GATE AE 2007-2014 With Answers

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
Linear Algebra:
Matrix algebra, systems of linear equations, eigen values and eigen vectors.
Calculus:
Functions of single variable, limit, continuity and differentiability, mean value theorems, evaluation of
definite and improper integrals, partial derivatives, total derivative, maxima and minima, gradient,
divergence and curl, vector identities, directional derivatives, line, surface and volume integrals.
Theorems of Stokes, Gauss and Green.
Differential Calculus:
First order linear and nonlinear equations, higher order linear ODEs with constant coefficients, Cauchy
and Euler equations, initial and boundary value problems, Laplace transforms. Partial differential
equations and separation of variables methods.
Numerical methods:
Numerical solution of linear and nonlinear algebraic equations, integration by trapezoidal and Simpson
rule, single and multi-step methods for differential equations.
FLIGHT MECHANICS
Atmosphere:
Properties, standard atmosphere. Classification of aircraft. Airplane (fixed wing aircraft) configuration and
various parts.
Airplane performance:
Pressure altitude; equivalent, calibrated, indicated air speeds; Primary flight instruments: Altimeter, ASI,
VSI, Turn-bank indicator. Drag polar; take off and landing; steady climb & descent,-absolute and service
ceiling; cruise, cruise climb, endurance or loiter; load factor, turning flight, V-n diagram; Winds: head, tail
& cross winds.
Static stability:
Angle of attack, sideslip; roll, pitch & yaw controls; longitudinal stick fixed & free stability, horizontal tail
position and size; directional stability, vertical tail position and size; dihedral stability. Wing dihedral,
sweep & position; hinge moments, stick forces.
Dynamic stability:
Euler angles; Equations of motion; aerodynamic forces and moments, stability & control derivatives;
decoupling of longitudinal and lat-directional dynamics; longitudinal modes; lateral-directional modes.
SPACE DYNAMICS
Central force motion, determination of trajectory and orbital period in simple cases. Orbit transfer, in-plane
and out-of-plane. Elements of rocket motor performance.
AERODYNAMICS
Basic Fluid Mechanics:
Incompressible irrotational flow, Helmholtz and Kelvin theorem, singularities and superposition, viscous
flows, boundary layer on a flat plate.
Airfoils and wings:
Classification of airfoils, aerodynamic characteristics, high lift devices, Kutta J oukowski theorem; lift
generation; thin airfoil theory; wing theory; induced drag; qualitative treatment of low aspect ratio wings.
Viscous Flows:
Flow separation, introduction to turbulence, transition, structure of a turbulent boundary layer.
Compressible Flows:
Dynamics & Thermodynamics of I-D flow, isentropic flow, normal shock, oblique shock, Prandtl-Meyer
flow, flow in nozzles and diffusers, inviscid flow in a c-d nozzle, flow in diffusers. subsonic and supersonic
airfoils, compressibility effects on lift and drag, critical and drag divergence Mach number, wave drag.
Wind Tunnel Testing:
Measurement and visualisation techniques.

STRUCTURES
Stress and Strain:
Equations of equilibrium, constitutive law, strain-displacement relationship, compatibility equations, plane
stress and strain, Airys stress function.
Flight Vehicle Structures:
Characteristics of aircraft structures and materials, torsion, bending and flexural shear. Flexural shear
flow in thin-walled sections. Buckling. Failure theories. Loads on aircraft.
Structural Dynamics:
Free and forced vibration of discrete systems. Damping and resonance. Dynamics of continuous systems.

PROPULSION
Thermodynamics of Aircraft Gas Turbine engines, thrust and thrust augmentation.
Turbomachinery:
Axial compressors and turbines, centrifugal pumps and compressors.
Aerothermodynamics of non rotating propulsion components:
Intakes, combustor and nozzle. Thermodynamics of ramjets and scramjets. Elements of rocket
propulsion.
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GATE AEROSPACE 2007 ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B B B C D D A D A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C D A B B B D B B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D A B A B C A D C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A C C A C C A C B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A A A B A A B C A C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B B A B B B A A B A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C D B A C B C C C A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B A D B C C 12.75 C C D
81 82 83 84 85
B A A C B

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GATE AEROSPACE 2008 - ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B C A D C C A B B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B D B C A B C C B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B C D B A B A D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A D B D B A A B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A C D D B D A A D A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A A B D A C D D C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A B D A B C C C C B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A C B D C C D B C B
81 82 83 84 85
C B B A B

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GATE AEROSPACE 2009 - ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A A C D D B D B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A C B D A B B D D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D A B A D B A C D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C A A C A B D C B A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A B B C C D B B A B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A C D B B C D A C

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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B C B C B D C C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B A D B B A D A B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D D D C D A D C B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A A C B C A C A C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B D B B D A D C -- A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A B C B A D C D
61 62 63 64 65
C C D B B

2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING AE
AE: AEROSPACE ENGINEERING
ONLINE Examination
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. Questions must be answered using computers provided by the GATE at the examination centers. Each
computer shall run specialized examination software that permits a maximum of one answer to be selected
for questions of multiple choice type.
2. Your answers shall be updated and saved on the server periodically and at the end of the examination. The
examination will automatically stop once the duration of the examination is over.
3. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All questions are of objective type.
4. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1-mark each, and questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2-marks each.
5. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 are of numerical answer type. For each of these questions, the correct answer is a
number. All other questions are of multiple choice type. Each of these questions carries four choices for
the answer labeled A, B, C and D. Only one of the four choices is the correct answer.
6. Questions Q.48 Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions and question pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54,
Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions
depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly
answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
7. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1-mark each, and
questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2-marks each.
8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark. There is no negative marking for questions of numerical
answer type, i.e., for Q.26 Q.30. For questions of multiple choice type, wrong answers will result in
NEGATIVE marks. For Q.1 Q.25 and Q.56 Q.60, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
For Q.31 Q.51 and Q.61 Q.65, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs
(Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for
wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair, i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, mark will
be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
9. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
10. Rough work can be done in the specified area only.
11. Candidates may use the back side of this page to record their answers for their own convenience.
12. To login, type your Registration Number and password as per instructions provided in the envelope.
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and choose the correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. The answered questions
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I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet.

Paper Code: AE Registration No:__________________Name: ___________________________

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AE

Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Consider z y x , , to be right-handed Cartesian coordinates. A vector function is defined in this
coordinate system as , where and k j i v
2
3 3 yz xy x + = j i, k are the unit vectors along y x, and
z axes, respectively. The curl of is given by v
Q.1
(A) k i y z 3
2
(B) k j y z 3
2
+ (C) j i y z 3
2
+ (D) k i y z 3
2
+

Which of the following functions is periodic? Q.2
(A)
2
) ( x x f =
(B) x x f log ) ( =
(C)
x
e x f = ) (
(D) . ) ( const x f =

The function has its minimum value at 14 6 4 2 ) , , (
3 2 1
2
3
2
2
2
1 3 2 1
+ + + = x x x x x x x x x f
Q.3
(A) (1, 2, 3) (B) (0, 0, 0) (C) (3, 2, 1) (D) (1, 1, 3)

Consider the function . The vector pointing in the direction of
maximum increase of the function at the point (1, -1) is
2 1
2
2
2
1 2 1
2 ) , (
x x
e x x x x f

+ + =
Q.4
(A)
|
|
.
|
\
|
5
2
(B)
|
|
.
|
\
|
5
1
(C)
|
|
.
|
\
|
73 . 6
73 . 0
(D)
|
|
.
|
\
|
4
2

Two simultaneous equations given by x y + = t and t = x y have
(A) a unique solution (B) infinitely many solutions
Q.5
(C) no solution (D) a finite number of multiple solutions

In three-dimensional linear elastic solids, the number of non-trivial stress-strain relations, strain-
displacement equations and equations of equilibrium are, respectively,
Q.6
(A) 3, 3 and 3 (B) 6, 3 and 3 (C) 6, 6 and 3 (D) 6, 3 and 6

An Euler-Bernoulli beam in bending is assumed to satisfy
(A) both plane stress as well as plane strain conditions
(B) plane strain condition but not plane stress condition
(C) plane stress condition but not plane strain condition
Q.7
(D) neither plane strain condition nor plane stress condition

A statically indeterminate frame structure has
(A) same number of joint degrees of freedom as the number of equilibrium equations
(B) number of joint degrees of freedom greater than the number of equilibrium equations
(C) number of joint degrees of freedom less than the number of equilibrium equations
Q.8
(D) unknown number of joint degrees of freedom, which cannot be solved using laws of mechanics

Consider a single degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system with mass, damping and stiffness
of , and , respectively. The logarithmic decrement of this system can be calculated using m c k
Q.9
(A)
2
4
2
c mk
c
t
(B)
2
4 c mk
c
t
(C)
2
2
c mk
c
t
(D)
2
4
2
c mk
c
t

AE
Consider a single degree of freedom spring-mass system of spring stiffness and mass which
has a natural frequency of 10 rad/s. Consider another single degree of freedom spring-mass system
of spring stiffness and mass which has a natural frequency of 20 rad/s. The spring stiffness
is equal to
1
k m
2
k m
2
k
Q.10
(A)
1
k (B)
1
2k
(C)
4
1
k

(D)
1
4k

Consider a simply supported two-dimensional beam

If the beam is converted into a fixed-fixed beam as

then the degree of static indeterminacy will
Q.11
(A) increase by 3 (B) increase by 2 (C) decrease by 1 (D) decrease by 3

An impulsive launch of a rocket minimizes the loss of burn-out velocity due to
(A) aerodynamic drag force only
(B) gravitational force only
(C) both aerodynamic drag and gravitational forces
Q.12
(D) reaction jet control force

Multi-staging in rockets improves the burn-out performance by increasing mainly stage-wise
(A) payload mass ratios (B) structural mass efficiencies
Q.13
(C) propellant masses (D) control system masses

In an un-powered glide of an aircraft having weight W, lift L and drag D, the equilibrium glide
angle is defined as
Q.14
(A)
|
.
|
\
|
D
L
1
tan (B)
|
.
|
\
|
L
D
1
tan (C)
|
.
|
\
|
W
L
1
tan (D)
|
.
|
\
|
L
W
1
tan

Lift on an aircraft climbing vertically up is
(A) equal to its weight (B) zero
Q.15
(C) equal to the drag (D) equal to the thrust

If an aircraft is performing a positive yawing manoeuvre, the side slip angle Q.16
(A) is always zero (B) is never zero (C) is always negative (D) could be any value

For an airplane to be statically stable, its centre of gravity must always be
(A) ahead of wing aerodynamic centre (B) aft of the wing aerodynamic centre
Q.17
(C) ahead of neutral point (D) aft of neutral point

It is seen that the drag polar of a certain aerofoil is symmetric about the C
d
axis. This drag polar
could refer to
Q.18
(A) NACA 0012 (B) NACA 4415 (C) NACA 23012 (D) None of the above

AE
AE
The aerodynamic centre of a supersonic aerofoil, with chord c, is located at Q.19
(A) the leading edge (B) 0.25c (C) 0.5c (D) 0.75c

Winglets are used on wings to minimize Q.20
(A) skin friction drag (B) profile drag (C) wave drag (D) induced drag

Consider a potential flow with free stream velocity V
, over a spinning circular cylinder of radius R

and circulation I. The stream function, , where = 0 on the cylinder surface, in cylindrical
coordinates (r,u) is given by
(A)
R
r
r
R
r V ln
2
1 cos
2
2
t
u
I
+
|
|
.
|
\
|
(B)
R
r
r
R
r V ln
2
1 cos
2
2
t
u
I
+
|
|
.
|
\
|
+

Q.21
(C)
R
r
r
R
r V ln
2
1 sin
2
2
t
u
I
+
|
|
.
|
\
|
(D)
R
r
r
R
r V ln
2
1 sin
2
2
t
u
I
+
|
|
.
|
\
|
+

A main objective of by-pass in a turbo-fan engine is to increase
(A) mass flow rate through engine inlet (B) turbine inlet temperature
Q.22
(C) mass flow rate through exhaust nozzle (D) compressor pressure ratio

The pressure ratio in any one stage of a jet engine compressor is limited by
(A) entry stagnation temperature in that stage
(B) entry Mach number in that stage
(C) pressure gradient induced separation in that stage
Q.23
(D) mass flow rate in that stage

Thermodynamic cycle on which the jet engine operates can be Q.24
(A) open Rankine cycle only (B) either open or closed Rankine cycle
(C) open Brayton cycle only (D) either open or closed Brayton cycle

Propulsion efficiency of a jet engine is
(A) directly proportional to both the thrust power and the air mass flow rate
(B) inversely proportional to both the thrust power and the air mass flow rate
(C) directly proportional to the thrust power and inversely proportional to the air mass flow rate
Q.25
(D) inversely proportional to the thrust power and directly proportional to the air mass flow rate

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Questions Q.26 to Q. 30 are numerica l answer type. The answer to each of these questio ns is
either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places.

Consider a cantilever beam having length L=1 m, square cross-section (width = depth = 0.01 m)
and Youngs modulus 50 GPa. The beam is subjected to a transverse load P = 1 N at the mid-span
(L/2) at the center of the cross-section. Under the small deformation theory, the transverse
deflection of the beam (in mm) at its free-end is

Q.26
P
L
L/2
AE

Consider a beam in bending with a solid circular cross-section of 1 mm
2
, which is subjected to a
transverse shear force of 1 N. The shear stress at the center of the cross-section (in N/mm
2
) is

Q.27

A simply supported slender column of square cross section (width=depth=d) has to be designed
such that it buckles at the same instant as it yields. Length of the column is given to be 1.57 m and
it is made of a material whose Youngs modulus is 200 GPa and yield stress is 240 MPa. The
width, d, of the column (in cm) should be
Q.28

A turbojet powered aircraft is flying at Mach number 0.8 at an altitude of 10 km. The inlet and exit
areas of the engine are 0.7 m
2
and 0.4 m
2
respectively. The exhaust gases have velocity of 500 m/s
and pressure of 60 kPa. The free stream pressure, density and speed of sound are 26.5 kPa, 0.413
kg/m
3
and 299.5 m/s respectively. The thrust of the engine (in kN) is
Q.29

A low speed wind tunnel has a contraction ratio of 14:1 and the cross-sectional area of the test
section is 1 m
2
. The static pressure difference between the settling chamber and the test section is
40 cm of water column. Assume , and . The
speed of air in the test section (in m/s) is
2
m/s 81 . 9 = g
3
kg/m 2 . 1 =
air
3
kg/m 1000 =
water
Q.30

Questions Q.31 to Q.55 are multiple choice type.

Consider the function . The Newton-Raphson iteration formula to find the root of
the function starting from an initial guess at iteration k is
) sin( ) ( x x x f =
) 0 (
x
(A)
) (
) ( ) (
) 1 (
cos 1
cos sin
k
k k k
k
x
x x x
x
=
+
(B)
) (
) ( ) (
) 1 (
cos 1
cos sin
k
k k k
k
x
x x x
x
+
=
+

Q.31
(C)
) (
) ( ) (
) 1 (
cos 1
cos sin
k
k k k
k
x
x x x
x
+
=
+
(D)
) (
) ( ) (
) 1 (
cos 1
cos sin
k
k k k
k
x
x x x
x
+
+
=
+

Consider the matrix where a and b are real numbers. The two eigenvalues of this matrix
(
2
2
b
a
1
and
2
are real and distinct ( )
2 1
= when
Q.32
(A) 0 and 0 a b < > < (B) 0 and 0 a b > (C) 0 and 0 a b < < (D) 0 and 0 a b = =

The solution of
3 2 t
dy
y e t
dt
= with initial condition 1 ) 0 ( = y is given by
(A)
2
1
( 3)
9
t
e t +
(B)
2
9
5 2 ( 2 2)
t
e t t + +

Q.33
(C)
2
4
( 2)
t
e
t +

(D)
2
1
5 2 ( 2 2)
t
e t t +

A jet engine is operating at a Mach number of 0.8 at an altitude of 10 km. The efficiency of the air
intake is 0.8 and that of the compressor is 0.87. The total temperatures (in K) at the exits of the air
intake and the compressor respectively are
(Ambient pressure = 26.5 kPa; Ambient temperature = 223.3 K; Gas constant, = 1.4; 8 =
rc
p )
Q.34
(A) 251.9 and 458.2 (B) 234.9 and 486.8 (C) 251.9 and 486.8 (D) 234.9 and 458.2

A rocket engine is tested on a test bed under the ideal condition of fully expanded jet. The exhaust
velocity is 2 km/s through a nozzle of area 2.5 m
2
. The mass flow rate is 200 kg/s. The specific
impulse of the propellant and the thrust developed respectively are (assume g = 9.81 m/s
2
)
(A) 175.87 s and 200 kN (B) 203.87 s and 400 kN
Q.35
(C) 231.87 s and 200 kN (D) 280.87 s and 400 kN

A body undergoes deformation under plane strain conditions when subjected to the following
stresses (in MPa): 0 , 0 , 75 , 450 , 450 = = = = =
yz xz xy yy xx
t t t o o . What are the remaining
components of stresses (in MPa) and strains? Assume the material to be isotropic and linear-elastic
with Youngs modulus E = 200 GPa and Poissons ratio v = 1/3.
(A) 0 , 0 , 002 . 0 , 00225 . 0 , 00225 . 0 , 0 = = = = = =
yz xz xy yy xx zz
c c o
(B) 0 , 0 , 001 . 0 , 001 . 0 , 001 . 0 , 300 = = = = = =
yz xz xy yy xx zz
c c o
(C) 0 , 0 , 001 . 0 , 00225 . 0 , 00225 . 0 , 300 = = = = = =
yz xz xy yy xx zz
c c o
Q.36
(D) 0 , 0 , 002 . 0 , 001 . 0 , 001 . 0 , 0 = = = = = =
yz xz xy yy xx zz
c c o

Which of the following Airys stress functions could satisfy the given boundary conditions,
assuming constant values of o
xx
= P, o
yy
= Q and t
xy
= R, along the boundary?

(A) Rxy
y
Q
x
P + =
2 2
2 2
| (B) Rxy
x
Q
y
P + + =
2 2
2 2
|
Q.37
(C) Rxy
x
Q
y
P + =
2 2
2 2
| (D) Rxy
y
Q
x
P + + =
2 2
2 2
|
y
x

An aircraft is performing a coordinated turn manoeuvre at a bank angle of 30
o
and forward speed of
100 m/s. Assume g = 9.81 ms
-2
. The load factor and turn radius respectively are
(A) (2/\3) and 1.76 km (B) \3 and 17.6 km
Q.38
(C) 2 and 0.18 km (D) (2/\3) and 17.6 km

An aircraft in a steady level flight at forward speed of 50 m/s suddenly rolls by 180
o
and becomes
inverted. If no other changes are made to the configuration or controls of the aircraft, the nature of
the subsequent flight path taken by the aircraft and its characteristic parameter(s) (assume g = 9.81
ms
-2
) are
(A) straight line path with a speed of 50 m/s
(B) upward circular path with a speed of 50 m/s and radius of 127.4 m
(C) downward circular path with a speed of 50 m/s and radius of 127.4 m/s
Q.39
(D) downward circular path with a speed of 25 m/s and radius of 254.8 m/s
AE

An aircraft with a mass of 5000 kg takes off from sea level with a forward speed of 50 m/s and
starts to climb with a climb angle of 15
o
. The rate of climb and excess thrust available at the start of
the climb respectively (assume g = 9.81 ms
-2
) are
(A) 13.40 m/s and 13146.0 N (B) 12.94 m/s and 12694.1 N
Q.40
(C) 13.40 m/s and 12694.1 N (D) 12.94 m/s and 13146.0 N

A glider having a mass of 500 kg is taken to an altitude of 1000 m with a jeep moving on ground at
54 kmph. Upon reaching the required altitude in 50 s, the glider is released and starts its descent.
Under the assumption of equilibrium glide, the range and endurance of the glider for a constant lift-
to-drag ratio of 15 are
(A) 15.0 km and 1002.2 s respectively (B) 15.0 km and 601.3 s respectively
Q.41
(C) 1.0 km and 601.3 s respectively (D) 1.0 km and 50 s respectively

An elliptic orbit has its perigee at 400 km above the Earths surface and apogee at 3400 km above
the Earths surface. For this orbit, the eccentricity and semi-major axis respectively are (assume
radius of Earth = 6400 km)
(A) 0.18 and 8300 km (B) 0.18 and 1900 km
Q.42
(C) 0.22 and 8300 km (D) 0.22 and 1900 km

An aircraft in level flight encounters a vertical gust, which excites the phugoid mode. The phugoid
motion completes 10 cycles in 50 s and its amplitude reduces to half of its maximum value in 25 s.
The eigenvalues of the phugoid mode are
Q.43
(A) 0.05 0.02i (B) 0.5 0.2i (C) 0.028 1.26i (D) 0.028 1.26i

Consider the inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream conditions, M
1
= 2, p
1
= 1 atm and T
1
=
288 K around a sharp expansion corner ( = 20) as shown below. The Prandtl-Meyer function, ,
is given as a function of Mach number, M, as
1 M tan ) 1 M (
1
1
tan
1
1
) M (
2 1 2 1

+
+
=

v

Assume air to be calorically perfect with = 1.4. The Mach number, M
2
, downstream of the
expansion corner is approximately

Q.44
(A) 2.00 (B) 1.76 (C) 2.83 (D) 3.14
M
1,
p
1,
T
1

u
M
2

Consider a steady two dimensional zero-pressure gradient laminar flow of air over a flat plate as
shown below. The free stream conditions are U
= 100 ms
-1
,
= 1.2 kg m
-3
, p
= 1 atm and
kg m
-1
s
-1
. The ratio of displacement thickness to momentum thickness of the
boundary layer at a distance of 2 m from the leading edge is
5
10 8 . 1

=

Q.45
(A) 7.53 (B) 2.59 (C) 2.91 (D) 0.39
Boundary layer
U

2m

AE
AE
In the context of Prandtls lifting line theory for a finite wing, which of the following combinations
of statements is TRUE?
P: The bound vortex is responsible for the lift force
Q: The trailing vortices are responsible for the induced drag
R: The bound vortex is responsible for the induced drag
S: The trailing vortices are responsible for the lift force
Q.46
(A) P,Q (B) Q,R (C) R,S (D) P,S

Consider flow over a thin aerofoil at Mach number, M
= 0.5 at an angle of attack, o. Using the

Prandtl-Glauert rule for compressibility correction, the formula for lift coefficient, c
l
, can be written
as
Q.47
(A) 5.44o (B) 6.28o (C) 7.26o (D) 14.52o

Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

The partial differential equation (PDE) governing free vibrations of a uniform Euler-Bernoulli beam is
given by 0
2
2
4
4
=
c
c
+
c
c
t
w
m
x
w
EI , where EI is the flexural stiffness, is the mass per unit length,
is the bending displacement,
m
) , ( t x w x is the coordinate along the beam length, t is time and is the beam
length.
L

To solve the PDE, the number of boundary conditions (BC) and initial conditions (IC) needed are Q.48
(A) 4 BC, 3 IC (B) 2 BC, 2 IC (C) 2 BC, 4 IC (D) 4 BC, 2 IC

For the cantilever beam shown in the figure, which of the following CANNOT be a possible
boundary condition?
Q.49

(A) 0 ) , 0 ( = t w
(B) 0 ) , (
2
2
=
c
c
t L
x
w
(C) 0 ) , 0 (
2
2
=
c
c
t
x
w
(D) 0 ) , (
3
3
=
c
c
t L
x
w


Consider an inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream Mach Number, M
= 2, across a compression
corner ( = 20) as shown. The free stream total enthalpy is h
0
= 810 kJ kg
-1
. Assume that air is calorically
perfect with = 1.4, R = 287 J kg
-1
K
-1
.

The shock angle is

Q.50
(A) = 20 (B) > 20 and < 30 (C) = 30 (D) > 30

The total temperature at point P is Q.51
(A) 806.37 K (B) 1128.92 K (C) 1612.74 K (D) 2257.84 K
x
0 = x L x =
L
u
|
P
1m
M


Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

A thin-walled (thickness << radius), hollow shaft of length 1m and mean radius, R = 5 cm has to be
designed such that it can transmit a torque, T = 7 kN-m. A survey of different commercially available
materials was made and following data was obtained from the suppliers (E: Youngs modulus, t
y
: yield
stress in shear, : density):
Material E (GPa) t
y
(MPa) (kg/m
3
)
X 200 550 7700
Y 70 225 2700
Z 110 375 4875
Which of the above materials would you choose such that weight of the shaft is minimum?

Q.52
(A) X only (B) Y only (C) Z only (D) X or Y

If you assume a factor of safety of 2, what should be the approximate thickness of such a shaft? Q.53
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 1 mm (C) 2 mm (D) 4 mm


Prandtls lifting line equation for a general wing is given by
( )
( )
( )
( )
( )
dy
y y
y
U
y
y c U
y
y
b
b
L
}

c I c
+ +
I
=
2
2
0
0 0
0
0
0
/
4
1
t
o
t
o , where U is the free-stream velocity, o is the
angle of attack, is the spanwise location,
0
y ( )
0 0
y
L=
o gives the spanwise variation of zero-lift angle, c is
the chord, b is the span, and gives the spanwise variation of circulation. ( )
0
y I

The rate of change of circulation with angle of attack
o
o
c
I c
= I is
(A) inversely proportional to o (B) independent of o
Q.54
(C) a linear function of o (D) a quadratic function of o

Given that ( )dy y C
b
b
L
}
I
2
2
, the corresponding lift curve-slope
o c
c
L
C
is
(A) independent of o (B) a linear function of o
Q.55
(C) a quadratic function of o (D) a cubic function of o

AE

General Aptitude (GA) Questions
Q.56 Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given
word:
Deference
(A) aversion
(B) resignation
(C) suspicion
(D) contempt

Q.57 Choose the most appropriate word(s) from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
We lost confidence in him because he never __________ the grandiose promises he had made.
(A) delivered
(B) delivered on
(C) forgot
(D) reneged on

Q.58 Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence below.
______________ in the frozen wastes of Arctic takes special equipment.
(A) To survive
(B) Surviving
(C) Survival
(D) That survival

In how many ways 3 scholarships can be awarded to 4 applicants, when each applicant can receive
any number of scholarships?
Q.59
(A) 4 (B) 12 (C) 64 (D) 81

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
The _________ of eviden ce was on the side of the plaintiff since all but one witness testified
that his story was correct.
(A) paucity
(B) propensity
(C) preponderance
Q.60
(D) accuracy

If (2y+1)/(y+2) < 1, then which of the following alternatives gives the CORRECT range of y?
Q.61
(A) - 2 < y < 2 (B) - 2 < y < 1 (C) - 3 < y < 1 (D) - 4 < y < 1

A student attempted to solve a quadratic equation in x twice. However, in the first attempt, he
incorrectly wrote the constant term and ended up with the roots as (4, 3). In the second attempt, he
incorrectly wrote down the coefficient of x and got the roots as (3, 2). Based on the above
information, the roots of the correct quadratic equation are
Q.62
(A) (-3, 4) (B) (3, -4) (C) (6, 1) (D) (4, 2)
AE

L, M and N are waiting in a queue meant for children to enter the zoo. There are 5 children between
L and M, and 8 children between M and N. If there are 3 children ahead of N and 21 children
behind L, then what is the minimum number of children in the queue?
Q.63
(A) 28 (B) 27 (C) 41 (D) 40

Q.64 Four archers P, Q, R and S try to hit a bulls eye during a tournament consisting of seven rounds.
As illustrated in the figure below, a player receives 10 points for hitting the bulls eye, 5 points for
hitting within the inner circle and 1 point for hitting within the outer circle.

AE

Outer circle
1 point
Inner circle
5 points
Bulls eye
10 points

The final scores received by the players during the tournament are listed in the table below.

Round P Q R S
1 5 1 10 1
5 10 10 1 2
1 1 1 5 3
10 10 1 1 4
1 5 5 10 5
10 5 1 1 6
5 10 1 1 7

The most accurate and the most consistent players during the tournament are respectively
(A) P and S (B) Q and R (C) Q and Q (D) R and Q

Nimbus clouds are dark and ragged, stratus clouds appear dull in colour and cover the entire
sky. Cirrus clouds are thin and delicate, whereas cumulus clouds look like cotton balls.
Q.65

It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) A cumulus cloud on the ground is called fog
(B) It is easy to predict the weather by studying clouds
(C) Clouds are generally of very different shapes, sizes and mass
(D) There are four basic cloud types: stratus, nimbus, cumulus and cirrus

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

www.gateing.com

Official GATE key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D A B C C D
Marks
to All
A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B A B B D C A C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A/C C C C
2.45-
2.55
1.3-1.35
5.95-
6.05
29-32 80-82
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A C D C B B C A C B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Marks
to All
A C C B A C D C D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A B D B A D B A C C
61 62 63 64 65
B C A B D

GATE 2012 Online Examination
AE : AEROSPACE ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only
one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated
and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.

2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the
symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view
all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the
examination.

3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the
correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on
another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button
next to the selected option.

4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours.

5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 Q.30, all the other
questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a
numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

6. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

7. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 Q.30. For all 1
mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark
will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair,
there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for
wrong answer to the second question.

9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the
rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination.
________________________________________________________________________________________

DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet.
Registration Number
AE

Name
Signature

Verified that the above entries are correct.
Invigilators signature:

AE 2/12

Q.1 The constraint A
2
=A on any square matrix A is satisfied for
(A) the identity matrix only. (B) the null matrix only.
(C) both the identity matrix and the null matrix. (D) no square matrix A.

Q.2
The general solution of the differential equation
2
2
2 0
d y dy
y
dt dt
+ = is
(A)
2 t t
Ae Be
+ (B)
2t t
Ae Be

+ (C)
2t t
Ae Be
+ (D)
2 t t
Ae Be +

Q.3 An aircraft in trimmed condition has zero pitching moment at
(A) its aerodynamic centre. (B) its centre of gravity.
(C) 25% of its mean aerodynamic chord. (D) 50% of its wing root chord.

Q.4 In an aircraft, constant roll rate can be produced using ailerons by applying
(A) a step input. (B) a ramp input.
(C) a sinusoidal input. (D) an impulse input.

Q.5 For a symmetric airfoil, the lift coefficient for zero degree angle of attack is
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.0 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.0

Q.6 The critical Mach number of an airfoil is attained when
(A) the freestream Mach number is sonic.
(B) the freestream Mach number is supersonic.
(C) the Mach number somewhere on the airfoil is unity.
(D) the Mach number everywhere on the airfoil is supersonic.

Q.7 The shadowgraph flow visualization technique depends on
(A) the variation of the value of density in the flow.
(B) the first derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
(C) the second derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
(D) the third derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.

Q.8 The Hohmann ellipse used as earth-Mars transfer orbit has
(A) apogee at earth and perigee at Mars. (B) both apogee and perigee at earth.
(C) apogee at Mars and perigee at earth. (D) both apogee and perigee at Mars.

Q.9 The governing equation for the static transverse deflection of a beam under an uniformly distributed
load, according to Euler-Bernoulli (engineering) beam theory, is a
(A) 2
nd
order linear homogenous partial differential equation.
(B) 4
th
order linear non-homogenous ordinary differential equation.
(C) 2
nd
order linear non-homogenous ordinary differential equation.
(D) 4
th
order nonlinear homogenous ordinary differential equation.

Q.10 The Poissons ratio, of most aircraft grade metallic alloys has values in the range:
(A) 1 0 (B) 0 0.2 (C) 0.2 0.4 (D) 0.4 0.5

AE 3/12

Q.11 The value of k for which the system of equations 2 1; 2 8 3 x y kz x ky z + + = + + = has no
solution is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

Q.12
If ( ) u t is a unit step function, the solution of the differential equation
2
2
( )
d x
m kx u t
dt
+ = in
Laplace domain is
(A)
2
1
( ) s ms k +
(B)
2
1
ms k +
(C)
2
s
ms k +
(D)
2 2
1
( ) s ms k +

Q.13
The general solution of the differential equation 2 0
dy
y
dx
= is
(A) 0 y x C + =
(B) 0 y x C + = (C) 0 y x C + = (D) 0 y x C + =

Q.14 During the ground roll manoeuvre of an aircraft, the force(s) acting on it parallel to the direction of
motion
(A) is thrust alone. (B) is drag alone.
(C) are both thrust and drag. (D) are thrust, drag and a part of both weight and lift.

Q.15 An aircraft in a steady climb suddenly experiences a 10% drop in thrust. After a new equilibrium is
reached at the same speed, the new rate of climb is
(A) lower by exactly 10%. (B) lower by more than 10%.
(C) lower by less than 10%. (D) an unpredictable quantity.

Q.16 In an aircraft, the dive manoeuvre can be initiated by
(A) reducing the engine thrust alone. (B) reducing the angle of attack alone.
(C) generating a nose down pitch rate. (D) increasing the engine thrust alone.

Q.17 In an aircraft, elevator control effectiveness determines
(A) turn radius.
(B) rate of climb.
(C) forward-most location of the centre of gravity.
(D) aft-most location of the centre of gravity.

Q.18 The Mach angle for a flow at Mach 2.0 is
(A) 30
o
(B) 45
o
(C) 60
o
(D) 90
o

Q.19 For a wing of aspect ratio AR, having an elliptical lift distribution, the induced drag coefficient is
(where C
L
is the lift coefficient)
(A)
L
C
AR

(B)
2
L
C
AR

(C)
2
L
C
AR

(D)
2
2
L
C
AR

Q.20 Bernoullis equation is valid under steady state
(A) only along a streamline in inviscid flow, and between any two points in potential flow.
(B) between any two points in both inviscid flow and potential flow.
(C) between any two points in inviscid flow, and only along a streamline in potential flow.
(D) only along a streamline in both inviscid flow and potential flow.
AE 4/12

Q.21 The ratio of flight speed to the exhaust velocity for maximum propulsion efficiency is
(A) 0.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

Q.22 The ideal static pressure coefficient of a diffuser with an area ratio of 2.0 is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.0

Q.23 A rocket is to be launched from the bottom of a very deep crater on Mars for earth return. The
specific impulse of the rocket, measured in seconds, is to be normalized by the acceleration due to
gravity at
(A) the bottom of the crater on Mars. (B) Mars standard sea level.
(C) earths standard sea level. (D) the same depth of the crater on earth.

Q.24 In a semi-monocoque construction of an aircraft wing, the skin and spar webs are the primary
carriers of
(A) shear stresses due to an aerodynamic moment component alone.
(B) normal (bending) stresses due to aerodynamic forces.
(C) shear stresses due to aerodynamic forces alone.
(D) shear stresses due to aerodynamic forces and a moment component.

Q.25 The logarithmic decrement measured for a viscously damped single degree of freedom system is
0.125. The value of the damping factor in % is closest to
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.0

Questions Q.26 to Q.30 are numerical answer type. The answer to each of these questions is
either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places.

Q.26
The integration
1
3
0
x dx
computed using trapezoidal rule with 4 n = intervals is ____.

Q.27 An aircraft has a steady rate of climb of 300 m/s at sea level and 150 m/s at 2500 m altitude. The
time taken (in sec) for this aircraft to climb from 500 m altitude to 3000 m altitude is ____.

Q.28 An airfoil generates a lift of 80 N when operating in a freestream flow of 60 m/s. If the ambient
pressure and temperature are 100 kPa and 290 K respectively (specific gas constant is 287 J /kg-K),
the circulation on the airfoil in m
2
/s is ____.

Q.29 A rocket motor has combustion chamber temperature of 2600 K and the products have molecular
weight of 25 g/mol and ratio of specific heats 1.2. The universal gas constant is 8314 J /kg-mole-K.
The value of theoretical c* (in m/s) is ____.

Q.30
The mode shapes of an un-damped two degrees of freedom system are { } 1 0.5
T
and
{ } 1 0.675
T
. The corresponding natural frequencies are 0.45 Hz and 1.2471 Hz. The maximum
amplitude (in mm) of vibration of the first degree of freedom due to an initial displacement of
{ } 2 1
T
(in mm) and zero initial velocities is ____.
AE 5/12

Questions Q.31 to Q.55 are multiple choice type.

Q.31 The n
th
derivative of the function
1
3
y
x
=
+
is
(A)
1
( 1) !
( 3)
n
n
n
x
+
+
(B)
1
1
( 1) !
( 3)
n
n
n
x
+
+
+
(C)
( 1) ( 1)!
( 3)
n
n
n
x
+
+
(D)
( 1) !
( 3)
n
n
n
x
+

Q.32 The volume of a solid generated by rotating the region between semi-circle
2
1 1 y x = and
straight line y =1, about x axis, is
(A)
2
4
3
(B)
2
1
4
3
(C)
2
3
4
(D)
2
3
4

Q.33
One eigenvalue of the matrix
2 7 10
5 2 25
1 6 5
A

=

is 9.33. One of the other eigenvalues is
(A) 18.33 (B) 18.33 (C) 18.339.33i (D) 18.33+9.33i

Q.34 If an aircraft takes off with 10% less fuel in comparison to its standard configuration, its range is
(A) lower by exactly 10%. (B) lower by more than 10%.
(C) lower by less than 10%. (D) an unpredictable quantity.

Q.35 An aircraft has an approach speed of 144 kmph with a descent angle of 6.6
o
. If the aircraft load
factor is 1.2 and constant deceleration at touch down is 0.25g (g =9.81 m/s
2
), its total landing
distance approximately over a 15 m high obstacle is
(A) 1830 m. (B) 1380 m. (C) 830 m. (D) 380 m.

Q.36 An aircraft is trimmed straight and level at true air speed (TAS) of 100 m/s at standard sea level
(SSL). Further, pull of 5 N holds the speed at 90 m/s without re-trimming at SSL (air density =1.22
kg/m
3
). To fly at 3000 m altitude (air density =0.91 kg/m
3
) and 120 m/s TAS without re-trimming,
the aircraft needs
(A) 1.95 N upward force. (B) 1.95 N downward force.
(C) 1.85 N upward force. (D) 1.75 N downward force.

Q.37 An oblique shock wave with a wave angle is generated from a wedge angle of . The ratio of the
Mach number downstream of the shock to its normal component is
(A) sin() (B) cos() (C) sin() (D) cos()

Q.38 In a closed-circuit supersonic wind tunnel, the convergent-divergent (C-D) nozzle and test section
are followed by a C-D diffuser to swallow the starting shock. Here, we should have the
(A) diffuser throat larger than the nozzle throat and the shock located just at the diffuser throat.
(B) diffuser throat larger than the nozzle throat and the shock located downstream of the diffuser
throat.
(C) diffuser throat of the same size as the nozzle throat and the shock located just at the diffuser
throat.
(D) diffuser throat of the same size as the nozzle throat and the shock located downstream of the
diffuser throat.
AE 6/12
Q.39 A vortex flowmeter works on the principle that the Strouhal number of 0.2 is a constant over a wide
range of flow rates. If the bluff-body diameter in the flowmeter is 20 mm and the piezo-electric
transducer registers the vortex shedding frequency to be 10 Hz, then the velocity of the flow would
be measured as
(A) 0.1 m/s (B) 1 m/s (C) 10 m/s (D) 100 m/s

Q.40 The stagnation temperatures at the inlet and exit of a combustion chamber are 600 K and 1200 K,
respectively. If the heating value of the fuel is 44 MJ /kg and specific heat at constant pressure for
air and hot gases are 1.005 kJ /kg.K and 1.147 kJ /kg.K respectively, the fuel-to-air ratio is
(A) 0.0018 (B) 0.018 (C) 0.18 (D) 1.18

Q.41 A solid propellant of density 1800 kg/m
3
has a burning rate law r =6.65 x 10
-3
p
0.45
mm/s, where p
is pressure in Pascals. It is used in a rocket motor with a tubular grain with an initial burning area
of 0.314 m
2
. The characteristic velocity is 1450 m/s. What should be the nozzle throat diameter to
achieve an equilibrium chamber pressure of 50 bar at the end of the ignition transient?
(A) 35 mm (B) 38 mm (C) 41 mm (D) 45 mm

Q.42 A bipropellant liquid rocket motor operates at a chamber pressure of 40 bar with a nozzle throat
diameter of 50 mm. The characteristic velocity is 1540 m/s. If the fuel-oxidizer ratio of the
propellant is 1.8, and the fuel density is 900 kg/m
3
, what should be the minimum fuel tank volume
for a burn time of 8 minutes
(A) 1.65 m
3
(B) 1.75 m
3
(C) 1.85 m
3
(D) 1.95 m
3

Q.43 The propellant in a single stage sounding rocket occupies 60% of its initial mass. If all of it is
expended instantaneously at an equivalent exhaust velocity of 3000 m/s, what would be the altitude
attained by the payload when launched vertically?
[Neglect drag and assume acceleration due to gravity to be constant at 9.81 m/s
2
.]
(A) 315 km (B) 335 km (C) 365 km (D) 385 km

Q.44
The Airy stress function,
2 2
x xy y = + +

for a thin square panel of size l l automatically
satisfies compatibility. If the panel is subjected to uniform tensile stress,
o

on all four edges, the
traction boundary conditions are satisfied by
(A) / 2; 0; / 2.
o o
= = = (B) ; 0; .
o o
= = =
(C) 0; / 4; 0.
o
= = = (D) 0; / 2; 0.
o
= = =

Q.45 The boundary condition of a rod under longitudinal vibration is changed from fixed-fixed to fixed-
free. The fundamental natural frequency of the rod is now k times the original frequency, where k is
(A)
1
2
(B) 2
(C)
1
2

(D) 2

Q.46 A spring-mass system is viscously damped with a viscous damping constant c. The energy
dissipated per cycle when the system is undergoing a harmonic vibration X
d
Cos t is given by
(A)
2
d
c X (B)
2
d
X (C)
d
c X (D)
2
d
c X

Q.47 Buckling of the fuselage skin can be delayed by
(A) increasing internal pressure.
(B) placing stiffeners farther apart.
(C) reducing skin thickness.
(D) placing stiffeners farther and decreasing internal pressure.
AE 7/12
A wing and tail are geometrically similar, while tail area is one-third of the wing area and distance between
two aerodynamic centres is equal to wing semi-span (b/2). In addition, following data is applicable:
0.3, 1.0, 0.08/deg., 2.5 , 30 , 0, 1.
ac
L L M t
C C c m b m C
= = = = = = = The symbols have their usual

aerodynamic interpretation.
Q.48 The maximum distance that the centre of gravity can be behind aerodynamic centre without
destabilizing the wing-tail combination is

(A) 0.4 m (B) 1.4 m (C) 2.4 m (D) 3.4 m

Q.49 The angle of incidence of tail to trim the wing-tail combination for a 5% static margin is
(A) 1.4
o
(B) 0.4
o
(C) 0.4
o
(D) 1.4
o

A thin long circular pipe of 10 mm diameter has porous walls and spins at 60 rpm about its own axis. Fluid
is pumped out of the pipe such that it emerges radially relative to the pipe surface at a velocity of 1 m/s.
[Neglect the effect of gravity.]
Q.50 What is the radial component of the fluids velocity at a radial location 0.5 m from the pipe axis?

(A) 0.01 m/s (B) 0.1 m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) 10 m/s

Q.51 What is the tangential component of the fluids velocity at the same radial location as above?
(A) 0.01 m/s (B) 0.03 m/s (C) 0.10 m/s (D) 0.31 m/s
Air at a stagnation temperature of 15
o
C and stagnation pressure 100 kPa enters an axial compressor with an
absolute velocity of 120 m/s. Inlet guide vanes direct this absolute velocity to the rotor inlet at an angle of
18
o
to the axial direction. The rotor turning angle is 27
o
and the mean blade speed is 200 m/s. The axial
velocity is assumed constant through the stage.
Q.52 The blade angle at the inlet of the rotor is

(A) 25.5
o
(B) 38.5
o
(C) 48.5
o
(D) 59.5
o

Q.53 If the mass flow rate is 1 kg/s, the power required to drive the compressor is
(A) 50.5 kW (B) 40.5 kW (C) 30.5 kW (D) 20.5 kW

A thin-walled spherical vessel (1 m inner diameter and 10 mm wall thickness) is made of a material with
500MPa
Y
= in both tension and compression.
Q.54
The internal pressure
Y
p at yield, based on the von Mises yield criterion, if the vessel is floating in
space, is approximately
(A) 500MPa (B) 250MPa (C) 100MPa (D) 20MPa

Q.55 If the vessel is evacuated (internal pressure =0) and subjected to external pressure, yielding
according to the von Mises yield criterion (assuming elastic stability until yield)
(A) occurs at about half the pressure
Y
p . (B) occurs at about double the pressure
Y
p .
(C) occurs at about the same pressure
Y
p .
(D) never occurs.
2012 GENERAL APTITUDE - GA_AN_Online
Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

I ___ to have bought a diamond ring.
(A) have a liking (B) should have liked
Q.56
(C) would like (D) may like

sentence:

Food prices ___ again this month.
(A) have raised (B) have been raising
Q.57
(C) have been rising (D) have arose

sentence:

The administrators went on to implement yet another unreasonable measure, arguing that
the measures were already ___ and one more would hardly make a difference.
Q.58
(A) reflective (B) utopian (C) luxuriant (D) unpopular

sentence:

To those of us who had always thought him timid, his ___ came as a surprise.

Q.59
(A) intrepidity (B) inevitability (C) inability (D) inertness

The arithmetic mean of five different natural numbers is 12. The largest possible value among the
numbers is
Q.60
(A) 12 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 60

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.
Two policemen, A and B, fire once each at the same time at an escaping convict. The probability
that A hits the convict is three times the probability that B hits the convict. If the probability of the
convict not getting injured is 0.5, the probability that B hits the convict is
Q.61
(A) 0.14 (B) 0.22 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.40

GA_AN_Online 1/2
2012 GENERAL APTITUDE - GA_AN_Online
GA_AN_Online 2/2
The total runs scored by four cricketers P, Q, R, and S in years 2009 and 2010 are given in the
following table:
Player 2009 2010
P 802 1008
Q 765 912
R 429 619
S 501 701

The player with the lowest percentage increase in total runs is
Q.62
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

If a prime number on division by 4 gives a remainder of 1, then that number can be expressed as
(A) sum of squares of two natural numbers
(B) sum of cubes of two natural numbers
(C) sum of square roots of two natural numbers
Q.63
(D) sum of cube roots of two natural numbers

Two points (4, p) and (0, q) lie on a straight line having a slope of 3/4. The value of (p q) is Q.64
(A) -3 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 4

In the early nineteenth century, theories of social evolution were inspired less by Biology than
by the conviction of social scientists that there was a growing improvement in social
institutions. Progress was taken for granted and social scientists attempted to discover its
laws and phases.

Which one of the following inferences may be drawn with the greatest accuracy from the above
passage?

Social scientists
(A) did not question that progress was a fact.
(B) did not approve of Biology.
(C) framed the laws of progress.
Q.65
(D) emphasized Biology over Social Sciences.


www.gateing.com

Official GATE key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C B D B C C C B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A D D B C C A B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C
Marks
to All
C D D
0.26 -
0.27
13-14 1.1-1.2
1430 -
1440
2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A A A B
Marks
to All
B A B B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B B D A A A A B A A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Marks
to All
Marks
to All
Marks
to All
D C C C D A C
61 62 63 64 65
A B A C A

What gateing says is correct
26 27 28 29 34 35 51 52 53
0.2656 13.52 1.11 1433.8 C 502m 0.0314 55 D

AE 1/19
AE:AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100

Please read the following instructions carefully:

General Instructions:

1. Total duration of examination is 180 minutes (3 hours).

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display
the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the
examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.

3. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using
one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the
question for review.

You have answered the question, but marked it for review.

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that
question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question
will be considered in the evaluation.

Navigating to a Question

4. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question. Use the virtual numeric keypad to enter
a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save and Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next
question.
d. Click on Mark for Review and Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it
for review, and then go to the next question.
e. Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you
navigate to another question directly by clicking on its question number.

5. You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. Note that the options for
multiple choice type questions will not be shown.

AE 2/19
Answering a Question

6. Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:
a. To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the
Clear Response button
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Next button
e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Nextbutton. If an
answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered
in the evaluation.

7. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:
a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad
b. A fraction (eg.,-0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without 0 before the decimal
point
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Nextbutton
e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Nextbutton. If an
answer is entered for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered
in the evaluation.

8. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for
answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

9. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after answering will be
considered for evaluation.

AE 3/19
Paper specific instructions:

1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or
numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with
only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices
will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

2. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

3. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2marks each.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.

5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

AE 4/19
Q.1
The directional derivative of the function
2 2
( , )
5
x xy
f x y
+
= in the direction

2 4 i j a =
at
( , ) (1,1) x y =

is

(A)
1
5
(B)
2
5

(C) 0
(D)
1
5

Q.2
The value of
5
2
4
2
4 21
x
dx
x x
+
+
}
is
(A) ln 24 11 (B) ln 12 11 (C) ln 2 (D) ( ) ln 12 11

Q.3
At 0 x = , the function y x =

is
(A) continuous but not differentiable
(B) continuous and differentiable
(C) not continuous but differentiable
(D) not continuous and not differentiable

Q.4 One of the eigenvectors of the matrix

1 1 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
A
| |
|
=
|
|
\ .
is
1
1
1
v
(
(
=
(
(

.

The corresponding eigenvalue is ____________

Q.5 Which one of the following is the most stable configuration of an airplane in roll?
(A) Sweep back, anhedral and low wing
(B) Sweep forward, dihedral and low wing
(C) Sweep forward, anhedral and high wing
(D) Sweep back, dihedral and high wing

AE 5/19
Q.6 Which one of the following flight instruments is used on an aircraft to determine its attitude in
flight?

(A) Vertical speed indicator
(B) Altimeter
(C) Artificial Horizon
(D) Turn-bank indicator

Q.7 A supersonic airplane is expected to fly at both subsonic and supersonic speeds during its whole
flight course. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Airplane will experience less stability in pitch at supersonic speeds than at subsonic speeds
(B) Airplane will feel no change in pitch stability
(C) Airplane will experience more stability in pitch at supersonic speeds than at subsonic speeds
(D) Pitch stability cannot be inferred from the information given

Q.8 Which one of the following is favorable for an airplane operation?
(A) Tail wind in cruise and head wind in landing
(B) Tail wind both in cruise and landing
(C) Head wind both in cruise and landing
(D) Head wind in cruise and tail wind in landing

Q.9 Which one of the following is TRUE with respect to Phugoid mode of an aircraft?
(A) Frequency is directly proportional to flight speed
(B) Frequency is inversely proportional to flight speed
(C) Frequency is directly proportional to the square root of flight speed
(D) Frequency is inversely proportional to the square root of flight speed

Q.10 The x and y velocity components of a two dimensional flow field are,
2 2 2 2
,
y x
cx
v
y x
cy
u
+
=
+
= , where c is a constant. The streamlines are a family of

(A) hyperbolas (B) parabolas (C) ellipses (D) circles

AE 6/19
Q.11 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a supersonic flow?

(A) Over a gradual expansion, entropy remains constant
(B) Over a sharp expansion corner, entropy can increase
(C) Over a gradual compression, entropy can remain constant
(D) Over a sharp compression corner, entropy increases

Q.12 Consider a compressible flow where an elemental volume of the fluid is o0 , moving with velocity
V
. Which one of the following expressions is TRUE?

(A)
1 D
V
Dt
o0
o0
V =

(B)
1
( )
D
V
Dt
o0
o0
V V =

(C)
1 DV D
Dt Dt
o0
o0
V =

(D)
1
( )
D
V V
Dt
o0
o0
V =

Q.13 Consider a thin flat plate airfoil at a small angle o to an oncoming supersonic stream of air.
Assuming the flow to be inviscid,
2
d
l
C
C
is
(A) zero
(B) independent of o
(C) proportional to o
(D) proportional to
2
o

Q.14 The critical Mach number for a flat plate of zero thickness, at zero angle of attack, is _________

Q.15 A damped single degree-of-freedom system is vibrating under a harmonic excitation with an
amplitude ratio of 2.5 at resonance. The damping ratio of the system is ______________

AE 7/19
Q.16 The cross-section of a long thin-walled member is as shown in the figure. When subjected to pure
twist, point A

(A) does not move horizontally or axially, but moves vertically
(B) does not move axially, but moves both vertically and horizontally
(C) does not move horizontally, vertically or axially
(D) does not move vertically or axially, but moves horizontally

Q.17 The channel section of uniform thickness 2mm shown in the figure is subjected to a torque of
10 Nm. If it is made of a material with shear modulus of 25 GPa, the twist per unit length in
radians/m is _________

300mm
600mm
300mm
A
AE 8/19
Q.18 The stiffened cross-section of a long slender uniform structural member is idealized as shown in the
figure below. The lumped areas at A, B, C and D have equal cross-sectional area of 3 cm
2
. The
webs AB, BC, CD and DA are each 5 mm thick. The structural member is subjected to a twisting
moment of 10 kNm. The magnitudes of the shear flow in the webs, q
AB
, q
BC
, q
CD
, and q
DA
in kN/m
are, respectively

(A) 20, 20, 20, 20
(B) 0, 0, 50, 50
(C) 40, 40, 0, 0
(D) 50, 50, 50, 50

Q.19 Consider two engines P and Q. In P, the high pressure turbine blades are cooled with a bleed of 5%
from the compressor after the compression process and in Q the turbine blades are not cooled.
Comparing engine P with engine Q, which one of the following is NOT TRUE?

(A) Turbine inlet temperature is higher for engine P
(B) Specific thrust is higher for engine P
(C) Compressor work is the same for both P and Q
(D) Fuel flow rate is lower for engine P

Q.20 The mass flow rate of air through an aircraft engine is 10 kg/s. The compressor outlet temperature
is 400 K and the turbine inlet temperature is 1800 K. The heating value of the fuel is 42 MJ/kg and
the specific heat at constant pressure is 1 kJ/kg-K. The mass flow rate of the fuel in kg/s is
approximately ___________

Q.21 For a given inlet condition, if the turbine inlet temperature is fixed, what value of compressor
efficiency given below leads to the lowest amount of fuel added in the combustor of a gas turbine
engine?

(A) 1 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.85 (D) 0.8

A
B
C
D
200mm
500mm
AE 9/19
Q.22 A gas turbine engine is mounted on an aircraft which can attain a maximum altitude of 11 km from
sea level. The combustor volume of this engine is decided based on conditions at

(A) sea level (B) 8 km altitude (C) 5.5 km altitude (D) 11 km altitude

Q.23 Consider the low earth orbit (LEO) and the geo synchronous orbit (GSO). Then
(A) V A requirement for launch to LEO is greater than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
lower than that of GSO
(B) V A requirement for launch to LEO is lower than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
lower than that of GSO
(C) V A requirement for launch to LEO is greater than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
greater than that of GSO
(D) V A requirement for launch to LEO is lower than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
greater than that of GSO

Q.24 Which one of the following shows the CORRECT variation of stagnation temperature along the
axis of an ideal ram jet engine?

(A)

(B)

(C) (D)

Q.25 A rocket motor has a chamber pressure of 100 bar and chamber temperature of 3000 K. The
ambient pressure is 1 bar. Assume that the specific heat at constant pressure is 1 kJ/kg-K. Also
assume that the flow in the nozzle is isentropic and optimally expanded. The exit static temperature
in K is

(A) 805 (B) 845 (C) 905 (D) 945

AE 10/19

Q.26
Let
2 2 2

( ) ( )
S
I y zi z xj x yk xi yj zk dS = + + + +
}}
, where S denotes the surface of the sphere of unit
radius centered at the origin. Here

, and i j k denote three orthogonal unit vectors. The value of I is
____________

Q.27
Given that the Laplace transform, L
1
( )
at
e
s a
=
then L
( )
5
3 sinh5
t
e t =
(A)
2
3
10
s
s s
(B)
2
15
10 s s
(C)
2
3
10
s
s s +
(D)
2
15
10 s s +

Q.28 Values of a, b and c, which render the matrix

1 1
3 2
1
0
3
1 1
3 2
a
Q b
c
(
(
(
(
=
(
(
(
(

orthonormal are, respectively
(A)
1 1
, , 0
2 2

(B)
1 2 1
, - ,
6 6 6

(C)
1 1 1
, ,
3 3 3

(D)
1 2 1
, , -
6 6 6

Q.29
A function y(t) satisfies the differential equation
2
2
2 0
d y dy
y
dt dt
+ = and is subject to the initial
conditions ( 0) 0 y t = = and ( 0) 1
dy
t
dt
= = . The value of ( 1) y t = is

(A) e (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) -1

AE 11/19
Q.30 A glider is launched from a 500m high hilltop. Following data is available for the glider: Zero lift
drag coefficient
0
0.02
D
C = , aspect ratio 10 AR = and Oswald efficiency factor e = 0.95. The
maximum range of the glider in km is _________

Q.31 Which one of the following criteria leads to maximum turn rate and minimum radius in a level turn
flight?
(A) Highest possible load factor and highest possible velocity
(B) Lowest possible load factor and lowest possible velocity
(C) Highest possible load factor and lowest possible velocity
(D) Lowest possible load factor and highest possible velocity

Q.32
Consider an airplane with rectangular straight wing at dihedral angle
0
10 I = . Lift curve slope of
wing airfoil section (constant over the whole span of the wing) is 5.4/ .
l
c rad
o
= The roll stability
derivative,
l
C
|
in per radian is __________

Q.33 Consider one-dimensional isentropic flow at a Mach number of 0.5. If the area of cross-section of a
streamtube increases by 3% somewhere along the flow, the corresponding percentage change in
density is ________

Q.34 The potential flow model for a storm is represented by the superposition of a sink and a vortex. The
stream function can be written in the ( u , r ) system as ln
2 2
r u
t t
A I
= + , where
2
100 m /s A = I = . Assume a constant air density of 1.2 kg/m
3
. The gauge pressure at a distance of
100 m from the storm eye is

(A)
(B)
2
1.2
t
(C)
2
1.2
2t
(D)
2
1.2
4t

Q.35 Three identical eagles of wing span s are flying side by side in a straight line with no gap between
their wing tips. Assume a single horse shoe vortex model (of equal strength ) for each bird. The
net downwash experienced by the middle bird is
(A)
s t
I
(B)
2 s t
I
(C)
3 s t
I
(D)
4
3 s t
I

AE 12/19
Q.36 Streamline pattern of flow past a cylinder is shown in the figure below. The oncoming flow is
steady, irrotational and incompressible. The flow is from left to right. Bernoullis equation
CANNOT be applied between the points

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 5 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 5 and 6

Q.37 Consider a supersonic stream at a Mach number M=2, undergoing a gradual expansion. The stream
is turned by an angle of 3

degrees due to the expansion. The following data is given.

M v (Prandtl-Meyer function)
1.8 20.73
1.9 23.59
2.0 26.38
2.1 29.10
2.2 31.73
2.3 34.28
2.4 36.75

The Mach number downstream of the expansion is
(A) 1.88 (B) 2.00 (C) 2.11 (D) 2.33

1
2
3
4
5
6
AE 13/19
Q.38 The idealized cross-section of a beam is comprised of four identical booms connected by shear
webs. The beam is subjected to a bending moment H as shown in the figure. The inclination of the
neutral axis to the x-axis in degrees is

(A) 45 CW (B) 45 CCW (C) 26.6 CW (D) 63.4 CCW

Q.39 A composite circular shaft is comprised of a steel core surrounded by an aluminum annulus,
perfectly bonded to each other as shown in the figure. If it subjected to a pure torque, which one of
the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Only shear stress is continuous across the steelaluminum interface
(B) Only shear strain is continuous across the steelaluminum interface
(C) Both shear stress and shear strain are continuous across the steelaluminum interface
(D) Both shear stress and shear strain are discontinuous across the steelaluminum interface

Q.40 A horizontal rectangular plate ABCD is hinged at points A, B and C. AC and BD are diagonals of
the plate. Downward force P is applied at D. The upward reactions R
A
, R
B
, and R
C
at points A, B
and C, respectively, are
(A) indeterminate
(B) P, -P, P
(C) 0, P, 0
(D) P/3, P/3, P/3

2a
M
a a
x
y
AE 14/19
Q.41 In the steel structure (Youngs modulus = 200 GPa) shown in the figure, all members have a
circular cross-section of radius 10 mm. Column BD is pinned at B and D. The support at A is
hinged. The minimum value of load P at which the column BD may buckle in Newtons is
approximately ____________

Q.42 The thin rectangular plate has dimensions Lbt. It develops a stress field corresponding to an
applied bending moment M as shown in the figure. A valid Airys stress function is

(A)
3
3
2M
x
tb
(B)
3
3
2M
y
tb
(C)
( )
3 3
3
2M
x y
tb
+ (D)
4
3
2M
y
tb

Q.43 A cantilever beam of negligible mass is 0.6 m long. It has a rectangular cross-section of width
8 mm and thickness 6 mm and carries a tip mass of 1.4 kg. If the natural frequency of this system
is 10 rad/s, Youngs modulus of the material of the beam in GPa is ________

x
M
M
L
b
2m
D
1m
1m
A B C
P
y
AE 15/19
Q.44 A simply supported beam with overhang is loaded by uniformly distributed load of intensity q as
shown in the figure. The bending moment at the mid-point of AB is

(A)
2
sagging
16
qL
(B)
2
hogging
16
qL
(C)
2
3
hogging
16
qL
(D)
2
3
sagging
16
qL

Q.45 Thrust of liquid oxygen - liquid hydrogen rocket engine is 300 kN. The O/F ratio used is 5. If the
fuel mass flow rate is 12.5 kg/s, the specific impulse of the rocket motor in Ns/kg is
(A) 3800 (B) 4000 (C) 4200 (D) 4400

Q.46 In a 50 % reaction axial compressor stage, the local blade velocity is 300 m/s and the axial
component of velocity is 100 m/s. If the absolute inlet flow angle
1
= 45
o
, the work per unit mass
done on the fluid by the stage in kJ/kg is
(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 60

Q.47 Consider two rockets P and Q fired vertically up with identical specific impulse and a payload of
2 kg. Rocket P has 2 identical stages, and each stage has 200 kg of propellant and 20 kg of
structural weight. Rocket Q has a single stage with 400 kg of propellant and 40 kg of structural
weight. Neglecting drag and gravity effects, the ratio of the change in velocity of P to that attained
by Q is
(A) 1.13 (B) 1.23 (C) 1.33 (D) 1.43
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49: Data for an airplane are given as follows: weight 30 W kN = ,
thrust available at sea-level
0
4000 T N = , wing planform area
2
30 S m = , maximum lift coefficient
max
1.4
L
C = , and drag coefficient
2
0.015 0.024 .
D L
C C = + Assume air density at sea-level
3
1.22 / kg m
= .

Q.48 Stall speed of the airplane in m/s is

(A) 17.36 (B) 34.22 (C) 45.52 (D) 119.46

Q.49 Minimum and maximum speeds of the airplane in level flight condition at sea-level in m/s are
respectively

(A) 17.36 and 180 (B) 17.36 and 34.22
(C) 34.22 and 119.46 (D) 17.36 and 119.46

L L/2
A B q
AE 16/19

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51: An aircraft is flying at Mach number M = 1.5, where the
ambient temperature is 250 K. The stagnation temperature of gases at the entry to the nozzle is 800 K. The
nozzle is choked and always under expanded. Assume the molecular weight of the exhaust gases to be 29,
the ratio of specific heats to be 1.4 and the universal gas constant is 8314 J/kmol-K.

Q.50 For which one of the nozzle exit Mach numbers given below is the propulsive efficiency highest?

(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2
(D) 2.5

Q.51 For which one of the nozzle exit Mach numbers given below is the thrust highest?
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2
(D) 2.5

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53: Circulation theory of lift is assumed for a thin
symmetric airfoil at an angle of attack . Free stream velocity is U.

Q.52 If the circulation at the quarter chord (c/4) of the airfoil is
1
I , the normal velocity is zero at

(A) c/4 (B) c/2 (C) 3c/4 (D) all points on the chord

Q.53 A second identical airfoil is placed behind the first one at a distance of c/2 from the trailing edge of
the first. The second airfoil has an unknown circulation
2
I

placed at its quarter chord. The normal
velocity becomes zero at the same chord-wise locations of the respective airfoils as in the previous
question. The values of
1
I and
2
I are respectively
(A)

4 2
,
3 3
cU cU t o t o (B)

2 2
,
3 3
cU cU t o t o
(C)

2 1
,
3 3
cU cU t o t o (D)

4 4
,
3 3
cU cU t o t o

AE 17/19
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55: A wing-body alone configuration airplane with a
wing loading of
2
1000 /
W
N m
S
= is flying in cruise condition at a speed V = 90m/s at sea-level (air density
at sea-level
3
1.22 / kg m
= ). The zero lift pitching moment coefficient of the airplane is

0
0.06
wb
mac m
C C = = and the location of airplane aerodynamic center from the wing leading edge is
0.25 .
ac
X c = Here c is the chord length.

Q.54
The airplane trim lift coefficient
L trim
C is

(A) 0.502 (B) 0.402 (C) 0.302 (D) 0.202

Q.55
Distance of center of gravity of the aircraft (
CG
X ) from the wing leading edge is
(A) 0.447c (B) 0.547c (C) 0.547c (D) 0.25c

Q.56 If S X S and 8 11 then which of the following options is TRUE?
(A)
3
5

X

8
5

(B)
3
11

X

5
8

(C)
3
11

X

8
5

(D)
3
5

X

8
11

Q.57 The Headmaster ___________ to speak to you.

Which of the following options is incorrect to complete the above sentence?
(A) is wanting

(B) wants

(C) want

(D) was wanting

Q.58 Mahatama Gandhi was known for his humility as
(A) he played an important role in humiliating exit of British from India.

(B) he worked for humanitarian causes.

(C) he displayed modesty in his interactions.

(D) he was a fine human being.

AE 18/19
Q.59 All engineering students should learn mechanics, mathematics and how to do computation.
I II III IV
Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is not appropriate?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Q.60 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
water: pipe::
(A) cart: road (B) electricity: wire
(C) sea: beach (D) music: instrument

Q.61 Velocity of an object fired directly in upward direction is given by I = 8u - S2 t, where t (time)
is in seconds. When will the velocity be between 32 m/sec and 64 m/sec?
(A) (1, 3/2) (B) (1/2, 1)

(C) (1/2, 3/2) (D) (1, 3)

Q.62 In a factory, two machines M1 and M2 manufacture 60% and 40% of the autocomponents
respectively. Out of the total production, 2% of M1 and 3% of M2 are found to be defective. If a
randomly drawn autocomponent from the combined lot is found defective, what is the probability
that it was manufactured by M2?
(A) 0.35 (B) 0.45 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4

Q.63 Following table gives data on tourists from different countries visiting India in the year 2011.

Country Number of
Tourists
USA 2000
England 3500
Germany 1200
Italy 1100
Japan 2400
Australia 2300
France 1000

Which two countries contributed to the one third of the total number of tourists who visited India in
2011?
(A) USA and Japan

(B) USA and Australia

(C) England and France

(D) Japan and Australia

AE 19/19

Q.64 If |-2X + 9| = S then the possible value of |-X| - X
2
would be:
(A) 30 (B) -30 (C) -42 (D) 42

Q.65 All professors are researchers
Some scientists are professors

Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above arguments:
(A) All scientists are researchers

(B) All professors are scientists

(C) Some researchers are scientists

(D) No conclusion follows


www.gateing.com

Official GATE key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A A zero D C C A B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A B 1 0.2
Marks
to All
0.12-
0.13
D D
0.3-
0.35
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D B B A zero B D A 9-10
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C
-0.23 to
-0.24
1 D C C C A B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1900-
2000
B 70 A B A B B C A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D
Marks
to All
Marks
to All
D C B C C D B
61 62 63 64 65
C C C B C

GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination
1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.
2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.
Navigating to a Question :
7. To answer a question, do the following:
a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
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and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.
You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.
Answering a Question :
8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:
a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.
9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:
a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.
11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
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select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
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17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.

Changing the Optional Section :
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the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.
19. If you deselect the checkbox for an optional Section in the top bar, the following
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for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section? If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.
20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.

GATE 2014 Examination
AE: Aerospace Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.

5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.

GATE 2014 SET- 1 General Aptitude -GA
GA 1/2
Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.

The word closest in meaning to comprehension is
(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.
(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength

Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.

Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajans request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

Q.4 If y =5x
2
+3, then the tangent at x =0, y =3
(A) passes through x =0, y =0 (B) has a slope of +1
(C) is parallel to the x-axis (D) has a slope of 1

Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?

Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK

Q.7 Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisals floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?

Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal
(A) 6 2 5 1 3 4
(B) 2 6 5 1 3 4
(C) 4 2 6 3 1 5
(D) 2 4 6 1 3 5

G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
GATE 2014 SET- 1 General Aptitude -GA
GA 2/2
Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25

Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)

(i) On average, it rains more in J uly than in December
(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in J anuary
(iii) J uly rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)

G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE AE
Q.1 For a real symmetric matrix [A], which of the following statements is true:
(A) The matrix is always diagonalizable and invertible.
(B) The matrix is always invertible but not necessarily diagonalizable.
(C) The matrix is always diagonalizable but not necessarily invertible.
(D) The matrix is always neither diagonalizable nor invertible.

Q.2
The series ( )
=
=
1
2
3
2
m
m
m
x
m
s converges for all x with R x 2 given by
(A) 0 = R (B) 3 = R (C) = R (D) 3 / 1 = R

Q.3
The function given by {
0 ), / 1 sin(
0 , 0

=
=
x x
x
f(x)
is
(A) Unbounded everywhere (B) Bounded and continuous everywhere
(C) Bounded but not continuous at 0 = x (D) Continuous and differentiable everywhere

Q.4
Given the boundary-value problem 1 0 , 0 < < = + |
.
|
\
|
x ky
dx
dy
x
dx
d
, with 0 ) 1 ( ) 0 ( = = y y . Then the
solutions of the boundary-value problem for 1 = k (given by
1
y ) and 5 = k (given by
5
y ) satisfy:
(A)
=
1
0
5 1
0 dx y y
(B) 0
5
1
0
1
=
dx
dx
dy
dx
dy

(C)

1
0
5 1
0 dx y y
(D)
= +
1
0
5 1
5 1
0 ) ( dx
dx
dy
dx
dy
y y

Q.5
The value of

=
1
0
4
1000 dx x I , obtained by using Simpsons rule with 2 equally spaced intervals is,
(A) 200 (B) 400 (C) 180 (D) 208

Q.6 For a NACA 5-digit airfoil of chord c, the designed lift coefficient and location of maximum
camber along the chord from the leading edge are denoted by C
L
and X
m
respectively. For
NACA12018 airfoil, which combination of C
L
and X
m
given below are correct?
(A)C
L
=0.15 and X
m
=0.1c (B)C
L
=0.12 and X
m
=0.2c
(C)C
L
=0.12 and X
m
=0.18c (D)C
L
=0.15 and X
m
=0.2c

Q.7 For inviscid, supersonic flow over a diamond shaped airfoil, shown in the figure, which statement is
correct among the following?

(A) The airfoil will experience zero lift and positive drag force
(B) The airfoil will experience positive lift and zero drag force
(C) The airfoil will experience negative lift and zero drag force
(D) The airfoil will experience positive lift and positive drag force

AE 1/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)

Q.8 Consider supersonic flow near a corner (at an angle from the horizontal) with an attached oblique
shock (at an angle with horizontal) as shown in figure. If Mach number M decreases gradually
from a high supersonic value, which of the following statements is correct?

(A) will decrease if the shock is a weak shock
(B) will decrease if the shock is a strong shock
(C) will increase for both weak and strong shocks
(D) remains unchanged for both weak and strong shocks

Q.9 The streamlines of a potential line vortex is concentric circles with respect to the vortex center as
shown in figure. Velocity along these streamlines, outside the core of the vortex can be written as,
=

2
, where strength of the vortex is
2
and r is radial direction. The value of circulation
along the curve shown in the figure is:

(A) (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 0

Q.10 To observe unsteady separated flow in a diverging channel, bubbles are injected at each 10ms
interval at point A as shown in figure. These bubblesact as tracer particles and follow the flow
faithfully. The curved line AB shown at any instant represents:

(A) Streamline, streakline and pathline (B) Streamline and pathline
(C) Only a pathline (D) Only a streakline

Q.11 It is desired to measure the Youngs modulus and the Poissons ratio of a given homogeneous,
isotropic material. A bar of length 20cm and square cross-section (10mm10mm) of this material is
subjected to a tensile load of 40kN. Under this load, length increases to 20.1cm while the cross-
section reduces to 9.98mm9.98mm. Youngs modulus and Poissons ratio of the material are:
(A) 80GPa& 0.4 respectively (B) 40GPa& -0.4 respectively
(C) 80GPa& -0.2 respectively (D) 40GPa& 0.2 respectively

AE 2/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)

Q.12 In general, for any given solid subjected to arbitrary loading, which of the following statements is
always true:
(A) Volume does not vary with loading (B) Mass does not vary with loading
(C) Density does not vary with loading (D) Volume, mass and density vary with loading

Q.13 Which one of the following objects with inclined face at 45
, subjected to the given stresses, are in

static equilibrium:
(A) (B)
(C)

(D)

Q.14 A damped single degree of freedom system whose undamped natural frequency,
=10Hz, is
subjected to sinusoidal external force. Power is half of the maximumfor the two frequencies of
60.9469 rad/s and 64.7168 rad/s. The damping factor associated with the vibrating system (in %) is
_______.

Q.15 The boundary conditions for a rod with circular cross-section, under torsional vibration,are changed
from fixed-free to fixed-fixed. The fundamental natural frequency of the fixed-fixed rod is k times
that of fixed-free rod. The value of k is
(A) 1.5 (B) (C) 2.0 (D) 0.5

Q.16 Match the appropriate engine (in right column) with the corresponding aircraft (in left column) for
most efficient performance of the engine.
a. Low speed transport aircraft i. Ramjet
b. High subsonic civilian aircraft ii. Turboprop
c. Supersonic fighter aircraft iii. Turbojet
d. Hypersonic aircraft iv. Turbofan
(A) a iv, b iii, c i, d ii (B) a ii, b i, c iii, d iv
(C) a i, b ii, c iv, d iii (D) a ii, b iv, c iii, d i

Q.17 For a given fuel flow rate and thermal efficiency, the take-off thrust for a gas turbine engine
burning aviation turbine fuel (considering fuel-air ratiof<<1) is
(A) Directly proportional to exhaust velocity
(B) Inversely proportional to exhaust velocity
(C) Independent of exhaust velocity
(D) Directly proportional to the square of the exhaust velocity

a
AE 3/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)
Q.18 For a fifty percent reaction axial compressor stage, following statements are given:
I. Velocity triangles at the entry and exit of the rotor are symmetrical
II. The whirl or swirl component of absolute velocity at the entry of rotor and entry of stator are
same.
Which of the following options are correct?
(A) Both I and II are correct statements (B) I is correct but II is incorrect
(C) I is incorrect but II is correct (D) Both I and II are incorrect

Q.19 A small rocket having a specific impulse of 200s produces a total thrust of 98kN, out of which 10kN
is the pressure thrust. Considering the acceleration due to gravity to be 9.8m/s
2
, the propellant mass
flow rate in kg/s is
(A) 55.1 (B) 44.9 (C) 50 (D) 60.2

Q.20 The thrust produced by a turbojet engine
(A) Increases with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(B) Decreases with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(C) Remains constant with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(D) First increases and then decreases with increasing compressor pressure ratio

Q.21 The moment coefficient measured about the centre of gravity and about aerodynamic centre of a
given wing-body combination are 0.0065 and -0.0235 respectively. The aerodynamic centre lies
0.06 chord lengths ahead of the centre of gravity. The lift coefficient for this wing-body is _____.

Q.22 The vertical ground load factor on a stationary aircraft parked in its hangar is:
(A) 0 (B) -1 (C) Not defined (D) 1

Q.23 Under what conditionshould a glider be operated to ensure minimum sink rate?
(A) Maximum C
L
/C
D
(B) Minimum C
L
/C
D

(C) Maximum C
D
/C
L
3/2
(D) Minimum C
D
/C
L
3/2

Q.24 In most airplanes, the Dutch roll mode can be excited by applying
(A) a step input to the elevators (B) a step input to the rudder
(C) a sinusoidal input to the aileron (D) an impulse input to the elevators

Q.25 Considering R as the radius of the moon, the ratio of the velocities of two spacecraft orbiting moon
in circular orbit at altitudes R and 2R above the surface of the moon is ________.

Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26
If | |
(

=
4 3
3 3
A . Then ( ) ] [ 3 ] [ 7 ] [ det
2
I A A + is
(A) 0 (B) -324 (C) 324 (D) 6

AE 4/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)
Q.27
For the periodic function given by {
0 , 2
0 , 2
) (
< <
< <
=
x
x
x f
with ) ( ) 2 ( x f x f = + , using
Fourier series, the sum + + =
7
1
5
1
3
1
1 s converges to
(A) 1
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
5

Q.28
Let be the boundary of the closed circular region Agiven by 1
2 2
+ y x . Then
( )
= ds xy x I
2 3
9 3 (where ds means integration along the bounding curve) is
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 0

Q.29 Solution to the boundary-value problem
3 0 , 5 9
2
2
< < = + x x u
dx
u d
with 0 , 0 ) 0 (
3
= =
= x
dx
du
u is
(A) ( ) x e e
e
e
x u
x x
5
1
15
) (
3 / 3 /
2
+
+
=

(B) ( ) x e e
e
e
x u
x x
5
1
15
) (
3 / 3 /
2
+ +
+
=

(C) x
x
x u 5
) 1 cos(
) 3 / sin( 15
) ( + = (D)
3
54
5
) 1 cos(
) 3 / sin( 15
) ( x
x
x u =

Q.30
The Laplace transform L(u(t))=U(s), for the solution u(t) of the problem 0 , 1 2
2
2
> = + + t u
dt
du
dt
u d
with initial conditions
.
5
) 0 (
, 0 ) 0 ( = =
dt
du
u is given by:
(A)
2
) 1 (
6
+ s
(B)
2
) 1 (
1 5
+
+
s s
s
(C)
2
) 1 (
5 1
+
s s
s

(D)
2
2
) 1 (
1 5
+
+
s s
s

Q.31 For a steady, incompressible two-dimensional flow, represented in Cartesian co-ordinates (, ), a
student correctly writes the equation of pathline of any arbitrary particle as,
= and
=,
wherea and bare constants having unit of (second)
-1
. If value of a is 5, the value of b is _____.
AE 5/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)
Q.32 Figures (a) - (d) below show four objects. Dimensions and surface conditions of the objects are
shown in the respective figures. All four objects are placed independently in a steady, uniform flow
of same velocity and the direction of flow is from left to right as shown in (a). The flow field can be
considered as 2-D, viscous and incompressible. Following statements are made regarding the drag
that these objects experience.

(i) Drag of object (a) is more than the drag of object (d)
(ii) Drag of object (a) is less than the drag of object (d)
(iii) Drag of object (b) is more than the drag of object (c)
(iv) Drag of object (c) is more than the drag of object (b)
(v) Drag of object (a) is more than the drag of object (b)
Choose the correct combination of statements from the options given above:
(A) (i), (iii), (v) (B) (ii), (iv), (v) (C) (i), (iv), (v) (D) (i), (iii)

Q.33 A student needs to find velocity across a stationary normal shock. He measures density and
pressure across the shock as shown in the figure below. 1bar =10
5
Pa. (No shock table is needed
for the calculations). The value of u
1
in m/s is ____.

Q.34 For inviscid, compressible flow past a thin airfoil, shown in the figure, free-stream Mach number
and pressure are denoted by
and
respectively. Ratio of pressure at point A and
is 0.8
and specific heat ratio is 1.4. If the Mach number at point A is 1.0 and rest of the flow field is
subsonic, the value of
is

(A) 2.95 (B) 0.79 (C) 1.18 (D) 0.64

AE 6/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)
Q.35 A student can measure free-stream velocity of a low-speed wind tunnel using a
i. Pitot tube alone aligned with the flow direction.
ii. Pitot tube aligned with the flow direction with static pressure measurement at an
appropriate position on the tunnel wall.
iii. Pitot tube aligned with the flow direction along with barometer pressure reading of the
outside ambient.
iv. Pitot static tube alone aligned with the flow direction.
Considering the above statements, which of the following options is correct?
(A) (i) only (B) (i) & (ii) (C) (ii) & (iv) (D) (i), (iii) & (iv)

Q.36 Induced velocity w at a point =
1
along the lifting line can be calculated using the formula
(
1
) =
1
4
1
.
Given
2
+
2
= 1, where,
and sare given in figure below.

For theabove semi-elliptic distribution of circulation, , the downwash velocity at any point
1,
for
symmetric flight can be obtained as, (
1
) =

4
[ +
1
], where =
1
.
Which of the following options is correct if the induced drag is
(given
1
=

2
)

(A)I=0 and
=
8
(B)I= 1 and
=
8

(C)I=0 and
2
8
(D)I= 1 and
2
8

Q.37 Two overflowing water reservoirs are connected with a100m long pipe of circular cross-section (of
radius, R =0.02m), such that height difference h remains constant as shown in the figure below.
The centerline velocity in the pipe is 10m/s. The velocity profile inside the pipe over the entire
length is =
2
4
2
, where,
is a constant pressure gradient along the pipe length,

x is measured from theleft end of the pipe along its central axis and r is radial location inside the
pipe with respect to its axis.(Given data: Density and kinematic viscosity of water are 1000kg/m
3

and 1x10
-6
m
2
/srespectively; acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s
2
).
If all other losses except the frictional losses at the pipe wall are neglected, the value of h in meter
is ____.

AE 7/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)

Q.38 A 1.8m long steel beam of rectangular cross section (10mm6mm) is simply supported with a
length of 1.2m between the supports and an overhang of 0.3m on either side. Youngs modulus for
the material of the beam is 200GPa. For a 50N load applied at the center of the beam, magnitude of
the slopeof the beam at tip S is _______.

Q.39 There are 2 designs proposed for a shaft of length l, with a torque carrying capacity of T.Design I is
a solid circular cross-section shaft of diameter30mm. Design II is a thin-walled circular shaft of
average diameter 40mm. Thickness of the wall in Design II has to be determined such that
maximum shear stress is the same in both the designs for the given torque T(so that same material
can be used for manufacturing both the shafts). Ratio of mass of shaft using Design Ito the mass of
shaft using Design II is

(A) 2.68 (B) 5.36 (C) 1.79 (D) 3.58

Q.40 A structural member of rectangular cross-section 10mm6mm and length 1m is made of steel
(Youngs modulus is 200GPa and coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 10
6
/
). It is rigidly
fixed at both the ends and then subjected to a gradual increase in temperature. Ignoring the three
dimensional effects, the structural member will buckle if the temperature is increased by

which is

(A) 19.74 (B) 9.87 (C) 78.96 (D) 39.48

Q.41 A gas cylinder (closed thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessel) of diameter 30cm and wall thickness
1mm is subjected to a design maximum internal pressure of 5bar (0.5MPa). The material used for
manufacturing this cylinder has a failure stress of 260MPa. Assuming von Mises failure criterion,
the factor of safety (with respect to maximum allowable stress) for this cylinder is
(A) 2.8 (B) 2.0 (C) 6.9 (D) 4.0

AE 8/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)
Q.42 A cantilevered beam is subjected to a parabolic distribution of shear traction at the right edge while
the top and bottom surfaces are traction free. To solve this problem, following Airys stress
function is proposed: =
1
+
2
3
+
3
2
+
4
3
. This is an admissible Airys
function that would satisfy the bi-harmonic equation as well as the boundary conditions if and only
if

(A)
1
= 0,
2
= ,
3
= 0,
4
=

3
2
(B)
1
= ,
2
=

3
2
,
3
= 0,
4
= 0
(C)
1
= 0,
2
= 0,
3
= ,
4
=

3
2
(D)
1
= ,
2
=

3
2
,
3
= 0,
4
= 0

Q.43 1kg mass is hanging from a spring of stiffness 500N/m attached to a massless,symmetric beam of
length 0.6m, moment of inertia about the bending axis = 8.33 10
10
4
and Youngs modulus
E=210GPa as shown in the figure. The fundamental natural frequency (in rad/s) of the system is

(A) 3.24 (B) 20.36 (C) 22.36 (D) 3.56

Q.44 A single degree of freedom system is vibrating with initial (first cycle) amplitude of 5cm. The
viscous damping factor associated with the vibrating system is 2%. Vibration amplitude of the fifth
cycle (in cm) is
(A) 1.65 (B) 4.41 (C) 2.67 (D) 3.02

Q.45 A cruise missile with an ideal ramjet engine is flying at Mach 4.0 at an altitude where the ambient
temperature is 100K. Considerratio of specific heats =1.4 and specific gas constant R =287J/kgK.
If the stagnation temperature in the combustion chamber is equal to 2310K, the speed of the exhaust
gases (in m/s) is _____________.

Q.46 A gas turbine engine is operating under the following conditions:

Stagnation temperature at turbine inlet 1350 K
Stagnation pressure at the turbine inlet 10 bar
Static temperature at turbine exit 800 K
Velocity at turbine exit 200 m/s
Total-to-total efficiency of turbine 0.96
(ratio of specific heats) 1.33
C
P
(specific heat at constant pressure)

1.147 kJ/kgK

The stagnation pressure (in bar) in the nozzle (considering isentropic nozzle) is equal to _______.

AE 9/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)
Q.47 Air at a stagnation temperature of 300K (ratio of specific heats, =1.4 and specific gas constant R
=287 J/kgK) enters the impeller of a centrifugal compressor in axial direction. The stagnation
pressure ratio between the diffuser outlet and impeller inlet is 4.0. The impeller blade radius is 0.3
m and it is rotating at 15000 rev/min. If the slip factor
s
(Ratio of tangential component of air
velocity at the blade tip to the blade tip speed) is 0.88, the overall efficiency (total-to-total) of the
compressor (in %) is ___________.

Q.48 A stationary two stage rocket with initial mass of 16000kg, carrying a payload of 1000kg, is fired in
a vertical trajectory from the surface of the earth. Both the stages of the rocket have same specific
impulse, I
sp
, of 300s and same structural coefficient of 0.14. The acceleration due to gravity is
9.8m/s
2
. Neglecting drag and gravity effects and considering both the stages with same payload
ratio, the terminal velocity attained by the payload in m/s is __________________.

Q.49 An aircraft is flying at Mach 3.0 at an altitude where the ambient pressure and temperature are 50
kPa and 200 K respectively. If the converging-diverging diffuser of the engine (considered
isentropic with ratio of specific heats, =1.4 and specific gas constant R =287 J/kgK) has a throat
area of 0.05 m
2
, the mass flow rate through the engine in kg/s is
(A) 197 (B) 232 (C) 790 (D) 157

Q.50 A cryogenic rocket has a specific impulse of 455s and characteristic velocity of 2386 m/s. The
value of thrust coefficient for this rocket is
(A) 1.78 (B) 1.73 (C) 1.87 (D) 1.95

Q.51 For a given airplane with a given wing loading executing a turn in the vertical plane, under what
conditions will the turn radius be minimum and the turn rate be maximum?
(A) Highest possible C
L
and lowest possible load factor
(B) Lowest possible C
L
and lowest possible load factor
(C) Lowest possible C
L
and highest possible load factor
(D) Highest possible C
L
and highest possible load factor

Q.52 Lift-off distance for a given aircraft of weight W is S
LO
. If the take-off weight is reduced by 10%,
then the magnitude of percentage change in the lift-off distance (assume all other parameters to
remain constant) is _______.
Q.53 Which of the following design parameters influence the maximum rate-of-climb for a jet-propelled
airplane?

P. Wing loading
Q. Maximum thrust-to-weight ratio
R. Zero-lift drag coefficient
S. Maximum lift-to-drag ratio
(A) P and Q alone (B) P, Q, R and S (C) P, Q and S alone (D) Q, R, and S alone

AE 10/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)
Q.54 Consider the following four statements regarding aircraft longitudinal stability:

P. C
M,cg
at zero lift must be positive
Q. C
M,cg
/
a
must be negative (
a
is absolute angle of attack)
R. C
M,cg
at zero lift must be negative
S. Slope of C
L
versus
a
must be negative

Which of the following combination is the necessary criterion for stick fixed longitudinal balance
and static stability?
(A) Q and R only (B) Q, R, and S only (C) P and Q only (D) Q and S only

Q.55 Data for a light, single-engine, propeller driven aircraft in steady level flight at sea-level is as
follows: velocity V
=40m/s, weight W =13000N, lift coefficient C

L
=0.65, drag coefficient C
D
=
0.025 +0.04C
L
2
and power available P
av
=100,000J/s. The rate of climb possible for this aircraft
under the given conditions (in m/s) is
(A) 7.20 (B) 5.11 (C) 6.32 (D) 4.23

AE 11/11
A
E

(
G
A
T
E

2
0
1
4
)
Section Q.No. Key/Range Marks Section Q.No. Key/Range Marks
GA 1 A 1 AE 26 A 2
GA 2 B 1 AE 27 C 2
GA 3 D 1 AE 28 D 2
GA 4 C 1 AE 29 A 2
GA 5 1300to1300 1 AE 30 B 2
GA 6 D 2 AE 31 5.01to4.99 2
GA 7 B 2 AE 32 C 2
GA 8 180to180 2 AE 33 1705to1720 2
GA 9 D 2 AE 34 B 2
GA 10 B 2 AE 35 C 2
AE 1 C 1 AE 36 C 2
AE 2 B 1 AE 37 0.99to1.01 2
AE 3 C 1 AE 38 0.12to0.13 2
AE 4 A 1 AE 39 A 2
AE 5 D 1 AE 40 B 2
AE 6 A 1 AE 41 D 2
AE 7 D 1 AE 42 D 2
AE 8 B 1 AE 43 B 2
AE 9 D 1 AE 44 D 2
AE 10 D 1 AE 45 1880to1881 2
AE 11 A 1 AE 46 1.10to1.25 2
AE 12 B 1 AE 47 74to76 2
AE 13 B 1 AE 48 6050to6250 2
AE 14 2.95to3.05 1 AE 49 D 2
AE 15 C 1 AE 50 C 2
AE 16 D 1 AE 51 D 2
AE 17 B 1 AE 52 18to20 2
AE 18 B 1 AE 53 B 2
AE 19 C 1 AE 54 C 2
AE 20 D 1 AE 55 B 2
AE 21 0.45to0.55 1
AE 22 D 1
AE 23 D 1
AE 24 B 1
AE 25 1.2to1.25 1
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ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

, over a spinning circular cylinder of radius R

= 0.5 at an angle of attack, o. Using the

computed using trapezoidal rule with 4 n = intervals is ____.

= = = = = = = The symbols have their usual

. Which one of the following expressions is TRUE?

= ). The zero lift pitching moment coefficient of the airplane is

, subjected to the given stresses, are in

respectively. Ratio of pressure at point A and

and sare given in figure below.

is a constant pressure gradient along the pipe length,

=40m/s, weight W =13000N, lift coefficient C

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