MOCK Exam I

1. Auditor can also participate in Testing - T/F

a) True
b) False

2. The purpose of Testing is to uncover defects – T/F

a) True
b) False

3. Most of the problems associated with the testing process occur from one of the following causes:
a) Time constraint.
c) People
b) Use of ineffective test techniques

4. Letting the testers find problems is an appropriate way to debug – Negative view of testing.
a) True
b) False

5. The U.S. General Accounting office summarized the errors detected in computerized
applications broadly in to two categories:
a) Logical and Cosmetic
b) High, Low and Medium
c) Software problems and Data problems
d) Program defect and Poor Performance

6. Establishment of a testing policy is an:

a) Test Manager’s responsibility
b) Software Engineer’s responsibility
c) Management responsibility
d) IT Management responsibility

7. Two components of testing strategy are:

a) What to test and what not to test
b) Test Factor and Test phase
c) White box and Black box testing

8. Testing produces a higher defect yield than any other dynamic techniques:
a) White box
b) Black box
c) Load testing
d) Stress testing

9. Retesting modules connected to the program or component has been changed:

a) Unit Regression.
b) Regional Regression
c) Full Regression.

10. Designed to get a complete message with minimal distortion:

a) Discriminative listening
b) Comprehensive listening
c) Critical listening
d) Therapeutic listening
 11. The listener is performing an analysis of what the speaker said:
a) Discriminative listening
b) Comprehensive listening
c) Critical listening
d) Therapeutic listening

12. Within that time you should be communicating the solution to the problem to the customer:
a) 5 Minutes
b) 10 Minutes
c) 30 Minutes
d) 4 Minutes

13. The Leader of the task force should be an expert on the issues before the task force
a) True
b) False

14. The task force team should consists of:

a) 10 to 12 members.
b) 1 to 3 members.
c) 3 to 8 members.

15. Task forces should be organized for a single purpose.

a) True
b) False

16. Which one of the following is not a structural system testing technique:
a) Black box testing
b) Stress Testing
c) Execution Testing
d) Compliance Testing

17. Data is selected to ensure that all paths of the program have been executed:
a) Condition testing
b) Branch testing
c) Path testing
d) Expression testing

18. A tool used to derive test cases from specifications:

a) Check point review
b) Code comparison
c) Cause-Effect Graphing
d) Complexity based analysis.

19. System transactions that are created for the purpose of testing the application:
a) Test scripts
b) Test Stubs
c) Test Harness
d) Test Data

20. From customer’s point of view Quality is Fit for use

a) True
b) False
 21. Quality Assurance is sometimes called Quality control over quality control
a) True
b) False

22. Verification what is being installed does not affect any portion of the application
already installed or other applications interfaced by the new application.
a) Functional Testing
b) Manual Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) System Testing

23. The Objective of integrated testing:

a) Validate the Application Design, and prove that the application components can be
successfully integrated to perform one or more application functions:
b) User Acceptance
c) Path and Branch testing
d) Functionality of a System

24. Cost of Quality is: Cost of Materials +Cost of Labor +Cost of tools
a) True
b) False

25. Testing should verify that the authorization rules have been properly implemented and
evaluate with them:
a) Functional Testing
b) Manual Testing
c) Compliance Testing
d) Recovery Testing

26. Decision/branch coverage strategy

a) always satisfies statement coverage
b) is used in black box testing
c) means that every branch direction is traversed atleast once
d) is the same as condition coverage

27. Regression testing is a White Box testing method

a) True
b) False

28. Integration testing occurs when

a) The system is ready to use
b) Interfaces between unit-tested programs needs to be tested
c) When testing client/server applications
d) Testing the functions of the program against the specifications

Match the following with the choices

29. Retesting modules connected to the changed program
30. Determines how well the user can interact with the system
31. Demonstrates key functional capabilities by testing a string of units
32. Path or Logic in a unit or program is known
33. Testing the functions of the program against the specifications
34. Test all the integrated components of an information system
a) Black Box Testing d) Regression Testing
b) White Box Testing e) Thread Testing
c) System Testing f) Usability Testing
35. From Customer’s point of view, Quality is “Meeting Requirements”
a) True
b) False

36. Defects are recorded to

a) Correct the defect
b) To report the status of the application
c) To improve the S/W development process
d) All of the above

37. Integration testing occurs when _________ is complete

a) Phase-end review
b) Unit testing
c) System Testing
d) In-process Review

38. What are the 2 major components of risk

a) Event and Loss
b) Probability and Loss
c) Judgement and Instinct

39. Test Manager

a) Prepares test Documentation
b) Designs the Test strategy
c) Test data planning, capture and conditioning
d) All of the above

40. Verification and validation activities begin

a) After development phase
b) After Design phase
c) At the start of the project
d) Before closing the project

41. Configuration management includes:

a) Managing artifacts after development activity
b) Managing artifacts after Testing activity
c) Managing artifacts throughout all the phases

42. System test plan generation and verification activity takes place during the
a) Analysis Activity
b) Design Activity
c) Conceptualization Activity
d) Operation Activity

43. Regression testing is done during all stages of testing after a change is made
a) True
b) False

44. Knowledge of the most common risks associated with software development and the
platform you are working on is known as ___________
a) Testing Risk
b) Software Risk
c) Business Risk
d) Premature Release Risk
 45. You see a programmer constantly under performing. You know he is a good worker but
of late he has not been doing anything right. What would you do?
a) Throw him out of the job
b) Give him time, maybe he’ll turn around
c) Talk to him privately and try and understand his problem, provide constructive
feedback/criticism
d) Scold him in front of all his co-workers; it will surely make an impression

46. Testing is least costly in the requirements phase

a) True
b) False

47. __________ is the most powerful Quality Control Tool

a) Control Chart
b) Pareto Analysis
c) Checklist
d) Histogram

48. Which of these is not a quality attribute?

a) Reliability
b) Transparency
c) Usability
d) Flexibility
e) Correctness

49. Requirements should include which of the following

Functionally what the program is to do
a) Form, format, data types and units
b) How exceptions, errors, deviations are to be handled
c) Technical architecture/target platform
d) All of the Above

50. S/W engineer is responsible for

a) Identifying tool objectives
b) Defining selection criteria
c) Identifying candidate tools
d) All of the above

51. Which is not a software risk

a) Availability of Automated Tools
b) System will be difficult to operate
c) Programs will be unmaintainable
d) Unreliable results from the system

52. Which of the following information will not be included in a Defect Tracking Tool
a) Name of the tester who reported the defect
b) Person to whom the defect is assigned
c) Defect Number
d) Description

53. What is the Primary Objective of the system proposal from the Producer’s viewpoint
a) To present the costs/benefits of the proposal
b) To obtain an agreement for more work
c) To standardize presentations
54. The process used for documenting user’s requirements is known as validation
a) True
b) False

55. The responsibility of testing lies on

a) Testers
b) Everybody
c) Developers
d) Test Managers

56. Which of the following is a Structural Testing?

a) Stress Testing
b) Path Testing
c) Code Coverage Testing
d) All of the Above

57. A metric used to measure the characteristics of documentation and code is known as
Process Metric
a) True
b) False

58. From Customer’s viewpoint, defect is a deviation from specifications, whether missing,
wrong or extra.
a) True
b) False

59. COQ does not comprise of -------

a) Cost of Appraisal
b) Cost of Failure
c) Cost of Prevention
d) Cost of Production

60. Testing is deemed to be complete when

a) All test cases are executed
b) Testers run out of time
c) The Test Manager, is able to report with some degree of confidence that the
application will perform as expected
d) All of the above

61. Bottom-up testing requires the development of interim stubs for test input
a) True
b) False

62. Test Readiness review is conducted by

a) Test Engineer
b) Project Manager
c) Test Manager
d) Developer

Match the following with the choices given below

63. Performed when application components near completion
64. Coding begins at the close of this review
65. Looks at identifying defects as work progresses
66. CM Plan, Test plan and development plan are reviewed
a) In Process Review c) Critical Design Review
b) S/W Requirements Review d) Test Readiness Review
……………..