,

stressful work, even where it does not involve physical activity, should also be
avoided. Human resource managers should be aware of the implications of job rules
for employees with a cardiac condition.
11. Employees who suffer from cardiovascular diseases are mostly unable to
return to work.
12. Employees suffering from cardiovascular diseases are unable to handle
stressful situations.
13. Employees above the age of 50 are found to suffer from cardiovascular
diseases.
14. Physical and stressful work definitely leads to a heart attack.
15. Heart disease can affect employee in any type of business.

Directions (Q. 16-20): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the
statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to
answer the question.

16. Who is oldest among Peter Kevin, Joseph and Jason?
I. Jason is older than Peter and Joseph.
II. Kevin is younger than Joseph.

17. How is happy written in a code language?
I. I happy today is written as ke ne que and today happy day is written as ke
joi ke.
II. I play is written as qua pa.


18. H is the mother of J. How is J related to V?
I. V is the only daughter of H.
II. V is the sister of J.

19. What is the colour of white snow in a colour code?
I. Green is called Black, Black is called Blue, and Blue is called Red.
II. Red is called White and White is called Orange.

20. Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated around a circular table and are
equidistant from each other. Who is second to the right of T?
I. P is to the immediate left of Q and Q sits opposite R.
II. S is to the immediate left of U.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and
numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
of input and rearrangement. (Single digit numbers are preceded by a zero. All other
numbers are two digit numbers.)
Input: when 19 will you 07 be 40 coming 62 home 100 89
Step I: be when 19 will you 07 40 coming 62 home 100 89
Step II: be 07 when 19 will you 40 coming 62 home 100 89
Step III: be 07 coming when 19 will you 40 62 home 100 89
Step IV: be 07 coming 19 when will you 40 62 home 100 89
Step V: be 07 coming 19 home when will you 40 62 100 89
Step VI: be 07 coming 19 home 40 when will you 62 100 89
Step VII: be 07 coming 19 home 40 when 62 will you 100 89
Step VIII: be 07 coming 19 home 40 when 62 will 89 you 100
Step VIII is the last step of the arrangement of the above input as the intended
arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in
each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Directions (Q. 21-24): Input: next 57 problem 82 14 trend 02 purchase growth 41

21. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?
1) V 2) VI 3) VIII
4) VII 5) cannot be determined


22. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?
1) Growth 02 next 14 problem 41 purchases 57 82 trend
2) Growth next problem purchase trend 02 14 41 57 82
3) Growth 02 next 14 problem 41 purchase 57 trend 82
4) Growth 82 next 57 purchase 41 problem 14 next 02
5) None of the above

23. Which of the following would be step I?
1) 41 purchase 02 trend 14 82 problem 57 next growth
2) Growth 02 next 57 problem 82 14 trend purchase 41
3) 41 growth next 57 problem 82 14 trend 02 purchase
4) Growth next 57 problem 82 14 trend 02 purchase 41
5) Growth next 57 purchase 82 14 trend 02 problem 41

24. Which word/number would be the sixth position from the left end in step III?
1) purchase 2) 14 3) problem 4) 41 5) trend

Directions (Q. 25-27): Input: just 14 and value 22 time 5 15

25. Which word/number would be at position 5 from the right end in step III?
1) and 2) 15 3) just 4) 14 5) time

26. Which of the following would be step II of the arrangement?
1) and just value 14 22 time 5 15
2) and just value 14 value 22 time 15
3) and 5 just 14 time 15 22 value
4) and just value time 14 22 3 15

27. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement and which
would be the last step?
1) Step IV: and 5 just 14 time 15 value 22
2) Step V: and 5 just 14 time 15 value 22
3) Step V: 22 and 15 just 14 time 5 just
4) Step VI: and 5 just 14 time 15 value 22


Directions (Q. 28-29): In these questions, relationship between different elements is
shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Mark answer
1) if only conclusion I follows 2) if only conclusion II follows
3) if either conclusion I or II follows 4) if neither conclusion I nor III follows
5) if both conclusion I and II follow

28. Statement: E < F G = H > S
Conclusions: I. G > S
II. F H

29. Statement: P Q < W = L
Conclusions: I. L > P
II. Q L
Six lectures are scheduled in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of
the same week. Computer Science is not on Tuesday or Saturday. Psychology is
immediately after Organizational Behaviour. Statistics is not on Friday and there is
one day gap between Statistics and Research Methods. One day prior to the
schedule of Economics there is no lecture. (As that day is the off day and Monday
is not the off day.)

30. Which of the following is the last lecture scheduled?
1) Statistics 2) Research Methods
3) Psychology 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

31. If Wednesday is the off day, the code would be 2 4, if Thursday was the off
day, the code would be 3 3. Taking into account the off day which of the
following code is correct?
1) 2 4 2) 3 3 3) 4 2
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

32. Which lecture is scheduled on Friday?
1) Economics 2) Psychology
3) Computer Science 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

33. How many lectures were scheduled between Economics and Psychology?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three

34. Which day is Computer Science scheduled?
1) Monday 2) Wednesday 3) Thursday

35. Which day is the off day?
1) Tuesday 2) Wednesday 3) Friday

Directions (Q. 36-40): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer
figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the
sequence were continued?

36. Problem Figures Answer Figures

Answer Figures





Part B: Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation

41. 1255.5 (18 15.5) =?
1) 3.5 2) 7.5 3) 6.5 4) 2.5 5) None of these

42. (64)
3
(8)
9
(512)
2
= (8)
?

1) 8 2) 9 3) 4 4) 10 5) None of these

43. 19.9% of 411 =?
1) 83.897 2) 81.789 3) 80.879 4) 84.987 5) None of these

44.
of
of
of 5020 =?
1) 753 2) 758 3) 757 4) 752 5) None of these

45. ? = 311 24
1) 622 2) 624 3) 634 4) 633 5) None of these
46. 436.56 625.43 + 312.55 =?
1) 128.86 2) 134.68 3) 126.68 4) 125.86 5) None of these

47. 7
- 3
+ 2
=?
1) 6
2) 4
3) 2
4) 7
5) None of these

48. (5 5 5 5 5 5)
2
(5 5 5 5)
8
(5 5)
3
= (25)
?

1) 22 2) 19 3) 17 4) 13 5) None of these

49. = 7
1) 3 2) 2 3) 5 4) 4 5) None of these

50. 58% of 450 - ?% of 250 = 181
1) 44 2) 38 3) 32 4) 40 5) None of these

51. What is the least number to be added to 4523 to make it a perfect square?
1) 238 2) 121 3) 34 4) 101 5) None of these

52. Length of the floor of a rectangular auditorium is 6 meters more than the
radius of a circle with a circumference of 572meters. The perimeter of the
floor of the rectangular auditorium is 356meters. What will be cost of flooring
the auditorium (only the floor of the auditorium), if the cost of flooring is Rs.
12 per m
2
?
1) Rs. 75490 2) Rs. 94284 3) Rs. 91236
4) Rs. 87954 5) None of these

53. 4 women alone can complete a piece of work in 16 days where as 8 children
alone take 12 days to complete the same piece of work. How many days will 4
women and 6 children together take to complete the piece of work?
1) 9 2) 7 3) 6 4) 8 5) None of these

54. Vishwas sold an article for Rs. 7200 and incurred a loss of 20%. At what
price should he have sold the item to have gained a profit of 20%?
1) 11200 2) 10800 3) 8950

55. Pravallikas monthly income id four-fifth of Meeras monthly income.
Meeras annual income is Rs. 429600. What is Pravallikas annual income?
(in some cases monthly income and in some cases annual income is used)
1) Rs.3,66,080 2) Rs.3,43,680 3) Rs.3,68,240
4) Rs.3,48,250 5) None of these

56. Vaishali walks 180 meters every day. How many kilometers will she walk in 4
weeks?
1) 5.04 2) 7.37 3) 6.18 4) 8.92 5) None of these

57. Find the average of the following set of scores: 34, 89, 37, 144, 78, 240, 128,
and 98.
1) 102 2) 108 3) 104 4) 106 5) None of these

58. What will come in place of both the question mark (?) in the following
question?
?
.
?
.

1) 15 2) -15 3) 25 4) -25 5) None of these

59. Rs. 600 amounts to Rs. 735 in 5 years at a certain rate of Simple Interest, if
the rate of interest is increased by 2% then what will be the amount then?
1) Rs. 795 2) Rs. 700 3) Rs. 600 4) Rs. 500 5) None of these

60. On teachers day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 400 children.
But on that particular day 50 children remained absent; hence each child got
1 sweet extra. How many sweets was each child originally supposed to get?
1) 7 2) 10 3) 9

Directions (Q.61-65): Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow.
Number of applicants (in lakhs) who applied for two different banks during past six years.

61. What was the approximate average number of candidates who applied for
Bank A over all the years together?
1) 4.1 lakh 2) 5 lakh 3) 3.1 lakh 4) 4.5 lakh 5) 3.8 lakh

62. Total number of candidates who applied for Bank A over all the years together
was approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates who
applied for Bank B over all the year together?
1) 79 2) 66 3) 70 4) 75 5) 60
63. In which years the total number of candidates who applied for both the banks
together is exactly equal?

1) 2004, 2005 and 2008 2) 2004, 2006 and 2007 3) 2004, 2005 and 2007
4) 2004, 2006 and 2008 5) 2006, 2007 and 2008

64. If 20 percent of candidates who applied for Bank qualified in the year 2008,
then what was the number of candidates who have been disqualified in the
same year?
1) 7.2 lakh 2) 72000 3) 6.4 lakh 4) 64000 5) None of these

65. What was the respective ratio between the total number of candidates who
applied for Bank A in the year 2006 and 2008 and the total number of
candidates who applied for Bank B in the years 2005 and 2008 together?
1) 6 : 7 2) 4 : 9 3) 5 : 12 4) 12 : 5 5) None of these

Directions (Q.66-70): Study the following Pie-chart carefully to answer these questions.
Percentagewise distribution of teachers who teach six different subjects
Total number of teachers = 2000
Percentage of teachers

66. If five-seventh of the teachers who teach Mathematics are female, then number
of male Mathematics teachers is approximately what percentage of the total
number of teachers who teach English?
1) 57 2) 42 3) 63 4) 69 5) 51

67. What is the difference between the total number of teachers who teach English
and History together and the total number of teachers who teach Mathematics
and Biology together?
1) 146 2) 156 3) 180 4) 160 5) None of these

68. If the percentage of Biology teachers is increased by 40 percent and percentage
of History teachers decreased by 20 percent then what will be the total number
of Biology and History teachers together?
1) 634 2) 654 3) 658 4) 778 5) None of these

69. What is the approximate average number of teachers teaching Economics,
History and Biology together?
1) 400 2) 420 3) 450 4) 480 5) 470

70. What is the respective ratio of the number of teachers who teach Biology and
the number of teachers who teach Physics?
1) 6 : 7 2) 4 : 7 3) 3 : 5 4) 4 : 5 5) None of these

Directions (Q.71-75): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.

71. What is the total monthly expenditure made by D on rent, B on clothes and E
on travelling together?
1) Rs.18,720 2) Rs.1,78,200 3) Rs.17,800 4) Rs.1,84,720 5) None of these

72. What is the average monthly expenditure on food by all the people together?
1) Rs.1,08,500 2) Rs.10,850 3) Rs.54,250 4) Rs.52,450 5) None of these

73. Whose monthly expenditure on all the heads together is the lowest among them?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) D

74. If the monthly expenditure of C on childrens education is increased by 5%,
then what will be his yearly expenditure on childrens education?
1) Rs.158760 2) Rs.1587600 3) Rs.13230 4) Rs.132300 5) None of these

75. What is the respective ratio between the monthly expenditure made by A on
travelling and the monthly expenditure made by D on clothes?
1) 57 : 105 2) 105 : 59 3) 37 : 103 4) 59 : 105 5) None of these

Directions (Q.76-80): Study the following Pie-chart carefully to answer these questions.
Percentagewise distribution of players who play five different Sports
Total players are 4200 out of which Female Players equal to 2000

76. What is the average number of players (both male and female) who play
football and rugby together?
1) 620 2) 357 3) 230 4) 630 5) None of these

77. What is the difference between the number of the female players who play
lawn tennis and the number of male players who play rugby?
1) 94 2) 84 3) 220 4) 240 5) None of these

78. What is the respective ratio of the number of female players who play cricket
and number of male players who play hockey?
1) 20 : 7 2) 4 : 21 3) 3 : 20 4) 20 : 3 5) None of these

79. What is the total number of male players who play football, cricket and lawn
tennis together?
1) 1724 2) 1734 3) 1824 4) 1964 5) None of these

80. Number of male players who play rugby is approximately what percentage of
the total number of players who play lawn tennis?
1) 33 2) 39 3) 26 4) 21 5) 43


Part - C: Financial Awareness

81. Which new law was recently passed by the Indian Parliament to adopt
corporate structures for carrying out business?
1) Corporate Business Bill 2011
2) Business Ethics and Corporation Bill 2012
3) Ethics and Standard Bill 2013
4) Companies Bill 2012
5) None of these

82. What is the purpose of celebrating Rajiv Gandhi Sadbhavana Divas?
1) To promote national integration
2) To promote communal harmony
3) To eschew violence
4) To promote goodwill among the people
5) All of these

83. The central bank of which country has the largest foreign reserves in the world?
1) China 2) Saudi Arabia 3) European Union
4) Switzerland 5) Japan

84. Ramesh Abhishek is the Chairman of
1) Competition Commission of India
2) Securities and Exchange Board of India
3) Forward Markets Commission
4) Confederation of India Industry
5) Insurance Regulatory Development Authority

85. As per the Income Tax laws in India, the maximum amount not liable to tax in
case of an individual aged 60 years and above is
1) Rs.1,50,000 2) Rs.1,80,000 3) Rs.2,00,000
4) Rs.2,50,000 5) Rs.30,000

86. In business, disinvestment means to sell off certain assets. Which of the
following can come under these assets?
1) A manufacturing plant 2) A division or subsidiary 3) A product line
4) Both (2) and (3) 5) All of the above

87. Which Indian movie has been nominated as Indias official entry to 2014 Oscars?
1) Bhaag Milkha Bhaag 2) The Good Road 3) Celluloid
4) The Lunchbox 5) English Vinglish

88. Which of the following rates is not controlled by the Reserve Bank of India?
1) Cash Reserve Ratio 2) Statutory Liquidity Ratio 3) Cess
4) Marginal Standing Facility 5) Repo Rate

89. With which sports is Pullela Gopichand associated?
1) Golf 2) Billiards 3) Tennis
4) Badminton 5) Squash

90. International Standards on Combating Money Laundering and the Financing
of Terrorism and Proliferation are framed by
1) KYC 2) FATF 3) TAPI 4) ICOA 5) SWIFT

91. The State Bank of Indi (SBI) on 17
th
August, 2013 achieved another milestone
by opening its _____ branch in Tamil Nadu.
1) 2000th 2) 5000th 3) 10000th 4) 15000th 5) 20000th

92. Who is the present Chairman of the State Bank of India?
1) Ashwini Kumar 2) DP Singh 3) Seema Goyal
4) Rajeev Rishi 5) Arundhati Bhattacharya

93. Five -Year Plans in India are monitored by
1) National Development Council 2) Planning Commission 3) Finance Minister
4) Inter-State Council 5) Finance Commission

94. In which state is Sunderbans situated?
1) Odisha 2) West Bengal 3) Jharkhand
4) Assam 5) Uttarakhand

95. What is the name of Indias first indigenous aircraft carrier which was
launched recently?
1) Sindhurakshak 2) Vikrant 3) Pratap
4) Shaurya 5) Vikramaditya

96. Which one is not a member nation of BRICS?
1) Brazil 2) Russia 3) South Africa 4) India 5) Chile

97. The 108th birthday of Indian Hockey icon Dhyanchand was celebrated
recently as
1) National Hockey Day 2) National Sports Day
3) National Day for Olympics 4) National Medals Day
5) National Icon Day

98. Who is the author of Fault Lines: How Hidden Fractures Still Threaten the
World Economy?
1) Amartya Sen 2) Raghuram Rajan 3) Kaushik Basu
4) Bimal Jalan 5) YV Reddy

99. Who, at present, is the chairman of the Unique Identification Authority of
India (UIDAI)?
1) NK Singh 2) Nandan Nilekani 3) RS Sharma
4) SK Swamy 5) Dinesh Aggarwal

100. Which of the following Acts has specially been launched to facilitate banks in
recovery of bad loans?
1) RBI Act 2) Banking Regulation Act 3) Companies Act
4) Income Tax Act 5) SARFAESI Act

101. The financial assistance or loans of Rs. 10,000 by a bank to a very small
borrower will be called?
1) Business Finance 2) Govt. Finance 3) Micro Finance
4) Small Finance 5) KYC finance

102. Who amongst the following cannot work as a Business Correspondent as given
in the scheme launched by the banks?
1) Kirana Store 2) Post Office 3) Self Help Group
4) A Bank Officer 5) Co-operative Society

103. Some banks are financing big projects like construction of roads, bridges etc.
Financing such projects means banks are helping exactly in:
1) Infrastructural Development 2) Project Management
3) Developing core sector Industry 4) Financial Inclusion 5) All of these

104. As we know, a lot of new concepts are being used in the field of banking these
days, which of the following is NOT one such concept/product directly
associated with banks ?
1) RTGS 2) SMS alert 3) Demat Account
4) ATM/Debit card 5) Number Portability

105. Which of the following is NOT a Nationalised bank?
1) Union Bank of India 2) Central Bank of India 3) YES Bank
4) Syndicate Bank 5) Indian Bank

106. Interest payable on savings bank accounts is?
1) De-regulated by RBI 2) Regulated by State Governments
3) Regulated by Central Government 4) Regulated by RBI
5) Regulated by Finance Minister

107. The usual deposit accounts of banks are?
1) Current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts.
2) Current accounts post office savings, bank accounts and term deposit accounts.
3) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts.
4) Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts.
5) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts.

108. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are?
1) Repayable after an agreed period
2) Repayable on demand
3) Not repayable
4) Repayable after death of depositors
5) Repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank's choice

109. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of?
1) Both savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts.
2) Savings bank accounts and current accounts.
3) Both savings bank accounts and loan accounts.
4) Both savings bank accounts and cash accounts only.
5) Both current accounts and fixed deposit accounts.

110. Which of the following is correct statement?
1) No interest is paid on current deposit accounts.
2) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts.

3) The rate of interest on current accounts and savings accounts are the same.
4) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank.
5) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits.

111. Banking services delivered to a customer by means of a computer control
system that does not directly involve banks branch is called?
1) Universal banking 2) Virtual banking 3) Narrow banking
4) Brick & Mortal banking 5) None

112. Financial inclusion means provision of?
1) Financial services namely payments, remittances, savings, loans and insurance at
affordable cost to persons not yet given the bank
2) Ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
3) House at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
4) Food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
5) Education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same

113. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called?
1) Payment of the cheque 2) Drawing of the cheque
3) Canceling of the cheque 4) Dishonour of the cheque
5) Taking of the cheque

114. Who is the Chairman of the committee constituted by RBI to study issues and
concerns in the Micro Finance Institutions (MFI) Sector?
1) YH Malegam 2) Dr. KC Chakraborty 3) C. Rangrajan
4) M. Damodaran 5) Usha Thorat

115. Which of the following types of accounts are known as 'Demat Accounts'?
1) Accounts which are Zero Balance
2) Accounts which are opened to facilitate repayment of a loan taken from the bank.
No other business can be conducted from there
3) Accounts in which shares of various companies are traded in electronic form
4) Accounts which are operated through internet banking facility

116. NEFT means?
1) National Electronic Funds Transfer
2) Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer system
3) National Efficient Fund Transfer solution

4) Non Effective Fund Transfer system
5) Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer system.

117. Distribution of insurance products and insurance policies by banks as
corporate agents is known as?
1) General Insurance 2) Non Life Insurance 3) Bancassurance
4) Insurance Banking 5) Deposit Insurance

118. In respect of partnership business, LLP stands for:
1) Local Labour Promotion 2) Low Labour Projects
3) Limited Loan Partnership 4) Longer Liability Partnership
5) Limited Liability Partnership

119. Interest on savings bank account is now calculated by banks on?
1) Minimum balance during the month
2) Minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month
3) Minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month
4) Maximum balance during the month
5) Daily product basis

120. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a Nationalised bank is?
1) RBI 2) NABARD 3) LIC
4) Government of India 5) IBA

Part D: English Language
Directions (Q. 121-130): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Information technology, and the hardware and software (121) with the IT industry,
are an (122) part of nearly (123) major global industry. IT industry has become one
of the most robust industries in the world. IT, more than any other industry or
economic (124), has an increased productivity, particularly in the developed world,
and therefore is a key driver of global economic growth. Economies of scale and
(125) demand from both consumers and enterprises (126) this rapidly growing
sector. The Information Technology Association of America (ITAA) explains
information technology as (127) all possible aspects of information systems based
on computers. Both software development and the hardware involved in the IT
industry include everything from computer systems, to the design, implementation,
study and development of IT and management systems. (128) To its easy

accessibility and the wide range of IT products available, the demand for IT
services has increased (129) over the years. To IT sector has emerged as a major
global (130) of both growth and employment.

121. 1) use 2) amalgamation 3) associated 4) vision 5) regulated
122. 1) integral 2) fundamental 3) increased 4) vital 5) eager
123. 1) most 2) all 3) every 4) few 5) some
124. 1) world 2) opinion 3) stature 4) profit 5) facet
125. 1) multiply 2) insatiable 3) decreasing 4) unquenchable 5) unreasonable
126. 1) forage 2) thwart 3) motivate 4) fuelling 5) characterise
127. 1) making 2) qualifying 3) inclusive 4) encompassing 5) trusting
128. 1) Owing 2) Since 3) Catering 4) In order 5) Complementing
129. 1) regularly 2) substantially 3) minimally 4) exponential 5) savagely
130. 1) fortune 2) meltdown 3) spring 4) source 5) economy

Directions (Q. 131-135): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each
sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it
grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is
required, mark (5) as the answer.

131. The actress, who was in the city for the press conference of her dance reality show,
says she choose the show because of her passionate for dance.
1) being passion in dance 2) passionate for dancing
3) being passionate in dancing 4) passion for dance
5) No correction required

132. Despite of several representations and reminders, the district administration had not
taken any action to stem the systematic encroachment of water bodies.
1) Because of 2) Dispite 3) Although
4) In spite 5) No correction required

133. While it is well-known that there are large-scale leakages from the public
distribution system across the country, there are many states which have manage
successful reform the public distribution system and deliver food grain to the poor.
1) managed to successfully reform 2) managed successful reforms
3) managing successfully to reform 4) managing successfully reforming
5) No correction required


134. The four-day workshop is being conducted for gear up administration to the
changes that will follow with the implementation of the Right to Compulsory and
Free Education Act 2009.
1) so geared up 2) to gear up 3) for geared up
4) to gearing up 5) No correction required

135. The court refused to provide relieve to the petitioner and stated that plying of al
diesel vehicles was banned with immediate effect.
1) provision of relief 2) providing of relieve 3) provide any relief
4) provide relieving 5) No correction required

Directions (Q.136-140): Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in
the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them.
A. Buildings of these structures required a lot of fuel to be burnt which emits a
large amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
B. The major source of carbon dioxide is power plants.
C. Another twenty percent of carbon dioxide emitted in the atmosphere comes
from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
D. Buildings, both commercial and residential represent a larger source of global
warming pollution than the said cars and trucks.
E. The major cause of global warming is the emission of green house gases like
carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, etc, into the atmosphere.
F. These power plants emit large amounts of carbon dioxide produced from
burning of fossil fuels for the purpose of electricity generation.

136. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) E 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) A

137. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) F

138. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

139. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E


140. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) E 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) A

Directions (Q. 141-145): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that
something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits
the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

141. The protests were _____ at _____ awareness among the elite and the educated.
1) held, generating 2) aimed, creating 3) targeted, awakening
4) focused, building 5) concentrated, producing

142. While it is _____ possible to inflation-index cash entitlements and food stamps,
the _____ nature of food prices would make it a more difficult process than
envisaged.
1) theoretically, volatile 2) absolutely, stable 3) hypothetically, slow
4) not, unpredictable 5) notionally, established

143. The actress is _____ that she has not only acted opposite her childhood hero,
but has also _____ out a song and recited a poem on-stage with the living
legend.
1) overjoyed, belted 2) morose, sung 3) ecstatic, written
4) tense, prepared 5) elated, made

144. _____ to popular belief that red meat makes humans _____ scientists have
found that it actually has a calming effect.
1) dissimilar, happy 2) opposite, intelligent 3) contrary, aggressive
4) comparable, hostile 5) sticking, violent

145. _____ an earlier judgment, the high court has directed the state government to
identify natural water resources in the state and _____ all illegal
encroachments on them.
1) remembering, establish 2) citing, remove 3) cancelling, build
4) quoting, destroying 5) furthering, maintain

Directions (Q.146-155): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence, the number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

146. Dress in black (1)/ several students from the university took part (2)/ in a protest
march in the city on Thursday as part (3)/ of a campaign against female infanticide.
(4)/No error (5)

147. On the second day of the workshop, (1)/ participants does a situational analysis of
the state (2)/ and spoke about their plan of action (3)/ for implementing the Act. (4)/
No error (5)

148. The court has asked the authorities (1) / to take appropriate steps to restore natural
water resources (2) / so that the water shortage problem (3) / in the state can be
solved. (4)/ No error (5)

149. The poor experience in (1) / neighboring countries which have implemented (2) /
food stamp programmes should serve as (3) / a deterrent on our country. (4)/ No
error (5)

150. The government has warned (1) / that air pollution from vehicles and power stations
(2) / is reducing life expectancy in the country (3) / in an average of six months. (4)/
No error (5)

Directions (Q. 151-155): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words / phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
The modern world requires us to repose trust in many anonymous institutions. We
strap ourselves in a flying tin can with two hundred other people not because we
know the pilot but because we believe that airline travel is safe. Our trust in these
institutions depends on two factors: skills and ethics. We expect that the people who
run these institutions known what they are doing, that they build and operate
machines that work as they are supposed to and that they are looking out for our
welfare even though we are strangers.
When one of these factors is weak of absent, trust breaks down and we either pay a
big price in safety as in the Bhopal tragedy or a large welfare premium such as
the elaborate security measures at airports. Trust - deficient environments work in
the favour of the rich and powerful, who can command premium treatment and
afford welfare premiums. Poor people can command neither, which is why air travel
is safer than train travel, which in turn is safer then walking by the road side.
Every modern society depends on the trust in the skills and ethics of a variety of
institutions such as schools and colleges, hospitals and markets. If we stopped
believing in the expertise of our teachers, doctors and engineers, we will stop being
a modern society.

As the institution among institutions, it is the duty of the state to ensure that all
other institutions meet their ethical obligations. The Indian state has failed in its
regulatory role. Consequently, we cannot trust our schools to turn out good
graduates, we cannot trust our schools to turn out good graduates, we cannot ensure
that our colleges turn out well trained engineers and we cannot graduate that our
engineers will turn out to be good products.
Last year, I was invited to speak at an undergraduate research conference. Most of
the participants in this conference were students at the best engineering colleges in
the State. One student who was driving me back and forth recounted a story about
the previous years final exam. One of his papers had a question from a leading
textbook to which the textbooks answer was wrong. The student was in a dilemma:
should he write the (wrong) answer as given in the textbook or should he write the
right answer using his own analytical skills. He decided to do the latter and received
a zero on that question. Clearly, as the student had suspected, the examiners were
looking at the textbook answer while correcting the examination papers instead of
verifying its correctness.
The behaviour of these examiners is a breakdown of institutional morals, with
consequences for the skills acquired by students. I say institutional morals, for the
failure of these examiners is not a personal failure. At the same conference! met a
whole range of college teachers, all of whom were drafted a examiners at some time
or the other. Without exception, they were dedicated individuals who cared about
the education and welfare of their students. However, when put in the institutional
role of evaluating an anonymous individual, they fail in fulfilling their
responsibilities. When some of our best colleges are run in this fashion, is it any
wonder that we turn out unskilled engineers and scientists? If, as we are led to
expect, there is a vast increase in education at all levels and the regulatory regime is
as weak as it is currently, isnt it likely that the trust deficit is only going to
increase?
We are all aware of the consequences of ignoring corruption at all levels of society.
While institutional failures in governance are obvious, I think the real problem lies
deeper, in the failure of everyday institutions that are quite apart from institutions
that impinge on our lives only on rare occasions. It is true that our lives are made
more miserable by government officials demanding bribes for all sorts of things,
but what about the everyday lying and cheating and breaking of rules with people
who are strangers?
Let me give you an example that many of us have experienced. I prefer buying my
fruits and vegetables from roadside vendors rather than chain stores. To the vendor,
I am probably an ideal customer, since I do not bargain and I do not take hours
choosing the best pieces, instead, letting the vendor do the selecting. The market
near my house is quite busy; as a result, most vendors are selling their wares to
strangers. It takes a while before a particular vendor realises that I am a repeat

simple rule: if a vendor palms off a bad piece whose defects are obvious, I never go
back to that person again. It is amazing how often that happens.
In my opinion, the failure of institutional ethics is an much about these little abuses
of trust as anything else. Everyday thievery is like roadside trash, if you let it
accumulate the whole neighbourhood stinks.

151. What is the meaning of the phrase palms off as used in the passage?
1) steals from 2) hides away from 3) buys quickly
4) acquires a good price for 5) passes on by deception

152. Why, according to the author, do people repose trust in institutions they do not
know?
1) The marketing strategies adopted by these institutions make them trustworthy in
the eyes of the public
2) Many other people before them have done the same thing thus they feel safe
3) People learn from the experiences of their richer counterparts who have availed
of the services of these institutions
4) They believe that these institutions have the requisite knowledge and will act
only in favour of the general public
5) These institutions charge a very high price for the services they provide which
leads people to trust them

153. Why, according to the author, is the behaviour of examiners a breakdown of
institutional morals?
1) As the institution encourages examiners to give as little marks to students as
possible
2) As the institution is responsible for not encouraging examiners to venture outside
the rote process
3) As the examiners are told to discourage students from being creative by the
institution
4) As the institution fails to provide adequate compensation to these hardworking
examiners
5) As the institution does not have information regarding right answers with it.

154. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
1) Modifications in institutional ethics
2) Little deductions add to larger trust Deficit
3) India A country without ethics

4) Failure of the government
5) College As an institution

155. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
A. Despite being aware of the fact that clients will not return, fruit and vegetable
vendors sell bad goods.
B. Examiners are devoted to their jobs.
C. Examiners deliberately mark correct answers as incorrect ones.
1) Only A and C 2) Only B 3) Only A 4) Only B and C 5) Only C

Directions (Q.156-157): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in
meaning to the word / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

156. Obligation
1) Responsibility 2) Dependability 3) Compulsion
4) Debt 5) Force

157. Expertise
1) Proficiency 2) Authenticity 3) Inability
4) Power 5) Reality

Directions (Q. 158-160): Choose the word / group of words which is most opposite in
meaning the word /group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

158. Repeat
1) Copied 2) Original 3) New 4) Duplicate 5) Replicated

159. Unskilled
1) Civilised 2) Enlightened 3) Amateur 4) Trained 5) Cultured

160. Miserable
1) Despondent 2) Energetic 3) Dynamic 4) Vigorous 5) Joyous


Part E: Computer Awareness
161. A _____ typically connects personal computers within a very limited
geographical area, usually within a single building.
1) LAN 2) BAN 3) TAN 4) NAN 5) None of these

162. An e-mail address typically consists of a user ID followed by the _____ sign and
the name of the e-mail server that manages the users electronic post office
box.
1) @ 2) # 3) & 4) * 5) None of these

163. A file extension is separated from the main file name with a(n) _____ but no
spaces.
1) question mark 2) exclamation mark 3) underscore
4) period 5) None of these

164. A Web _____ consists of one or more Web pages located on a Web server.
1) hub 2) site 3) story 4) temple 5) None of these

165. The desktop contains small graphics called _____
1) windows 2) logos 3) icons 4) pictures 5) None of these

166. C, BASIC, COBOL and Java are examples of _____ languages.
1) low-level 2) computer 3) system programming
4) high-level 5) None of these

167. _____ makes it possible for shoppers to make purchases using their computers.
1) E-world 2) E-commerce 3) E-spend
4) E-business 5) None of these

168. The human-readable version of a program is called _____
1) source code 2) program code 3) human code
4) system code 5) None of these

169. _____ is the result produced by a computer.
1) Data 2) Memory 3) Output 4) Input 5) None of these


170. Programs such as Internet Explorer that serve as navigable windows into the
Web are called _____.
1) Hypertext 2) Networks 3) Internet
4) Web browsers 5) None of these

171. A _____ is a device that only provides surge protection, but also furnishes your
computer with battery backup power during a power outage.
1) surge strip 2) USB 3) UPS
4) battery strip 5) None of these

172. The motherboard is the _____.
1) circuit board that house peripheral devices
2) same as the CPU chip
3) the first chip that is accessed when the computer is turned on
4) circuit board that contains a CPU and other chips

173. A(n) _____ converts and executes one statement at a time.
1) compiler 2) interpreter 3) converter
4) instructions 5) None of these

174. Approximately how many bytes make one Megabyte?
1) One thousand 2) Ten thousand 3) One hundred
4) One million 5) None of these

175. In MICR, C stands for _____
1) Code 2) Colour 3) Computer 4) Character 5) None of these

176. When writing a document, you can use the _____ feature find yourself stuck
for the right word.
1) dictionary 2) word finder 3) encyclopedia
4) thesaurus 5) None of these

177. Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task?
1) Function 2) Control 3) Arrow
4) Space bar 5) None of these


178. A _____ computer is a large and expensive computer capable of simultaneously
processing data for hundreds or thousands of users.
1) server 2) mainframe 3) desktop 4) tablet 5) None of these

179. All the deleted files go to_______
1) My Computer 2) Task Bar 3) Tool Bar
4) Recycle Bin 5) desktop
180. Shortcut Keys for Bring Up Start menu
1) Ctrl + Esc 2) Alt + Esc 3) Ctrl + Alt
4) Alt + Enter 4) Alt + Shift
181. Shortcut Keys for Delete Programs/files without throwing into recycle bin
1) Shift + F10 2) Shift + Del 3) Shift + Enter
4) F2 5) Alt + F2
182. ______________Manages the computers all resources
1) RAM 2) Operating system 3) Memory
4) ROM 5) Hard disk
183. ___________ is the primary process of Operating systems that occurs when you
turn your computer on
1) Saving 2) Closing 3) Booting 4) Creating 5) Programming
184. POST stands ______
1) Power On Self Test 2) Power On Software Test
3) Paste on Software Test 4) Power Off Software Test
5) Programming of System Tools
185. Any OS instruction or command request is called as________
1) Window call 2) Program 3) Instruction
4) a system call 5) Database


186. Operating systems have been tightly related to the ___________
1) Computer architecture 2) CPU 3) Processor
4) Peripherals 5) Input devices
187. Which part is the Brain of the Computer? (SBI- Clerk-Nov-2009)
1) CPU 2) Monitor 3) RAM
4) ROM 5) Hard disk
188. First operating system called as __________in early 1950's .
1) GM-NAA I/O 2) Windows 3) DOS
4) Unix 5) Linux
189. DRAM (Dynamic ram) is similar to a -------------------.
1) Resistor 2) Capacitor 3) Memory
4) ROM 5) Condenser
190. The advantage of LAN is?
1) Sharing peripherals 2) Backing up your data
3) Saving all your data 4) Accessing the web
5) Automatic printing of data
191. Of the 5 words listed below, which one is the odd one out?
1) Application 2) Peripherals 3) Programs
4) Software 5) Operating system
192. What type of device is a computer printer?
1) Input 2) Input / output 3) Software 4) Storage 5) Output


193. What is the biggest number you can get with 8 bits?
1) 256 2) 128 3) 1000 4) 255 5) 1024
194. What type of device is a digital camera?
1) Input 2) Output 3) Software
4) Storage 5) Input /output
195. What is the mailing list?
1) Collection of e - mail addresses 2) Collection of files
3) Collection of folders 4) Collection of data
5) Collection of incidence
196. What type of keys are "ctrl" and "shift"?
1) Adjustment 2) Function 3) Modifier
4) Alphanumeric 5) None of these
197. The following is an example of standard file format for text files?
1) JPEG (.jpg) 2) Bitmap (.bmp) 3) Word (.doc)
4) Text (.txt) 5 Excel (.xls)
198. Which of the following devices was used in the computer of first generation?
1) Integrated circuit 2) Processor 3) Microprocessor
4) Vacuum tubes 5) none of these
199. Which part of hardware compensates the difference of speeds of CPU and
peripherals?
1) Scanner 2) Printer 3) Video card
4) Mother board 5) Interface


200. Which of the following computers is designed to do some specialized work?
1) Mainframe computer 2) Special purpose computer
3) Portable computer 4) Super computer
5) None of these

Key & Solutions

(1 - 5)

1. (5) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (5) 5. (1) 6. (5) 7. (1) 8. (3)

9. (5) Code of thou = 8 or 9 and good = 5 but the code of no is not known.

10. (2)

11. (2) According to data 50-80 of all people able to return to work, however this may
not be possible if they have previously been involved in heavy physical work.
Mostly means at least half of the people.

12. (1) Clear from fifth sentence.

13. (5) Here above the age of 50 is nowhere in given passage.

14. (4) Here, the word definitely makes this sentence probably false.

15. (1)

16. (5) I. Jason > (Peter and Joseph)

II. Joseph > Kevin
So, from both statements, Jason is oldest among all.
So, data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

17. (4) I. I happy today = ke ne que ..... (i)
Today happy day = ke joi ne .... (ii)
From (i) and (ii), the code of happy = ke or ne
II. Play = que pa
So, from both statements, the code of happy cannot exactly determine. So,
the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.

18. (1)

So, J may be sister or brother of V.

So, J may be sister or brother of V.
So, data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question.

19. (2) Colour of white snow is white
From II white is called orange
So, the white snow is orange
So, data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

20. (5)


And from I, also
So, to find answer both I and II are necessary.

21. (4) Input: next 57 problem 82 14 trend 02 purchase growth 41
Step I: growth next 57 problem 82 14 trend 02 purchase 41
Step II: growth 02 next 57 problem 82 14 turned purchase 41
Step III: growth 02 next 14 57 problem 82 trend purchase 41
Step IV: growth 02 next 14 problem 57 82 trend purchase 41
Step V: growth 02 next 14 problem 41 57 82 trend purchase
Step VI: growth 02 next 14 problem 41 purchase 57 82 trend
Step VII: growth 02 next 14 problem 41 purchase 57 trend 82

22. (3) See 34 and its last step.

23. (4) See 34 and its step I.

24. (3) See 34 and its step III.

25. (4) Input: just 14 and value 22 time 5 15
Step I: and just 14 value 22 time 5 15
Step II: and 5 just 14 value 22 time 15
Step III: and 5 just 14 time value 22 15
Step IV: and 5 just 14 time 15 value 22

26. (2) See 38 and its step II.

27. (1) See 38 and its step IV.

(28 - 29):

28. (5) Statement: E < F G = H > S
Conclusions:
I. G > S It follows because G = H is greater than S.
II. H H It follows because H is equal to G and G F .

29. (1) Statement: P Q < W = L

Conclusions:
I. L > P It follows
II. Q L It does not follow because L is equal to W and W is only greater
than Q.

(30 - 36):

30. (5) Sunday Economics
31. (5)

Similarly, off day Saturday 5 1
32. (5) 33. (3) 34. (3) 35. (5)
36. (4) The pattern of problem figures are


37. (4) The pattern of problem figures are

38. (5) Diagram P is moving by 1 step then O is by 3 steps then O is by 3 steps and
* by 4 steps so, now * will move by 5 steps and a new diagram takes place (one
step = 1/2 portion of a side).
39. (3)

40. (2) From left hand side, first and third figure exchanges their place reversed.
Second and fourth figure exchanges their place only. And last figure which is at
right hand side becomes reversed only at their own place.
41. (5) Solution: 1255.5 (18 15.5) = 1255.5 279 = 4.5

42. (2) Solution: (64)
3
(8)
9
(512)
2
= (8)
6
(8)
9
(8)
6

= (8)
9

Required answer = 9

43. (2) Solution: 19.9 % of 411 =
.
411 =81.789
44. (1) Solution:
5020 = 753


45. (1) Solution: ? = 311 24

?=

= 622

46. (5) Solution: 436.56 625.43 + 312.55 = 123.68

47. (1) Solution: 7
- 3
+ 2
= 7 3 + 2 +
=6 +
= 6

48. (2) Solution: (5 5 5 5 5 5)
2
(5 5 5 5)
8
(5 5)
3

= (25)
6
(25)
16
(25)
3
= (25)
19

Required answer = 19

49. (2) Solution: = 7

+ 15 + 11 ? = 49
12 + 15 + 11 ? = 49
11? = 49 27
? = 2

50. (3) Solution: 58% of 450 - ?% of 250 = 181

450 -
?
250 = 181

58 450 - ? 250 = 18100

58 450 18100 =? 250

? =
? = 32

51. (4) Solution: (67)
2
= 4489 (68)
2
= 4624

Required number = 4624 4523 = 101
52. (2) Solution: 2 r = 572


r =

r = 91

Length of the floor = 91 + 6 = 97meters

2 (l + b) = 356

2(97 + b) = 356

b =
= 81

Area of the floor = 97 81 = 7857 square meter

Required cost = 12 7857 = Rs. 94284

53. (4) Solution:

4W 16 days

8 C 12 days

4W + 6C ?

4W 16 = 8C 12
2W = 3C
4W + 6C = 12C
M
1
D
1
= M
2
D
2

8 12 = 12 D
2
D
2
= 8 days

54. (2) Solution:
80% 7200

120% ?

7200 =

= 10800


55. (2) Solution: Pravallikas monthly income =
of Meeras monthly income

Pravallikas annual income =
429600 = 343680

56. (1) Solution: 1 day 180 meters

4 weeks = 28 days ?

28 180 = 5040 meters = 5.04 K.M

57. (4) Solution: Average =
= 106

58. (1) Solution:
?
.
?
.
(?)
3
= 45 75 ? =
? = 15

59. (1) Solution: increase in S.I = 2% of Rs. 600 for 5 years =

= Rs. 60

Amount = Original Amount + Extra Interest = 735 + 60 = Rs.795

60. (1) Solution: let the required number of chocolates be x.

400x = 350 (x + 1)

400x 350x = 350 x =
= 7
(61 65)
61. (1) Required average number of candidates =
2 14
2000
7 100
1000
140

= =4.1 lakh
62. (2) Total number of candidates who applied for Bank A
= 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 4 + 7 = 25 lakh
Total number of candidates who applied for Bank B
= 5 + 6 + 5 + 8 + 5 + 9 = 38 lakh
Required percentage =
63. (3) 2004, 2005 and 2007 both banks have equal capacity i.e., 9 lakh
64. (1) Qualified = 20%, then disqualified = 80%

Number of disqualified =
80
9
100
=7.2 lakh

65. (1) Required ratio =
5 7 12
6: 7
5 9 14
+
= =
+

(66 - 70):
66. (1) Required percentage
5 14
2000 1
7 100
10
7
2000
100

=

2 14
2000
7 100
1000
140

=
80
100 57%
140
= =

67. (4) Total number of teachers who teach English and History together
(7 27)
2000 680
100
+
= =
Total number of teachers who teach Mathematics and Biology together
(14 12)
2000 520
100
+
= =
Required difference = 680 520 = 160

68. (5) Total number of Biology and History teachers

12 100 40
2000
100 100
+
= +

27 100 20
2000
100 100

12 140 27 80
2000 2000
100 100 100 100

= +

= 336 + 432 = 768

69. (2) Required average
2000 (25 27 12)
100
3
+ +
=
280
420
3
1
= =

70. (4) Required ratio
12 2000
12
100
4: 5
15 2000
15
100
= = =


(71 - 75):
71. (5) (9.65 + 2.75 + 5.42) 1000 = 17820

72. (2)
7.50 8.55 11.40 17.80 9
1000 10850
5
+ + + +
=

73. (1) Monthly expenditure of A = 12.5 + 7.5 + 6.52 + 3.3 + 4.72 = 34.54
Monthly expenditure of B = 16 + 8.55 + 8.38 + 2.75 + 5.86 = 41.54
Monthly expenditure of C = 13.8 + 11.4 + 12.6 + 6.3 + 9.3 = 53.4
Monthly expenditure of D = 9.65 + 17.8 + 9.95 + 8.4 + 7.85 = 53.65
Monthly expenditure of E = 14.5 + 9 + 10.25 + 3.9 + 5.42 = 43.07

74. (1) Monthly expenditure of C on childrens education
Yearly expenditure after increased by 5%
105
12600 12 158760
100

= =

75. (4)
4.72
59.105
8.40
=

(76 - 80):

76. (4) Average number of players who play football and rugby together

17 13
4200
100
630
2
+
= =
77. (1) Female players who plays lawn tennis
22
2000 440
100
= =
Male players who plays rugby =
13 10
4200 2000
100 100
=
= 546 200 = 346
Difference = 400 346 = 94

78. (3) Female players who plays cricket
40
2000 800
100
= =
Male players who plays hockey
10 15
4200 2000
100 100

= 420 300 = 120

79. (2) Number of male players who plays football, cricket and lawn tennis

17 35 25 13 40 32
4200 2000
100 100
+ + + +
= = 3234 1500 = 1734

80. (1) Male players who plays rugby
13 10
4200 2000
100 100
=
= 546 200 = 346
Total number of players plays lawn tennis
25
4200 1050
100
= =
Required percentage
346
100 33%
1050
= =

81. (4) 82. (5) 83. (1) 84. (3) 85. (4) 86. (5)
87. (2) 88. (3) 89. (4) 90. (2) 91. (4) 92. (5)
93. (2) 94. (2) 95. (2) 96. (5) 97. (2) 98. (2)
99. (2) 100. (5) 101. (3) 102. (4) 103. (1) 104). (5)
105. (3) 106. (1) 107. (4) 108. (1) 109. (2) 110. (1)
111. (2) 112. (1) 113. (4) 114. (1) 115. (3) 116. (1)
117. (3) 118. (5) 119. (5) 120. (4) 121. (2) 122. (1)
123. (3) 124. (1) 125. (2) 126. (5) 127. (4) 128. (1)
129. (2) 130. (4) 131. (4) 132. (2) 133. (1) 134. (2)
135. (3) 136. (2) 137. (1) 138. (5) 139. (3) 140. (4)
141. (2) 142. (1) 143. (1) 144. (3) 145. (2)
146. (1) Say Dressed in black.
147. (2) Use did in place of does.
148. (5) The sentence is correct.
149. (4) Use to in place of on.
150. (4) Use with in place of in.
151. (5) 152. (4) 153. (2) 154. (2) 155. (2) 156. (3)
157. (1) 158. (4) 159. (3) 160. (3)
161. (1) LAN: LAN stands for Local Area Network which is typically connects
personal computers within a very limited geographical area.
For example: In a single building.
162. (1) E-mail Address:
Example:


163. (5) File extension:

Example:

164. (2)
165. (3)
166. (2)
167. (4) E-business: It makes possible for shoppers to make purchases using their
computers, like as Big Bazaar.
168. (3) Human code: Human code or human readable code is to machine code as
human language is to machine language. This context extends into computer
science as a relationship between and amongst coders and the users of
computing machines.
169. (3)
170. (4)
171. (3) UPS: It is a device that only provides surge protection but also furnishes your
computer with battery backup power during a power outage.

172. (4) Motherboard: The printed circuit board in a computer that contains the CUP,
chipset, expansion slots, memory and devices controllers. Sometimes, it is also
called the system board, main board, planar board or logic board.

173. (3) Converter: It converts and executes one statement at a time. While an
interpreter converts one statement at a time only that means not executes.

174. (4) Megabytes: 1 Megabyte = 1000000 (one million bytes)

175. (4)

176. (4) Thesaurus: It is a book that lists words grouped together according to
similarity of meaning (containing synonyms and sometimes antonyms), in
contrast to a dictionary, which contains definitions and pronunciations.

177. (2) Control Key: It is used in modifier keys.
Example: ctrl + C, ctrl + V, ctrl + Z etc.

178. (2) Mainframe: Largest data processing system employed in controlling very
complex industrial process, crunching extremely large numbers at extremely
high speeds, storing massive amounts of data, generating life-like animation,
processing millions of real-time transactions, and serving thousands of
simultaneous users.

179. (4) 180. (1) 181. (2) 182. (2) 183. (3) 184. (1)
185. (4) 186. (1) 187. (1) 188. (1) 189. (2) 190. (1)
191. (2) 192. (5) 193. (4) 194. (5) 195. (1) 196. (3)
197. (4) 198. (4) 199. (5) 200. (2)

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