1

Our Patrons

Sh. Avinash Dikshit
Comissioner,
KVS New Delhi
Sh. O M Prabhakaran
Additional Commissioner (Admn)
KVS New Delhi
Dr. Dinesh Kumar
Additional Commissioner (Acad)
KVS New Delhi
Dr. Shachi Kant
Joint Commissioner (Training)
KVS New Delhi
Dr. E Prabhakar
Joint Commissioner (Pers)
KVS New Delhi
Sh. M Arumugam
Joint Commissioner (Fin.)
KVS New Delhi
Sh. S Vijaykumar
Joint Commissioner (Admn)
KVS New Delhi









2
Acknowledgements


Workshop& Venu Director: Dr. E.THIRUNAVUKKARASU
Deputy Commissioner/ Director
KVS ZIET Gwalior (MP)

Associate Director: Sh. M. KRISHAN MOHAN
Principal KV CRPF, Hydrabad

Members of Study Material team:

1. Mr. T.P.Sharma
Faculty in Geography, KVS-ZIET, Gwalior (MP)

2. Mr. Chandan Kumar
PGT (Eco.) K. V. No. 5, Gwalior (MP)

3. Mrs. Niranjana Saxena
PGT (Hist) K. V. No.1, Gwalior (MP)

4. Mr. K.K.Sharma
PGT (Geog.) K. V. No. 2, Gwalior (MP)

5. Mr. Sumat Prakash Jain
TGT (S.St.) K. V. No. 3, Gwalior (MP)

6. Mr. A.K. Sisodia
TGT (S.St.) K. V. No.1 Gwalior (MP)

7. Mr. A.K.Mishra
TGT (S.ST.) K.V. No.1 II shift, Gwalior (MP)

8. Ms. Vinita Dua
TGT (S.ST.) K.V. No.5, Gwalior (MP)




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Foreword
The KVS is a pioneer in bringing in the concept of providing special package of academic support to the students
of Board Classes in the form of thoughtfully prepared Study Materials in the beginning of 2000. There is a
tendency on the part of the students to depend up on the bazaar guides that flood the market, as the class work
and home work materials prepared by them are not thoroughly vetted and hence lack legitimacy of being the
dependable sources of study for examination purposes. The standard of the deluge of guides available in the
market is matter of speculation, and hence the KVS efforts of bringing out need-based, quality study materials
prepared by the dedicated team of in-house academic faculty has been seen as a welcome step in the right
direction in improving the Board Examination results quantitatively and qualitatively.
In the current academic session 2012-13 it is felt that the real preparation for future careers of students
begins at the secondary classes, and hence preparing study materials of class IX too is being taken up with the
hope that it could contribute to the overall qualitative improvement in students learning.
This Social Science Study Material is the result of the concerted efforts of the dedicated team of PGTs and TGTs
teaching Humanities subjects drawn from the five Kendriya Vidyalayas at Gwalior. The guidelines for preparing
the study material given by the KVS has been followed with well-meaning, logical inputs and support rendered by
Mr. Krishna Mohan, Principal, KV, Barkas, Hyderabad in piecing together this package of support material. Though
the Material Production Work Shop was organized from 15
th
to 19
th
October 2012, the ground work for actual
preparation was done months earlier by the teachers of the work shop. This helped in bringing out the booklet in
the soft copy form in a short span of five days.
This study material is prepared to meet the needs of all categories of students low, average and high achievers
with a view to helping them move up in academic achievement farther. Though compact, this study material is
exhaustive and hence it can be used as a singular source by the students for their preparation for SA 1 and SA 2.
I record my gratitude to Joint Commissioner (Acad), KVS (HQ), New Delhi for reposing the task Study Material
Production to ZIET, Gwalior. But for the support of Dr. Shachkant, Joint Commissioner (Training), KVS (HQ), New
Delhi, and the team effort of the material production team, this booklet would not have seen the light of the day.
The material production team and Mr. Krishna Mohan, who ably lead it deserve commendation.
The teachers and students for whom this book is meant for are requested to feel free to send their views and
suggestions, if any, to [email protected] for the improvement of this Study Material.
Dr. E. T. ARASU
Deputy Commissioner/
Director,
KVS, ZIET, GWALIOR







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INTRODUCTION

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan, a pace setting organization, is rendering exemplary services as facilitator to its
students to help them excel in all areas of their development with academic area as its focus. Keeping in view the
fact that the scholastic performance of the students of class IX and XI sets the tone for their performance in X and
XII respectively, the KVS has come out with a laudable idea of providing study material for classes IX and XI for the
first time to surge ahead in academic excellence.

Class IX Social Science Study Material is prepared meticulously by a team of qualified and experienced teachers
under the able and inspiring guidance of Dr. E. Thirunavukkarasu, Deputy Commissioner/Director, KVS, ZIET,
Gwalior. This booklet contains unit-wise brief description of concepts, Multiple Choice Questions with Key, Short
Answer Questions with answers, Long Answer Questions with answers, Two solved Model Question Papers and
four unsolved Model Papers prepared as per the latest CBSE guidelines. It also contains HOTS questions and
Value Based Questions to make students explore various alternative answers.

The book is handy and it is expected to help the students preparing well for all scholastic assessments, with
special emphasis on Summative Assessments. The concepts given in the beginning of each chapter will help the
students understand and establish relationship among the concepts. The MCQ questions will also aid aptly in
quality performance in any assessment modes be it FA or SA. The solved and unsolved model question papers
will give them a thorough insight in to the nature of Question Papers of SA1 and SA 2. The contents of the book
will help them to prepare well and perform better. The solved paper will help the students know how the
evaluation is done with the help of value points. The teacher may utilize one model paper to conduct a test
through open book system and the other as normal test. As the study material is prepared only in the
examination point of view, the teachers are requested to insist that this material is used by all students including
the gifted ones. If it is ensured, it is certain that the twin objectives of bringing out this material, that is, improving
the learning outcomes and the quality of results are achieved.
The entire team of this workshop expresses its gratitude to the Director, ZIET, Gwalior who has constantly guided
and encouraged us to complete the task on time. The ZIET Gwalior staff was supportive and cooperative in
completing the assignment. The dedicated team of teachers who prepared this Study material, namely Smt
Nirnjana Saxena, Sri KK Sharma, Sri Chandan Kumar, Sri TP Sharma, Sri Sumat Prakash Jain, Sri AK Sisodia, Sri AK
Mishra and Ms Vinita Dua deserve appreciation.

M KRISHNAMOHAN
PRINCIPAL &
ASSOCIATE DIRECTOR


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SUMMATIVE ASSESMENT I (Term 1)
Unit 1: India and the Contemporary World I (HISTORY)
Sub-unit 1.1: Events and processes. (Two themes of the following)
1. French Revolution: (a) The Ancient Regime and its crises.
(b) The social forces that led to the revolution.
(c) The different revolutionary groups and ideas of the time.
(d) The legacy. Compulsory (Chapter-1)

2. Russian Revolution. (a) The crises of Czarism.
(b) The nature of social movements between 1905 and 1917.
(c) The First World War and foundation of Soviet state.
(d) The legacy. (Chapter 2)
3. Rise of Nazism. (a) The growth of social democracy
(b) The crises in Germany.
(b) The basis of Hitler's rise to power.
(c) The ideology of Nazism.
(d) The impact of Nazism. (Chapter 3)
Unit 2: India - Land and the People Term I
1. India: location, relief, structure, major physiographic units. (Chapter 1&2)
2. Drainage: major rivers and tributaries, lakes and seas, role of rivers in the economy, pollution of rivers,
measures to control river pollution. (Chapter 3)
Unit - 3: Democratic Politics I
1. What is democracy? Why democracy?
a) What are the different ways of defining democracy?
b) Why has democracy become the most prevalent form of government in our times?
c) What are the alternatives to democracy?
d) Is democracy superior to its available alternatives?
e) Must every democracy have the same institutions and values? (Chapter 1&2)
(Part 1.3 and 1.4 (pages 10-18 of prescribed NCERT Textbook) will be assessed through FA only)
2. Designing of Democracy in India
a) How and why did India become a democracy?
b) How was the Indian constitution framed?
c) What are the salient features of the Constitution?
d) How is democracy being constantly designed and redesigned in India? (Chapter 3)
Unit - 4: Understanding Economic Development I
1. The economic story of Palampore:
Economic transactions of Palampore and its interaction with the rest of the world through which the
concept of production (including three factors of production land, labour and capital) can be introduced.
(Chapter 1)
2. People as Resource :
a. Introduction of how people become resource / asset;
b. Economic activities done by men and women;
c. Unpaid work done by women;
d. Quality of human resource;
e. Role of health and education;
f. Unemployment as a form of non utilisation of human resource;
g. Sociopolitical implication in simple form (Chapter 2)




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Part 1: History
CHAPTER 1: THE FRENCH REVOLUTION

CONCEPTS
The French Society during the Late 18th Century
The French Society Comprised:1st Estate: Clergy, 2nd Estate: Nobility, 3rd Estate: Big businessmen,
merchants, court officials, peasants, artisans, landless labourers, servants, etc.
Some within the Third Estate were rich and some were poor.
The burden of financing activities of the state through taxes was borne by the Third Estate alone.
The Struggle for Survival: Population of France grew and so did the demand for grain. The gap between the rich
and poor widened. This led to subsistence crises.
The Growing Middle Class: This estate was educated and believed that no group in society should be privileged
by birth. These ideas were put forward by philosophers such as Locke English philosopher and Rousseau French
philosopher. The American constitution and its guarantee of individual rights was an important example of
political theories of France. These ideas were discussed intensively in salons and coffee houses and spread among
people through books and newspapers. These were even read aloud.
THE OUTBREAK OF THE REVOLUTION:
The French Revolution went through various stages. When Louis XVI became king of France in1774, he inherited a
treasury which was empty. There was growing discontent within the society of the Old Regime.
1789, Convocation of Estates General. The Third Estate forms National Assembly, the Bastille is stormed, peasant
revolts in the countryside.
1791 A constitution is framed to limit the powers of the king and to guarantee basic right to all humanbeings.
1792-93France becomes a republic. Jacobin Republic overthrown, a Directory rules France.
1795 A new Convention appointed a five-man Directorate to run the state from 26 October, 1795.
1799 The Revolution ends with the rise of Napoleon Bonaparte.
Time Line: The French Revolution
1770s-1780s Economic decline: French Government in deep debt.
1788-1789 Bad harvest, high prices, food riots
1789, May 5 Estates-General convened, demands reforms.
1789, July 14 National Assembly formed. Bastille stormed on July 14. French Revolution starts.
1789, August 4 Night of August 4 ends the rights of the aristocracy.
1789, August 26 Declaration of the Rights of Man
1790 Civil Constitution of the Clergy nationalises the Church.
1792 Constitution of 1791 converts absolute monarchy into a constitutional Monarchy with limited powers.
1792 Austria and Prussia attack revolutionary France
1793 Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette are executed.
1792-1794 The Reign of Terror starts. Austria, Britain, the Netherlands, Prussia and
Spain are at war with France.
Robespierres Committee of Public Safety repels back foreign invaders. Executes many enemies of the people
in France itself.
1794 Robespierre is executed. France is governed by a Directory, a committee of five men.
1799 Napoleon Bonaparte becomes the leader.
WOMENS REVOLUTION
From the very beginning, women were active participants in the events which brought about so many changes in
the French society. Most women of the third estate had to work for a living.Their wages were lower than those of
men. In order to discuss and voice their interests, women started their own political clubs and newspapers. One
of their main demands was that women must enjoy the same political rights as men. Some laws were introduced
to improve the position of women. Their struggle still continues in several parts of the world.It was finally in 1946
that women in France won the right to vote.
THE ABOLITION OF SLAVERY


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There was a triangular slave trade between Europe, Africa and Americas. In the 18th century, there was little
criticism of slavery in France. No laws were passed against it. It was in 1794 that the convention freed all slaves.
But 10 years later slavery was reintroduced by Napoleon. It was finally in 1848 that slavery was abolished in the
French colonies.
THE REVOLUTION AND EVERYDAY LIFE
The years following 1789 in France saw many changes in the lives of men, women and children. The revolutionary
governments took it upon themselves to pass laws that would translate the ideals of liberty and equality into
everyday practice. One important law that came into effect was the abolition of censorship. The ideas of liberty
and democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution. These spread from France to the
rest of Europe during the 19th century.
NAPOLEON
In 1804, Napoleon crowned himself emperor of France. He set out to conquer neighbouring European countries,
dispossessing dynasties and creating kingdoms where he placed members of his family. He saw his role as a
moderniser of Europe. He was finally defeated at Waterloo in 1815.I. ASSESSMENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q.1 The Third Estate comprised
(a) Poor servants and small peasants, landless labourers (b) Peasants and artisans
(c) Big businessmen, merchants, lawyers etc. (d) All the above
Q.2.That each member should have one vote was advocated by:
(a) Georges Danton (b) Rousseau (c) Jean Paul Marat (d) the Jacobins
Q.3.Which of the following decisions was taken by the convention?
(a) Declared France a constitutional monarchy (b) Abolished the monarchy
(c) All men and women above 21 years got the right to vote (d) Declared France a Republic
Q.4.Which of the following is not the idea of the revolutionary journalist Desmoulins about Liberty?
(a) Liberty is finishing off your enemies (b) Liberty is Happiness, Reason, Equality and Justice
(c) Liberty is the Declaration of Right (d) Liberty is not a child who has to be disciplined before maturity
Q.5. How does a Subsistence Crisis happen?
(a) Bad harvest leads to scarcity of grains (b) Food prices rise and the poorest cannot buy bread
(c) Leads to weaker bodies, diseases, deaths and even food riots (d) All the above
Q.6. In the war against Prussia and Austria, the army sang which patriotic song?
(a) 'Liberty', written by an unknown woman poet (b) Marseillaise written by the poet Roget de Lisle
(c) Viva France written by a French peasant (d) None of the above
Q7.Which of the following statements is untrue about the Third Estate?
(a) The Third Estate was made of the poor only (b) Within the Third Estate some were rich and some were poor
(c) Richer members of the Third Estate owned lands (d) Peasants were obliged to serve in the army, or build roads
Q.8. Who wrote the pamphlet called What is the Third Estate?
(a) Mirabeau, a nobleman (b) Abbe Sieyes (c) Rousseau, a philosopher (d) Montesquieu
Q.9. A guillotine was _______________________
(a) A device consisting of two poles and a blade with which a person was beheaded
(b) A fine sword with which heads were cut off
(c) A special noose to hang people (d) none of the above
Q.10. When did the French Revolution begin?
(a) July 14, 1789 (b) January 10, 1780 (c) August 12, 1782 (d) None of the above
Q.11.The word livres stands for:
(a) unit of currency in France (b) tax levied by the Church
(c) Tax to be paid directly to the state (d) none of these
Q.12.What was the effect of the rise of population of France from about 23 million in 1715 to28 million in 1789?
(a) Education became difficult (b) Rapid increase in the demand for food grains
(c) Housing problem occurred (d) All the above
Q.13.What was the Subsistence Crisis which occurred frequently in France?
(a) An extreme situation endangering the basic means of livelihood (b) Subsidy in food grains
(c) Large-scale production of food grains (d) None of the above


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Q.14.What was the name of tax which was directly paid to the state by the Third Estate?
(a) Tithes (b) livres (c) taille (d) all of these
Q.15.What was Estates General?
(a) Post of Army General (b) A political body (c) Head of all landed property (d) Advisor of the king
Q.16Which social groups emerged in the 18th century?
(a) Lawyers (b) Administrative officials(c) Middle class (d) All the above
Q.17. The term Old Regime' is usually used to describe
(a) France before 1000 B.C. (b) Society of France after 1789 A.D.
(c) Society and institutions of France before 1789 A.D. (d) None of the above
Q.18. In which of these countries was the model of government as advocated by Montesquieu put into effect?
(a) USA (b) China (c) USSR (d) All the above
Q.19.Which of these books was written by John Locke?
(a) The Spirit of the Laws (b) Two Treatises on Government(c) The Social Contract (d) All the above
Q.20.When did Louis XVI call an assembly of Estates General to pass proposals for new taxes?
(a) 2 January, 1775 (b) 10 March, 1780 (c) 5 May, 1789 (d) 14 July, 1789
Q.21. In the meeting of the Estates General, the members of the Third Estate demanded that
(a) All the three Estates should have one vote altogether (c) Each Estate should have one vote
(b) Each member of the three Estates should have one vote (d) None of the above
Q.22. On 20th June, the representatives of the Third Estate assembled in the indoor tennis court of Versailles for
(a) hunger strike (b) Drafting a Constitution for France which limited the kings power
(c) Declaring a revolt (d) Making an appeal to support the king in times of need
Q.23. Who led the representatives of the Third Estate in Versailles on 20th June?
(a) Mirabeau (b) Abbe Sieyes (c) Louis XVI (d) Both a and b
Q.24.What did Louis XVI do, seeing the power of his revolting subjects?
(a) He accorded recognition to the National Assembly (b) Accepted checks on his powers
(c) Ordered his army to crush the revolt (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.25.Which of these provisions were passed by the Assembly on the night of 4 August, 1789?
(a) Abolition of feudal system of obligations (b) Clergy had to give up its privileges
(c) Tithes were abolished (d) All the above
Q.26.The new Constitution made France a
(a) Constitutional Monarchy (b) Communist state
(c) Fully democratic state (d) none of the above
Q.27. According to the new constitution of 1791, the National Assembly was to be
(a) Elected directly (b) appointed by the king(c) elected indirectly (d) a hereditary body
Q.28.Which of these people were entitled to vote?
(a) Only men above 25 years of age (b) Men and women above 30 years of age
(c) Men who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourers wage (d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.29.Which of these rights were not established as natural and inalienable rights by the constitution of 1791?
(a) Right to life (b) Freedom of speech and opinion(c) Equality before the law (d) All the above
Q.30. which of these provisions form a part of the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen?
(a) Men are born free (b) They are equal in rights before the law
(c) Liberty means powers to do what is not injurious to others (d) All the above
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1. what was the subsistence crisis? Why did it occur in France during the Old Regime?
Ans. 1- The population of France was on the rise. It rose from 23 million in 1715 to 28 million in 1789.This led to
increase in the demand for food grains.
2-The production of food grains could not keep pace with the demand and the price of bread which was
thestaple diet of the majority Rose rapidly.
3- The wages also did not keep pace with the rise in prices. The gap between the Rich and the poor widened. This
led to the subsistence crisis.
Q.2.What was the system of voting in the Estates General? What change did the Third Estate want in this
system?


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Ans. Voting in the Estates General in the past had been conducted
1. According to the principle that each estate had one vote.
2. Members of the Third Estate demanded that voting must now be conducted by the assembly as a whole,
where each member would have one vote.
3. This was according to the democratic principles put forward by philosophers like Rousseau in his book, The
Social Contract.
Q.3. Describe the incidents that led to the storming of the Bastille.
Ans. 1- National Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting a constitution; the rest of France was seething with turmoil.
2- A severe winter had meant a bad harvest, the price of bread rose. Often bakers exploited the situation and
hoarded supplies.
3- After spending hours in long queues at the bakery, crowds of angry women stormed into the shops.
4- At the same time, the king ordered troops to move into Paris. On 14 July, the agitated crowd stormed and
destroyed Bastille.
Q.4. Describe how the new political system of constitutional monarchy worked in France.
Ans The constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in the National Assembly, which was indirectly
elected. That is,
1. Citizens voted for a group of electors, who in turn chose the Assembly. Not all citizens, however, had the right
to vote.
2. Only men above 25 years of age who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourers wage were given the
status of active citizens, that is, they were entitled to vote.
3. The remaining men and all women were classed as passive citizens.
4. To qualify as an elector and then as a member of the Assembly, a man had to belong to the highest bracket of
taxpayers.
Q.5.What was natural and inalienable rights?
Ans1-.The constitution began with a Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizens
2- Rights such as the right to life, freedom of speech, freedom of opinion, equality before law were established as
natural and inalienable rights, i.e., they belonged to each human being by birth and could not be taken away
3-It was the duty of the state to protect each citizens natural right.
Q.6Why did slavery begin and why was it abolished in French colonies?
Ans1-.The slave trade began in the 17th century. The colonies in the Caribbean Martinique, Guadeloupe and
San Domingo were important Suppliers of commodities.
2- But the reluctance of Europeans to go and work in distant and unfamiliar lands meant a shortage of labour on
the plantations.
3- Throughout the eighteenth century there was little criticism of slavery in France. The National Assembly did
not pass any laws, fearing opposition from businessmen whose incomes depended on the slave trade
4- It was the Convention which in 1794 legislated to free all slaves in the French overseas possessions. This,
however, turned out to be a short-term measure. Napoleon reintroduced slavery.
5- Slavery was finally abolished in French colonies in 1848.
Q.7. Explain what a revolution is. In what way did the French Revolution mean different things to different people?
Ans It is an attempt by a large number of people to change the government of a country, especially by violent action.
1. The Third Estate comprising the common men benefitted from the Revolution. The clergy and nobility had to
relinquish power.
2. Their land was confiscated. Their privileges were finished. The people of lower middle class also benefitted.
3. Position of artisans and workers improved.
4. Clergy, feudal lords, nobles and even women were disappointed. The revolution did not bring real equality as
everyone was not given the right to vote meaning women who got it finally in 1946.
Q.8. Who was the people who comprised the Third Estate? Who paid the taxes and to whom?
Ans1-The people who comprised the Third Estate were big businessmen, merchants, lawyers, peasants, artisans,
small peasants, landless labour and servants.
2- These were 95 per cent of the population. They had to pay taxes to the state. Taxes included taille, tithes and a
number of indirect taxes.
Q.9Who formed the National Assembly? On what date is Bastille Day celebrated and why?


10
Ans.1-The representatives of the Third Estate assembled at Versailles on 20 June and declared themselves a
National Assembly
2-The Bastille Day is celebrated on 14th July every year because on this day the unruly Paris mob stormed and
attacked the prison of Bastille which was considered a symbol of terror and despotism.
Q.10 Name three famous writers and philosophers who influenced the French- Revolution. What were their ideas?
Ans.1. Jean Jacques Rousseau a French Swiss philosopher. His main idea was man is naturally good and that
society of civilisation makes man anxious and unhappy.
2. Mirabeau he brought about a journal and delivered powerful speeches to the crowds at Versailles.
3. Voltaire A famous French writer. He exposed the evils prevailing in the Church and administration. The
numbers of the first two estates were the (i) Clergy and (ii) Nobility respectively.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS ( 5 MARKS ):
Q.1. Explain the importance of the following events on the course of the French Revolution:
(a) Storming of the Bastille (c) The passing of the Civil Constitution of the clergy
Ans. (a) On July 14, 1789, a mob of Paris stormed the fortress the prison of Bastille considered a symbol of
oppression and despotism. The Swiss guards were killed and prisoners set free. The mob stole arms and
ammunition. To this day, France celebrates Bastille Day on 14thJuly every year.
(c) In 1790, the Civil Constitution nationalised the church. The clergy or group of persons who enjoyed special
powers in the church were also forced to relinquish power. Tithes were abolished and lands owned by the church
were confiscated.
Q.2. Describe the Reign of Terror and role played by Robespierre in it.
Ans.The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror.
1. Maximilian Robespierre, leader of the Jacobins, followed the policy of severe control and punishment.
2. All those he saw as enemies of the Republic ex-nobles, clergy, political opponents were arrested, tried
and guillotined if found guilty.
3. He issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and prices.
4. Meat and bread were rationed.
5. Use of expensive white flour was forbidden.
Robespierre followed his policies so relentlessly that even his supporters began to demand moderation.
Finally, he was convicted, arrested and guillotined in July 1794.
Q.3What did the following symbols convey in the Declaration of Rights?
(i) The broken chain (ii) The bundle of rods or fasces (iii)Sceptre
(iv)Snake biting its tail to form a ring (v) Red Phrygian cap (vi)The law tablet
Ans. (i) the broken chains: Chains were used to fetter slaves. A broken chain stands for the act of becoming free.
(ii) The bundle of rods or fasces: One rod can be easily broken, but not an entire bundle.Strength lies in unity.
(iii) Sceptre: Symbol of royal power.
(iv)Snake biting its tail to form a ring: Symbol of eternity. A ring has neither beginning nor end.
(v) Red Phrygian cap: Cap worn by a slave upon becoming free.
(vi)The law tablet: The law is the same for all, and all are equal before it.
Q.4.write short note on Jacobins?
Ans.1- They got their name from the former convent of St. Jacob in Paris.
2-They belonged to the less prosperous sections of the society.
3-They included small shopkeepers, artisans such as shoemakers, pastry cooks, watch-makers, printers, as
well as servants and daily wage earners.
4-Their leader was Maximilian Robespierre.
5-A large group among the Jacobin decided to wear long striped trousers similar to those worn by dock workers.
6-This was to set themselves apart from the fashionable sections of society especially the nobles who wore knee
breeches.
Q.5. Discuss the participation of women in political clubs, their activities and demands.
Ans.From the very beginning, women were active participants in the events which brought about so many
important changes in French society.
1. They hoped that their involvement would pressurise the revolutionary government to introduce measures to
improve their lives.


11
2. Most women of the third estate had to work for a living. They worked as seamstresses or laundresses, sold
flowers, fruits and vegetables at the market, or were employed as domestic servants in the houses of
prosperous people.
3. Most women did not have access to education or job training. Their wages were lower than those of men.
4. One of their main demands was that women should be given the same political rights as men.
5. Women were disappointed that the constitution of 1791 reduced them to passive citizens.
Q.7. Describe the causes for the fall of Jacobin government in France.
Ans. (i) The Jacobin government in France was based on extreme measures. The period from 1793-1794 is
referred to as the reign of terror. Robespierre followed a policy of severe Control and punishment.
(ii)All those he saw as being enemies of the republic nobles and clergy, members of other political parties, even
members of his own party who did not agree with his methodswere arrested, imprisoned and guillotined. This
led to chaos and resentment among the people.
(iii)Robespierres government ordered shutting down of churches and converting church buildings into barricades
or offices. Thus the clergy turned against the Jacobin regime and hastened its fall.
(iv) Robespierre pursued his policies so relentlessly that even his supporters turned against him. They began to
demand moderation and a middle path. Finally, he himself was tried by a court in July 1794, arrested and
guillotined.
HOTS
Q.1 What landmark decisions were taken by the National Assembly led by the Third Estate on 4th August, 1789
Ans.1- Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly and accepted theprinciple that his powers
would be checked by a constitution.
2- On 4 August 1789, the Assembly passed a decree abolishing the feudal system of obligations and taxes.
Members of the clergy too were forced to give up their privileges
.3- Tithes were abolished and lands owned by the church were confiscated. As a result, the government acquired
assets worth at least 2, billion lives.ORMATIVE ASSESSMENT
Q.2. Describe the importance of Declaration of the Right of Man in France.
Ans 1-The Declaration of the Right of Man in France was a landmark decision in the history of France.
2- The constitution began with a declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen. Rights such as the right to life,
freedom of speech, freedom of opinion, equality before law, were established as natural and inalienable rights.
That is, they belonged to each human being by birth and could not be taken away
.3- It was the duty of the state to protect each citizen's natural rights. The declaration of the Right of Man and
Citizens influenced revolutionary movements elsewhere too.
Q.3. Discuss the participation of women in political clubs, their activities and demands.
Ans. 1-Women played important role regarding various activities. In order to discuss and voice their interests
women started their own political clubs and newspapers. About sixty womens clubs came up in different French
cities.
2.The Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women was the most famous of them, their main demands were that
(a) Women should be given the same political rights as men.
(b) They demanded the right to vote, to be elected to the Assembly and to hold political office.
3- In the early years, the revolutionary government did introduce laws that helped improve the lives of women.
Together with the creation of state schools, schooling was made compulsory for all girls. Their fathers could no
longer force them into marriage against their will. Marriage was made into a contract entered into freely and
registered under civil law. Divorce was made legal, and could be applied for by both women and men. Women
could now train for jobs, could become artists or run small businesses.
4- Womens struggle for equal political rights, however, continued. During the Reign of Terror, the new
government issued laws ordering closure of womens clubs, and banning their political activities. Womens
movements for voting rights and equal wages continued through the next two hundred years in many countries
of the world. It was finally in 1946 that women in France won the right to vote.
VALUE BASED QUESTIONS:
Q.1.Which single event turned the revolution into a Reign of Terror? Describe the role of Robespierre in it.
Q.2. Describe the role of the Bourbon kings in the French Revolution.
Q.3. How was French Society organised? What privileges did certain sections of society enjoy?


12
KEY OF MCQ
1(d)2(b)3(d)4(b)5(d)6(b)7(a)8(b)9(a)10(a)11(a)12(b)13(a)14(c)15(b)16 (d)17(c)18(a)19(b)20(c)21(a)22(b)23(d)
24(d)25(d)26(a)27(c)28(d)29(d)30(d)


CH 2 : SOCIALISM IN EUROPE AND THE RUSSIAN REVOLUTION CONCEPTS THE AGE OF SOCIAL CHANGE

Liberals: Wanted a nation which tolerated all religions. They argued for an elected Parliamentary government,
subject to laws interpreted by a well-trained judiciary that was Independent of rulers and officials. They were not
democrats.
Radicals: Wanted a nation in which government was based on the majority of a countrys Population. They
disliked concentration of property in hands of a few, not the existence of private property.
Conservatives: They resisted change. After the revolution they started accepting changeProvided it was slow and
had links and respected the past.
THE RUSSIAN REVOLUTION:
Economy and Society: Most of the Russian population were agriculturalist. Industries were being set up which
was mostly private property of industrialists. Workers were divided into groups but they did unite to strike work
when they were dissatisfied. Peasants had no respect for nobility, very unlike the French peasant. Russian
peasants were the only peasant community which pooled their land and their commune divided it.
Socialism in Russia: All political parties were illegal in Russia before 1914.
The Russian Socialist Democratic Labour Party was formed in 1900. It struggled to give peasants their rights over
land that belonged to nobles. As land was divided among peasants periodically and it was felt that peasants and
not workers would be the main source of the revolution. But Lenin did not agree with this as he felt that peasants
were not one social group. The party was divided into Bolsheviks and Mensheviks.
The 1905 Revolution: Russia was an autocracy. The Tsar was not subject to the parliament. Liberals wanted to
end this state of affairs. They worked towards demanding a constitution during the Revolution of 1905.
Bloody Sunday: Prices of essential goods rose so quickly by 1904 that the real wages declined by 20%. During this
time, four members of the Putilov Iron Works were dismissed. Action was called for. Over 110,000 workers in St.
Petersburg went on strike demanding a reduction in working hours and increase in wages. This procession was
attacked by the police and Cossacks. Over 100 workers were killed. Strikes took place as a reaction. People
demanded a constituent assembly. The Tsar allowed the creation of an elected consultative Parliament or Duma.
The Tsar dismissed the first Duma within 75 days and announced the election of a second Duma.
The First World War and the Russian Empire : In Russia, the war was initially very popular but later the support
grew thin. Anti-German sentiments ran high. Russian armies lost badly in Germany and Austria. There were 7
million casualties and 3 million refugees in Russia. The war also affected the industry. There was labour shortage,
railway lines were shut down and small workshops were closed down. There was shortage of grain and hence of
bread.
THE FEBRUARY REVOLUTION IN PETROGRAD EVENTS:
In the winter of 1917, Petrograd was grim. There was food shortage in the workers quarters.
22 February: a lockout took place at a factory. Workers of 50 other factories joined insympathy. Women also led
and participated in the strikes. This came to be called the International Womens Day An officer was shot at the
barracks of a regiment and other regiments mutinied, voting to join the striking workers gathered to form a soviet
or council. This was the Petrograd Soviet.A delegation went to meet the Tsar, military commanders advised him
to abdicate.The Tsar abdicated on 2nd March.
A Provincial Government was formed by the Soviet and Duma leaders to run the country.The people involved
were the parliamentarians, workers, women workers, soldiers and military commanders.
Effects:
Restrictions on public meetings and associations were removed.Soviets were set up everywhere.
In individual areas factory committees were formed which began questioning the way industrialists ran their
factories. Soldiers committees were formed in the army.The provisional government saw its power declining and
Bolshevik influence grow. It decided to take stern measures against the spreading discontent.It resisted attempts
by workers to run factories and arrested leaders.


13
Peasants and the socialist revolutionary leaders pressed for a redistribution of land. Land committees were
formed and peasants seized land between July and September 1917.
OCTOBER REVOLUTION:
16th October 1917 Lenin persuaded the Petrograd Soviet and Bolshevik Party to agree to a socialist seizure of
power. A Military Revolutionary Committee was appointed by the Soviet to organise seizure.
Uprising began on 24th October. Prime Minister Kerenskii left the city to summon troops.Military men loyal to the
government seized the buildings of two Bolshevik newspapers. Progovernment troops were sent to take over
telephone and telegraph offices and protect the Winter Palace.In response Military Revolutionary Committee
ordered to seize government offices and arrest the ministers.The Aurora ship shelled the Winter Palace. Other
ships took over strategic points.By night the city had been taken over and ministers had surrendered.
All Russian Congress of Soviets in Petrograd approved the Bolshevik action.Heavy fighting in Moscow by
December, the Bolsheviks controlled the Moscow - Petrograd area. The people involved were Lenin, the
Bolsheviks, and troops (pro-government).
Effects
Most industry and banks were nationalised in November 1917.Land was declared social property and peasants
were allowed to seize the land of the nobility.Use of old titles was banned.New uniforms were designed for the
army and officials.Russia became a one party state.Trade unions were kept under party control.A process of
centralised planning was introduced. This led to economic growth.Industrial production increased.An extended
schooling system developed.Collectivisation of farms started.
The Civil War- When the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution; the Russian army began to break up. Non-
Bolshevik socialists, liberals and supporters of autocracy condemned the Bolshevik uprising. They were supported
by French, American, British and Japanese troops. All these fought a war with the Bolsheviks.
Making a Socialist Society The Bolsheviks kept industries and banks nationalised during the civil war. A process
of centralised planning was introduced. Rapid construction and industrialisation started. An extended schooling
system developed.
Stalin and Collective Farming Stalin believed that rich peasants and traders stocked supplies to create shortage
of grains. Hence, collectivisation was the need of the hour. This system would also help to modernise farms.
Those farmers who resisted collectivisation were punished, deported or exiled.
GLOBAL INFLUENCE:
By the 1950s, it was recognised in the country and outside that everything was not in keeping with the ideals of
the Russian revolution. Though its industries and agriculture had developed and the poor were being fed, the
essential freedom to its citizens was being denied. However, it was recognised that social ideals still enjoyed
respect among the Russians. But in each country the ideas of socialism were rethought in a variety of different
ways.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]:
Q.1.Which among the following groups was against any kind of political or social change?
(a) Nationalists (b) conservatives (c) liberals (d) radicals
Q.2.The people who wanted to put an immediate end to the existing governments in Europe
(In 1815) were called:
(a) Nationalists (b) liberals (c) revolutionaries (d) radicals
Q.3.Which of these statements is/are correct about Europe after the French Revolution?
(a) Suddenly it seemed possible to change the aristocratic society of the 18th century.
(b) However not everyone wanted a complete transformation of society.
(c) Some wanted gradual shift, while others wanted complete change of society.
(d) All the above
Q.4.The majority religion of Russia was ___________ but the empire also included _________
(a) Russian Orthodox Church, grown out of Greek Orthodox Church
(b) Russian Orthodox Church
(c) Catholics, Protestants, Muslims and Buddhists
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.5.Which of the following factors made autocracy unpopular in Russia?


14
(a) The German origin of the Tsarina Alexandra (b) Poor advisors like the Monk Rasputin
(c) The huge cost of fighting in the World War I (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.6Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Socialists till 1914?
(a) They helped various associations to win seats in the parliaments in Europe
(b) Socialists, supported by strong figures in parliamentary politics, shaped and influenced legislation
(c) They succeeded in forming a government in Europe
(d) Governments continued to be run by conservatives, liberals and radicals
Q.7.How can you say that the liberals were not democrats?
(a) They did not believe in universal adult franchise (b) They felt that only men of property should have a right to vote
(c) Women should not have right to vote (d) All the above
Q.8.Which of the following statements is not correct about the radicals?
(a) They supported womens right to vote
(b) They opposed the privileges of great landowners
(c) They were completely against the existence of private property
(d) They wanted a government based on the majority of a countrys population
Q.9.What kind of developments took place as a result of new political trends in Europe?
(a) Industrial Revolution occurred (b) New cities came up (c) Railways expanded (d) All the above
Q.10. By the mid-19th century in Europe, the idea which attracted widespread attention on the restructuring of
society was
(a) Capitalism (b) Socialism (c) Dictatorship (d) None
Q.11. Who conspired in Italy to bring about a revolution?
(a) Bismarck (b) Karl Marx (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) None
Q.12. When was the Socialist Revolutionary Party formed in Russia?
(a) 1898 (b) 1900 (c) 1905 (d) 1910
Q.13What were the demands made by the workers in St. Petersburg who went on a strike?
(a) Reduction of working time to eight hours (b) Increase in wages
(c) Improvement in working conditions (d) All the above
Q.14.Why did the Tsar dismiss the first Duma within 75 days of its election?
(a) Because it was incapable of taking good decisions (b)Because the Tsar did not want anyone to question his authority
(c) The term of first Duma was of 75 days only (d) None of the above
Q.15.In the World War I, which started in 1914, Russia fought against
(a) Britain and France (b) Germany and Austria (c) America (d) All the above
Q.16.What was the position of Russias army in Germany and Austria between 1914 and 1916?
(a) Russian army brought a lot of destruction in Germany and Austria. (b) It killed a large member of people and
was victorious (c) Russian army lost badly (d) None of the above
Q.17.Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) By 1916, railway lines in Russia began to break down
(b) There were labour shortages and small workshops producing essentials were shut down
(c) Large supplies of grain were sent to feed the army
(d) All the above
Q.18. Why did a lockout take place at a factory on the right bank of the River Neva on 22 February, 1917?
(a) It was extremely cold for the workers to work, because of frost and heavy snow
(b) The workers were being forced to join the army
(c) Food shortages were deeply felt in the workers quarters situated on the left bank of theRiver Neva
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.19. On 27th February 1917, soldiers and striking workers gathered to form a council called
(a) Soviet Council (b) Petrograd Soviet (c) Moscow Union (d) Russian Council
Q.20.When did the Tsar abdicate the throne?
(a) 28 February, 1917 (b) 2 March, 1917 (c) 10 April, 1917 (d) 15 May, 1918
Q.21.Which of these demands is/are referred to as Lenins 'April Theses'?
(a) World War I should be brought to an end (b) Land should be transferred to the peasants
(c) Banks should be nationalised (d) All the above
Q.22. Why was most of the Bolshevik Party members initially surprised by April Theses?


15
(a) They wanted continuation of World War I (b) They thought that time was not ripe for a socialist revolution
(c) Government needed to be supported at this time (d) All the above
Q.23. Who led the Bolshevik group in Russia during Russian Revolution?
(a) Karl Marx (b) Friedrich Engels (c) Vladimir Lenin (d) Trotsky
Q.24. Who started Collectivisation Programme in Russia?
(a) Lenin (b) Karl Marx (c) Rasputin (d) Stalin
Q.25. Socialists took over the government in Russia through the?
(a) October Revolution in 1917 (b) November Revolution in 1918
(c) December Revolution in 1919 (d) February Revolution in 1920
Q.26. After 1905, most committees and trade unions were:
(a) Declared illegal (b) declared legal (c) active (d) none of the above
Q.27. At the beginning of the 20th century, the majority of Russian people worked in the:
(a) Industrial sector (b) Agricultural sector (c) Mining sector (d) Transport sector
Q.28.In the Russian Civil War the Bolsheviks and the socialist revolutionaries were represented by which of the
following colours?
(a) Whites and Reds (b) Greens and Whites (c) Reds and Greens (d) None of these
Q.29.The commune of farmers was known as:
(a) Tsar (b) Duma (c) Mir (d) Cossacks
Q.30. Who led the procession of workers to the event Bloody Sunday in Russia?
(a) Lenin (b) Stalin (c) Kerenski (d) Father Gapon
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]:
Q.1. Differentiate between the ideas of the liberals and radicals in Europe (take the time period as after the
French Revolution).
Ans.1-The liberals did not believe in universal franchise. In contrast, radicals wanted a nation in which
government was based on the majority of a countrys population.
2-Liberals felt men of prosperity mainly should have the vote. They did not want the vote for women. On the
other hand the radicals supported womens suffragette movements and opposed the privileges of great
landowners and wealthy factory owners.
3-They were not against the existence of private property but disliked concentration of property in the hands of a few.
Q.2.Why do we say that liberals during this time could not be called democrats?
Ans.The liberals opposed the uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers and wanted to safeguard the rights of
individuals against governments.
They also argued for a representative, elected parliamentary government, subject to laws interpreted by a well-trained
judiciary that was independent of rulers and officials. But, however, they could not be called democrats.
They did not believe in universal adult franchise and also did not want the vote for women. They felt right to vote should
only be for men of property.
Q.3. How should society, according to liberals and radicals, develop?
Ans. 1. Liberals and radicals were often property owners and employers.
2. They acquired wealth through industrial ventures and trade, they firmly believed that such efforts should be encouraged
that its profits would be reaped if the work force in the economy was healthy and citizen were educated.
3. They put forth that societies could develop if the poor could labour, freedom of individuals was ensured and
those with capital could operate without restraint.
Q.4. Why were socialists against private property and saw it as the root of all social ills?
Ans 1-. The people who propagated socialism said that individuals, who owned property, did provide employment
to many people but they were concerned with personal gains only.
2- They did not bother about the welfare of the people.
3-They felt that if society controlled property, more attention would be paid to collective social interests.
Q.5. Describe the incident known as Bloody Sunday.
Ans. 1. Over 110,000 workers in St. Petersburg went on strike in 1905, demanding a reduction in the working day
to eight hours, an increase in wages and improvement in working conditions.
2. When this procession reached the Winter Palace it was attacked by the police and the Cossacks. 3. Over 100
workers were killed and about 300 wounded.
This incident, known as Bloody Sunday, started a series of events that became known as the 1905 Revolution.


16
Q.6.What effect did the war have on the industry of Russia.
Ans. Russian industries were very few in number and the country were cut off from other suppliers of industrial
goods by German control of the Baltic Sea. Industrial equipment disintegrated more rapidly in Russia than
elsewhere in Europe. By 1916 railway lines began to break down. Able bodied men were called up to the war. As a
result, there were labour shortages and small workshops producing essential commodities were shut down.
Q.7. Why was the decision to collectivise farms taken?
Ans. 1. It was thought that rich peasants and traders in the countryside were holding stocks in the hope of higher prices.
2. This created a shortage.
3. As shortage continued, the decision was taken to collectivise farms as Lenin felt that the small size of farms
caused the shortage. 4. They also felt that these small size farms could not be modernised.
5. They felt that the need of the hour was to develop modern farms and run them along industrial lines with machinery.
Q.8. By the 1950s it was acknowledged within the country that the style of government in the USSR was not in
keeping with the ideals of the Russian Revolution. Why was this said?
Ans. 1. In 1950s it was acknowledged within the country that the style of government in the USSR was not in
keeping with the ideals of the Russia Revolution. 2. Russia, was a backward country, had become a great power.
3. Its industries and agriculture had developed and the poor were being fed.
4. But it had denied the essential freedoms to its citizens and carried out its developmental projects through
repressive policies.
Q.9.What was the role of the Tsar in the peasant revolt of 1905? Discuss briefly.
Ans.1-During the 1905 Revolution, the Tsar allowed the creation of an elected consultative parliament or Duma.
The Tsar dismissed it within 75 days and re-elected.
2-Second Duma: within 3 months. He did not want any questioning of his authority or any reduction in his power.
He changed the voting laws and packed the third Duma with conservative politicians.
Q.10.What was the basic principle of the Marxist theory?
Ans. 1-Marx believed that the condition of workers could not improve as long as profit was accumulated by
private capitalists.
2- Workers had to overthrow capitalism and the rule of private property.
3- Workers must construct a radically socialist society where all property was socially controlled. This would be a
communist society and a Communist Party was the natural society of the future.
Q.11 Discuss briefly the Five Years Plans.
Ans. A process of centralised planning was introduced. Officials assessed how the economy could work and set
targets for a five-year period, on this basis they made the five-year plans. The government fixed all prices to
promote industrial growth during the first two plans (1927-32 and 1933-38) centralised planning led to economic
growth.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]:
Q.1. Explain how a society, according to socialists, can operate without property. What would be the basis of socialist society?
Ans. Co-operatives could not be built on a wide scale only through individual initiative.
1. They wanted that governments must encourage co-operatives and replace capitalist enterprise.
2. They said that cooperatives were to be associations of people who produced goods together and divided the
profits according to the work done by members.
3. More ideas were added to this body of arguments.
4. These ideas were added by Karl Marx and Fredric Engels. Marx argued that industrial society was capitalist.
Capitalists owned the capital invested in factories.
5. The profit which came to them through these factories was produced by the workers. The workers
contributed to the profits but did not gain anything.
Q.2.Discuss Stalins collectivisation programme.
Ans. 1. Stalin felt that collectivisation would definitely solve the problem of shortage.
2. From 1929 the Party forced the peasants to cultivate in collective farms (Kolkhoz).
3. The bulk of land and implements were transferred to the ownership of collective farms.
4. Peasants worked on the land and the Kolkhoz profit was shared.
5. Enraged peasants resisted the authorities and destroyed their livestock. Between 1929 and 1931 the number
of cattle fell by 1/3.
Q.3. Comment on the role of Vladimir Lenin in the revolution and his contribution to the economic policy.


17
Ans. 1.Vladimir Lenin played an important part in the Russian Revolution of 1917.
2. Lenin led the revolutionaries after the fall of the Tsar under Lenins leadership; the Bolshevik Party put forward
clear policies to end the war.
3. Transfer land to the peasants and advance the slogan All power to the Soviets.
4. He was of the opinion that no genuine democracy could be established unless all the non-Russians were given equal rights.
5. These were the real objectives of the Russian Revolution and he fulfilled all these objectives. That is why Lenins
name has become inseparable from the Russian Revolution.
Q.4.What was the immediate consequences of the Russian Revolution?
Ans.1. Most industries and banks were nationalised in November 1917.
2. This meant the government took over the ownership and management. Land was declared social property.
3. Peasants were allowed to seize the land of the nobility.
4. In cities, Bolsheviks enforced the partition of large houses according to family requirements.
5. They banned the use of old title of aristocracy.
Q.5. How did Russia's participation in the World War cause the fall of the Tsar?
Ans. 1. The war was initially popular and people rallied around Tsar Nicholas II.
2. The war continued, support became thin and Tsar's popularity declined. Anti-German sentiments became high.
3. The Tsarina Alexandra's German origins and poor advisers, especially a monk called Rasputin, made the
autocracy unpopular.
4. Defeats were shocking and demoralising. Russia's armies lost badly in Germany and Austria between 1914 and
1916. There were over 7 million casualties by 1917.
5. The destruction of crops and buildings led to over 3 million refugees in Russia. The situation discredited the
government and the Tsar.
HOTS QUESTIONS:
Q.1- What conditions led to the Russian Civil War in 1918-1920? Any four points.
Ans. (i) The Russian army began to break up after Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution. Soldiers who were
mostly peasants wished to go home for the land and deserted.
(ii) Now Bolshevik Socialists, Liberals and supporters of autocracy condemned the Bolshevik uprising. Their
leaders organised the troops to fight the Bolsheviks.
(iii) During 1918 and 1919, the greens (Socialist Revolutionaries) and whites (pro-Tsarists) controlled most of
the Russian empire. They were backed by French, American, British and Japanese troops. As these troops and the
Bolsheviks fought a civil war, looting, banditry and famine became common.
(iv)Supporters of private property among whites took harsh steps with peasants who had seized land.
Q.2- Comment on the global influence of the Russian Revolution.
Ans.1- Existing socialist parties in Europe did not wholly approve of the way the Bolsheviks took power and kept it.
2-Still the possibility of a workers state fired their imagination across the world. In many countries communist
parties were formed.
3-Bolsheviks encouraged colonial people to follow their example. Many non-Russians received education in the
USSRs University of the Peoples of the East. By the time the Second World War broke out, the USSR had given
socialism a global face and world stature.
Q.3- What were the social, economic and political conditions in Russia before 1905?
Ans. Social conditions: People of different social status, classes, religions and diverse nationalities were there.
Imposition of Russian language was made to belittle the cultures of these people. Main groups of Russian
population were farmers, workers, landowners, capitalists, industrialists and traders.
Economic conditions: 85 per cent of Russians were agriculturists. Agriculture provided employment to a vast
population. Cultivators produced food for market as well as their own needs
Political conditions: Nobles got their power and position through their services to the Tsar, not through local
popularity. This was unlike France where peasants respected nobles and fought for them. In Russia, peasants
wanted the land of the nobles; they refused to pay rent and even murdered landlords.
VALUE BASED QUESTION:
Q.1. Why socialists were against private property?
Q.2. Mention the demands of the workers who went on strike at St. Petersburg in 1904.
Q.3. Discuss the causes that led to the Revolution of 1917


18
Key To M C Q:
1-(b)2-(c)3-(d)4-(d)5-(d)6-(b)7-(d)8-(c)9-(d)10-(b)11- (c)12-(b)13 (d)14 (b)15-(b)16-(c)17-(d)18-(d)19-(b) 20-(b) 21-
(d)22-(b)23-(c)24-(d)25-(a)26 (a)27- (b)28-(c)29- (c)30- (d)

CHAPTER 3: NAZISM AND THE RISE OF HITLER
CONCEPTS:
BIRTH OF THE WEIMER REPUBLIC: Germany fought the First World War (19141918) along with the Austrian
empire and against the Allies (England, France and Russia).
Germany initially made gains by occupying France and Belgium. However, the Allies won defeating Germany and
the Central Powers in 1918.A National Assembly met at Weimer and established a democratic constitution with a
federal structure. The republic, however, was not received well by its own people largely because of the terms it
was forced to accept after Germanys defeat at the end of the First World War. Many Germans held the new
Weimer Republic responsible for not only the defeat in the war but the disgrace at Versailles.
The Effects of the War- The war had a devastating impact on the entire continent both psychologically and
financially. From being a creditor, Europe became a debtor. The supporters of the Weimer Republic were
criticised and became easy targets of attack in the conservative nationalist circles. Soldiers came to be placed
above civilians. Aggressive war propaganda and national honour became important.
Political Radicalism and Economic Crisis: The birth of the Weimer Republic coincided with the uprising of the
Spartacist League on the pattern of the Bolshevik Revolution in Russia. The Sparta cists founded the Communist
Party of Germany. Political radicalisation was heightened by the economic crisis of 1923. As Germany refused to
pay the war reparations, France occupied its leading industrial area, Ruhr. Germany retaliated with printing paper
currency recklessly. The value of the mark collapsed. Prices of goods soared. There was hyperinflation.
The Years of Depression
19241928 saw some stability, yet it was built on sand. Germany was totally dependent on short term loans,
largely from the USA. This support was withdrawn with the crash in 1929 of the Wall Street Exchange. German
economy was hit badly. The middle class and working population was filled with the fear of Proletarianisation.
The Weimer Republic had some inherent defects:
1. Proportional Representation
2. Article 48 which gave the President the powers to impose emergency, suspend civil rights and rule by decree.
HITLERS RISE TO POWER
Hitler was born in Austria in 1889. He earned many medals for bravery in the First World War.The German defeat
horrified him. The Treaty of Versailles made him furious. He joined theGerman Workers Party and renamed it
National Socialist German Workers Party. This later came to be known as the Nazi Party. Nazism became a mass
movement only during the Great Depression. The Nazi propaganda stirred hopes of a better future. Hitler was a
powerful and effective speaker. He promised the people a strong nation where all would get employment.
The Destruction of Democracy Hitler achieved the highest position in the cabinet of ministries on 30 January
1933. Hitler now set out to dismantle the structures of democratic rule. The Fire Decree of 28 February 1933
suspended civic rights like freedom of speech, press and assembly. Communists were hurriedly packed off to new
established concentration camps. All political parties were banned. Special surveillance and security forces were
created to control the people and rule with impunity.
Reconstruction: Economist Hjalmar Schacht was given the responsibility of economic recovery. This was to be
done through a state funded work creation programme. Hitler pulled out of the League of Nations in 1933,
reoccupied the Rhineland in 1936 and integrated Austria and Germany in 1938 under the slogan: One people, one
empire, one leader. He then took Sudetenland from Czechoslovakia. Hitler had the unspoken support of England.
Hitler did not stop here. He chose war as a way out of the Economic Crisis .Resources were to be accumulated
through expansion of territory. In September 1940 Germany invaded Poland. This started a war with France and
England. USA resisted involvement in the war. But when Japan extended its support to Hitler and bombarded
Pearl Harbour, the USA entered the war. The war ended in 1945 with Hitlers defeat and the US bombing of
Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan.
THE NAZI WORLD VIEW
According to Nazi ideology there was no equality between people, but only racial hierarchy. TheNazis quickly
began to implement their dream of creating an exclusive racial community of pure Germans by physically


19
eliminating all those who were considered undesirable. They wanted a society of pure and healthy Nordic Aryans.
Jews, gypsies, blacks, Russian, Poles, even certain Germans and abnormal were considered undesirable.
The other aspect of Hitlers ideology related to the geopolitical concept of Lebensraum, or living space. Jews were
the worst sufferers in Nazi Germany. Hitler believed in pseudoscientific theories of race which said that
conversion was no solution to the Jewish problem. It had to be solved through their total elimination. From 1933
1938 the Nazis terrorised, pauperised and segregated the Jews, compelling them to leave the country. The next
phase, 19391945, aimed at concentrating them in certain areas and then killing them in gas chambers in Poland.
The Racial Utopia
Genocide and war became two sides of the same coin. Occupied Poland was divided. Poles were forced to leave
their homes and properties behind to be occupied by ethnic Germans brought in from occupied Europe.
YOUTH IN NAZI GERMANY
Hitler felt that a strong Nazi society could be established by teaching Nazi ideology to children.All schools were
given German teachers. Children were divided into two groups desirable and 3undesirable. Textbooks were
rewritten, functions of sports in schools was to nurture the spirit of violence and aggression. Ten-year-olds had to
enter Jungvolk. At 14, all boys joined HitlerYouth, they joined the Labour Service at 18.
The Nazi Cult of Motherhood Women were told to be good mothers and rear pure blooded Aryan children.
They were encouraged to produce many children.
The Art of Propaganda the Nazi regime used language and media with care and often to great effect. They used
films, pictures, radio, posters, etc. to spread hatred for Jews
Crimes against Humanity People saw the world through Nazi eyes and spoke the Nazi language. At times even
the Jews began to believe in the Nazi stereotypes about them.
Knowledge about the Holocaust It was only after the war ended that people came to know about what had
happened. The Jews wanted the world to know about the atrocities and sufferings they had endured during the
Nazi killing operations. They just wanted to live, even if it was for a few hours, to tell the world about the
Holocaust. SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q.1.What was the response of the Germans to the new Weimar Republic?
(a) They held the new Weimar Republic responsible for Germanys defeat and the disgrace at Versailles
(b) The republic carried the burden of war guilt and national humiliation
(c) It became the target of attacks in the conservative national circles
(d) All the above
Q.2. In what ways did the First World War leave a deep imprint on European society and polity?
(a) Soldiers were put above civilians, trench-life was glorified
(b) Politicians and publicists laid stress on men to be aggressive and masculine
(c) Aggressive war propaganda and national honour were given the most support and
Conservative dictatorships were welcomed
(d) All the above
Q.3.Which of the following statements is false about soldiers in the World War I?
(a) The soldiers, in reality, led miserable lives in trenches, survived with feeding on the copras
(b) They faced poisonous gas and enemy shelling and loss of comrades
(c) All soldiers were ready to die for their countrys honour and personal glory
(d) Aggressive propaganda glorified war
Q.4.The following statements are about Hitlers early life. Which of them is incorrect?
(a) Hitler was born in 1889 in Austria and spent his youth in poverty
(b) He joined the army during World War I and earned accolades for bravery
(c) He was totally unaffected by German defeat in the war and only thought of improving his career
(d) In 1919 he joined a small group called the German Workers' Party, which later was known as the Nazi Party.
Q.5.The Treaty of Versailles (1920) signed at the end of World War I, was harsh and humiliating for Germany,
because
(a) Germany lost its overseas colonies, and 13 per cent of its territories
(b) It lost 75% of its iron and 26% of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania, was forced to paycompensation of 6
billion pounds
(c) The western powers demilitarised Germany and they occupied resource-rich Rhineland in the 1920s


20
(d) All the above
Q.6.Which of the following was a special surveillance and security force created by Hitler?
(a) Regular police force in green uniform and storm troopers
(b) Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads)
(c) Criminal police (SD), the security service
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.7.What was Hitlers historic blunder and why?
(a) Attack on Soviet Union in 1941 was a historic blunder by Hitler
(b) He exposed his western front to British aerial bombing
(c) The Soviet Red Army inflicted a crushing and humiliating defeat on Germany at Stalingrad
(d) All the above
Q.8. Hitlers world view, which was also the Nazi ideology, was
(a) There was no equality between people, only a racial hierarchy
(b) The blond, blue-eyed, Nordic German Aryans were at the top and Jews at the bottom. The coloured people
were placed in between
(c) Jews were the anti-race, the arch enemies of the Aryans
(d) All the above
Q.9. Why did Helmuts father kill himself in the spring of 1945?
(a) He was depressed by Germanys defeat in Second World War
(b) He feared that common people would mishandle him and his family
(c) He feared revenge by the Allied Powers
(d) He wanted to die because of the crimes he had committed during Nazi rule
Q.10.Which of the following countries led the Allied Powers in the Second World War?
(a) UK and France (b) USSR and USA (c) Germany and Austria (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.11.Which of the following bodies was set up to try and prosecute the Nazi war criminals at the end of World War II?
(a) International Military Tribunal (b) British Military Tribunal (c) Allied Military Tribunal (d) Allied Judicial Court
Q.12. Germanys genocidal war was against which of the following people?
(a) Jews and political opponents (b) Gypsies and Polish civilians
(c) Germans who were considered mentally and physically disabled (d) All the above
Q.13. Why did the Nuremburg Tribunal sentence only 11 Nazis to death for such a massive genocide?
(a) Only these 11 Nazis were found guilty
(b) The Allies did not want to be harsh on the defeated Germany as they had been after WorldWar I
(c) Germany promised never to repeat such an act
(d) Germany was ready to pay a huge compensation to the Allied countries for these killings
Q.14. Against which of these countries had Germany fought during World War I (1914-1918)?
(a) England (b) France (c) Russia (d) All the above
Q.15.What was the most important result of the Spartacus League uprising in Germany in 1918-19?
(a) The Weimar Republic crushed the rebellion
(b) The Spartacists founded the Communist Party of Germany
(c) The Weimar government accepted the demands of the Spartacus League
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.16. Who were called the November criminals?
(a) The Opponents of Weimar Republic (b) The Emperor who abdicated, and his men
(c) The supporters of Weimar Republic (d) none of the above
Q.17. War in 1917 led to the strengthening of Allies and the defeat of Germany because of entry of
(a) China (b) Japan (c) the USA (d) Spain
Q.18.The National Assembly met at Weimer and decided to establish
(a) A democratic constitution with a federal structure (b) A communist form of government
(c) A powerful monarchy (d) A military state
Q.19.What was Dawes Plan?
(a) A plan which imposed more fines on Germany (b) A plan which withdrew all punishment from Germany
(c) A plan which reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans (d) None
Q.20.Which of the following statements is true about the economic crisis in Germany in 1923?


21
(a) The value of Mark (German currency) collapsed (b) Prices of goods soared high
(c) Weimer Republic brought economic prosperity (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.21.What gave Nazi state its reputation as the most dreaded criminal state?
(a) Extra-constitutional powers were given to the newly organised forces like Gestapo, the SS and SD
(b) People could be detained in Gestapo torture chambers and sent to concentration camps
(c) No legal procedures were there for the arrested people
(d) All the above
Q.22Which of the following was a feature of Hitlers foreign policy?
(a) He pulled out of the League of Nations in 1933 (b) He decided not to attack any country
(c) He thanked the Allied Powers for having put Germany on the right track (d) All the above
Q.23.What was the slogan coined by Hitler when he followed his aggressive foreign policy?
(a) Messenger from God (b) Conquer the world
(c) One people, one empire, and one leader (d) we are Aryans, the real rulers
Q.24.Which incident led to the start of World War II?
(a) German invasion of Switzerland (b) German invasion of Poland
(c) Russian invasion of Germany (d) Japans sinking of ship at Pearl Harbour
Q.25.When and among which countries was the Tripartite Pact signed?
(a) 1940, Germany, Italy and Japan (b) 1939, Germany, Austria and USSR
(c) 1940, England, France and USA (d) 1938, England, Germany and USSR
Q.26.When did Germany attack the Soviet Union?
(a) 1939 (b) 1941 (c) 1942 (d) 1943
Q.27.Which incident persuaded the USA to join the war?
(a) Hitlers attack on Eastern Europe (b) Hitlers policy of genocide of the Jews
(c) Helplessness of England and France (d) Japans attack on the US base at Pearl Harbour
Q.28. When did the Second World War come to an end?
(a) January 1944 (b) May 1945 (c) June 1946 (d) August 1947
Q.29.What was Hitlers ideology of lebensraum or living space?
(a) Multi-storeyed buildings should be built in Germany to increase the living space
(b) The world must be occupied enabling the material resources and power of the German nation.
(c) New territories had to be acquired for settlement
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.30. According to the Nazis, which people were to be regarded as desirable?
(a) Pure and healthy Nordic Aryans (b) German soldiers who helped in territorial expansion
(c) German police of different types (d) All those who were willing to consider Hitler as God
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]:
Q.1. Describe what happened to Germany after its defeat in the First World War.
Ans.1- World War I, ended with the Allies defeating Germany and the Central powers inNovember 1918.
2-The Peace Treaty at Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating treaty. Germany lost its overseas
colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 per cent of its territories, 75 per cent of its iron and 26 per cent of its coal to
France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.
3-The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its power. Germany was forced to pay compensation
amounting to 6 billion.
Q.2.Give reasons for Hitlers rise to power.
Ans (i) The economic crisis: Germany had to face a great economic crisis after the First WorldWar. Many soldiers
were no longer in service, so they became unemployed. Trade and commerce was ruined. Germany was in the
grip of unemployment and starvation.
(ii) Exploiting the mentality of the Germans: The Germans had no faith in democracy. It was against their culture and
tradition. They at once gave their support to a strong man like Hitler who could transfer their dreams into reality.
(iii) Making the best use of his personal qualities: Hitler was a powerful orator, an able Organiser.
Q.3. Explain the following terms:
(a) A Racial State (b) Propaganda (c) Jungvolk


22
Ans (a) Racial State: Once in power, the Nazis quickly began to implement their dream of creating an exclusive
racial community of pure Germans by physically eliminating all those who were seen as undesirable in the extended
empire.Nazis only wanted a society of pure and healthy Nordic Aryans. They alone were considered desirable.
(b) Propaganda: The Nazi regime used language and media with care and often to great effect. They used films,
pictures, radio, posters, etc. to spread hatred for the Jews.
Propaganda is a specific type of message directly aimed at influencing the opinion of people through the use of
posters, films, speeches etc.
(c) Jungvolk: These were Nazi youth groups for children below 14 years of age. Youth organisations were made
responsible for educating German youth in the spirit of National Socialism. Ten-year-olds had to enter Jungvolk.
At 14, all boys had to join the Nazi youth organisation.
Q.4. Explain the role of women in Hitlers Germany.
Ans. 1. According to Hitlers ideology, women were radically different from men.
2. The democratic idea of equal rights for men and women was wrong and would destroy society.
3. While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel-hearted, girls were told that they had to become
good mothers and rear pure blooded Aryan children.
Q.5. Explain the main views of Hitler as expressed in his book 'Mein Kampf'.
Ans. Adolf Hitler wrote a book entitled Mein Kampf. Its literal meaning is My Struggle. This book expresses
some of the most monstrous ideas of the Nazi movement.
1. He glorified the use of force and brutalities and the rule by a great leader and ridiculed internationalism,
peace and democracy.
2. These principles were accepted by all followers of Hitler.
3. Throughout Germany an atmosphere of terror was created. Hitler glorified violent nationalism and extolled war.
4. He wrote this book at the age of 35, it is an autobiographical book; in this book Hitler has poured out his hatred for democracy,
5. He also revealed his bitterness over German surrender in World War I.
Q.6. Why is Nazism considered a calamity not only for Germany but for the entire Europe?
Ans. Nazi ideology specified that there was racial hierarchy and no equality between people.
1. The blond, blue-eyed Nordic German Aryans were at the top, while the Jews were located somewhere on the
lowest rung of the ladder.
2. The number of people killed by Nazi Germany was 6 million Jews, 200,000 Gypsies, 1 million Polish civilians, 70,000 Germans.
3. Nazism glorified the use of force and brutality. It ridiculed internationalism, peace and democracy.
4. Nazi Germany became the most dreaded criminal state. Hitler chose war as the way out of approaching the economic crisis.
5. Germany invaded Poland. This started a war with France and England in September 1940.
Q.7.What happened in schools under Nazism?
Ans. 1. All schools were cleansed and purified.
2. This meant that teachers who were Jews or seen as politically unreliable were dismissed.
3. Children were segregated Germans and Jews could not sit together or play together.
4. Later on the undesirable children the Jews, the physically handicapped, gypsies were thrown out of schools
Q.8. In my state the mother is the most important citizen. Discuss this statement made by Hitler.
Ans. 1. Though Hitler said that in my state the mother is the most important citizen, it was not true.
2. All mothers were not treated equally. Women who bore racially desirable children were awarded, while those
who bore racially undesirable children were punished.
3. Women who bore desirable children were entitled to privileges and rewards. They were given special
treatment in hospitals and concessions in shops and on theatre tickets and railway fares.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]:
Q.1. Give reasons why the Weimar Republic failed to solve the problems of Germany.
Ans. 1. The birth of the Weimar Republic coincided with the uprising of the Spartacus League on the pattern of
the Bolshevik Revolution in Russia.
2. The Democrats, Socialists and Catholics opposed it. They met in Weimar to give shape to a democratic republic.
3. The republic was not received well by its own people largely because of the terms it was forced to accept after
Germanys defeat at the end of the First World War.
4. Many Germans held the new Weimar Republic responsible for not only the defeat in the war but the disgrace
at Versailles. This republic was finally crippled by being forced to pay compensation. Soon after the economic
crisis hit Germany in 1923, the value of German mark fell considerably.


23
5. The Weimar Republic had to face hyperinflation. Then came the Wall Street exchange crash in 1929.
Q.2. Why was Nazism considered to be a negation of both democracy and socialism?
Ans. 1. After assuming power on 30th January 1933, Hitler set out to dismantle the structure of democratic rule.
2. The Fire decree of 28th February 1933 indefinitely suspended civic rights like freedom of speech, press and
assembly that had been guaranteed by the Weimar constitution.
3. The repression of the Jews and Communists was severe. On 3rd March 1933, the famousEnabling Act was
passed. This Act established dictatorship in Germany.
1. This Act gave Adolf Hitler all political and administrative power to side line the German parliament.
2. All political parties of Germany and trade unions were banned except for the Nazi party and its affiliates. The
state established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.
3. Special surveillance and security forces besides the existing regular police force, the Gestapo, the SD plus the
extra-constitutional powers of these newly constructed forces gave the Nazi state its reputation of being the
most dreaded criminal state.
Q.3. Describe Hitlers rise to power with reference to his
(a) Policy towards the youth (b) His personal qualities (c) Development of the art of propaganda
Ans. (a) Policy towards youth: Hitler was fanatically interested in the youth of the country. He felt that a strong
Nazi society could be established only by teaching children the Nazi ideology. This required a control over the
child, both inside and outside school.Good German children were subjected to a process of Nazi schooling, a
prolonged period of ideological training. Youth organisations were made responsible for educating the German
youth in the spirit of National Socialism. Ten-year-olds had to enter Jungvolk. At 14, all boys had to join the Nazi youth organisation
(b)His personal qualities: Hitler was a tireless worker and an able organiser. He had a charming personality. He
was an effective orator. Bitterly anti-Communist, he promised to save the country from the onslaught of
communism. He won over the nationalists by promising to vindicate national honour by repudiating the Treaty of Versailles
(c)Development of the art of propaganda:
The Nazi regime used language and media with care, and often to great effect. The terms they coined to describe
their various practices were not only deceptive, they were chilling. Nazis never used words kill or murder in
their official communications.
Q.4. Describe in detail Hitlers treatment of the Jews Explain Nazi ideologies regarding the Jews.
Ans. 1. Once in power, the Nazis quickly began to implement their dream of creating an exclusive racial
community of pure Germans by physically eliminating all those who were seen as undesirable in the extended
empire were mentally or physically unfit Germans, Gypsies, blacks, Russians, Poles.
2. But Jews remained the worst sufferers in Nazi Germany. They were stereotyped as killers of Christ and
usurers'. Until medieval times, Jews were barred from owning land.
3. They survived mainly through trade and moneylending. They lived in separately marked areas called ghettos.
4. They were often persecuted through periodic organised violence and expulsion from land.
5. All this had a precursor in the traditional Christian hostility towards Jews for being the killers of
Christ.However, Hitlers hatred of the Jews was based on pseudo-scientific theories of race, which held that
conversion was no solution to the Jewish problem. It could be solved only through their total elimination.
Q.5.What were the effects of peace treaty on Germany after the First World War
Ans. 1. The defeat of Germany in World War I made Hitler angry. It horrified him. The Treaty of Versailles made him furious.
3. He joined the German Workers Party and renamed it National Socialist German Workers Party. This later came
to be known as the Nazi Party.
4. Hitler promised to build a strong nation, undo the injustice of the Versailles Treaty and restore the dignity of
the German people. After First World War, Germany was compelled to sign this treaty under the threat of war.
5. In September 1939, Germany invaded Poland. In1940, a Tripartite Pact was signed between Germany, Italy and
Japan, strengthening Hitlers claim to international power. Puppet regimes, supportive of Nazi Germany, were
installed in a large part of Europe. Hitler then attacked the Soviet Union.
HOTS:
Q.1. Describe the main provisions of Treaty of Versailles.
Ans. The Treaty of Versailles was harsh and humiliating peace for the Germans.
(i) Germany lost all its overseas colonies, a tenth of its population.
(ii) 13 per cent of its territories, 75 per cent of its iron and 26 per cent of its coal to France.
(iii) Germany was demilitarised to weaken its power.


24
(iv)The war guilt clause held Germany responsible for war and damages the Allied countries suffered. It was
forced to pay a compensation amounting to 6 billion.
(v) The Allied forces occupied the resource-rich Rhineland till the 1920s.
Q.2. How did the ordinary Germans react to Nazism
Ans.1- Many saw the world through Nazi eyes and spoke their mind in Nazi language.
2-They felt hatred and anger even when someone they thought who looked like a Jew.
3-They reported against Suspected Jews and marked their houses.
4-They believed Nazism would make them prosperous and happy. The large numbers of Germans were passive
onlookers, too scared to act, to differ or protest.
.Q.3. From whom did Hitler borrow his racist ideology? Explain.
Ans. 1-Hitler borrowed his racist ideology from thinkers like Charles Darwin and Herbert Spencer.
2-Darwin was a natural scientist who tried to explain the creation of plants and animals through the concept of
evolution and natural selection.
3-Herbert Spencer later on added the idea of survival of the fittest. According to this idea, only those species
survived on earth that could adapt themselves to changing climatic conditions.
4-Darwin never advocated human intervention in what he thought was a purely natural process of selection.
5- However, his ideas were used by racist thinkers and politicians to justify imperial rule over conquered peoples.
VALUE BASED QUESTIONS:
Q.1.Why did USA enter into the Second World War?
Q.2.What were the promises made by Hitler to people of Germany?
Q.3. How did Hitler use scientific principles to further his ideology? Why was it incorrect?
KEY TO MCQ:
1(d)2(d)3(c)4(c)5(d)6(d)7(d)8(d)9(c)10(d)11(a)12(d)13(b)14(d)15(d)1617(c)18(a)19(c)20(d)21(d)22(a)23(c)
24(b)25(a)26(b)27(d)28 (b)29 (d)30 (a)

Part 2: Geography
CHEPTER-1 INDIA SIZE AND LOCATION
CONCEPTS
Location
India lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere. Indias mainland extends between 84'N and 378'N latitudes, and
687'E and 9725'E longitudes. The Tropic of Cancer (2330'N) divides India into two almost equal parts.
Size: Covering an area of 3.28 million square kilometres, Indias total area is 2.4% of the total geographical area of
the world. India is the worlds seventh largest country with a land boundary of about 15,200 km, with total length
of the coastline being 7,516.6 km. Indias east-west extent appears to be smaller than the north-south extent.
India and the World: The Indian landmass is centrally located between West and East Asia. Indias protruding
Deccan Peninsula helped India to establish close contacts with West Asia, Africa and Europe, South-east and East
Asia. Indias contacts with the world via land routes are much more than her maritime contacts. India has
contributed a lot to the world in forms of ideas, philosophies (Upanishads, Ramayana, Panchtantra) and
mathematics (Indian numerals and decimal system). In exchange, Indias architecture was influenced by Greek
sculpture and architectural styles from West Asia.
Indias Neighbours: India has an important position in South Asia and has 28 States and 7 Union Territories. India
shares its boundaries with Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bangladesh, Myanmar and Bhutan. The southern
neighbours across the sea consist of the two island countries, namely Maldives and Sri Lanka. India stands apart
from the rest of Asia.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
Q.1. Indian Standard Time or I.S.T. is how many hours ahead or behind of G.M.T. or Universal Time?
(a) 5 hrs 30 min behind G.M.T. (b) 15 hrs ahead of G.M.T.
(c) 5 hrs 30 min ahead of G.M.T. (d) None of the above
Q.2. Which of the following has reduced Indias distance from Europe by 7000 km?
(a) Suez Canal (b) Panama Canal (c) Indira Gandhi Canal (d) Buckingham Canal


25
Q.3. Which of the following influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves from south to north?
(a) Longitudinal extent (b) Latitudinal extent (c) Standard Meridian (d) All the above
Q.4. The Standard Meridian of India, 8230E passes through which of the following places?
(a) Kanniyakumari in Tamil Nadu (b) Walong in Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Kachchh in Gujarat (d) Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh
Q.5. The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat. What time will the watch show
in Gujarat if it is 6 am in Arunachal Pradesh?
(a) 4.16 am (b) 7.44 am (c) 6 am (d) 5.44 am
Q.6. If the local time at Dwarka (6901E) in Gujarat to the west of India is 6 am, what will be the local time at
Dibrugarh (9458E approximately 95), in Assam, in the east?
(a) 4.16 am (b) 6 am (c) 7.44 am (d) 7.44 pm
Q.7. From Arunachal Pradesh to Gujarat there is a time lag of:
(a) 24 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 2 hours (d) 30 minutes
Q.8. Both the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of Indias mainland is about 30. But on looking at the map of
India which of the following alternatives do you observe about Indias size?
(a) East-west extent appears to be smaller than north-south extent
(b) East-west extent appears to be larger than north-south extent
(c) East-west and north-south extent appears equal
(d) North-south extent appears to be smaller than east-west extent
Q.9. Approximately what is the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland of India?
(a) 97 (b) 68 (c) 30 (d) 8
Q.10. Which geographical feature bounds Indias mainland south of 22N latitude?
(a) Young Fold Mountains (b) Sandy Desert (c) Lava Plateaus (d) Seas and Ocean
Q.11. By which geographical feature is India bounded in the north-west, north and north-east?
(a) Seas (b) Lave Plateaus (c) Young Fold Mountains (d) Sandy Desert
Q.12. What is Indias size with respect to other countries of the world?
(a) First (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Seventh
Q.13. Which of the following figures shows the total area of Indias landmass?
(a) 2.4 million square km (b) 3.28 million square km(c) 32.8 million square km (d) 3.28 million km
Q.14. Which of the following groups of islands belonging to the Indian territory lies in the Arabian Sea?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands(b) Sri Lanka (c) Lakshdweep (d) Maldives
Q.15. Which of the following groups of islands belonging to the Indian territory lies in the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Sri Lanka (c) Lakshadweep (d) Maldives
Q.16. Which latitude passes through the southern-most point of Indias mainland?
(a) 84N (b) 376N (c) 84S (d) 8230E
Q.17. Which of the following is the western-most longitude of India?
(a) 9725E (b) 687E (c) 687E (d) 8232E
Q.18. The eastern-most longitude of India is _________
(a) 9725E (b) 687E (c) 776E (d) 8232E
Q.19. Which of the following parallels of latitude divides India into two almost equal parts?
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Capricorn (c) Tropic of Cancer (d) Prime Meridian
Q.20. Which of the following is the longitudinal extent of India?
(a) 84N and 376N (b) 687N and 9725E (c) 687E and 9725W (d) 84E and 376E
Q.21. Which of the following places of India is located on the three seas?
(a) Port Blair (b) Kavaratti (c) Kanniyakumari (d) Kochi
Q.22. India achieved multi-faceted socio-economic progress during which of the following periods?
(a) Since ancient times (b) During medieval period(c) In the 21st century (d) During the last five decades
Q.23. Which of the following Union Territories is located along the west coast of India?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Chandigarh
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) Puducherry
Q.24. How many states and Union Territories are there in India?
(a) 28 states and 7 Union Territories including Delhi (b) 23 States and 12 Union Territories
(c) 26 states and 9 Union Territories (d) 30 States and 5 Union Territories


26
Q.25. Which of the following ports of India is closest to the Suez Canal route?
(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai (c) Kochi (d) Mumbai
Q.26. Which of the following is the oldest route of contact between India and other countries of the world?
(a) Ocean routes (b) Maritime contact (c) Land routes (d) Air routes
Q.27. Due to which of the following reasons is the Indian Ocean named after India?
(a) India has a strategic location along the trans-Indian Ocean routes
(b) No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India
(c) India is centrally located at the head of the Indian Ocean
(d) All the above
Q.28. Which of the following longitudes is selected as the Standard Meridian for India?
(a) 687E (b) 8230E (c) 9725E (d) 2330N
Q.29. In which of the following places, would you find the least difference in the duration between day time and
night time?
(a) Kanniyakumari (b) Leh (b) Srinagar (d) Itanagar
Q.30. Tropic of Cancer passes through which of these states
(a) Orissa (b) Tripura (c) Bihar (d) Punjab
Q.31. Which one of the following is the southern-most Latitude of India?
(a) 8 4 North (b) 8 4 South (c) 6 4 South (d) 6 4 North
Q.32. The latitudinal extent of India lies between
(a) 7 5 N and 26 5 N (b) 8 4 N and 37 6 N (c) 12 5 N and 27 5 N (d) 12 5 N and 37 6 N
Q.33. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
(a) Rajasthan (b) Tripura (c) Jharkhand (d) Bihar
Q.34. Which meridian is fixed as a Standard Meridian of India?
(a) 82 E (b) 84 E (c) 86 E (d) 81 E
Q.35. The easternmost longitude of India is :
(a) 97 25 E (b) 77 6 E (c) 68 7 E (d) 82 32 E
Q.36. What is the position of India in the world in respect of area?
(a) 8th position (b) 7th position (c) 6th position (d) 2nd position
Q.37. Which one of the following forms the southern-most tip of the Indian mainland?
(a) Indira Point (b) Kanniyakumari (c) Palk Strait (d) Kavaratti
Q.38. Which line divides India into approximately two equal parts?
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Cancer (c) Tropic of Capricorn (d) None of these
Q.39. Which country among the Indias neighbours is the smallest?
(a) Nepal (b) Bhutan (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh
Q.40. How many states and Union Territories does India have?
(a) India has 26 States and 7 Union Territories (b) India has 25 States and 7 Union Territories
(c) India has 28 States and 7 Union Territories (d) India has 28 States and 6 Union Territories

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
Ans.1-Why 8230E has been selected as the Standard Meridian of India?
Ans. A globe has 24 time zones, each of 15 longitudes. Local time in each zone at the middle longitude (divided by
730) is taken as Standard Time. As 8230'E is divisible by 730', a standard by all countries, India selected this
odd value
Q.2. Why is the difference between the durations of day and night hardly felt at Kanyakumari
but not so in Kashmir?
Ans. (i) Places near the Equator experience almost equal duration of day and night as the Sun shines overhead
throughout the year.
(ii) Going away from Equator towards the Poles, the durations of day and night go on differing.
Q.3. Find out the number of Union Territories along the western and eastern coasts.
Ans. Union Territories on the western coast of India are four in number Diu and Daman, Dadra and Nagar
Haveli, Mahe (Pondicherry) and Lakshadweep. Union Territories on the eastern coast of India are two Pondicherry
and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Q.4. Areawise which is the smallest and which is the largest state?


27
Ans. Smallest State in India (areawise) Goa Largest State in India (areawise) Rajasthan
Q.5. Find out the States which do not have an international border or lie on the coast.
Ans. Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand.
Q.6. Classify the states into four groups each having common frontiers with (i) Pakistan (ii) China (iii) Myanmar
and (iv) Bangladesh.
Ans. (i) States having common frontiers with Pakistan are Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
(ii) States having common frontiers with China are Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
(iii)States having common frontiers with Myanmar are Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram.
(iv) States having common frontiers with Bangladesh are West Bengal, Meghalaya, Assam and Tripura.
Q.7- The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the west but the watches
show the same time. How does this happen?
Ans. The local time difference arises because the sunrise is earlier in the east than in the west. However, the
watches show the same time because Indian Standard Time is reckoned from a single meridian 82o30 that passes
through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh.

Q.8. The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance. Why?
Ans. The location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean has helped India in establishing close contacts with
West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast and with South-east and East Asia from the eastern coast.
Q.9. What is the longitudinal extent of India? State its two implications.
Ans. The mainland of India extends between longitudes 687E and 9725E. The east-west extentis 2933 km in
length. The longitudinal extension shows that India is located in the Eastern Hemisphere and places can be
located with reference to longitudes.
On account of the 30 longitudinal extension (9725687 = 2918, approximately 30) there is a time difference
of 2 hours (304 min = 120 mins or 2 hours) in local time between the eastern and western limits of India.
However, a standard time (5 hours 30 min ahead of G.M.T.) is adopted according to the local time of the central
meridian of the country, 8230E.
Q.10. Describe briefly the geographic location of India in Asia. What is the significance of Indias geographic
location?
Ans. The Indian landmass has a central location between the East and the West Asia. India is a southward
extension of the Asian Continent. The trans-Indian Ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the
west and the countries of East Asia provide a strategic central location to India. The Deccan Peninsula protrudes
into the Indian Ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact with oil rich countries of West Asia as well as
Africa and Europe from the western coast and the Southeast and East Asia from the eastern coast via sea and
ocean routes and air routes.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
Q.1. Which are the countries with which India shares land boundaries? Write a short note about Indias
position among its neighbours.
Ans. India shares its land boundaries with Pakistan and Afghanistan in the northwest, China (Tibet), Nepal and
Bhutan in the north and Myanmar and Bangladesh in the east. India stands apart from the rest of Asia with the
Himalayas acting as a natural barrier to the north and northwest and the Purvanchals in the northeast. Thus, the
land boundary of India is protected by mountain ranges, giving India a safer location with respect to its
neighbours. India occupies the most eminent position within the Indian subcontinent and has strong geographical
and historical links with its neighbours. India shares strong bilateral relationships with its neighbours socially,
culturally and economically. Social and cultural exchange with our neighbours has strengthened our position on
account of our rich cultural heritage. Economically, we have good trade relations with our neighbours. Politically
also, we share good relations with most of our neighbours. The SAARC endeavours to maintain good relations
among the neighbouring countries in South Asia.
Q.2. Write a note on the location and size of India
Ans. India is a vast country. It is located in South Asia. From south to north Indias mainland extends between
84N and 376N latitudes. It is located in the Northern Hemisphere. The Tropic of Cancer (2330N) passes
roughly through the middle of the country. From west to east India extends between 687E and 9725E


28
longitudes. It is located in the Eastern Hemisphere. To the southeast of Indias mainland lie the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal and to the southwest lie the Lakshadweep Islands in the Arabian Sea. The
landmass of India covers an area of 3.28 million square km. From the point of view of size it is the seventh largest
country of the world. It accounts for 2.4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world. It has an east-west
extent of 2933 km from Arunachal Pradesh to Kachchh in Gujarat and a north-south extent of 3214 km from
Kashmir to Kanniyakumari. Indias land boundary extends for about 15,200 km. It has a long coastline of 7516.6
km including Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands. With a population of over 1000 millions, India is the
second most populous country of the world after China. The lofty ranges of the Himalayas and other mountains
form a natural geographical boundary in the northwest, north and northeast. The southern part of the country is
in form of a peninsula, tapering towards the Indian Ocean in the south. It is bounded by Arabian Sea in the
southwest and Bay of Bengal in the southeast.
Q.3. Write a note on the Indian Standard Time? Why is there a time difference of almost 2 hours from
Arunachal Pradesh to Gujarat?
Ans. On account of the vast longitudinal extent of India there is a time lag of two hours in local time between its
western and eastern limits. Hence, for the sake of convenience a standard time is adopted for the entire country.
The central meridian of the country, 8230E longitude, has been selected as the Standard Meridian of India. It
passes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh. The local time along this meridian is taken as the standard time of
India, which is 8230 4 min = 330 minutes or 5 hr 30 min ahead of G.M.T. Because India is located to the east of
Greenwich Meridian, the time is ahead of G.M.T. or Universal Time. India has a longitudinal extent of more than
29, with the 687E longitude bounding its western limit in Kachchh in Gujarat and 9725E bounding its eastern
limit in Arunachal Pradesh (9725 687 = 2918).
For each 1 longitude there is a time difference of 4 minutes. For 29 longitudes there will be a time difference of
4 29 = 116 minutes or 1 hr 56 minutes, approximately 2 hours. Hence, there is a time difference of almost two
hours in the local time of Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat with the sun rising almost two hours earlier in Arunachal
Pradesh compared to Gujarat.
Q.4. How many states form the Union of India? Write a note on the smallest and the largest Indian states.
Ans. For administrative convenience, our vast country has been divided into political units the states and the
Union Territories. The administrative divisions have been made mainly on the basis of language. At present India
is a union of 28 states and 7 Union Territories including the National Capital Territory of Delhi. Delhi is the
national capital of India. From the point of view of size, Rajasthan is the largest states while Goa is the smallest
state. Rajasthan, the largest state, has an area of about 342 thousand sq. km. It lies to the west of India. It shares
its boundary with our neighbouring country of Pakistan in the west. In its east lie the states of Uttar Pradesh and
parts of Madhya Pradesh. To its north lie Punjab and Haryana. Gujarat and parts of Madhya Pradesh lie to its
south. The Thar Desert or the Indian Desert is located in Rajasthan. Jaipur is the capital of Rajasthan. Goa, the
smallest states of India, has an area of only 3,702 sq. km. (appr. 3.7 thousand sq. km.). The Arabian Sea lies to the
west of Goa. To its north lies Maharashtra and to its east and south lies Karnataka. Panaji is the capital of Goa.
Q.5. What are the two groups of Indian islands? Write a note on each, describing its geographic position with relation to India.
Ans. The two group of islands which are part of the Indian Union are the Andaman & Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep
Islands.The Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie to the southeast of Indian mainland in the Bay of Bengal.
The Lakshadweep Islands lie in the Arabian Sea to the southwest of Indias mainland, close to the Malabar coast of Kerala.
The Andaman and Nicobars are formed of the Great Andamans and the Little Andamans in the north and Nicobar
Islands in the south. They are groups of numerous big and small islands. The southernmost point of the Indian
Union is located in one of these Islands. These islands are of great strategic importance to India. They lie close to
the equator and have equatorial climate. They lie along the trans-Indian Ocean route and close to the south and
southeast Asia. Port Blair is the official headquarters of Andaman and Nicobar. The Lakshadweep Islands are a
group of small coral islands lying close to the southern section of the west coast of India. In 1973 the Laccadive,
Minicoy and Amindive Islands were renamed as Lashadweep. It covers a small area of 32 sq. km. Kavaratti island
is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep. Both the group of islands are rich in flora and fauna and
natural beauty, enhancing Indias geographical entity.
Hots & Value based Questions
Q-1-Why India is often referred as a sub- continent?
Q-2-Ahmedabad will see the sun over head twice in a year. Why ?Explain it .
Q-3-How much distance reduced between India and Europe after opening Suez canal ?


29
Q-4. How has Indias geographic location aided the nation?
Q-5. The Tropic of Cancer passes half-way through the country. What does this imply?
MAP WORK (4 MARKS)
Q.1. In the following outline map of India, label the following:
(a) The Tropic of Cancer (b) The Standard Meridian of India (c) The Lakshadweep Islands (d) The Palk Strait
Q.2. In the following outline map of India, label the following:
(a) Nepal (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (c) Sikkim (d) Tripura
Q.3. Label the following in the outline map of India.
(a) Goa (b) Assam (c) Kerala (d) Manipur
ANSWER OF MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
Q.1 (c) Q.2 (a) Q.3 (b) Q.4 (d) Q.5 (c) Q.6 (c) Q.7 (c) Q.8 (a) Q.9 (c) Q.10 (d) Q.11(c) Q.12(d)
Q.13 (b) Q.14 (c) Q.15 (a) Q.16 (a) Q.17 (b) Q.18 (a) Q.19 (c) Q.20 (b) Q.21 (c) Q.22 (d) Q.23 (c) Q.24(a)
Q.25 (d) Q.26 (c) Q.27 (d) Q.28 (b) Q.29 (a) Q.30 (b) Q.31 (c) Q.32 (b) Q.33 (d) Q.34 (a) Q.35 (a) Q.36(b)
Q.37 (b) Q.38 (b) Q.39 (b) Q.40 (c)

CHEPTER-2 PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA
CONCEPTS
Location
India has all major physical features of the Earth, i.e. mountains, plains, deserts, plateaus and islands.
the soil colour varies from place to place as it is formed from different types of rocks. India has varied physical
features whose formation can be explained on the basis of the Theory of Plate Tectonics. According to the
theory of Plate Tectonics the seven major and minor plates that form the Earths crust keep moving, causing
stress and thus leading to folding, faulting and volcanic activity. The physical features of India can be grouped
under the following physiographic divisions :
(i) The Himalayan Mountains. (ii) The Northern Plains (iii) The Peninsular Plateau
(iv) The Indian Desert (v) The Coastal Plains (vi) The Islands
The Himalayan Mountains
The Himalayas are young-fold Mountains which are the loftiest and one of the most rugged mountain barriers of
the world. The Himalayas are 2400 km long, 400 km to 150 km wide from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh
respectively.
The Himalayas have three parallel ranges in the longitudinal extent namely :
Great or Inner Himalayas also called Himadri. Middle Himalayas or Himachal. Outer Himalayas or Shivalik.
The Himalayas can be divided into four sections :
Punjab Himalayas between Indus and Satluj. Kumaon Himalayas between Satluj and Kali.
Nepal Himalayas between Kali and the Tista.Assam Himalayas Between Tista and the Dibang (Tsangpo).
The Northern PlainsThe Northern Plains spread over an area of 7 lakh sq. km, 240 km long and 240 km to 320 km broad.
The rivers that flow to the plains from the mountains are involved in depositional work. Difference in relief causes the
Northern Plain to have four regions.
Bhabar laying at the foot of Shivalik, a narrow 8 to 16 km wide belt of pebbles.
Terai lying next to Bhabar, a wet and marshy area with wildlife and forests.
Bangar Older alluvium plain which rises above the level of the flood plains.
Khadar Younger alluvium of the flood plains.
The Peninsular Plateau:
The Peninsular Plateau is the tableland formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwanaland.
The plateau consists of two broad divisions, namely, the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.
The eastward extensions of Peninsular Plateau are locally known as Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand. The
Chhota Nagpur Plateau marks the further eastward extension drained by the Damodar river.
The Deccan Plateau, a triangular mass, lies to the south of the river Narmada.
The western and eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau are marked by the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats respectively.
The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats.
A distinct feature of the peninsular plateau is the black soil area known as Deccan Trap.
The Indian Desert


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The undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes towards the western margins of the Aravalli Hills is the Indian Desert.
Cresent shaped dunes called barchans cover large parts of the Indian Desert.
Luni is the only large river in this region.
The Coastal Plains
The narrow coastal strips flank the Peninsular Plateau.
On the west the coastal strips are divided into Konkan (Mumbai-Goa), Kannad Plain and the Malabar coast
from northern to southern part.
On the east the coastal strip is divided into Northern Circars and the Coromandal Coast from northern to southern part.
The Islands
The Lakshadweep Islands group in the Arabian Sea is close to Kerala.
The Lakshadweep Islands were formerly known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindive.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are an elongated chain of islands located in the Bay of Bengal.
The Andamans and Nicobar Islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains.
I. SUMMATIVE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
Q.1. Which of the following is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different parts of India?
(a) Difference in rock formations (b) Weathering
(c) Erosion and deposition (d) Land use
Q.2. Which of the following has not been a factor in the creation and modification of Indias relief features?
(a) Geological formations (b) Population density
(c) Weathering (d) Erosion and deposition
Q.3. Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of
continents and oceans and the various landforms?
(a) Theory of Motion (b) Theory of Plate Tectonics (c) Theory of Evolution (d) Theory of Relativity
Q.4. According to the Theory of Plate Tectonics, the earths crust is formed of how many major plates?
(a) Three (b) Five (c) Seven (d) Ten
Q.5. According to the Theory of Plate Tectonics, the movement of the plates result in some geological activity.
Which one of the following is not such a geological activity?
(a) Volcanic activity (b) Folding (c) Faulting (d) Glaciation
Q.6. According to the Theory of Plate Tectonics, when some plates come towards each other, which of the
following is formed?
(a) Convergent boundary (b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary (d) Colliding boundary
Q.7. According to the Theory of Plate Tectonics, when some plates move away from each other, which of the
following is formed?
(a) Convergent boundary (b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary (d) None of the above
Q.8. According to the Theory of Plate Tectonics, in the event of two plates coming together, which of the
following is not possible?
(a) The plates may collide and crumble. (b) The plates may move horizontally past each other.
(c) The plates may form divergent boundary. (d) One plate may slide under the other.
Q.9. According to the Theory of Plate Tectonics, what have been the effects of the movement of the plates?
(a) Change in position and size of continents. (b) Formation of ocean basins.
(c) Evolution of the present landforms and relief of India. (d) All of the above.
Q.10. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _______.
(a) Coast (b) Island (c) Peninsula (d) None of the above
Q.11. Which of the following divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains (c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert
Q.12. The Peninsular Plateau of India is part of which of the following landmass?
(a) Angaraland (b) Gondwanaland (c) Tethys (d) Eurasian Plate
Q.13. Which of the following countries or continents was not a part of the ancient landmass of Gondwanaland?
(a) India (b) Australia (c) Europe (d) South America


31
Q.14. The northward drift of the Indo-Australian plate resulted in its collision with the much larger Eurasian
plate. Which of the following was the result of this collision?
(a) The Gondwanaland split into a number of plates.
(b) The continents of Europe and Asia were formed.
(c) Sedimentary rocks accumulated in the Tethys geosyncline were folded.
(d) India and Australia were formed.
Q.15. Which of the following physiographic divisions of India was formed out of accumulations in the Tethys geosyncline?
(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains (c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert
Q.16. The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the peninsular plateau resulted
in the formation of a large basin. Which of the following physical divisions of India was formed due to filling up of this
depression?
(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains (c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Coastal Plains
Q.17. Geologically, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is supposed to be one of the most stable land blocks?
(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains (c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert
Q.18. From the point of view of geology, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is considered to be an
unstable zone?
(a) The Himalayan Mountains (b) The Peninsular Plateau (c) The Indian Desert (d) The Islands
Q.19. Which of the following are young-fold mountains?
(a) The Aravalis (b) The Nilgiris (c) The Himalayas (d) The Sahyadri
Q.20. Which of the following physical features forms a natural barrier to the north of India?
(a) Kunlun Mountains (b) Plateau of Tibet (c) River Brahamaputra (d) The Himalayas
Q.21. The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. Which of the following is the
name of the northern-most range?
(a) The Himadri (b) The Himachal (c) The Shivaliks (d) The Purvanchal
Q.22. Which part of the Himalayas is perennially snowbound?
(a) Great Himalayas or Himadri (b) Lesser Himalayas or Himachal
(c) Shivaliks (d) Purvanchal
Q.23. Which of the following is the highest peak in India?
(a) Mt. Everest (b) Kanchenjunga (c) Nanga Parbat (d) Nandadevi
Q.24. Which of the following is not a mountain pass in the Great Himalayas?
(a) Bara Lapcha La and Shipkila (b) Nathula
(c) Khyber pass (d) Jojila and Lipu Lekh
Q.25. What are Lesser Himalayas known as?
(a) Himadri (b) Himachal (c) Shivaliks (d) Purvanchal
26. Which of the following ranges are not part of the Lesser Himalayas or Himachal?
(a) Pir Panjal (b) Dhaula Dhar (c) Mahabharat (d) Kamet
Q.27. In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu located?
(a) The Himadri (b) The Himachal (c) The Shivaliks (d) The Duns
Q.28. Which of the following ranges of the Himalayas are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers?
(a) The Pir Panjal range (b) The Karakoram range(c) The Shivaliks (d) The Ladakh range
Q.29. The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as _______.
(a) Kangra Valley (b) Patkai Bum (c) Passes (d) Duns
Q.30. From west to east, the divisions of the Himalayas are demarcated by river valleys. The part of the
Himalayas lying between the Satluj and Kali rivers is known as ________.
(a) Punjab Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalayas (c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Assam Himalayas
Q.31. Which two hills are located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats ?
(a) Mizo Hills and Naga Hills (b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills
(c) Patkoi Hills and Manipuri Hills (d) Mizo Hills and Patkoi Hills
Q.32. Which islands of India are called Coral Islands?
(a) Lakshdeep (b) Andman and Nikobar (c) both (d) None of these
Q.33. A narrow gap in a mountain range providing access to the other side is :
(a) Mound (b) Pass (c) Strait (d) Valley
Q.34. The wet and swampy belt of the Northern Region is known locally as :


32
(a) Bhabar (b) Terai (c) Doab (d) Bhangar
Q.35. Find the odd one out :
(a) Kanchenjunga (b) Nanga Parbat (c) Namcha Barwa (d) Anai Mudi
I. SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
Q.1. Describe the Theory of Plate Tectonics.
Ans. A plausible theory presented by earth scientists to explain the formation of continents and ocean basins and
the various landforms is the Theory of Plate Tectonics. According to the theory, the crust of the earth has been
formed out of seven major and some minor tectonic plates.
According to the earth scientists, millions of years ago, the world comprised of a supercontinent Pangaea
surrounded by the primeval ocean Panthalasa. The present continents and intervening oceans were formed due
to splitting of the crust into plates due to convection currents and drifting of these plates.
Q.2. Name the different major physiographic divisions of India. Write a note on any one of the physiographic
divisions of India. (Important)
Ans. The major physiographic divisions of India are as follows:
(i) The Himalayan Mountains (ii) The Northern Plains (iii) The Peninsular Plateau
(iv) The Indian Desert (v) The Coastal Plains (vi) The Islands
The Coastal Plains : The Peninsular Plateau of India is flanked by a stretch of narrow coastal plains to its west and
east. The Western Coastal Plain is a narrow strip of plain stretching along the Arabian Sea lying to its west and
flanked by the Western Ghats to its east. The northern part of the West Coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai to
Goa), the central stretch is called the Kannad while the sourthern part is called the Malabar Coast.
The Eastern Coastal Plain is comparatively wide and level stretch running along the Bay of Bengal lying to its east
with the Eastern Ghats rising to its west. It is known as Northern Circar in the north, while its southern part is
referred to as the Coromandal Coast.
Q.3. How was the Great Northern Plains of India formed? Give a brief description.
Ans. The formation of the Himalayas due to upliftment of sediments out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the
northern flank of the Peninsular Plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin.
Over millions of years this depression gradually got filled up with alluvium deposited by the three major river
systems the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra flowing from the Himalayas in the north. Sediments were
also deposited by the tributaries of these rivers rising from the mountains in the north as well as the Peninsular
Plateau to its south. As a result, the fertile Indo-Gangetic or Northern Plains, and the Brahmaputra Plain in the
northeast, were formed.
As the Himalayas gained in height, the rivers, glaciers and other agents of denudation became increasingly active
in erosion. As a result, large amount of silt got deposited in the shrinking Tethys.
Q.4. Where are the Western and the Eastern Ghats situated? Write a small note on each.
Ans. The Western and the Eastern Ghats are situated in the Peninsular Plateau region. The Western Ghats mark
the western edge of the Deccan Plateau and lie parallel to the Western Coast.
The Eastern Ghats mark the eastern edge of the Deccan Plateau. They stretch from the Mahanadi Valley to the
Nilgiri Hills in the south. The eastern coastal plain runs to its east.
The Western Ghats are continuous and regular and can be crossed only through passes like the Thal, Bhor and the
Pal Ghats. They are comparatively high in elevation (average 900 to 1600 metres). No major river cuts across the
Western Ghats.
The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular. They are of relatively lower elevation (average 600 m). They
are dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal.
Ans. Q.5. Define tectonic or lithospheric plates.
Ans. Earth scientists have put forward the view that the Earths crust or the lithosphere is not a continuous block.
It consists of several large and small, rigid, irregularly shaped plates (slabs) which include continents and the
ocean floor. These slabs are moving or drifting in relation to each other by about 2.5 cm to 5 cm each year. These
crustal slabs are called tectonic or lithospheric plates. According to the Theory of Plate Tectonics put forward by
the Earth scientists, the earths crust has been formed out of seven major and some minor tectonic plates or
lithospheric plates.
Q.6. Which plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhya range? Write a brief note on this plateau.


33
Ans. The Malwa Plateau lies between the Aravali hills and the Vindhya range. The Aravali hills lie to the west of
the plateau and the Vindhya range lies to its south.
The part of the peninsular plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river, covering a major area of the Malwa
plateau, is known as the Central Highlands.The Malwa plateau lies in Madhya Pradesh. It is composed of extensive
lava flows. There are rolling plains separated by flat-topped hills. The plateau is largely broken in form of ravines
near the Chambal Valley in its east.
Q.7. What do you understand by 'duns'? Where are they situated in our country? Give any two examples of duns.
Ans. The longitudinal valleys lying between Lesser Himalaya and the Shivaliks are known as duns. Dehradun and
Kotli Dun are two examples of duns.
Q.8. What are corals? Name and describe the island group which is of coral origin.
Ans. Corals are shortlived microscopic organisms, which lives in colonies. They flourish in shallow, mud-free and
warm waters. They secrete calcium carbonate. The coral secretion and their skeletons form coral deposits.
Lakshadweep islands group lying close to the Malaber Coast of Kerala is composed of small coral islands.
Q.9. Describe 'Bhabar' and 'Terai'.
Ans. Bhabar is pebble studded formation situated at the base of mountains and plains in the Himalayan region.
Terai is a sloping land at the foothills of the Nepal Himalayas. The Terai receives heavy rainfall and is densely
forested.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
Q.1-. Write a note on the different parts of the Great Himalayan range.
Ans. 1. The Himalayas are the one of the loftiest and most rugged mountain systems of the world. The mountain
ranges of the Himalayas run in a west-east direction from the Indus to the Brahmaputra, stretching along the
entire northern boundary of India. Geologically they are young and structurally fold mountain system.
2.The Himalayas consists of three sections comprising parallel ranges running from west to east. The nothern-
most section is known as the Greater or Inner Himalayas. On account of its permanent snow cover and glaciers
the section is also termed as Himadri. It is the most continuous section. The average height of these ranges is
6000 metres. All the prominent and loftiest peaks of the Himalayas are located here. Some of prominent peaks
are the Everest (8848 m) in Nepal, Kanchenjunga (8598 m in Sikkim), Nanga Parbat (in Kashmir), Nanda Devi
(Uttarakhand) and Namcha Barwa (in Tibet, near Arunachal Pradesh) and Dhaulagiri and Annapurna in Nepal.
3.To the south of Himadri lie the rugged ranges of the Lesser Himalayas or the Himachal. Their average width is 50
km. The average height ranges between 3700 and 4500 metres. The Pir Panjal range, the Dhaula Dhar and
Mahabharat ranges are important ranges. The famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and the Kullu Valleys in
Himachal are located in this range.
4.The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the Outer Himalayas or the Shivaliks. They extend over a width
of 10-50 km. They are discontinuous ranges. Their average height is between 900 and 1100 metres. They are
composed of unconsolidated sediments, gravel and alluvium brought down by the rivers that rise in the northern
ranges. Hence, they are the youngest section of the Himalayas.
5.Longitudinal valleys known as duns lie between the Lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks, e.g., Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun, Patli Dun.
Q.2. Describe the formation of India from Gondwanaland.
Ans. According to the Theory of Plate Tectonics presented by earth scientists, the earths crust is composed of
tectonic plates. The movement of these plates have influenced the evolution of present landforms of India.
The southern part of the ancient super-continent Pangaea is known as Gondwanaland. It included India, Australia,
South Africa and South America as one single landmass. Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau, which is one of the
oldest landmasses of the earths surface, was part of the Gondwanaland.
Tectonic forces split the crust into a number of plates. A part of the Gondwanaland, the Indo- Australian plate,
drifted northwards. This resulted in the collision of this plate with the much larger Eurasian plate. The intervening
portion between Angaraland in the north and Gondwanaland in the south was occupied by Tethys Sea. Due to
this collision, the sediments that had accumulated in the Tethys geosyncline was uplifted and folded. This resulted
in the formation of the lofty Himalayas.
The Himalayan upliftment out of the sediments of the Tethtys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the
Peninsular Plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin. Over millions of years the depression gradually got
filled with deposition of sediments by the rivers flowing from the mountains in the north and the Peninsular


34
Plateau in the south. The interplay of three major river systems the Indus, the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and
their tributaries formed a fertile, flat land of extensive alluvial deposits known as the Northern Plains.
Q.3. Distinguish between the Northern Plains and the Peninsular Plateau.
Ans. The Northern Plains
1. Geologically, the Northern Plains were formed in recent geological period.
2. Northern Plains are the most recent landform.
3. They are being formed and reshaped by the river systems.
4. It is a fertile, level land.
5. The Northern Plains are formed of alluvial deposits brought down by the rivers.
6. The Northern Plains are divided into three sections :
(i) The Punjab Plains formed by Indus and its tributaries. (ii) The Ganga Plains in North India.
(iii) The Brahmaputra Plain in Assam.
7. The Northern Plains are covered with rich, fertile alluvial soil, ideal for high agricultural production.
The Peninsular Plateau
1. Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau is part of the Gondwanaland, the southern part of ancient super-continent
Pangaea.
2. The Peninsular plateau is part of oldest landmass.
3. It is one of the most stable land blocks.
4. It is a plateau or tableland with gently rising rounded hills and wide shallow valleys.
5. The Peninsular Plateau is composed of old crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks.
6. The Peninsular Plateau is divided mainly into two broad divisions :
(i) The Central Highlands and (ii) The Deccan Plateau.
7. A distinct feature of the Peninsular Plateau is the black soil area known as Deccan Trap. This soil is ideal for growth of cotton.
Q.4. Which part of the Himalayas is known as Purvanchal? Write a short note on the Purvanchal Himalayas.
Ans. The eastern hills and mountains of the Himalayas running along the eastern boundary of India are known as
Purvanchal. They are located in the northeastern states of India.
The river Brahmaputra marks the easternmost boundary of the Himalayas. Beyond the Dibang gorge, the
Himalayas bend sharply to the south and spread along Indias eastern border. They are known as Purvanchal.
They run mostly as parallel ranges with valleys in between. They are mostly composed of strong sandstone, a
sedimentary rock.
The Purvanchal are less spectacular than the Himalayas and are of medium height. The hills and ranges are
covered with dense forests.Some important hills of the Purvanchal are :
(i) The Patkai Bum and Naga hills (ii) The Mizo hills and Manipur hills
(iii) The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills along Meghalaya-Bangladesh border. (iv) The Dafla hills in the north.
Q-5. Describe the important features of the Peninsular Plateau.
Ans. The Peninsular Plateau of India lies to the south of the Northern Plains and extends up to the tip of the
Indian peninsula. The Peninsular Plateau is a tableland with gently rising rounded hills and broad, shallow valleys.
It is roughly triangular in shape.
It is the oldest and the most stable landmass of India. The plateau is formed of old crystalline igneous and
metamorphic rocks.
The Peninsular Plateau consists of two broad divisions the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau. The part of the
Peninsular plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river is known as Central Highlands. It comprises of Malwa Plateau,
Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand plateaus, the Vindhya Range and extends as Chhota Nagpur Plateau. The Aravalis are highly
denuded old hills that lie on the western and northwestern margins of the Peninsular Plateau.
The part of the Peninsular Plateau lying to the south of river Narmada is known as Deccan Plateau. It is a
triangular landmass with broad base in the north and tapers southward. It is formed due to lava flows, so a
greater part of it is composed of basaltic rocks of volcanic origin. It is flanked by the Satpura range in the north.
The Mahadev, the Kaimur hills and Maikal range form its eastern extensions.
The Deccan Plateau is flanked by the Western Ghats in the west and Eastern Ghats in the east. The Western Ghats
have comparatively higher elevation of average 900 to 1600 metres. The Eastern Ghats have an average elevation
of 600 metres. So the plateau is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards. The black soil area of the Deccan
Plateau is known as Deccan Trap.
Hots & Value based questions


35
Q-1. Where would one find most of the volcanoes and earthquake zones in the world and why?
Q-2.Which continents of today were part of the Gondwana land ?
Q-3.What are the uses of the Himalayas to India ?
MAP WORK (4 MARKS)
Q.1. In the following map of India, mark and label the following:
a. The Himadri range b. The Shivaliks c. The Purvanchal d. The Malwa Plateau
Q.2. In the following map of India, mark and label the following:
a. The Vindhyas b. The Western Ghats c. The Chhota Nagpur Plateau d. The Aravalis
Q.3. In the following map of India, mark and label the following:
a. The Eastern Ghats b. The Khasi Hills c. The Thar Desert d. The Deccan Plateau
ANSWER OF THE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
Q.1 (a) Q.2 (b) Q.3 (b) Q.4(c) Q.5(d) Q.6(a) Q.7(b) Q.8(c) Q.9(d) Q.10(c) Q.11(c) Q.12(b)
Q.13(c) Q.14(c) Q.15(a) Q.16(b Q.17(c) Q.18(a) Q.19. (c) Q.20 (d) Q.21(a) Q.22(a) Q.23(b) Q.24(c)
Q.25(a) Q.26(d) Q.27(b) Q.28(c) Q.29(d) Q.30- (b) Q.31(b) Q.32(a) Q.33(b) Q.34. (b)
CHAPTER -3 DRAINAGE

The term drainage describe the river system of an area. The area drained by a single river system is called a
drainage basin.
DRAINAGE PATTERNS:-
1-Dendritic drainage 2- Trellis drainage 3-Rectangular drainage 4- Radial drainage
DRAINAGE SYATEM IN INDIA
It is divided into two major groups :
1-The Himalaya rivers 2- The Peninsular rivers
1-The Himalaya rivers:-There are three main river system.
(i) The Indus river system (ii) The Ganga river system (iii)The Brahmaputra river system
2- The Peninsular rivers:-There are six major river system.
1-The Narmada Basin 2-Tapi Basin 3-The Godavari Basin
4-The Mahanadi Basin 5-The Krishna Basin 6-The Kaveri Basin
LAKES
There are two types of lakes:- 1-Natural lakes 2- Artificial lakes
LAKES ARE OF GREAT VALUE TO HUMAN BEINGS.
1-A lakes helps to regulate the flow of a river. 2-During heavy rainfall, it prevents flooding.
3-Lakes used for developing hydel power. 4-Lakes moderate the climate of the surroundings.
5-Lakes help develop tourism and provide recreation.
Role of Rivers in the Economy
Rivers have been of fundamental importance throughout the human history. The river banks have attracted
settlers from ancient times. Using river for irrigation, navigation, hydro-power generation is of special significance
particularly to a country like India, where agriculture is the major source of livelihood of the majority of its
population.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
Q.1.Which of the following is the result of concern over rising pollution in our rivers?
(a) Banning hydroelectric projects (b) Various river action plans
(c) Rainwater harvesting (d) None of the above
Q.2.Which of the following affects the self-cleansing capacity of the river?
(a) Aquatic organisms (b) Drawing of water for irrigation
(c) Hydroelectricity generation (d) Pollution
Q.3.Which of the following is not one of the causes of river pollution?
(a) Dumping of garbage (b) Aquatic organisms and algae
(c) Discharge of untreated sewage (d) Discharge of industrial effluents


36
Q.4.Which one of the following cities of India is not located on a riverbank?
(a) Haridwar (b) Allahabad (c) Shillong (d) Varanasi
Q.5.Lakes are of great value to human beings. Which of the following statements about lakes given below is incorrect?
(a) Helps to regulate the flow of rivers (b) It results in flooding
(c) Can be used for developing hydel power (d) Enhances natural beauty
Q.6.Why have the river banks attracted settlers from ancient times?
(a) Water is a basic natural resource (b) Rivers provide water for irrigation
(c) Rivers provide facilities for inland navigation (d) All the above
Q.7.In which of the following states are Nainital and Bhimtal located?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand
Q.8.Which of the following is an artificial lake located in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Kolleru (b) Nagarjuna Sagar (c) Krishnaraja Sagar (d) Vembanad
Q.9.Which one of the following is not a lake created by human beings?
(a) Gobind Sagar (b) Nizam Sagar (c) Barapani (d) Hirakud
Q.10.Which one of the following freshwater lakes is the largest?
(a) Wular (b) Loktak (c) Nainital (d)Dal
Q.11.Which of the following lakes is formed as a result of tectonic activity?
(a) Wular Lake (b) Kolleru Lake (c) Loktak Lake (d) Dal Lake
Q.12.Which of the following lake is a lagoon in the coastal region of Orissa?
(a) Bhimtal (b) Barapani (c) Chilika (d) Hirakud
Q.13.Which one of the following lakes is a saltwater lake?
(a) Wular Lake (b) Sambhar Lake (c) Barapani Lake (d) Dal Lake
Q.14.Which of the following types of lakes is formed due to river action?
(a) Saltwater lakes (b) Glacial lakes (c) Oxbow lakes (d) Lagoons
Q.15.Which type of lakes contain water only during the rainy season?
(a) Oxbow lakes (b) Lagoons (c) Lakes in basins of inland drainage (d) Glacial lakes
Q.16.Which of the following is a famous lake of Srinagar in Kashmir?
(a) Sambhar (b) Bhimtal (c) Chilika (d) Dal
Q.17.Which of the following rivers originates from the Hazaribagh plateau of Chhota Nagpur region and flows eastwards?
(a) Amravati (b) Bhima (c) Ghatprabha (d) Damodar
Q.18.Which of the following waterfalls is made by the river Kaveri and is the second biggest waterfall in India?
(a) Jog (b) Sivasamudram (c) Dhuadhar (d) Hundru
Q.19. The drainage basin of which of the following rivers covers parts of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu?
(a) Godavari (b) Krishna (c) Kaveri (d) Musi
Q.20. The Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini are the tributaries of which of the following rivers?
(a) Wainganga (b) Bhima (c) Krishna (d) Kaveri
Q.21.Which of the following rivers rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra?
(a) Mahanadi (b) Narmada (c) Godavari (d) Koyna
Q.22.Which of the following states is not drained by the Godavari river?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Oriss (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh
Q.23. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of river Godavari?
(a) Purna (b) Ghatprabha (c) ardha (d) Pranhita
Q.24. Which of the following rivers is known as the Dakshin Ganga?
(a) The Godavari (b) The Narmada (c) The Krishna (d) The Kaveri
Q.25.TheWainganga and the Penganga are tributaries of which of the following rivers?
(a) The Mahanadi (b) The Narmada (c) The Godavari (d) The Krishna
SHORT ANSWERTYPE QUESTIONS (3MARKS)
Q.1.What are perennial and non-perennial rivers? Give reasons why the Himalayan region


37
consists of perennial rivers.
Ans.1. The rivers that flow throughout the year are termed as perennial rivers. They have more or lesseven flow
throughout the year, e.g., the Ganga.
1. The rivers that do not flow throughout the year are termed as non-perennial rivers. They are seasonal rivers
that flow mainly during the rainy season and dwindle during the dry period, e.g., the Subarnarekha.
2. The rivers of the Himalayan region are perennial in nature. They have their sources in the snow fields and
glaciers of the Himalayas which supply water to these rivers throughout the year.
4. During monsoons the Himalayas receive very heavy rainfall and rivers discharge heavy flow of water. During
dry periods the rivers are fed by the melting snow and glaciers of the lofty great Himalayan range. Hence, the
Himalayan rivers flow throughout the year.
Q.2.Why is the Godavari often referred to as the 'Dakshin Ganga'? Write a note on the river
Godavari and its tributaries.
Ans. The Godavari is the largest Peninsular River. It has a length of 1500 km. It has the largest drainage basin
amongst the Peninsular Rivers. Its drainage basin covers parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa and
Andhra Pradesh. On account of its dominating length and the extent of area it covers, the Godavari is known as
the Dakshin Ganga.
The Godavari rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra. It flows eastwards
and drains into the Bay of Bengal. Nearly half of its drainage basin lies in The Godavari is joined by large
tributariesthe Wainganga, the Penganga and the Manjra. The Purna, the Wardha and the Pranhita are its other
tributaries.
Q.3.How are salt lakes formed? Give examples of salt lakes in India.
Ans. Lakes which have water with high salt content are called salt lakes. They are usually found in the basins of
inland drainage in the regions of arid and semi-arid climate. Such lakes are seasonal in nature.
Hollows may be created in the deserts due to the deflation action of the winds. These may reach the groundwater
level which seeps out into these depressions. Small shallow lakes are formed which become salt lakes due to
excessive evaporation.
Sometimes short, intermittent streams drain into low depression or a desert basin and form temporary lakes.
Such short lived lakes also contain high percentage of salts on account of high rate of evaporation.
An example of such saltwater lake is the Sambhar lake of Rajasthan. The water of this salt lake is used for
producing salt.
Q.4.What is a lagoon? How does it differ from a lake?
Ans. Lagoon is a stretch of brackish or salt water separated from the sea by a sandbank, bars, reefs,
etc. The action of wind and waves along coasts builds spits and bars in the inlets of seas isolating lagoons from the
sea. They are commonly found off the deltas of large rivess like the Ganges, the Mahanadi, etc.
The Chilika lake of Orissa, the Pulicat lake of Tamil Nadu and the Kolleru lake of Andhra Pradesh are lagoons.
Strong on shore winds are also capable of pushing the coastal sand dunes along beaches landwards. They may
enclose marshy lagoons.
(i) Lagoons are found only in coastal areas, usually near the mouths of rivers, while lakes may be formed in any
geographical location, in highlands or in inland basis.
(ii) Lagoons have brackish water while a lake may have fresh water or salty water.
(iii) Lagoons are formed due to wind and wave action in the coasts. Lakes may be of tectonic origin or may be
formed due to river action, glacial action, and wind. They may also be human-made artificial lakes.
Q.5. What is a gorge? In what type of terrain does a gorge form?
Ans. A gorge is a very steep sided, narrow river valley. It is found in the mountains in the upper courses of the
rivers. They are near I-shaped in appearance.
In the upper course the river is very swift as it descends down the steep slopes of the mountains. Vertical
corrosion or down cutting is the predominant action of the river here. In areas where the rocks are very hard or
resistant, the valley that develops in narrow and the sides are steep rising almost vertically. Such narrow river
valleys are called gorges. Thus, gorges are found in mountainous terrain with resistant rocks. They are usually
found in the upper reaches of the river in high mountains, e.g. the Indus Gorge, the Brahmaputra Gorge.


38
Gorges are features of youthful topography. In the Himalayas where the land has been uplifted in recent
geological period, gorges are common.
Q.6. What type of channel does the river Brahmaputra have? Write a short note on the formation of this type of channel.
Ans. The river Brahmaputra has a braided channel in its entire length in Assam.
The north-eastern part of India is a region of high rainfall. Assam receives heavy rainfall during the monsoons.
This increases the volume of water in the Brahmaputra river. On account of rapid erosion, the river carries a
considerable amount of silt. The silt is deposited in the river- bed when the load becomes excessive. As a result
the river splits into several complicated channels called braided channels. The channels frequently shift position.
Many big and small river islands are located in between the braided channels. The Majuli Island on the
Brahmaputra is the worlds largest, riverine island. It has, however, been broken due to floods.
Q.7.Where are Indias most of the fresh water lakes located and why?
Ans. Most of the freshwater lakes of India are located in the Himalayan region.
The lofty ranges of the Himalayas are snow covered and have many glaciers. Glacial activity results in the
formation of circular hollows lip in the mountains. They are known as Cirques. The melting of the glacial snow in
later period forms cirque lakes.
As the lakes have water from snow melt they are freshwater lakes, e.g., Pangong lake in Ladakh.
Tectonic activity in the Himalayan region also results in the formation of depressions. They are filled with melting snow
forming lakes of tectonic origin, e.g., the Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir, which is the largest freshwater lake in India.
The Dal Lake of Srinagar, Bhimtal and Nainital of Uttarakhand, Loktak Lake of Manipur and Barapani Lake of Meghalaya are
some other important freshwater lakes. All are located in the Himalayan region and the Purvanchals.
Q.8.What is a river basin? Explain briefly.
Ans.The area drained by a single river system, comprising a main river and its tributaries, is called its drainage basin or river
basin.The term drainage describes the river system of an area. Small streams flowing from different directions
come together to form the main river. It has number of tributaries and distributaries. The river ultimately drains
into a large water body such as a lake or a sea or an ocean.
The area drained by the main river, its tributaries and distributaries is termed as the river basin. The river Ganga
has the largest river basin in India. The river Indus has a larger river basin but most of it lies outside India.
Q.9.Write a note on the river Krishna and its tributaries.
Ans. The river Krishna rises from a spring near Mahabaleshwar. It flows eastwards to the Bay of Bengal. It has a
length of about 1400 km, which makes it the second longest river of Peninsular India after Godavari which has a
length of 1500 km.
The Tungabhadra, the Koyna, the Bhima, the Ghatprabha and the Musi are important tributaries of the river
Krishna.The drainage basin of the river Krishna lies in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Q.10.Name the three Himalayan river system. Give two tributaries of each.
Ans. Three Himalayan river systems are :
(I) The Indus river system (ii) The Ganga river system (iii) The Brahamaputra river system.
Tributaries :
(i)Indus river system Satluj, Beas, Ravi (ii) Ganga river system Yamuna,Ghaghara, Gandak
(iii) Brahmaputra river system Dibang, Lohit, Kenula.
Q.11.What are the differences between east-flowing and west-flowing rivers of the peninsular
plateau?
Ans. The major rivers of the peninsular the the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna etc. are flowing
eastward and merges into the Bay of Bengal. Only the river Narmada and Tapti are flowing towards west and
merge into the Arabian Sea. The essential differences between the two rivers are as follows
East-flowing Rivers West-flowing Rivers


39
1. The east-flowing rivers have deltas at their mouth.
2. All rivers east-flowing drain into the Bay of Bengal.
3. All three rivers passed through a varied
topography, i.e. hills, plains, plateaus etc.
4. Most r ivers are fed by many east-west-flowing
long tributaries.
1. The west-flowing rivers do not have deltas at their
mouth. They form estuaries.
2. All west-flowing rivers merges into the Arabian Sea.
3. These rivers are flowed through the riftvalley.
4. A few small tributaries joining at right angles are only found.


40
Q-12.What is the difference between tributary and the distributary? Write any three points.
Ans. A smaller stream joining with the main stream is known as tributary. A tributary is generally carried water
and silt to the main river. River Jamuna is an example of tributary of the river Ganga.
A Distributary is formed at the lower course of the river when the main channel of the river gets blocked with
silt which forced river to open branches. The Bhagirathi-Hooghly is a distributary of the river Ganga. The main
function of the distributary is to distribute water through newly opened channels. The three basic differences
between tributaries and distributaries are given below :
Tributary
1. Tributaries can be found in three stages of the river upper, middle and lower.
2. It is useful for irrigation and transportation all through.
3. It brings water and silt from its catchment area.
4. Tributaries are fast-flowing.
Distributary
1. It is only found in lower coarses of the river. 2. It only provides a network of transport in the lower course.
3. It deposits silt in its course. 4. Distributaries are slow-flowing.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5MARKS)
Q.1. What are the differences between the Himalayan rivers and the Peninsular rivers?
Ans. The differences between the two main groups of rivers of India are as follows :
The Himalayan Rivers
1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial in nature. They are fed by the melting snow and glaciers of the lofty
ranges supplemented by monsoon rains. Hence, the rivers flow throughout the year.
2. The Himalayan rivers have long course from their sources in the mountains to the sea.
3. The Himalayan rivers rise in the Himadri, Himachal or Shivalik section of the Himalayas and form the
Northern Plains with their deposition of alluvium.
4. The Himalayan rivers flow through geologically unstable areas and are of uncertain nature.
5. They perform intensive erosional activity in upper course. In middle and lower course they form meanders,
oxbow lakes, extensive flood- plains and well developed deltas.
The Peninsular Rivers
1. The Peninsular rivers are non-perennial in nature. They are fed by monsoon rains and have heavy
flow during rainy season fol lowed by reduced flow during dry season. So they are seasonal rivers.
2. The Peninsular rivers have shorter and shallower courses as compared to their Himalayan counterparts.
3. Most of the rivers of Peninsular India originate in the Western Ghats and flow towards the Bay of Bengal.
However, some of them originate in the Central Highlands and flow towards west.
4. Peninsular rivers originate at much lower altitudes and flow through geologically stable areas.
5. The Narmada and Tapi are fault-guided rivers. The east-flowing rivers from large deltas. Meanders are not
notable in these rivers.
Q.2.Write a note on the Indus Drainage System.
Ans. The Indus is one of the longest rivers of the world.
The river Indus rises in Tibet, near lake Mansarovar. Flowing west, it enters India in the Ladakh district of Jammu
and Kashmir. A spectacular gorge formed by the Indus marks this part. Several tributaries the Zaskar, the
Nabra, the Shyok and the Hunza join the Indus in the Kashmir region. The Indus flows through Baltistan and
Gilgit and emerges from the mountains at Attock. The tributaries of the Indus the Jhelum, the Chenab, the
Ravi, the Beas and the Satluj flow partly through Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh and mainly through Punjab.
They join together to enter the Indus near Mithankot in Pakistan. The Indus then flows southwards and
eventually reaches the Arabian Sea, east of Karachi. The Indus has a total length of 2900 km. The Indus plain has
a very gentle slope. A little over one third of the Indus basin lies in India in the states of Jammu and Kashmir,
Himachal Pradesh and Punjab. Major part of its basin lies in Pakistan.
Q.3.Write a note on the Brahmaputra Drainage System.
Ans. The Brahmaputra is one of the longest rivers of the world, but most of its course lies outside India. The
river Brahmaputra rises in Tibet east of the Mansarovar lake. The river flows eastwards parallel to the
Himalayas in its upper course. It is known as Tsangpo in Tibet. Here it carries smaller volume of water and less
silt as it is a cold and dry area.
The river takes a U-turn bend at Namcha Barwa (7757 m) and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a
gorge. In Arunachal Pradesh, it is known as Dihang. Here it is joined by the Dibang, the Lohit, the Kenula and


41
many other tributaries.
The volume of the river increases and it is known as the Brahmaputra in Assam. The region receives heavy rainfall during
the monsoon which increases the volume of water and silt content of the river. Devastating floods are caused by the river
in Assam and Bangladesh every year during the rainy season. The deposition of the silt in the riverbed due to the heavy
load, leads to the formation of braided channels intervened by riverine islands.
The Brahmaputra has a braided channel in its entire length in Assam. Many riverine islands like the Majuli, the
worlds largest riverine island, are formed in between the channels.
The Brahmaputra is known as Jamuna in Bangladesh. Here it is joined by the Ganga, known here as Padma.
Together they form the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta known as Sunderbans, and discharge into the Bay of Bengal.
Q.4.Write a note on the Ganga Drainage System.
Ans. The Ganga is the longest and the most important river system of India. It has a total length of over 2500
km. Nearly the entire river basin of the Ganga lies in India with a part of its lowerCourse and delta in
Bangladesh.
The headwaters of the Ganga are called the Bhagirathi. It is fed by the Gangotri Glacier. It is joined by the
Alaknanda at Devaprayag in Uttarakhand. At Haridwar, the Ganga emerges from the mountains and enters the
plains. The Ganga is joined by a large number of tributaries.
The Yamuna, a right-bank tributary of the Ganga, rises from the Yamunotri Glacier, flows parallel to the Ganga
and joins it at Allahabad. The Ghaghra, the Gandak, the Kosi and the Sarda are the left-bank tributaries of the Ganga.
The other right bank tributaries of the Ganga the Chambal, the Betwa and the Son come from the peninsular
uplands. The Ganga and its tributaries form a major portion of the northernplains.
On account of water availability and fertile soil, it is the most important agricultural region of India. The Ganga
develops large meanders in the plains.
The Ganga flows eastwards with the increased volume up to Farakka in West Bengal. The river bifurcates here.
Its distributary, the Bhagirathi-Hooghly, flows through the deltaic plains to the Bay of Bengal.
The mainstream flows southwards into Bangladesh. Here it is known as Padma. It is joined by the Brahmaputra.
Further downstream it is known as Meghna. Together they form the Ganga- Brahmaputra Delta, also known as
Sunderbans delta. It is the worlds largest and fastest growing delta.
Q.5.Write a note on the east-flowing and the west-flowing rivers of Peninsular India.
Ans. The Peninsular Plateau of India is marked by a large number of east-flowing rivers and a few west-flowing rivers.
Most of the major rivers of Peninsular India such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri and
their tributaries flow eastwards. They rise from the Western Ghats, the highlands of the Deccan Plateau, flow
towards east and drain into the Bay of Bengal.
Only two big rivers, the Narmada and the Tapi, with long courses flow westwards in Peninsular Plateau region. They rise
from the Satpura range and Amarkantak hills, flow westwards through faults and drain into the Arabian Sea.
The coastal plains between Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea are very narrow. Hence, the west-flowing
coastal rivers are short and swift flowing. The Sabarmati, Mahi, Bharathpuzha and Periyar are the west-flowing
rivers. The Sabarmati and the Mahi originate in the Central highlands and flow into the Arabian Sea.
The Western Ghats form the main water divide in Peninsular India. The east-flowing rivers have wide basins.
They have dendritic drainage pattern with many tributaries joining them. They form large deltas at their
mouths.
The west-flowing rivers flow between highlands and have elongated courses. They have trellis and rectangular
drainage pattern. They flow through rift valleys and are fault guided rivers. They form estuaries at their mouths.
The west-flowing rivers do not form deltas
HOTS & VALUE BASED QUESTIONS.
Q-1.Why are rivers important for a country's economy?
Q-2.Write a note about the causes of river pollution.
Q-3.How can be reduced the water pollution ?
Q-4. Explain the National River Conservation Plan.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
Q.1(b) Q.2(d) Q.3(b) Q.4(c) Q.5(b) Q.6(d) Q.7(d) Q.8(b) Q.9(c) Q.10 Q.11(a) Q.12(c)


42

Q.13(b) Q.14(c) Q.15(c) Q.16(d)Q.17d) Q.18(b) Q.19(c) Q.20(d) Q.21(c) Q.22(d) Q.23(b) Q.24(a)

Q.25(c)


Part 3: Political Science
CHAPTER 1: DEMOCRACY IN THE CONTEMPORARY WORLDCONCEPTS
Struggle for Democracy
Many countries struggled for democracy, suffered setbacks. In Chile, the democratic government of Allende was
overthrown in 1973, and Pinochet became the military ruler.Democracy was restored again in Chile in 1988. In Poland, a
non-democratic country, a one party rule was replaced by democracy under Lech Walesa.
Two Features of Democracy
1-Democracy, hence, is a form of government that allows people to choose their own leaders.
2-People have the freedom to express their views, freedom to organise and freedom to protest against injustice.
Phases in the Expansion of Democracy
By 2005, 140 countries have held multi-party elections. More than 80 countries have made advances towards democracy
since 1980.Stills there are many countries where people cannot elect their leaders. In Myanmar the elected leader Aung
San Suu Kyi has been imprisoned by the military rulers (1990). No amount of international support has helped in her
release.
Democracy at Global Level
Is it possible to have democracy at global level? Not at present.The UN, the International Monetary Fund and the World
Bank are global associations of the world. They attempt to maintain peace and security among the countries of the world.
They give loans and money to governments.They are not fully democratic. Five countries US, UK, France, China and Russia
have the veto power in the Security Council. The World Bank has a US President always and theInternational Monetary
Fund is in the hands of seven powerful nations.
Promotion of Democracy
Many powerful countries like the United States of America believe that democracy should be promoted in the world
even by force.Powerful countries have launched attacks on non-democratic countries.Iraq is the biggest example. USA and
its allies attacked and occupied Iraq without UN sanction, on the pretext of Iraq possessing nuclear weapons. They have
even held forced elections.The urge for democracy should come from the people and should not be imposed.
Veto-The right of person, party or nation to stop a certain decision or law.
Colony-Territory under the immediate political control of another state.
Solidarity Oneness of interests, aims, etc.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q.1.Workers of my homeland! I have faith in Chile and its future...... It will be a moral lesson to
castigatefelony, cowardice, and treason. Who said this?
(a) General Augusto Pinochet (b) General Alberto Bachelet (c) Salvador Allende (d) Michelle Bachelet
Q.2. When did the military coup take place in Chile?
(a) 12 Sept. 1973 (b) 11 Sept. 1973 (c) 11 Sept. 1974 (d) None of the above
Q.3. Who led the military coup in Chile in 1973?
(a) General Alberto Bachelet (b) Michelle Bachelet (c) General Augusto Pinochet (d) Salvador Allende
Q.4.What is a referendum?
(a) A vote of all the people on an important national issue (b) A vote of educated population
(c) A vote of men only (d) None of the above
Q.5. Who was elected as President of Chile in Jan. 2006?
(a) Michelle Bachelet (b) General Bachelet (c) General Pinochet (d) None of the above
Q.6.Which party ruled in Poland in 1980?
(a) Polish Workers Party (b) Polish Party
(c) Polish United Workers Party (d) None of the above
Q.7.The workers of Lenin Shipyard in the city of Gdansk went on a strike on
(a) 14 Aug 1980 (b) 15 Aug 1980 (c) 14 Sept 1980 (d) None of the above
Q.8. Who was the leader of the Solidarity Movement in Poland?
(a) Pinochet (b) Lech Walesa (c) Jaruzelski (d) None of the above


43
Q.9.The three governments of Allendes Chile, Walesas Poland and Michelles Chile had a
(a) Democratic form of government (b) Martial law
(c) Communist form of government (d) All the above
Q.10. Which Revolution inspired many struggles for democracy all over Europe?
(a) Russian Revolution (b) American Revolution
(c) French Revolution (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.11.What is meant by Universal Adult Franchise?
(a) Right to vote to property owners (b) Right to vote to women
(c) Right to vote to all adults (d) Right to vote to blacks
Q.12. When did Ghana become independent and from whom?
(a) 1956, Dutch (b) 1957, France (c) 1957, Britain (d) 1958, Germany
Q.13.After Independence, who became the first Prime Minister and then the President ofGhana?
(a) Patrice Lumamba (b) Jomo Kenyatta (c) Sam Nujoma (d) Kwame Nkrumah
Q.14. When did Myanmar attain independence and what type of government did it adopt?
(a) 1946, communist (b) 1948, democracy (c) 1947, democracy (d) 1948, dictatorship
Q.15.Which award has been won by Suu Kyi?
(a) Literary Award (b) Oscar Award (c) Nobel Peace Prize (d) None of the above
Q.16.Which organ of the U.N. is responsible for maintaining peace and security among the countries?
(a) General Assembly (b) Security Council (c) International Court of Justice (d) All the above
Q.17. Name the body of the U.N. which acts like a Parliament.
(a) General Assembly (b) Security Council (c) International Court of Justice (d) Social and Economic Council
Q.18. How many members does the Security Council consist of?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
Q.19. Name the five permanent members of the Security Council.
(a) US, Germany, France, China, Italy (b) US, Britain, Germany, Italy, France
(c) US, France, Switzerland, China, Russia (d) US, France, Britain, Russia, China
Q.20.Which country contributes most of the money to U.N.?
(a) U.K. (b) France (c) U.S.A. (d) China
Q.21.The President of the World Bank has always been from
(a) U.K. ( b) U.S.A. (c) France (d) Russia
Q.22.Which party ruled Iraq since 1968?
(a) Baath Party (b) Socialist Baath Party (c) Arab Socialist Baath Party (d) None of the above
Q.23.What is the territory under the immediate political control of another state called?
(a) Communist state (b) Colony (c) Democratic state (d) none of the above
Q.24.Which one of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?
(a) Struggle by the people (b) End of colonialism
(c) Peoples desire for freedom (d) Invasion by foreign countries
25. Which one of the following situations is democratic?
(a) General Pinochet, an Army General of Chile, led a coup and became the President of the country.
(b) In China, always the Communist Party only wins in elections and forms the government.
(c) The government led by Jaruzelski in Poland, imposed martial law and imprisoned thousands of Solidarity
members who took part in strike.
(d) The African National Congress of South Africa drew up a constitution which gave most extensive rights to its citizns.
26. Which one of the following countries is not a permanent member of UN Security Council?
(a) China (b) France (c) Japan (d) Russia
27. How many member states are there in the International Monetary Fund?
(a) 173 (b) 192 (c) 200 (d) 190
28. Which country among the following was the only country by 1900, where every citizen had voting right?
(a) Australia (b) New Zealand (c) Poland (d) USA
29. Which country supported and controlled the autocratic government in Poland?
(a) USA (b) China (c) Russia (d) UK
30. What is the total number of members in the UN General Assembly?
(a) 200 (b) 190 (c) 193 (d) 205
31. Who among the following in UN has always been a citizen of the US?


44
(a) Treasury Secretary (b) President of the World Bank
(c) Finance Secretary (d) Secretary General
32. Which of the following countries was the first to give universal adult suffrage?
(a) New Zealand (b) Britain (c) India (d) USA
33. Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?
(a) Struggle by people (b) Invasion by foreign country
(c) End of colonialism (d) Peoples desire for freedom
34. Who was the leader of Solidarity Movement in Poland?
(a) Michelle Bachelete (b) Salvador Allende (c) Lech Walesa (d) Pinochet
35. Why was International Monetary Fund established?
(a) To maintain peace and security among the countries
(b) Lends money to governments of member nations when in need
(c) To implement and formulate trade agreements
(d) To take decision regarding misery and poverty of western countries
36. In Myanmar, Aung San Suu Kyi led
(a) National Congress (b) United Workers Party
(c) Communist Party ( d)TheNational League for Democracy
37. First Prime Minister of Ghanawas :
(a) Augusto Pinochet (b) Nkrumah (c) General Bachelet (d) Allende
38. Strike the odd one out:
(a) General Assembly (b) International Court of Justice (c) Security Council (d) Veto
39. How many members countries are there in Security Council of UN?
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 10
40. Name of the leader in Myanmar put under house arrest is:
(a) Ban Kimoon (b) Uthan (c) Aung San Suu Kyi (d) Khalida Zia
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1. Who was Allende?
Ans. 1. Allende was the founder leader of the Socialist Party of Chile, a country in South America.
2. He led the Popular Unity Coalition to victory in 1970 and became the President of Chile.
3. AsPresident he took several policy decisions to help the poor and the workers.
Q.2.Why did the workers of Lenin Shipyard in Gdansk go on strike in 1980?
Ans.The workers the Lenin Shipyard in the city of Gdansk went on a strike on 14 Aug 1980. The factory was
owned by the government. The workers went on a strike demanding the factory to take back a crane operator, a
woman worker, who was unjustly dismissed from the service..
Q3What role does General Assembly play in the UN?
Ans. General Assembly is like the Parliament of UN where all the discussions take place. In that sense, the UN
would appear to be a very democratic organisation. But the General Assembly cannot take any decision about
what action should be taken in a conflict between countries.
Q.4. State how Security Council helps in making the UN a democratic body.
Ans.The Security Council has 15 members 5 permanent and 10 non-permanent members. This
15 member Security Council of the the UN takes crucial decisions. However, the real power is with the five
permanent members; and they possess the veto power. So, Security Council doesnt help much in making the
UN a democratic body.
Q.5. Should a democratic country wage a war and invade other countries for establishing democracy there?
Give your opinion stating at least one example.
Ans.In my opinion, the democratic countries do not have any right to wage a war in order to establish
democracy in non-democratic countries. The attack of US on Iraq, blaming it for possessing the weapons of mass
destruction, was more because of its own ambition than establishment of democracy there. Moreover, unless
people of a nation are themselves actively engaged in a struggle to make their society democratic, external help
will be hardly of any help.
Q.6.The functioning of UN Security Council is undemocratic. Justify the statement by giving three suitable examples?
Ans. (i) The real power is with the five permanent members. (ii) These members have veto power.
(iii)Security Council cannot take a decision if these permanent members say No to it.


45
Q.7.What policies were adopted by Salvador Allende after his election as President of Chile in 1970? Assess
any three reforms?
Ans. (i) Reform of the educational system. (ii) Free milk for children.
(iii)Redistribution of land to the landless farmers.
Q.8. 'International Monetary Fund is not truely democratic institution.' Justify this statement with three examples?
Ans. (i) IMF's 173 member states do not have equal voting rights.
(ii) The vote of each country is weighed by how much money it has contributed to the IMF.
(iii)Nearly half of the voting power is in the hands of only seven countries.
Q.9. Who was elected as President of Chile in 1970? What steps did he take to help the poor?
Ans. Salvador Allende was elected president of Chile in 1970. (i) He reformed education system;
(ii) He provides free milk for children; and (iii) He arranged redistribution of land to the landless farmers.
Q.10.In Poland how was democracy re-established?
Ans. Lech Walesa an electrician, joined the strikers (workers of Lenin Shipyard). He became popular. The
government agreed to the workers, demand. An independent trade union was formed. Soon it had one core
members. The government tried to put it down. Another wave of strike followed. This time it resulted in an
agreement in 1989 for free elections. Walesa was elected President of Poland.
Q.11. Mention any three features of democracy
Ans. (i) Allendes democratic government preferred government control on big industries and economy.
(ii) Walesa wanted the market to be free of government interference.
(iii) Michelle stands somewhere in the middle.
Q.12. Who was Lech Walesa
Ans-Lech Walesa was a former electrician of the Lenin Shipyard. He joined and then led the striking workers. He
signed a 21 point agreement with the government that ended the strike.
A new trade union called Solidarity was formed.
General Jaruzeleski imposed martial law.Another wave of strike follwed in April 1989. Free election was held.
Solidarity won 99 out of 100 seats. Walesa was elected President of Poland.
Q.13. Who was Salvador Allende? Why was his policy opposed?
Ans. Salvador Allende was the President of Chile. The landlords, the rich and the church opposed his reforms
and policies.
Q.14. How did Solidarity come to power in Poland?
Ans.On 11 September 1973 the military took over the seaport. The Defence Minister was arrested by the
military. Allende was asked to resign. He addressed the nation on the radio. It was his last speech. He died in a
military attack on the president's house.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
Q.1.Differenciate between Pinochets rule in Chile and the communist rule inPoland?
Ans.1- Pinochet, an Army General supported by the government of USA, led a coup in Chile in
1973 against Allendes popularly elected government. With this, dictatorship was established in Chile. 2-Pinochets
government tortured and killed several of those who supported Allende and wanted to restore democracy there.
3-In Poland, a Communist Party called Polish United Workers Party ruled in 1980. No other political party was
allowed to function. The government of Poland was supported by Soviet Union.
4-But when the movement led by Lech Walesa spread, demanding the workers rights, the government had to give in.
5-Finally, an agreement was signed between Walesa and the Polish government in April 1989 for free elections.
In 1990, elections were held in which more than one party could contest.
Q.2. Write major demands made in the 19th century to established democracy in the world?
Ans.1-In the 19th century, struggles for democracy often centred round political equality, freedom and justice.
2-There was a demand for right to vote for every adult citizen. Many European countries that were becoming
more democratic did not initially allow all people to vote.
3- In some countries, only people owning property had the right to vote. Often women did not have the right to vote.
4-Those struggling for democracy wanted universal suffrage, i.e. voting right for all adults men or women,
rich or poor, white or black.
Q.3.What was the major changes that took place in Indias neighbourhood in the 1990s and 2005?
Ans1-In the 1990s, Pakistan and Bangladesh made a transition from army rule to democracy.
2. InNepal the king gave up many of his powers to become a constitutional monarch to be guided by elected leaders.


46
3. However, these changes were not permanent. In 1999, General Musharraf set up army rule in Pakistan. In
2005, the new king of Nepal dismissed the elected government and took back political freedoms that people
had won in the previous decade.
Q4.Distinguish between the democratic and non democratic conditions?
Ans-{A} a democratic government is elected by the people while a nondemocratic government is not elected by the people.
{B}Under democracy people are given basic rights while under nondemocratic conditions people are not given basic rights.
{C} in democracy there are regular elections though which people can change their government but not in
nondemocratic conditions.
{D}Under democracy the government works within the constitution but in nondemocratic country these
conditions do not apply.
{E] In democracy Parliament is supreme but undern nondemocratic conditions, ruler is supreme.
Hots
Q.1 Discuss any three contributions of UN as a government of the world?
Ans. (i) It is a global association of nations of the world to help in international law securityEconomic
development and social equity.
(ii) It maintains peace and security among countries; it can put together on International Army.
(iii) It can take action against the wrong doer.
Q.2. State how democracy was crushed in Myanmar after the elections were held there in 1990.
Ans.1-In 1990, in Myanmar, elections were held for the first time after almost 28 years.
2-The National League for Democracy led by Aung San Sui Kyi won the election. But the military leaders of
Myanmar refused to step down and did not recognise the election results.
3-The military put the elected pro-democracy leaders, including Sui Kyi, under house arrest. Anyone caught
publicly airing views or issuing statements critical of the regime could be sentenced up to twenty years in
Q3. In the absence of a single world government, what kind of limits is put on what the governments do?
Ans
1. There is no single world government, but there are many institutions in the world that perform partially the
functions of such a government.
2. These organisations cannot command countries and citizens in a way a government can, but they do make
rules that put limits on what governments can do.
3. The United Nations has evolved many conventions on these questions that are now binding on the countries
of the world.
4. The UN Security Council is responsible for maintaining peace and security among countries.
5. The International Monetary Fund lends money to governments when they need it. The World Bank also
gives loans to the governments prison.
ANSWERS.M.C.Qs. [1 MARK]
1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (a)5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (c) 11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16(b) (17 (a) 18 (c) 19
(d) 20 (c) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (c) 31 (b) 32 (a) 33(b) 34 (c) 35 (b)
36 (d) 37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (c) 40 (c)

CHAPTER 2 : WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?
CONCEPTS
SOME FECTS ABOUT ABOUT DEMOCRACY
WHAT IS DEMOCRACY?
Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people .In this type of government
power is always in the hands of people. The word democracy comes from the Greek word demokratia
DEMOS-It means people AND, KRATIAmeans rule.
Forms of government---
(a)Democratic government (b) Non democratic governments
Myanmar where the army rules, Dictator Pinochets rule in Chile, or President
Nkrumahs rule in Ghana was not democratic. They were not chosen by the people.

They rule because they were born into noble families
Several features of democracy.
1. In a democracy final decision making power must rest with those elected by the people.


47
In Pakistan, President Musharraf has the power to dismiss national and state assemblies; so the final powers
rest with the army and the General himself. We cannot call it a democracy.
2. A democracy must be based on a free and fair election where those currently in power have a fair chance of
losing.
the elections. Obviously there has been rigging andmalpractices, with freedom denied to opposition. This is not
what a democracy should be.
3. In a democracy peoples will is ascertained by each adult citizen having one vote and each vote has one value.
Democracy is based on the fundamental principle of political equality.
4. A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional and citizens rights.
A democratic government cannot do what it likes after winning the elections. It has to respect certain basic rules
and is accountable not only to the people but also to other independent officials.
WHY DEMOCRACY?
Merits of democracy
1-Democracy is better than any other forms of government because it responds to needs of the people
2-Democracy improves the quality of decision making as it is based on consultation and discussion.
3-It provides peaceful solution to every problem.
4- In democracy no one Is a permanent winner or a permanent loser.
5-It allows us to correct its own mistakes.
6- Democracy provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts.
7-It enhances the dignity of citizens.
. -Demerits of democracy
There has been criticism of democracy by various people. The charges are that:
It creates instability by changing its leaders frequently.
Democracy is about power play and political competition. There is no scope for morality.
So many people have to be consulted before any issue is solved. It leads to delay.
Elected leaders do not know the best interest of the people.
It leads to corruption for it is based on electoral corruption.
Ordinary people do not know what is good for them, so decision making should not be left to them.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q.1.The word Democracy comes from the Greek word
(a) Democracia (b) Demokratia (c) Demos (d) Kratia
Q.2.What kind of government is there in Myanmar?
(a) Government elected by the people (b) Communist government (c) Army rule (d) Monarchy
Q.3.The head of the government in Nepal is the:
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) King (d) Vice President
Q.4. Who led a military coup in Pakistan in 1999?
(a) Benazir Bhutto (b) Nawaz Sharif (c) Pervez Musharraf (d) None of the above
Q.5. In which case was the real power with external powers and not with the locally elected representatives?
(a) India in Sri Lanka (b) US in Iraq (c) USSR in Communist Poland (d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.6. One person, one vote means
(a) One person is to be voted by all (b) One person has one vote and each vote has one value
(c) A person can vote only once in his life (d) both (a) and (c)
Q.7. How many members are elected to the National Peoples Congress from all over China?
(a) 3050 (b) 3000 (c) 4000 (d) 2000
Q8. Why can the Chinese government not be called a democratic government even though elections are held there?
(a) Army participates in election (b) Government is not accountable to the people
(c) Some parts of China are not represented at all (d) Government is always formed by the Communist Party
Q9.Which party always won elections in Mexico since its independence in 1930 until 2000?
(a) Revolutionary Party (b) Mexican Revolutionary Party
(c) Institutional Revolutionary Party (d) Institutional Party
Q.10. Democracy must be based on
(a) One-party system (b) Free and fair election (c) Choice from only the ruling party (d) All the above


48
Q.11. When did Zimbabwe attain independence and from whom?
(a) 1970, from Black minority rule (b) 1880, from White minority rule
(c) 1980, from Americans (d) 1980, from White minority rule
Q.12.Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler?
(a) ZANU-PF, Robert Mugabe (b) ZANU-PF, Kenneth Kaunda
(c) Zimbabwe Freedom Party, Nelson Mandela (d) Zimbabwe Party, P Johnson
Q.13 which of these features is/are necessary to provide the basic rights to the citizens?
(a) Citizens should be free to think (b) should be free to form associations
(c) Should be free to raise protest (d) All the above
Q.14.Which organ of the government is required to protect the rights of the citizens?
(a) Executive (b) Legislature (c) Independent judiciary (d) Police
Q.15What is Constitutional Law?
(a) Provisions given in the Constitution (b) Law to make Constitution
(c) Law to set up Constituent Assembly (d) none of the above
Q.16.Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law?
(a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution. (b) Police has a right to kill anybody.
(c) Women can be paid lesser salaries (d) President can rule for as long as he wants.
Q.17.Some of the drawbacks of democracy is
(a) Instability and delays (b) corruption and hypocrisy
(c) Politicians fighting among themselves (d) all the above
Q.18. In which of these cases can democracy not provides a complete solution?
(a) Removing poverty completely (b) Providing education to all
(c) Giving jobs to all (d) All the above
Q19. In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occurred in the world?
(a) 1932-36 (b) 1958-61 (c) 2001-2002 (d) 2004-2007
Q20 A democratic government is better than a non-democratic government because
(a) It may or may not be accountable (b) It always responds to the needs of the people
(c) It is a more accountable form of government (d) None of the above
Q.21. Democracy improves the quality of decision-making because
(a) Decisions are taken by educated people (b) Decisions are taken by consultation and discussion
(c) Decisions are taken over a long period of time (d) All decisions are approved by judiciary
Q.22.How does democracy allows us to correct its own mistakes?
(a) Mistakes are hidden and cannot be corrected
(b) Re-electing the same government to enable it to correct its mistakes
(c) The rulers can be changed (d) none of the above
Q.23.The most common form that democracy takes in our time is that of
(a) Limited democracy (b) representative democracy
(c) Maximum democracy (d) none of the above
Q.24.Which body in Indian political system is an example of direct democracy?
(a) Zila Parishad (b) Panchayat Samiti (c) Gram Sabha (d) Vidhan Sabha
Q.25.Which of these is an example of perfect democracy?
(a) USA (b) UK (c) India (d) None of the above
Q.26Which of these is not a feature of monarchy, dictatorship or one-party rule?
(a) Censorship of press (b) No opposition party or parties
(c) Citizens taking part in politics (d) One-man rule
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1.How can you say that every government that holds an election is not a democracy? Give an example to
prove your point.
Ans It is true that every government that holds an election is not a democracy. In many dictatorships and
monarchies, there are formally elected parliaments and governments but the real power is with those who are
not elected. Pakistan under General Musharraf could not be called a democracy because people there elected
their representatives to the national and provincial assemblies but the power to take final decision rested with
army officials and with General Musharraf.


49
Q.2.In China, elections are held after every five years. Inspite of this, China does not have a democratic
government. Why?
Ans.In China, elections are regularly held after every five years for electing the country's Parliament. The Parliament has
the power to appoint the President of the country. It has nearly
3,000 members elected from all over China. Some members are elected by the Army. Before contesting elections, a
candidate needs the approval of the Chinese Communist Party. The government is always formed by the Communist Party.
Q.3. In which way is the right to vote denied in Saudi Arabia and Fiji?
Ans.In Saudi Arabia women do not have the right to vote. In Fiji, the electoral system is such that the vote of an
indigenous Fiji has more value than that of an Indian Fijian. In both the countries, the right to vote is denied as
there is no political equality. In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
Q.4. Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. Explain.
Ans. Consultation and discussion help democracy prosper. A democratic decision always involves many persons,
discussions and meetings. When a number of people put their heads together, they are able to point out
possible mistakes in any decision. This reduces the chances of rash or irresponsible decisions. Thus democracy
improves the quality of decision-making.
Q.5 Is it possible for any country to become a perfect democracy? Give reasons.
Ans.No country is a perfect democracy as every democracy has to realise the ideals of democratic decision-
making. This cannot be achieved once and for all. This requires a constant effort to save and strengthen democratic forms
of decision-making. What we do as citizens can make a difference to making our country more or less democratic.
Q.6. Why is Democracy considered the best form of government? Give three reasons.
Ans. Democarcy is a more accountable form of government.
(i) It improves the quality of decision-making (ii) It enchances the dignity of citizens.
(iii)It allows us to correct its own mistakes.
Q.7 what is the role of citizen in promoting democracy?
Ans.Every citizen should be able to play equal role in decision-making. For this a citizen not only needs an equal
right to vote but also needs to have equal information, basic education,equal resources.
Q.8. Explain any three diferences between democratic country and non-democratic country?
Ans.In a Democratic country
(i) Each adult citizen has a vote; (ii) Each vote has one value; and (iii) Free and fair elections are held.
In a non-democratic country (i) Election do not offer a choice and fair opportunity; (ii)
Rulers are not elected by the people; and (ii) the rulers have unlimited power.
Q.9. Explain any three features of democracy.
Ans.According to a Democarcy (i) Rulers elected by the people take all the major decisions.
(ii) Elections offer a choice and fair opportunity to the people to change the corrent rulers; and
(iii) This choice and opportunity is available to all the people on an equal basis.
Q.10. Why is Zimbabwe not considered a democratic country?
Ans.It is ruled by ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom struggle. Its leader, Robert Mugabe has been ruling
the country since independence. Elections are held regularly but always won by the ZANU-PF. President Mugabe
uses unfair means in the elections. He has changed the constitution several times to increase the power of the
president. Radio and TV are controlled by the government.
Q.11. Democracy allows people to correct their own mistakes. Support the given statement with three points.
Ans.The advantage in a democarcy is that mistakes made by a government cannot be hidden for long. There is a
space for public discussion on these mistakes and there is room for correction.
Either the rulers have to change their decisions or they can be changed.
Q.12. Explain any three major political changes that took place recently in India's neighbourhood?
Ans. (i) PakistanGeneral Musharaff led a military coup.
(ii) NepalIn 2005 the new king dismissed the elected government.
(iii) IraqSadaam Hussain's regime was overthrown.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
Q.1.What was the steps taken by Musharraf in Pakistan to empower himself?
AnsIn Pakistan, General Pervez Musharraf led a military coup in October 1999. He overthrew a democratically
elected government and declared himself the Chief Executive of the country.
Later he changed his designation to President and in 2002 held a referendum in the country that granted him a
five year extension. This referendum was based on fraud and malpractices.
In 2002, he issued a Legal Framework Order that amended the Constitution of Pakistan.


50
According to this order, the President could dismiss the national or provincial assemblies.
Q.2. On the basis of the various examples given in the chapter, state what should be the four features of a democracy?
Ans.Four features of a democracy are
(i) Representatives elected by the people take all the major decisions.
(ii) Elections offer a choice and fair opportunity to the people to change the current rulers.
(iii) This choice and opportunity is available to all the people on an equal basis.
(iv)The exercise of this choice leads to a government limited by basic rules of the constitution and citizens' rights.
Q.3 Enumerate the arguments given against democracy.
Ans.Some of the arguments against democracy is as follows:
(i) Leaders keep changing in a democracy. This leads to instability.
(ii) Democracy is all about political competition and power play, with no scope for morality.
(iii) Since so many people are to be consulted in a democracy, it leads to delays.
(iv)Elected leaders do not know the best interest of the people; so it leads to bad decisions.
(v) Democracy leads to corruption as it is based on electoral competition.
Q.4 how does democracy provide a method to deal with differences and conflicts?
Ans.In any society people are bound to have differences of opinions and interests. These differences are
particularly sharp in a country like India which has lot of social diversity. The preference of one group may class
with those of the other groups. Democracy provides the only peaceful solution to this problem. In democracy,
no one is a permanent winner or a permanent loser.
Different groups can live with one another peacefully. In a diverse country like ours, democracy keeps our
country together.
Q.5. Write any four demerits of democracy.
Ans. (1) Leaders keep changing in a democracy. This leads to instability. (2) Democracy is all aboutpolitical
competition and power play. There is no scope for morality. (3) So many people have to be consulted in a
Democracy that it leads tro delays. (4) Elected leaders do not know the best interest of the people. It leads to
bad decisions.
Q.6.What is the significance of the rule of law and respect for rights in democratic country? State four points.
Ans.A democratic government cannot do whatever it likes simply because it has won an election.
It has to respect some basic rules. In particular it has to respect some guarantees to theminorities. Every major
decision has gone through a series of consultation. Every office bearer has certain rights and responsibilities
assigned by the constitutition and the law. Each is accountable not but only to law to other independent officials.
Q.7.Why does a democratic country always need a constitution?
Ans.All countries that are democratic will have constitutions. After the war of independence against
Great Britain the Americans gave themselves a constitution. After the revolution the French people approved a
democratic constitution. Since then it has become a practice in all democracies to have a written constitution.
Q.8 Democracy enhances the dignity of citizen. Justify this statement.
Ans. Democracy is based on the principle of political equality on recognising that the poorest and the least
educated have the same status as the rich and the educated. People are not subjects of a ruler. They are the
rulers themselves. Even when they make mistakes they are responsible for their conduct.
Q.9. Give any four reasons why democracies resolve conflict in a better way than other forms of
governments.
Ans. Democracies resolve conflict in a better way. Reasons (i) it improves the quality of decision making. It
has scope for consultation and discusion. (ii) In a Democracy conflicts are no solved by brutal force but by
peaceful solutions. (iii) Even even when people/associations/ government make mistakes for a democracy
allows them to correct their mistakes; and (IV)
Democracy provides a forum for consultations and discussions to resolve conflicts.
Q.10. Despite its demerits why is democracy the most preferred form of government? Explain.
Ans.Despite its demerits democracy is still the most preferred form of government as it is
(i) A more accountable form of government. It responds to the needs of the people because the constitution
requires it; and (ii) Better decision came for when many heads together strive to do so, this reduces the chance
of rash decisions or irresponsible decisions plus a democracy enhances the dignity of citizens. It is clearly better
than any other form of government.
Q.11. Why is democracy government a better government? Mention four reasons.


51
Ans.A democratic government is a better government as (i) it offers better changes of a good decision; (ii) it is always
likely to respect people wishes and allows; (iii) different kinds of people to live together; and (iv) even when it fails to do
something for the people it allows a way of correcting its mistakes and offers more dignity to all citizens. That is why a
democracy is considered the best form of government.
HOTS
Q.1.Why has India never had a famine of the level which occurred in China in 1958-61?
Ans.In Chinas famine of 1958-61, nearly three crore people died. In those days Indias economic condition was
not much better than China. Yet India did not have a famine of the kind China had. The reason was the
difference in the economic policies of the two countries. Democratic government in India responded to the food
shortage in a way that Chinese government did not.
If China too had had multi-party elections, an opposition party and a press free to criticise the government, so
many people would not have died in the faminehots
Q.2 Why is it not possible for the people to rule directly but through elected representatives?
Ans.The people cannot rule directly but only through their elected representatives because, firstly, modern
democracies involve such a large number of people that it is physically impossible for them to sit together and
take a collective decision. Secondly, even if they could, the citizens do not have the time, the desire or the skill
to take part in all the decisions.
Q.3 Is China a democratic country or not? Give two arguments in favour of your answer.
Ans. China is not a democratic country. (i) Only those who are members of the Chinese Communist
Party or eight smaller parties allied to it are allowed to contest elections; (ii) before contesting elections a
candidate needs the approval of the Chinese Communist Party.
Q.4. How does democracy in a countryenhance the diginity of an individual? State three points
Ans. (i) Democracy is based on the principal of political equality on recognising that the poorest and the least
educated have the same status as the rich and the educated.
(ii) People are not subjects of a ruler they are the rulers themselves.
(iii) Even when they make mistakes, they are responsible for their conduct.
Q.5. Why is democracy called a government by discussion?
Ans.It is called a government by discussion because a democracy is based on consultation and discussion. A
democratic decision always involves many peoples discussions and meetings.
When a member of people together thinks over a certain matter they are able to point out possible mistakes.
This takes time. But there is big advantage in taking time. This reduces rush decisions, problems are not resolved
by brutal force but by peaceful discussions. It offers best alternative that we know.
Q.6 Democracy improve the quality of decision making. Explain.
Ans. Democracy provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts. In any society people are bound to
have difference of opinions and interests. These differences are particularly sharp a country like ours which has
an amazing social diversity. People belong to different regions speak different languages, practise different
religions and have different castes. Preferences o a group can clash with those of other groups. Democracy
provides the only peaceful solution to this problem. In democracy no one is a permanent winner. No one a
permanent loser. In a diverse country like India, democracy keeps our country together.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (b) 11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (b) 20
(c) 21(b) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26 (c)

CHAPTER 3: CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN CONCEPTS

CONSTITUTION A Constitution is a written document of rules, regulations and laws by which a countries
government is run accordingly.
Do We Need a Constitution?
Yes. A constitution has written laws accepted by people living together in a country.
It generates trust and co-ordination.
It specifies how a government should be constituted.
It lays down limits on the powers of the government.
It expresses the aspirations of the people about creating a good society.


52
Making of the Indian Constitution
The process began during the national struggle for freedom.
First draft 1928, then 1931. Motilal Nehru and 8 leaders demanded in the draft: universalAdult franchise,
social justice, right to freedom and liberty.
Participation in Provincial Legislatures helped Indians in framing their constitution.
Leaders inspired by French Revolution, British parliamentary system and the Bill of Rights of the US.
They also learnt what the British were denying Indian citizens.
The Constituent Assembly
Elections to the Constituent Assembly held in July 1946.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar appointed chairman of the drafting committee.
Constitution adopted on 26 November 1949, and enacted on 26 January, 1950, when IndiaBecame a
republic.
The Constitution reflects the best minds of the country. Its members represented mini-India.Every law was
debated clause by clause and a consensus arrived at.It is the longest written constitution.
PROBLEMS FACED WHILE MAKING INDIAN CONSTITUTION
India was a huge and divers country and making of the constitution was not an easy affair.
The country was devided on the basis of religious differences.
The merger of Princely states was adifficult and uncertain task.
The future of the country was not much secure.
Significance of Preamble to the constitution
The Preamble provides the guidelines of the constitution and is considered to be the key of theconstitution.
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA-
*SOVEREIGN *SOCIALIST *SECULAR *DEMOCRATIC *REPUBLIC *JUSTICE
*LIBERTY *EQALITY *FRATERNITY.
MEMBERS OF CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY
1. Vallabhbhai Patel 2.Abul Kalam Azad 3.T.T. Krishnamachari 4. Rajendra Prasad
5.H. C. Mukherjee 6. Jaipal Singh 7. G. Durgabai Deshmukh 7. Baldev Singh
8. K. M. Munshi 9. B. R. Ambedkar 10. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
11. Jawahar Lal Nehru 12. Sarojini Naidu 13. Somnath Lahiri .
Democratic Constitution in South Africa
Nelson Mandela, the South African leader of African National Congress, fought a long battle
Against Apartheid.
Imprisoned for 28 years (19641992) emerged as the First President of the Republic of South
Africa.
People struggled against the horrible discrimination practised against them by the white
Minority rulers.
Apartheid finally defeated in 1994 and a new constitution made in 1996.
Remarkable constitution, forgot past sufferings, sought co-operation of all the races whichMake S. Africa
based on equality, democratic values and social justice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q.1. On what charges was Nelson Mandela sentenced to life imprisonment?
(a) For treason (b) For breaking the laws (c) For corruption charges (d) for possessing illegal property
Q.2. what is apartheid?
(a) Election in proportion to population (b) Official policy of discrimination against the Blacks
(c) Equality among all (d) None of the above
Q.3. In which way did the system of apartheid discriminate among the South Africans?
(a) Restricted social contacts between the races (b) Segregation of public facilities
(c) Created race-specific job categories (d) All the above
Q.4. Name the organisation that led the struggle against the policies of segregation.
(a) African National Conference (b) African Neutral Congress
(c) African National Congress (d) All National Party
Q.5. why did the white regime decide to change its policies?


53
(a) Increase in protests and struggles
(b) Government realised that repression was becoming difficult
(c) Rise of sympathetic attitude in government for the blacks
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.6. which of these did not form a part of the changed attitude of South African government?
(a) Discriminatory laws were repealed (b) Ban on political parties and media was lifted
(c) Nelson Mandela was freed from imprisonment (d) More discriminatory laws were passed
Q.7. when did South Africa become a democratic country?
(a) 26 April, 1995 (b) 26 April, 1994 (c) 24 March, 1994 (d) 27 April, 1996
Q.8. With the end of apartheid, who became the first President of South African Republic?
(a) F.W. de Klerk (b) P.W. Botha (c) Nelson Mandela (d) None of the above
Q.9. Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.
(a) The Long Walk to Freedom (b) South Africa Wins Freedom (c) Walk to Freedom (d) Our Freedom
Q.10. what did the black population want in the new Constitution?
(a) A black President (b) Substantial social and economic rights
(c) Whites should be turned out of the country (d) Apartheid for the whites
Q.11. what did the white minority want from the new Constitution?
(a) Protect its privileges and property (b) A separate country for themselves
(c) Reservation in legislature (d) some special rights
Q.12. During negotiations for making the Constitution, the whites agreed to
(a) The principle of majority rule (b) One person one vote
(c) Accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers (d) All the above
Q.13. which of the following sentences is correct?
(a) All countries that have constitutions are necessarily democratic
(b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above)
Q.14. when did Motilal Nehru draft a Constitution for India?
(a) 1927 (b) 1926 (c) 1929 (d) 1928
Q.15. Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?
(a) Nagpur (b) Karachi (c) Calcutta (d) Delhi
Q.16. which of these features were accepted by all the Indian leaders much before they satDown to make the Constitution?
(a) Universal adult franchise (b) Right to freedom
(c) Protection of the rights of minorities (d) All the above
Q.17. According to which Act were the elections held to provincial legislatures in India in 1937?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1909 (d) None of the above
Q.18. which of these inspired our leaders while framing the Constitution?
(a) Ideals of the French Revolution (b) Parliamentary democracy in Britain
(c) Bill of Rights in US (d) All the above
Q.19. which revolution in the world inspired the Indians to set up a socialist economy?
(a) French Revolution (b) Turkish Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution (d) American War of Independence
Q.20. Name the body which framed the Constitution of India?
(a) General Assembly (b) Constituent Assembly (c) Constitutional Assembly (d) Peoples Assembly
Q.21. when did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?
(a) 26 November, 1949 (b) 26 December, 1949 (c) 26 January, 1950 (d) 26 January, 1949
Q.22. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Abul Kalam Azad
Q.23. How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?
(a) Around 500 (b) Around 2000 (c) Around 1550 (d) Around 1000
Q.24. Who said the following?
I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country ..... InWhich all communities
shall live in perfect harmony?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sarojini Naidu


54
Q.25. Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Sarojini Naidu (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.26. The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from
Every eye. Who was Nehru referring to in his speech?
(a) Abdul Ghaffar Khan (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.27. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it called?
(a) Preface (b) Preamble (c) Introduction (d) Article
Q.28. Match these guiding values with their meanings.
(A) Sovereign (i) government will not favour any particular religion
(B) Republic (ii) People will have supreme right to make decisions without outsideInterference
(C) Fraternity (iii) Head of the state is an elected person
(D) Secular (IV) There should be a feeling of brotherhood among all the people
(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(IV) (b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(i), B-(IV), C-(iii), D-(ii) (d) A-(IV), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
Q.29. which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?
(a) USA (b) India (c) South Africa (d) All the above
Q.30. what kind of Justice does our Preamble provide?
(a) Economic Justice (b) Political Justice (C) Social Justice (d) All the above
Q.31. which of these positions is correct in relation to the Sovereign status of India?
(a) USA can decide Indias foreign policy
(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d) Pakistan can control Indias Armed Forces
Q.32. Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.33. which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the constitution?
(a) Republic Day (b) Independence Day (c) Gandhi Jayanti (d) Constitution Enforcement Day
Q.34.The Indian constitution has borrowed from
(i) Ideas from French Revolution (ii) The British Constitution
(iii) The Bill of Rights of the US (IV) Israeli Constitution
(a) i, ii, iv (b) i, ii, iii, (c) ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iv
Q.35.The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?
(a) 114 (b) 280 (c) 365 (d) 150
Q36. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) C. Rajgopalachari (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q.37. When did the Indian constitution come into force?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 15th August, 1947 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Jan, 1930
Q.38. Who prepared the draft of a constitution for India in 1928?
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.39When was the Constitution of India adopted?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 26th Jan, 1949 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Nov, 1950
Q.40. Drafting Committee was chaired by:
(a) Gandhiji (b) Pt. J.L. Nehru (c) Baldev Singh (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1. In which way was the system of apartheid oppressive?
Ans The apartheid system was particularly oppressive for the blacks. They were forbidden from living in white areas. They
could work in white areas only if they had a permit. Trains, buses, taxis, hotels, hospitals, schools and colleges, swimming
pools, public toilets etc. were all separate for the whites and blacks. They could not even visit the churches where the
whites worshipped. Blacks could not form associations or protest against the terrible treatment.
Q.2 what was the appeal made by the black leaders to the fellow blacks after the emergence of the new
democratic South Africa?
Ans. After the emergence of the new democratic South Africa, black leaders appealed to fellow blacks to forgive the whites
for the atrocities they had committed while in power. They urged the people to build a new South Africa based on equality
of all races, and of men and women, on democratic values, social justice and human rights.
Q.3 What is meant by the term Constitution?


55
Ans The constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living in that country. It
is the supreme law that determines the relationship among the people living in a territory (called citizens) and
also the relationship between the people and government. It specifies how the government will be constituted
and who will have the power to take different decisions.
Q.4. Describe the advantages that Indians had when they participated in the legislatures which were set up as
a result of the elections of 1937.
Ans Although the legislatures set up in India as a result of elections of 1937 were not fully democratic, the
experience gained by Indians in the working of the legislative institutions proved to be very useful for the
country in setting up its own institutions and working in them.
Q.5. Give a description of the composition of the Constituent Assembly.
AnsThe Constituent Assembly was elected mainly by the members of the existing Provincial Legislatures. This
ensured a fair geographical share of members from all the regions of the country. Congress, which was the
dominant party in the Assembly itself, included a variety of political groups and opinions. It represented
members from different languages, castes, religions, classes and occupations.
Q.6What did Ambedkar mean by Contradiction in his concluding speech to the Constituent Assembly?
Ans.In his concluding speech to the Constituent Assembly Dr. Ambedkar said that India was entering a life of
contradictions on 26th Jan 1950. By this he meant that in politics Indians would have equality but in social and
economic life, there would be inequality. In politics India would be recognising the principle of one man one
vote, with one value, but in social and economic life, the principle of one man one value would be denied.
Q.7. Why was a constitution necessary for a country like South Africa?
Ans The oppressor and the oppressed, i.e. the whites and the blacks were planning to live together, as equals. It was not
going to be easy for them to trust each other. They wanted to safeguard their interests. The only way to build and maintain
trust was to write down some rules. This set of basic rules was the constitution needed for South Africa.
Q.8What do you understand by secularism? Why India is called a secular country?
Ans. India is a country of many religions and it respects all religions. No religion is given the status of state religion and
equal respect is given to all beliefs, faiths and practices. Citizens have complete freedom to follow any religion.
Q. 9 what are Constitutional Amendments? State its significance in a democratic country likeIndia.
Ans. Constitutional Amendments are changes in the constitution made by the Supreme Legislative body in a
country. The constitution of India is a very long and detailed document. Therefore it needs to be amended quite
regularly to keep it updated.
Q.10. what were the difficulties faced during the making of Indian constitution?
Ans It was drawn up under very difficult circumstances. Making a constitution for a huge country like India was
not an easy affair. The country was born through partition. The problem of princely states was left undecided by
the Britrish. There were anxieties about the present and future of the country.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
Q.1. Regarding the constitution-making, what was the compromise reached at between the blacks and whites?
Ans.1-The constitution of South Africa was drawn together by the party of whites which had rules through
oppression and the party that led the freedom struggle.
2-The constitution gave to its citizens the most extensive rights available in any country. After long negotiations
both parties agreed to a compromise.
3-The whites agreed to the principle of majority rule and that of one person one vote. They also agreed to
accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers.
4-The blacks agreed that the majority rule would not be absolute. They agreed that the majority would not take
away the property of the white minority.
Q.2What does the constitution effectively do that makes a country a democratic one?
Ans A constitution does many things to make a country a democratic one:
(i) It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kind of people to live together.
(ii) It specifies how the government will be constituted and who will have the power of taking which decisions.
(iii) It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of the citizens are.
(iv) It expresses the aspirations of the people about creating a good society.
Q3. In his speech Tryst with Destiny, Nehru said, Freedom and power bring responsibility.'Explain what he meant by this.
Ans.1-By saying that Freedom and power bring responsibility, Nehru meant that it is the responsibility of
Indians to not relax with ease after having got the freedom, but to constantly strive to fulfil the pledges taken


56
.2- He said that the service of India meant the service of the millions who suffered, it meant the embing of
poverty and ignorance and disease and inequality of opportunity.
Q4. What is the preamble of the constitution? What is the significance of 'We the people
ofIndia'and'secular'in the preamble?
Ans.1-It is an introductary part of the constitution. It is called the key of the Constitution. "We the people of
India" means the constitution has been drawn up and enacted by the people through their representatives.
2-Secular means that citizens have complete freedom to follow any religion. But there is no official religion.
Q5. Describe any three features of the Indian constitution.
Ans. (i) It establishes a Sovereign, Democratic, Republic in India (ii) It establishes a secular state in India (iii) It
provides Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties.
(i) The Constitution begins with a short statement called the preamble. Sovereign means people have supreme
right to make decisions on internal as well as external matter. No external power can dictate the government of
India. Democratic means a form of government where people enjoy equal political rights, elect their rulers and
hold them accountable. Republic means the head of the state is an elected person and it is not a hereditary
position.
(ii) Secular means citizens have complete freedom to follow any religion Government treats all religions beliefs
and practices with equal respect.
(iii) The Indian constitution provides justice social, economic and political.
Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
Equality of status and opportunity.
Fraternity assuring dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation.
Q.6.What is constitution? Why do we need a constitution?
Ans.1-It is a set of written rules that are accepted by all the people of a country.
2- It is needed as it is the supreme law that determines the relationship among citizens of a country.
3-It defines how the government will be formed and also limits the powers of the government and defines the
rights of the citizens.
Q.7The Indian constitution is both rigid and flexible. Explain?
Ans.1-The Indian Constitution is neither wholly flexible nor wholly rigid. It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
2- It is not as flexible as the British constitution is, nor as rigid as the American constitution is.
Some of the articles of the constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the parliament, e.g. changing
the names of states, altering boundaries of states, matters relating to citizenship etc.
3- Some of the articles of the constitution can be amended with 2/3 majority of the members of parliament, e.g.
the election of the president of India.
4- If any change in it is intended then it has to be passed first by a majority of the total members in each house
of parliament.
Q.8. Mention the landmark years in the making of the Indian constitution.
Ans.1-As far back as 1928, Motilal Nehru and eight other Congress leaders drafted a constitution forIndia.
2- In 1931 at the Karachi Session of Indian National Congress leaders pondered whatIndia's constitution should
be like. Elections held in 1937 to provincial Legislatures and
Ministeri all over British India.
3- It was beneficial for Indians to gain experience.
4-That is why Indian Constitution adopted many insitutional details from colonial laws like the Government of
India Act 1935.
Q.9.What is the aim of a socialist state? How can that be achieved?
Ans.1-We all us generated socially and should be shared equally by society.
2-Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socioeconomic equalities.
3-Social inequalities have to be reduced; Government should work for the welfare of all.
Q.10What was the African Policy of Apartheid? How could that come to an end?
Ans. 1-Apartheid was the name of a system of racial discrimention unique to South Africa.
2-The White Europeans imposed this system on South Africa. The native people of Africa are black.
3- They had 3/4 of the population. The whites treated all non-whites as inferiors. The non-whites didnot have
voting rights.


57
4-The blacks were forbidden from living in the white area. Trains, buses, hospitals, schools, hotels, taxis,
cinemas etc. were all separate for the whites and blacks. The blacks, coloured and Indians fought for their rights-
arranged marches protests and strikes.
5-The racist government for tortured them. On 26 April 1994. Apartheid came to an end with the birth of the
Republic of South Africa.ORMATIVE ASSESSMENT
HOTS
Q.1 Why did the makers of the Indian constitution have anxieties about the present and the future of the
country?
Ans.1-The makers of the Indian constitution had anxieties because making of the constitution for a huge and
diverse country like India was not an easy affair.
2-The country was born through partition on the basis of religious differences.
3-At least ten lakh people were killed on both sides of the border in partition related violence.
4- Another problem was that the British had left it to the rulers of the princely states to decide whether they
wanted to merge with India or with Pakistan or to remain independent.
Q2. Describe how the Constituent Assembly worked to prepare the constitution for India.
Ans.The Constituent Assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner.
1-some basic principles were decided and agreed upon.
2-Then a Drafting Committee chaired by Dr. B.R.Ambedkar prepared a draft constitution for discussion.
3-Several rounds of thorough discussion took place, clause by clause. More than 2000 amendments were made.
4-The members deliberated for 114 days spread over 3 years. Every document presented and every word spoken
in the Constituent Assembly was recorded and preserved. These are called Constituent Assembly Debates.
Q.3What is the Preamble? Explain any three guiding principles explained in the Preamble.
Ans. 1-Preamble is a short statement of the basic values of the constitution. Taking inspiration from American
model, most countries have adopted constitutions with a preamble.
2-The preamble of the Indian constitution reads like a poem on democracy.
3-It contains the philosophy on which the entire constitution has been built; 1. DemocraticIt will have a
democratic government Where people will enjoy equal rights; 2. EqualityAll citizens will be equal before the
law; And 3. FraternityAll world would behave as if they are members of the same family.
Q.4.Why do we need a constitution? Give any four points.
Ans. Every country has diverse groups of people. People have differences. Hence the need to have a set of rules.
To maintain a trust it as best to write down these rules. Thus the constitution of a country is a set of written
rules that are accepted by all. A constitution. 1. generates trust and coordination.
2. Specifies how government will be constituted. 3. Lays down limits on the powers of the government.
4. Expresses the aspirations of the people.
Q.5 State the steps involved in the framing of Indian constitution.
Ans.1-The drafting of the document called the constitution was done by an assembly of elected representatives
called the Constituent assembly.
2- Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Its first meeting was held in December 1946. It
had 299 members.
3-The assembly adopted the constitution on 26 November 1949 and it came into force on 26 January 1950.
Q.6.The Preamble of our constitution is a short statement of values. Which country has inspired India to
incorporate the Preamble? Why does it start with We, The People of India?
Ans. Taking inspiration from American model, most countries including India have chosen to begin their
constitutions with a importance to the people of India by saying that it is the people who have drawn up and
enacted the constitution. It has not been handed down to them by a king or any outside power.

KEY OF MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
1(a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10(b) 11 (a) 12(d) 13(b) 14 (d) 15 (b) 16 (d) 17 (a) 18(d) 19 (c)
20 (b) 21(a) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (b) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (d)30 (d) 31(c) 32 (b) 33(a)
34(b) i, ii, iii, 35 (a) 36.(a) 37(c) 38 (a) 39 (a) 40(d)

Part 4: Economics
CHAPTER -1VILLAGE PALAMPUR


58

Palampur is a small village having about 450 families. It is 3 km away from Raiganj a big village. Shahpur is the
nearest town to the village.
Main Production Activities
Farming is the main production activity in the village Palampur. Most of the people are dependent on farming
for their livelihood. Non-farming activities such as dairy, small-scale manufacturing (e.g. activities of weavers
and potters, etc.), transport, etc., are carried out on a limited scale.
Factors of Production (Requirements for Production of Goods and Services)
Land, labour and capital are the basic requirements for production of goods and services which are popularly
known as factors of production. Land includes all free gifts of nature, e.g., soil, water, forests, minerals, etc.
Labour means human effort which of course includes physical as well as mental labour. Physical capital is the
third requirement for production. Physical capital includes fixed capital (e.g. tools, machines, building, etc.) and
raw materials such as seeds for the farmer, yarn for the weaver.
Important Changes in Farm Activities
Land area under cultivation is virtually fixed. However, some wastelands in India had been converted into
cultivable land after 1960. Over the years, there have been important changes in the way of farming, which have
allowed the farmers to produce more crops from the same amount of land. These changes include:
(a) Multiple cropping farming (b) Use of modern farming methods.
Due to these changes (in the late 1960s) productivity of land has increased substantially which is known as
Green Revolution. Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try out the modern
farming methods in India.
Labour : After land, labour is the next basic factor of production. Small farmers provide their own labour,
whereas medium and large farmers make use of hired labour to work on their fields.
Capital : After land and labour, capital is another basic factor of production. All categories of farmers (e.g. small,
medium and large) require capital. Small farmers borrow from large farmers or the village moneylenders or the
traders who supply them various inputs for cultivation. Modern farming requires a great deal of capital.
Sale of Surplus Farm Products
Farmers produce crops on their lands by using the three factors of production, viz. land, labour and capital. They
retain a part of produce for self-consumption and sell the surplus in the nearby market. That part of farm
produce which is sold in the market is called marketable surplus. Small farmers have little surplus output. It is
the medium and large farmers only who have substantial surplus produce for selling in the market.
Non-farm activities
Out of every 100 workers in the rural areas in India, only 24 are engaged in non-farm activities. There is a variety
of non-farm activities in the villages. Dairy, small scale manufacturing, transport, etc., fall under this category.
MCQs
Which of the following is grown in the rainy season?
(a) Jowar and bajra (b) Wheat (c) Soyabean (d) Rice
Q.2. Which of the following is a Rabi crop?
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Cotton (d) Jowar and bajra
Q.3. Which of the following is fixed capital?
(a) Tools and machines (b) Fertilisers and pesticides (c) Soil (d) Seeds
Q.4. Which of the following is a standard unit of measurement of land?
(a) Bigha (b) Hectare (c) Acre (d) Guintha
Q.5. The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is
(a) Rs. 50 (b) Rs. 60 (c) Rs. 70 (d) Rs. 80
Q.6. Money in hand is an example of
(a) Human capital (b) Fixed capital (c) Working capital (d) Physical capital
Q.7. HYV seeds stands for
(a) Heavy yielding variety seeds (b) High yielding variety seeds (c) Half yielding variety seeds (d) None
Q.8. What is the main production activity in Palampur village?
(a) Farming (b) Animal husbandry (c) Transport (d) Small-scale manufacturing
Q.9. Multiple cropping means growing
(a) only two crops (b) only three crops (c) upto four crops (d) more than one crop
Q.10. Land under cultivation (in million hectares) in India in the year 2000 was


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(a) 120 (b) 130 (c) 140 (d) 150
Q.11. Which area in India has a low level of irrigation?
(a) Deccan plateau (b) Coastal regions (c) Riverine plains (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.12. Modern farming methods were tried in India for the first time in
(a) Punjab ( b) Western U.P. (c) Haryana (d) All the above
Q.13. Which of the following is a modern farming method?
(a) Multiple cropping (b) Use of HYV seeds (c) Use of chemical fertilisers (d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.14. Production of pulses (in million tonnes) in India during 2000-01 was
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 12
Q.15. Which one is a natural resource?
(a) Labour (b) Raw materials (c) Mineral (d) None of the above
Q.16. High yielding variety seeds (HYV) were introduced to Indian farmers as a result of
(a) White Revolution (b) Green Revolution (c) IT Revolution (d) None of the above
Q.17. Which Kharif crop is used for cattle feed?
(a) Sugarcane (b) Potato (c) Jowar and bajra (d) Wheat
Q.18. The activities such as small manufacturing, transport, shopkeeping are referred to as
(a) Non-economic activities (b) Non-farming activities
(c) Non-traditional activities (d) Non-market activities
Q.19. High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds are developed in
(a) Research institutes (b) Factories (c) Krishak Bharati Cooperatives (d) None of the above
Q.20. The concept of White Revolution is associated with
(a) food crops (b) milk (c) cotton (d) pesticides
Q.21. Who is a person who puts together land, labour and capital?
(a) Moneylender (b) Entrepreneur (c) Zamindar (d) Manager
Q.22. A farmer who works on a piece of 1 hectare of land is treated as
(a) Medium farmer (b) small farmer (c) large farmer (d) none of the above
Q.23. Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to
(a) Fixed amount of land (b) lack of irrigation (c) lack of labour (d) none of the above
Q.24. What is done to surplus wheat in Palampur?
(a) Sold in the market (b) Destroyed (c) Stocked by self (d) Given in charity
Q.25. Consumption of chemical fertilisers is highest in which state of India?
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Rajasthan (d) Himachal Pardesh
Q.26. People of Palampur sell milk in the near by large village named:
(a) Pitampura (b) Siliguri (c) Shahpur (d) Raiganj
Q.27. Out of the total cultivated areas in the country, how much area is irrigated today :
(a) less than 40% (b) less than 30% (c) less than 60% (d) less than 70%
Q.28. 'Operation Flood' is related to :
(a) control flood (b) produce fish (c) milk production (d) grain production
Q.29. Green Revolution is related to :
(a) Milk Production (b) Grain production (c) Fish production (d) none of these
Q.30. Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in Palampur?
(a) Banks (b) Co-operative Societies (c) Village money lenders (d) Friends and relatives
Q.31. Which one among the following is not fixed capital?
(a) Machines (b) Buildings (c) Tools (d) Raw materials
Q.32. Why do the farmers of Palampur follow multiple cropping? Choose the correct answer.
(a) Because the water consumption is less in this method
(b) Because this method consumes less chemical fertilisers
(c) Because this method doesn't require fertile soils
(d) Because this method is the most common way of increasing production
Q.33. Which of the following transformed the system of irrigation in Palampur?
(a) Tubewells (b) Persian wheel (c) Rainwater harvesting (d) None of these
Q.34. How many families lives in Village Palampur?
(a) 150 (b) 250 (c) 350 (d) 450
Q.35. Which one among the following is a non-farm activity?


60
(a) Multiple croppping (b) Crop rotation (c) Dairy farming (d) Modern farming
Q.36. Which one of the following is not an effect of the modern farming?
(a) Soil degradation (b) Deforestation (c) Decrease in groundwater (d) Water pollution
Q.37. Marginal farmers are those :
(a) who use modern methods for farming (b) who practice crop rotation for farming
(c) who did not have sufficient land for farming (d) who use modern methods of irrigation
Q.38. Working capital stands for :
(a) Tools, machines and buildings (b) raw materials and money in hand
(c) total share capital (d) fixed deposits in financial institutions
Q.39. Which is the most abundant factor of production in India?
(a) Land (b) Capital (c) Labour (d) Tools and machines
Q.40. Multiple Cropping refers to :
(a) Cultivation of wheat and rice (b) cultivation of two crops in alternate rows
(c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year (d) cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same
farm
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
Q.1. What was the major impact of electricity on the farmers of Palampur? Explain.
Ans. 1. Electricity reaching in Palampur transformed irrigation system as electric-run tubewells could be used to
irrigate much larger areas of land more effectively.
2. Electric tubewell would draw water from well electrically and no manual handling required.
3. Electricity has also facilitated the harvesting of crops with electric harvesters.
Q.2. What is the basic aim of production. What are the essential four requirements for production?
Ans. Basic aim of production was to produce goods and services that we want. Four requirements for
production of goods and services were:
2. Land and other natural resources like water, forests, minerals Labour, i.e. people who would do the work.
3. Each worker is providing the labour necessary for production.
4. Third requirement is physical capital, i.e. variety of inputs required at every stage during production.
5. Fourth requirement is knowledge and enterprise to be able to put together land, labour and physical capital
and produce an output.
Q.3. What do you mean by working capital? How does it affect the day-to-day activities in farming?
Ans. Raw materials and money in hand is known as working capital. Some money is always required during
production to make payments and buy other necessary items. Working capital is related with day-to-day
activities in farming like use of seeds, pesticides, insecticides, manure, wages of labour etc. So production in
farming is high for more working capital. Higher working capital would facilitate more purchase of seeds,
fertilisers and wages, so higher yield would be there.
Q.4. What do you mean by Rabi crops and Kharif crops? When are they sown and harvested? Give examples also.
Ans. Rabi crops are grown in winter season (between October to December) and harvested in spring season
(between mid-late April to mid-late June). Potato, wheat, barley, mustard are Rabi crops.
Kharif crops are sown in rainy season (from July to September) and harvested in autumn season. Examples of
Kharif crops are jowar and bajra, sugarcane, cotton, red chillies etc.
Q.5. What is the difference between multiple cropping and modern farming method?
Ans. To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as multiple cropping. For example,
sugarcane is sown along with wheat in winter season as sugarcane is harvested once every year. Modern
farming methods are the use of improved methods and techniques to be used in agriculture to increase yield
per hectare. Use of HYV seeds, insecticides, pesticides, electric tube-well etc. is modern farming methods.
Q.6. Modern farming methods require the farmers to invest more cash than before. Why? Explain.
Ans. Yes, modern farming methods like use of HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, electric tubewell for irrigation
require higher investment in farming because they carry higher cost than traditional one. HVY seeds need more
water and also chemical fertilisers and pesticides to produce best results. Higher use of chemicals, cause
environmental degradation also.
Q.7. What was the major disadvantage associated with HYV seeds? Explain.
Ans. 1. Biggest disadvantage associated with HYV seeds is bigger requirement of water and also chemical
fertilisers and pesticides to produce best results.
2. Higher yields are possible only from combination of HYV seeds, irrigation, chemical fertilisers, pesticides etc.


61
3. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides degrade our environment killing necessary bacterias in soil. Poor farmers
could not afford HYV seeds due to increased requirement of fertilisers and machinery.
4. New machinery replaced manual labour leading to unemployment and rural-urban migration.
Q.8. What are the various farming and non-farming activities in village Palampur?
Ans. Farming activities: Farming is the main production activity in Palampur. About 75% of the people depend
upon farming for their livelihood. They use methods of multiple farming and modern farming techniques for
increase in their productivity. Well-developed irrigational facilities and use of HYV seeds has improved in
production levels of agriculture in Palampur.
Non-farming activities : Non farming activities in Palampur includes dairy farming. Small scale manufacturing
units, shop-keeping and transportation activities. Milk is transported to nearby and far of towns. Family
members, without hired labours run small manufacturing units with simple techniques shop keepsrs buy various
goods from wholesale markets in cities and sell them in villages. Road transport facilities include rickshaws,
tongs, jeeps, tractors, trucks and bullock carts.
Q.9. What do the scientific reports indicate about the modern farming methods? Mention any three points.
Ans. Scientific reports indicate that the modern farming method has overused the natural resource base.
1. Green revolution, due to increased use of chemical fertilisers, has led to loss of soil fertility.
2. Use of ground water with due help of tube wells for irrigation has reduced the level of ground water.
3. Use of chemical fertilisers resulted in loss of soil fertility. Therefore, farmers are forced to use more and
more chemical fertilisers to achieve the production level which in turn raises the cost of production.
Q.10. What are the sources of irrigation in Palampur?
Ans. Palampur holds a well developed system of irrigation. Due to introduction of electricity irrigation system
transformed from Persian wheels to electric-run tube wells. Initially, the first few tube wells were installed by
the government and then by mid of 1970s the entire cultivated area of 200 hectare was irrigated by privately
installed tube wells.
Q.11. Explain any three types of production activities in Palampur.
Ans. (i) Farming at Palampur : Farming is the main activity in village Palampur. Land area available for farming is fixed.
Expansion in production is done due to methods of multiple cropping and use of modern farming methods.
(ii) Dairy farming : Dairy is a common activity in many families of Palampur. Many families have cows and
buffalos. They feed them on jowar and bajra. They sell milk either in the village or in nearby villages or town.
(iii) Small-scale manufacturing : People at Palampur are Angaged in same kind of small scale and cottage
industries. Simple techniques of production are used on a small scale. Such small scale units are mostly carried
at home or in fields with the help of family members. Sugarcan curshing, carpet Neaving and basket making
activities are carried under such production units.
Q.12. State any three advantages of multiple cropping.
Ans. Advantages of multiple cropping are :
(a) Efficient use of land : Land is not left idle at any time of the year and therefore more efficiently used in the
process of production.
(b) Increase of production : It increases the production on a piece of land during the year.
(c) Increase in income: Multiple cropping increases the agricultural income of the country as well as for the farmers.
Q.13. What is Green Revolution? Which crop is benefitted the most due to Green Revolution?
Ans. Green Revolution is a revolution of using modern farming methods for higher yield and achieving the self
sufficiency in the production of wheat and rice. It includes use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, irrigation,
chemical fertilisers, pesticides etc for producing best results. Wheat is benefitted most due to Green Revolution.
Q.14. What are the problems do form labourers face in terms of employment? Explain any three problems.
Ans. Problems faced by farm labourers are :
(a) Unadequate wages : Government has fixed the minimum wages as Rs 60 day but they donot usually get this amount of money.
(b) Availability of labour : Too much availability of labour forces the labourers to work on lower wages.
(c) Duration of employment : Labourers are sometimes employed on the daily wages and sometimes for the whole year.
They do not have surety of job.
Q.15. Explain any three modern farming methods of Agriculture.
Ans. (i) Use of HYV seeds : Use of High Yielding Variety seeds promises larger quantity of production of foodgrains.
(ii) Use of farm machinery : Use of machinery for irrigation, harvesting, threshing etc improves the quality of
work as well as reduces time consumption.
(iii) Use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides : Use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides ensure the farmers
about the better upbringing of crops in quality and quantity.


62
Q.16. Many factors are responsible for the poor economic condition of farm labourers like Dala and Ramkali.
Can you explain a few of these factors?
Ans. The factors responsible for poor economic conditions of farm labourers like Dala and Ramkali are :
(i) Use of modern farming techniques : Use of modern farming techniques make it difficult for farm labourers to
get work. Tractors are used foor ploughing, harvesters for harvesting, threshers for threshing and weedicide for
removing weeds. This leaves very less or no work for farm labourers.
(ii) Poorly Paid : Due to heavy competition for work among the farm labourers, people agree to work for lower
wages. The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by government is Rs 60 per day but they are generally paid
only half of it. This forces them to take loan from local money lenders which put them in the vicious circle of
poverty.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
Q.1. What are the different ways of increasing production on the same piece of land. Explain any four points.
OR
What are the different ways of increasing production on the same piece of land. Explain with the help of examples.
OR
State four steps of optimal utilisation of land.
Ans. Land area under cultivation is fixed. So, the ways of increasing farm produce on the same piece of land are :
(i) Multiple cropping : It is the most common way of increasing production on a given piece of land. Under it,
more than one crop is grown on the same piece of land during the year.
Indian farmers should grow atlest two main crops in a year. Some farmers have been growing a third crop also
over the past twenty years
(ii) Green Revolution : It was brought in India in the late 1960s, the use of HYV (High Yielding Variety) seeds for increase
in production of rice and wheat. It promised to produce much greater amount of grains on a single plant.
(iii) Use of modern technology : By the use of well developed able to cultivate their land with greater efficiency.
(iv) Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides Farmers use pumpsets for irrigation, threshers for threshing, harvesters
for harvesting, tractors for floughing etc.: Use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides improves fertility of soil and
reduces pest respectively for the particular period of production. This improves the quantity of production.
Q.2. Who provides labour for farming in Palampur? How are they paid for their work?
Ans. After land, labour is the second most necessary factor for production. Small farmers along with the other
numbers of their family cultivate their own fields. Thus, they provide the labour required for farming
themselves. Medium and large scale farmers hire farm labourers to work on their fields. Farm labourers either
engaged from landless families or the families cultivating small piece of land. Farm labourers do not have any
right over the crops grown on the land. They are paid in the following ways :
(i) Wages are paid to them in form of cash or kind, i.e., crops.
(ii) Government has set up minimum wages for farm labourers to be Rs 60 per day but unfortunately they do not
get this much and are mostly exploited.
(iii) Sometimes poor farm labourers work for meal also.
(iv) Sometimes they are employed on daily basis and sometimes for the whole year. Thus, durations of their
employment is not fixed.
Q.3. What are the four requirements for production of goods and services? Explain. OR
What are the four requirements of production? Explain with examples.
Ans. There are four requirements of production of goods and services. These requirements are known as factors
of production. These are :
(i) Land : By land we mean not only the level surface but all gifts of nature which are amenable to human
control, such as water, forests, minerals etc.
(ii) Labour : Manpower required to do the work. The mental and physical work done by people in an
organisation comes under labour.
(iii) Physical Capital : It means a variety of inputs required at every stage during production. They can be classified as :
(a) Fixed capital : It includes tools, machines and building that can be used for production for many years.
(b) Working capital : Money in land and raw material that has to be used in current products are included in working capital.
(iv) Enterprise : It means need of knowledge and enterprise to put together all other factors of production and
ability to sell the produce in the market. This is also called human capital.
Q.4. What is Green Revolution? Explain some of its features.
Ans. Green Revolution is a revoluton with farmers using modern methods for higher yields and achieving self-
sufficiency in the production of wheat and rice. It includes use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, irrigation,


63
chemical fertilizers, pesticides etc for producing best results. Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar
Pradesh were the first to try it in the late 1960s. Factors responsible for Green Revolution are :
(i) Increase in yield : HYV seeds promised to produce much greater amounts of grains on a single plant. As a
result, the same piece of land produce for larger quantities of food grains.
(ii) Use of modern technology : Use of modern technology like tractors, harvesters, tubewells etc have made
the implementation of green revolution possible in the environment.
(iii) Use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides : Unlike traditional fertilisers and manures, useof chemical
fertilisers has increased as a requirement with HYV seeds which improves the quality and quantity of the produce.
Q.5. Explain any two positive and two negative effects of Green Revolution. OR
Explain two achievements and two drawbacks of Green Revolution in Indian agriculture.
Ans. Green Revolution was started in the late 1960s with an aim of achieving self sufficiency in the production of
grains like wheat and rice. Two positive effects and achievements of green revolution are :
(i) Increase in productivity of grains : Use of HYV seeds produced much more amount of wheat and rice in
comparison to traditional seeds.
(ii) Modernisation of agriculture : HYV seeds required well-developed irrigation, use of chemical fertilisers and
pesticides. Use of farm machinery has also encouraged in the green revolution which resulted in development
and modernisaton of agriculture. It also increased the surplus in the field of agriculture.
Two Negative effects and drawbacks of Green Revolution :
(i) Decline in fertility of soil : Too much use of chemical fertilisers resulted in decline of fertility of soil. Farmers
have to use more and more chemical fertilisers which increases the lost of production.
(ii) Level of groundwater : Use of groundwater for cultivation with the help of tube wells have caused decline in
level of ground water.
Q.6. Is Palampur a developed village? Explain by presenting four arguments. OR
How can you say that Palampur is a well developed village?
Ans. Palampur is a well developed village. This can be made clear from the following arguments :
(i) Multiple cropping : Farmers of Palampur have adapted multiple cropping. They plant three crops on a year
and never leave their land idle.
(ii) Modern facilities of agriculture : They have a well developed system of irrigation.
Electricity came early in Palampur. They use modern machinery like tractors, harvesters etc for farming. Use of
HYV seeds and chemical fertilisers is also noticed in Palampur.
(iii) Markets and Education : There are small markets setup in Palampur which have all the daily need
commodities available. Kareem is also running computer classes and a good number of students are learning
there. High schools and education for women is available here.
(iv) Transportation : People of Palampur have facilities of transporting goods to other towns and village with a
good transportation system and well developed roads.
Q.7. What are the various ways through which farmers can get loan? Write their advantages and disadvantages.
Ans. Farmers can get loans through the following ways :
(i) Large farmers or village moneylenders : Most of the small farmers prefer taking loans from large farmers or
village moneylenders. Advantages of taking loans from such sources are :
(a) They are flexible in terms and conditions of repayment and rate of interest.
(b) They know the lenders personally so get loans without collateral security.
Disadvantages:
(a) Rate of interest is very high. (b) Small farmers are exploited and are trapped in vicious circle of poverty.
(ii) Banks and cooperative societies : Although, very few number of small farmers approach banks for loan but
they provide them better services. Advantages of loans from banks and cooperatives:
(a) No exploitation of farmers. (b) Uniform and nominal rate of interest for all.
Disadvantages:
(a) Needs proper security and have set terms and conditions.
HOTS
Q.1. Differentiate between fixed capital and working capital. State any four points.
Ans. Both fixed capital and working capital are the parts of physical capital required for production.
(i) Fixed Capital :
(a) It includes fixed factors of production which are used for years.


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(b) Tools and machines range from very simple tools such as a farmer's plough to sophisticated machines such
as generators, turbines etc.
(c) It includes tools, machines, buildings etc. (d) They remain constant for many years of production and
increased or decreased only when needed.
(ii) Working Capital :
(a) It includes variable factors of production which are needed to be arranged every time at the time of production.
(b) Whatever money and raw material required for production are included in it.
(c) It is required to be arranged according to the desired production.
(d) They are dynamic depending upon the profits and income of last season.
Q.2. Explain any four non-farming activities in Palampur village.
Ans. Most of the people living in palampur village are involved in production activities. Only 25% of the people
working in Palampur village are engaged in activities other than agriculture.
Various non-farm activities in Palampur village are :
(a) Dairy : It is a common activity at Palampur village. People feed their buffalos on jowar and bajra and sold
their milk in Raiganj village. Two traders from Shahpur town have set up collection cum chilling centres at
Raiganj from where the milk is transported to far away towns and cities.
(b) Small scale manufacturing units : People get involved in very simple production methods in their homes only
with their family members. They make baskets, pottery etc small things and sell them in the markets nearby.
Shopkeepers : People get involved in trade, they buy goods from nearby whole sale markets and sell them in
the village. They sell wide range of items like sugar, tea, oil, soap etc. They open shops for eatables near bus
stands.
Transport : People also get involved in providing transportation services like rickshaws, tongas, jeeps, tractors,
trucks, bullok cart, bagey etc. The number of people involved in transport has grown over the last several years.
Q.3. What do you mean by Green Revolution? Why was the initial impact of Green Revolution limited to
wheat and only to a few regions?
Ans. 1.Green Revolution is a revolution which started in the late 1960s with an aim of achieving self-sufficiency
in the production of grains like wheat and rice.
2. The initial impact of Green Revolution was limited to wheat and only to a few regions because initially only
the farmers of Punjab, Haryana nad Uttar Pradesh by out the modern farming method in India.
3. They used tubewells for irrigation and made use of HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers and pesticides in farming.
4. Capital required for using HYV seeds was very high. Therefore small farmers and many backward regions
could not use the modern techniques.
5. Use of HYV seeds require all other modern techniques of cultivation also therefore for initial time it remained
unapproachable in many backward villages and small farmers which work without electricity or own poor farm distribution.
Q.4. What is land? Suggest any three ways to sustain land.
Ans. Land is the levelled surface and other natural resources such as water, forests, minerals etc used for
production of goods and services. Excessive use of chemical fertilisers or modern techniques of farming destroys
land and all other natural resources. Land can be sustained through following ways :
(i) Limited use of chemical fertilisers : Chemical fertilisers should be used in a limited number and only as the
per the requirement. Excessive use of chemical fertilisers destroys the fertility of land.
(ii) Crop rotation : Crops should be planted in such a way that land gets time of restore its fertility. Different
nutrients are required with different lands, therefore planning of multiple cropping should be done in such a
way that the land is also able to restore the lost nutrients.
(iii) Waste of chemical fertilisers : Waste of chemical fertilisers or pesticides should not be thrown in the water
bodies of village as this will pollute the water.
(iv) Adequate use of ground water : Ground water should be adequately used so that there is minimum
wastage of ground water.
Q.5. What is the main source of capital for medium and large farmers? How is it different from the small farmers? Explain.
Ans. (a) Surplus wheat selling : Main source of capital for medium and large farmers is supply of surplus wheat
in market as they own large area of cultivable land. They retain part of wheat for their own use and sell rest of
wheat in market. While for small farmers, no surplus wheat is available so they arrange capital from large
farmers or village moneylenders or the traders.


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(b) Extra work to landowner or large farmers : In order to get loan from landowner or large farmers they have
to pay higher interest rates and also extra work on their fields to repay the loan, while medium and large
farmers can devote their full time to their own land.
Q.6. What was the basic aim of the Green Revolution in India? How did it affect the market economy?
Ans. The introduction of HYV seeds and the increased use of fertilisers and irrigation are known collectively as
the Green Revolution which was associated with increase in production of food grains in India and make India
self-sufficient in foodgrains.
Impact of Green Revolution on market economy
(a) Increased production of foodgrains like wheat and rice : Foodgrain yields continued to increase throughout
the 1980s. In financial year 1980, almost 75 percent of the total cropped area under wheat was sown with HYV seeds.
(b) Increased income disparities, higher income growth and reduced incidence of poverty : Green revolution
has increased income disparities, higher income growth and reduced incidence of poverty.

Value based Questions
Q.1. Explain four efforts that can be made to increase non-farming production activities in villages?
Q.2. What were the main terms on which Savita got a loan from Tejpal Singh? How can Savita be benefitted if
she gets a loan from the bank?
Q.3. Why it is necessary to increase the area under cultivation? Explain.
Q.4. What are the difficulties faced by small farmers in arranging capital in comparison with medium and large farmers.
Q.5. Why modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry? Explain.

Key to MCQs
Ans.1 (a), 2 (a), 3 (a) , 4 (b), 5 (b), 6 (c), 7 (b), 8 (a), 9 (d), 10 (c), 11 (a), 12(d),13 (d),14 (b),15
(c),16 (b), 17 (c), 18 (b), 19 (a), 20 (b), 21 (b), 22 (b), 23 (a), 24 (a), 25 (a), 26 (d), 27 (a),28
(c),29 (d),30 (c), 31 (d), 32 (d), 33 (a), 34 (c), 35 (c), 36 (d), 37 (c), 38 (b), 39 (c), 40(c)

CHAPTER: 2. PEOPLE AS RESOURCE
CONCEPTS
Human beings perform many activities which can be grouped into economic and noneconomic.
Economic Activities : Economic activities refer to those activities of man which are undertaken for a monetary gain or to
satisfy his/her wants. The activities of workers, farmers, shopkeepers, manufacturers, doctors, lawyers, taxi drivers, etc. fall
under this category.
Non-Economic Activities : Non-economic activities are ones that are not undertaken for any monetary gain. These are also
called unpaid activities, e.g., Puja-paath, housekeeping, helping the poor or disabled, etc.
Classification of Economic Activities. Various economic activities can be classified into three main sectors, that is primary
sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector. The primary sector includes activities like agriculture, forestry, animal
husbandry, fishing, poultry, farming and mining. In this sector, goods are produced by exploiting nature. In the secondary
sector, manufacturing (small and large) and construction activities are included. The tertiary sector (also called service
sector) provides various types of services like transport, education, banking, insurance, health, tourism, etc.
Market Activities and Non-Market Activities. Economic activities, i.e. production of goods and services can be classified
into market activities and non-market activities. Market activities are performed for remuneration. Non-market activities
are the activities carried out for self-consumption.
Activities of Women. Women generally look after domestic affairs like cooking of food, washing of clothes, cleaning of
utensils, housekeeping and looking after children.
Human Capital. Human capital is the stock of skill and productive knowledge embodied in human beings. Population
(human beings) become human capital when it is provided with better education, training and health care facilities.
People as a Resource. People as resource is a way of referring to a countrys workforce in terms of their existing skills and
abilities.
Human Capital Formation. When the existing human resource is further developed by spending on making the workforce
more educated and healthy, it is called human capital formation.
Quality of Population. The quality of population depends upon the literacy rate, life expectancy and skills formation
acquired by the people of the country.
Role of Education. Education is the most important component of human resource development. In view of its contribution
towards the growth of the society, government expenditure on education as a percentage of GDP rose from 0.64% in 1951-
52 to 3.98% in 2002-03. However, our national goal is 6% of GDP.
Health. Health is another very important component of human resource development. Efficiency of workers largely
depends on their health. There has been considerable improvement in the countrys health standard. For instance, the life


66
expectancy at the time of birth in India rose from 37.2 years in 1951 to 63.9 years in 2001. Similarly, infant mortality rate
has come down from 147 to 70 during the same time period.
Unemployment. Unemployment is said to exist when people who are willing to work at the prevailing wage rates cannot
find jobs. When we talk of unemployed people, we refer to those in the age group of 15-59 years. Children below 15 years
of age and the old people above 60 are not considered while counting the number of unemployed.
Nature of Unemployment in India. Seasonal unemployment occurs when people fail to get work during some months of
the year (that is, during off-season). Farm labourers usually face this kind of problem. Disguised unemployment is another
kind of unemployment found in rural areas. Such kind of problem arises due to excessive pressure of population on
agriculture. Disguised unemployment refers to a situation wherein the number of workers in a job is more than actually
required to do the job. The extra number of workers are disguisedly unemployed.
Consequences of Unemployment :
(i) Unemployment leads to wastage of manpower resource.
(ii) Unemployment tends to increase the economic overload that is dependence of the unemployed on the working
population. (iii) Unemployment may lead to increase in social unrest and tension.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
Q.1. Why is literacy rate is low in the females?
(a) lack of equal education opportunities (b) lack of transport facilities
(c) lack of infrastructure (d) lack of income
Q.2. Which state has highest literacy rate as per 2001?
(a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) Orissa
Q.3. Which of the following is a significant step towards providing basic education to the children in the age
group of 6-14 years?
(a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (b) Adult Education Programme (c) Mid-day meal (d) None
Q.4. Market activity known as production for
(a) exchange (b) earning income (c) earning profit (d) all the above
Q.5. Increase in longevity of life is an indicator of
(a) good quality of life (b) improvement in health sector
(c) better HDI (Human Development Index) (d) all the above
Q.6. what is Self-consumption is called
(a) non-production activity (b) non-market activity (c) non-economic activity (d) none of the above
Q.7. Which one from the following is include in Secondary sector includes
(a) trade ( b) marketing (c) manufacturing (d) education
Q.8. One who can read and write in any language with understanding is termed as
(a) student (b) adult (c) child (d) literate
Q.9. What is Indias position in scientifically and technically manpower in the world?
(a) first (b) second (c) third (d) fourth
Q.10. Investment in human capital is expenditure on
(a) education (b) training (c) medical care (d) all the above
Q.11. The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented children from rural areas is
(a) Kendriya Vidyalayas (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas (c) Sarvodaya Vidyalayas (d) None of the aboves
Q.12. Services of housewives are included in
(a) national income (b) domestic income (c) household income (d) none of the above
Q.13. Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 4 years
Q.14. Choose the non-market activities
(i) Vilas sells fish in the village market (ii) Vilas cooks food for his family (iii) Sakal works in a private firm (iv) Sakal
looks after his younger brother and sister
(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (iii) & (iv) (c) (i) & (iii) (d) (ii) & (iv)
Q.15.Which one from the following is the primary sector activities
(i) Forestry (ii) Poultry farming (iii) Animal husbandry (iv) Manufacturing
(a) (i) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) All the above
Q.16.What are Tertiary sector provides
(a) services (b) goods (c) both goods and services (d) none of the above
Q.17.The quality of population depends on


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(a) literacy rate (b) health (c) skill (d) all the above
Q.18. People as a resource refers to the
(a) educational skills (b) productive skills (c) health skills (d) none of the above
Q.19. Where is Seasonal unemployment found
(a) urban areas (b) rural areas (c) in remote areas (d) both in rural and urban areas
Q.20. Bribe taking by parent is an
(a) economic activity (b) marketing activity (c) non-economic activity (d) none of the above
Q.21.The persons who are not working by their own willing is covered under
(a) seasonal unemployment (b) disguised unemployment (c) educated unemployment (d) none of the above
Q.22. Disguised unemployment when the number of persons working on a farm is
(a) only what is required (b) more than required (c) less than required (d) None of the above
Q.23. If a person cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type of employment is this called?
(a) Structural unemployment (b) Cyclical unemployment (c) Seasonal unemployment (d) None of these
Q.24. What is the literacy rate of India as per 2011 census?
(a) 60% (b) 62% (c) 74.04% (d) 70%
Q.25. What is the sex-ratio of India According to 2001 census, :
(a) 921 females per 1000 (b) 930 females per 1000 (c) 928 females per 1000 (d) 933 females per 1000
Q.26. Forestry and dairy are related to which?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Tertiary Sector (c) Secondary Sector (d) None of the above
Q.27. What is the expended form of PHC
(a) Public Health Club (b) Private Health Club (c) Primary Health Centre (d) None of these
Q.28. From the following in which fields is disguised unemployment found?
(a) Industries (b) Agriculture (c) Mining (d) Fisherise
Q.29. What is the aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan?
(a) To provide elementary education to women
(b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor
(c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years
(d) To provide elementary education to the urban poor
Q.30.Which one from the following is related to the tertiary sector?
(a) Agriculture (b) Forestry (c) Mining (d) Communication
Q.31. Which one from the following is the most labour absorbing sector?
(a) Agriculture (b) Fisheries (c) Poultry farming (d) Mining
Q.32. Which one is an economic activity in the following?
(a) Work of Nurse at her home (b) Work of Doctor at their home
(c) Work of Teacher in the school (d) None of the above
Q.33. Which one of the following is considered important to create a 'virtuous cycle' by the parents?
(a) To sand their children to the school (b) To provide goods food to their children
(c) To join their children in corporate schools (d) To take care of the health and education of their children
Q.34. Infant mortality rate in 2001 was :
(a) 85 (b) 70 (c) 75 (d) 35

Q.35. What is the life expectancy in India as per the census of 2000?
(a) 72 years (b) 53 years (c) 64 years (d) 80 years
Q.36. Tenth Plan endeavoured to increase enrolment in higher education from 6% to :
(a) 7% (b) 9% (c) 10% (d) 12%
Q.37. Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies:
(a) Increase in life expectancy (b) Increase in GNP
(c) Economic development of a country (d) Increase in number of colleges in a country
Q.38. which one is odd in the following (with reference to population) :
(a) Education (b) Medical Care (c) Training (d) Computers
Q.39. The number of females per thousand males refers to :
(a) Sex Ratio (b) Literacy Rate (c) Infant Mortality Rate (d) Birth Rate

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)


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Q.1. Why is domestic services of house women not treated as economic activities?
Ans. Domestic Services by Women. In India, most women generally look after domestic affairs like cooking of
food, washing of clothes, cleaning of utensils, looking after children, etc. They are not treated as economic /
productive activities. This is mainly because of two reasons :
(i) Such activities are performed out of love and affection and hence their valuation is not possible.
(ii) They do not add to the flow of goods and services in the economy.
Q.2. Are the following activities economic or non-economic activities? Give reasons.
(a) Vilas sells fish in the village market. (b) Vilas cooks food for his family.
(c) Sakal works in a private firm. (d) Sakal looks after his younger brother and sister.
Ans. (a) It is an economic activity, as it involves remuneration.
(b) It is a non-economic activity, as it is a domestic service.
(c) It is an economic activity, as it is done in expectation of monetary reward.
(d) It is a non-economic activity, as it is done out of love and affection.
Q.3. Differentiate between Market Activities and Non-Market Activities.
Ans. Difference between Market Activities and Non-Market Activities.
Economic activities can be classified into market activities and non-market activities.
1. Market activities involve remuneration to anyone who performs the activity. These include production of
goods and services for sale in the market.
2. On the other hand, non-market activities are the production activities performed for self-consumption.
These include consumption and processing of primary products and own account production of fixed assets.
Q.4. Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary unemployment. Give an example.
Ans. a) A person is said to be unemployed when he is able and willing to work at the prevailing wage rate but
does not find work. This is involuntary unemployment.
b) If some persons are voluntarily unemployed (i.e., they prefer to remain out of work at prevailing wage rates)
they will not be treated as unemployed. This is voluntary unemployment.
Q.5. Discuss the factors responsible for the distribution of population in India.
Ans. Physical factors like shape and height of land, resources, climate etc. that affect distribution of population in India like;
Resources : Areas rich in resources (e.g., coal, oil, wood etc.) tend to be densely populated like western Europe.
Shape and height of land : Low land which is flat, e.g., Ganges valley in India.
Climate : Areas with moderate temperature climates tend to be densely populated as there is enough rain and heat to
grow crops like U.K.
Human factors : Political, social and economic factors also affect distribution of population in India like good job
opportunities encourage high population densities, particularly in large cities like Mumbai, Bangalore, Ahmedabad having
dense population. Countries with stable governments tend to have high population density.
Q.6. Why is human resource the most important resource? What steps can be taken to improve the quality of
human resource? How does an improved quality of human resource help in establishing a virtuous cycle?
Ans. Existing 'human resource' is further developed by becoming more educated and healthy, which adds to the
productive power of the country just like 'physical capital formation'. So human resource is the most important
resource.
Steps to be taken to improve quality of human resource: Quality of human resource can be improved through
better education, food and health facilities. The quality of population depends upon the literacy rate, health of a
person indicated by life expectancy and skill formation acquired by the people of the country.
Role of improved quality of human resource in establishing a virtuous cycle:
Better contribution to productive power of country: Existing human resource with good educational background
can acquire specific skills in a better way and can contribute to national productivity more efficiently.
Higher earnings and greater contributions to society: Improved quality of human resources can give higher
rates of return in future in the form of higher earnings and greater contributions to society.
Q.7. How does unemployment have a detrimental impact on the overall growth of an economy?
Ans. Wastage of manpower resource : In case of unemployment, manpower who is an asset for an economy
turns into liability because utilisation of manpower becomes nil.
Economic overload : Unemployment tends to increase economic overload because dependence of unemployed
on the working population increases. So the quality of life is adversely affected.
Unemployment leads to social waste : Inability of educated people who are willing to work to find gainful
employment implies a great social waste. Increase in employment in an indicator of a depressed economy.
Q.8.What is unemployment? Explain two types of rural unemployment?


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Ans. Unemployment is said to exist when people who are willing to work at the prevailing wages rates cannot
find jobs. Unemployment in rural areas :
(i) Disguised unemployment : When more persons are working in a job than actually required, the situation is
termed as disguised unemployment. For example, if in an agricultural activity eight people are engaged but this
work activity actually requires the services of five people, then three persons are extra. It these three people out
of eight are withdrawn, total production will remain unaffected.
(ii) Seasonal Unemployment : Seasonal unemployment occurs when people are able to find jobs only during
some months of the year. This kind of unemployment is generally found in agricultural sector.
Q.9. What is Infant Mortality Rate? Why infant mortality rate is decreasing?
Ans. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is the total number of children dying under one year of age in a particular
period of time. Infant Mortality Rate is decreasing due to following reasons :
(i) Increase in life expectancy due to improved medical facilities.
(ii) Better protection of children from infection, ensuring nutrition along with mother and child care.
Q.10. Explain in detail the disadvantages of unemployment.
Ans. Disadvantages of unemployment are :
(i) It leads to wastage of man power resources. It turns the population into liability for economy instead of asset.
It even fills the country's youth with the feeling of hopelessness and despair.
(ii) It increases the economic load. The dependence of unemployed on the working population increases. Due to
unemployment which adversely affects the quality of life of an individual as well as society.
(iii) It affects the overall growth of an economy. It indicates a depressed economy and wastage of resources
which could have been gainfully employed.
Q.11. Give three measures taken by government to improve literacy condition in India.
Ans. (i) Opening of Navodaya Vidyalayas : Government has started to estabish Navodaya Vidyalayas in each
district vocational streams have been developed to equip large number of high school students with
occupations related to knowledge and skills.
(ii) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan : It is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all the children of
age group 6-14 years. It is an initiative of the central government in partnership with states, local government
and the community for achieving the goal of universalisation of elementary education.
(iii) Mid-day Meal Scheme : It is a programme aimed to encourage attendance and retention of children in
schools and improve their nutritional status.
Q.12. Suggest any three ways to transform population load into an asset.
Ans. The three ways to transform population load into an asset are :
(i) To improve literacy rate : Education provides new aspirations and developed values of life. Education helps in
enhancing the national income, cultural richness nad increases the efficiency of governance.
(ii) Health : The health of a person helps him to realise his potential and the ability to fight illness. Increase in
longevity of life in an indicator of good quality of life marked by self-confidence. It involves protection of
children from infection, ensuring nutrition and along with mother and child care.
(iii) Formation of skills : Providing vocational and skilled based education helps the people to get employment
and therefore they contribute to the national income later on.
D. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
Q.1. How the investment in Human Capital can be of immense importance for a society as a whole? State any four advantages.
Ans. Human Capital can be defined as the knowledge, ability, skill and physical capactity of the people which
help them to produce more. Human beings can be turned into resources only if their qualitative aspects are
developed. Education and health are the major human resource inputs of a country. Human capital is beneficial
both individually as well as socially.
(i) Human capital contributes to the social development of the country.
(ii) Human capital contributes to the economic development of the country.
(iii) Human capital helps in proper utilisation of resources available or imported in the country.
(iv) Human capital also contributes in the race of development from an underdeveloped to a developed nation.
Q.2. Is it necessary to check population growth?
Ans. India has vast manpower. But she could not utilise this manpower for countrys economic development.
Rather, population growth has posed a big threat for the country. It needs to be controlled without further
delay. It has become a big hurdle in the way of countrys economic development in the following ways :
(i) Despite considerable growth in national income, per capita income could not increase much due to fast population growth.


70
(ii) Fast population growth is considered as one of the major causes of unemployment in India.
(iii) Heavy pressure of population has led to the problem of overcrowding in cities, unplanned urbanisation, emergence of slums etc.
All these factors lead us to believe that rapidly growing population has become a big challenge before the Indian
economy. It is the biggest roadblock in the path of its economic development. Indian poverty is deeply rooted in
population growth. It, therefore, becomes highly necessary to check population growth in India.
Q.3. Explain steps taken by the Government to solve the problem of unemployment in India.
Ans. (i) Opening schools in villages : Opening vocational and elementary schools in villages create employment
opportunities for people living these. Earlier people were involved in primary sector only but now they have
better employment opportunities in other sectors also.
(ii) Small scale manufacturing: Opening opportunities of self-employment in the form of small scale
manufacturing units like basket weaving etc ads to the employment opportunities in removes disguised and
seasonal unemployment away people.
(iii) Introduction to modern farming methods: Use of modern farming methods gave the surplus members of
family to get involved in other employment opportunities.
(iv) Proper health facilities: Improvement in health facilities in urban and rural areas improved in quality of
human resource which in turn work more efficiently and contributed to national income.
(v) NREGA 2005: According to this Act the NREGA was launched in February 2006. The scheme guaranteed 100
days of wage employment in a year to every household in 200 districts.
Q.4. What are the strategies that the government has undertaken to reduce unemployment?
Ans. Strategies undertaken by the government to reduce unemployment.
(i) Rural Self-Employment Scheme : Our government has introduced various schemes for creating self-
employment opportunities in rural areas. In April 1999, Swarna Jayanti Gram-Sewa Rozgar Yojana (SGSY) was
introduced whose main aim was to improve opportunities of self-development in rural areas.
(ii) Wage-employment Schemes : Main objective of this scheme was to provide opportunities for wage earning
to rural people. Since June 23, 1999, all these schemes were merged with Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY).
(iii) Various schemes for providing employment to educated in urban areas : Various schemes (like Prime
Minister Rozgar Yojana PMRY), Swarn Jayanti Shahri Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY) has been started by the government
for providing employment to the educated youth in urban area.
Q.5. Describe in brief the role of human resources in economic development.
Ans. Role of Human Resource.
(i) Higher Productivity. Investment in human capital yields a return just like investment in physical capital. This
can be seen directly in form of higher incomes earned because of higher productivity of the more educated or
the better trained persons as well as the higher productivity of healthier people. Indias Green Revolution and IT
Revolution are good examples of human resources development.
(ii) Better Utilisation of Resources. Countries like Japan have invested in human resource. They did not have any
natural resource. They could become rich/developed because of investments in people specially in the fields of
education and health. These people have made efficient use of other resources like land and capital. Efficient
technologies developed by people have made these countries developed.
(iii) Source of Demand. Human beings make demand for the output of goods and services produced in the country.
Expansion of market for various types of foods and services further leads to increase in production.
Q.6. What factors compel the rural people to migrate to cities?
Ans. People have started moving from rural to urban areas because of the following factors :
(i) Education facilities : Urban areas have more organised and better quality education facilities opportunities
vocational education and education in specialised areas has increased in urban areas. In urban areas focus is on
increasing access, quality, vocationalisation and networking on the use of information technology.
(ii) Health facilities : Availability of better hospitals and medical facilities make people move from rural to urban
areas. States like Bihar and Uttar Pradesh has poor health indices. Therefore, in search of proper medical
assistance people often move from rural to urban sectors.
(iii) Employment facilities : Disguised unemployment in primary sector and rise of employment opportunities in
secondary and tertiary sector has given rise to migration of people from rural areas to urban areas. In order to
increase the income of family, people move from one occupation to another and one area to another.
(iv) Other facilities: Like availability of electricity, Transport facilities etc
Q.7. What is an economic activity? What are various activities undertaken in the primary sector, secondary
sector and tertiary sector?


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Ans. Economic activities : All such activities which give us some income are called economic activities. Pulling
cycle-rickshaw, cleaning houses, selling vegetables and working in schools, factories, banks etc. are economic activities.
Activities undertaken in Primary, Secondary and Tertiary sectors :
(i) Primary Sector : Activities concerned with collecting or making available material provided by nature are
included in primary sector like agriculture, poultry farming, mining, fishing etc.
(ii) Secondary Sector : The activities which are associated with transforming raw material or primary products
into commodities useful to man such as manufacturing etc.
(iii) Tertiary Sector : The activities which are essential for running modern factories in a big way are termed as
tertiary sector. Activities like trading, banking, health, education, insurance etc. are included in tertiary sector.
HOTS
Q.1. What is the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan? What are its objectives?
Ans. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan' is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all the children of
the age group 6-14 years by the year 2010. It is a time bound initiative of central government, in partnership
with the states, the local government and the community for achieving the goal of universalisation of
elementary education. They also took an initiative to increase the enrollment of students in elementary
education by introducing the schemes like mid-day meal.
Q.2. Define human resource. When does a human resource become human capital?
Ans. The population of a country available for the production activities is called human resource. Human
resource becomes human capital when there is investment made in the form of education, training and medical
care. When the existing 'human resource' is further developed by becoming more educated and healthy, we call
it 'human capital formation'. Human capital adds to the productive power of the country. It is the stock of skills
and productive knowledge embodied in them.
Q.3. Distinguish between labour force and work force.
Ans. Labour force of a country includes all those persons in the age group of 15-60, who are actually working or
willing to work. Workforce, on the other hand, consists of persons who are actually engaged in some kind of
work and excludes those who are willing to work but do not find work. Thus, the difference between the two
(i.e. labour force and workforce) is the number of persons unemployed.
Q.4. What is the nature of unemployment as found in India?
Ans. Nature of unemployment in India. In India, unemployment is widespread. Unemployment is found both in
its rural and urban areas. There is seasonal and disguised unemployment in its rural areas. People here are
dependent on agriculture. Certain months do not provide much work to the people depending upon agriculture.
In urban areas, educated unemployment has become a serious problem. Many educated youths are not able to
find jobs. Unemployment among graduates and post-graduates has increased faster than among the
matriculates.
Q.5. Unemployment is an economic as well as a social evil. Explain the statement.
Ans. Unemployment A Serious Problem
Today, unemployment is considered one of the most threatening problems before the country. The society is
deprived of the goods and services that the unemployed people could have produced. Unemployment among
the educated persons is more serious. This is due to investments made in them. Unemployment is not only an
economic evil, it is a social problem too. Unemployment spreads social unrest and tension as unemployed
people are a frustrated class of the society.
Q.6. What are the two types of economic activity? State two characteristics of each.
Ans. Economic activities are those activities which add value to the national income. Economic activities have two parts :
(i) Market activities. (ii) Non-market activities.
Market activities : (i) These are the activities performed for payment or profit. (ii) They include production of
goods and services.
Non-market activities : (i) These involve production for self-consumption. (ii) It includes consumption of primary
production and production of fixed assets.
Value based questions
Q.1. How are children of educated parents different from those of uneducated parents? Give three points of difference.
Q.2.Why did Japan emerge as a developed country inspite of its poor natural resource?
Q.3. Suggest five steps to remove unemployment from the society?
Q.4. What do you think about new economic policies help in economic development?
Q.5. What are the main hurdles in development of the country?


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Key of MCQs
Q.1 (a), 2. (a), 3. (a),4. (d), 5. (a), 6. (b), 7(c), 8(d), 9 (c), 10. (d),11. (b), 12. (d), 13. (a), 14 (d), 15. (b), 16. (a),
17. (d), 18. (b), 19.(b), 20. (c), 21. (d), 22 (b), 23 (c), 24 (c), 25 (b), 26. (a), 27. (c), 28. (b), 29. (c), 30 (d), 31. (a),
32. (c), 33.(d), 34. (c), 35. (c) 36. (b), 37 (a), 38 (d), 39. (a)

Model Test Paper-1 (Solved) S.A. -1
TIME : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 90

Instructions
i. Q. No. 1 to 10 are MCQs ( 1mark for each question)
ii. Q. No. 11 to 23 are short answer questions write in 60-80 words ( 3 marks for each question)
iii. Q. No. 24 to 30 are long are questions write in 100-125 words ( 5 marks for each question)
iv. Q. No. 31-1 and 31-2 are map questions. Please attach the map inside the answer book

1. When did the French Revolution begin ?
(a) 15 July, 1789 (b) 14 July, 1789 (c) 16 July, 1789 (d) 18 July, 1789
2. Who was the leader of Jacobins ?
(a) Jean Paul Marat (b) G. Danton (c) J.J. Rousseau (d) Robespierre
3. What is the latitudinal extent of mainland of India ?
(a) 8 4` N 30 6`N (b) 8 4` N 30 6S (c) 8 4`N 37 6`N (d) 8 4`N 37 6S
4. Which drainage pattern develops when the stream with its tributaries resembles the branches of a tree ?
(a) Dendritic (b) Trellis (c) Rectangular (d) Radial
5. Who was Salvador Allende ?
(a) President of France (b) President of Chile (c) President of USA (d) Prime Minister of England
6. When was the Universal Adult Franchise adopted in France?
(a) 1789 (b) 1800 (c) 1944 (d) 1950
7. Apartheid was the name of a system of racial discrimination unique to:
(a) South America (b) South Africa (c) Zimbabwe (d) England
8. Which of the following is a working capital?
(a) Raw materials (b) Money (c) Tools (d) Both (a) and (b)
9. Which of the following countries has invested heavily in human resource?
(a) Japan (b) India (c) Pakistan (d) Bangladesh
10. What is the literacy rate of India as per the Census of 2001?
(a) 63% (b) 64% (c) 65% (d) 66%
Answer (MCQ): 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10.(c)
11. What were the main changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately?
Ans. (i) Most industries and banks were nationalised in November 1917. This meant that the government took over their
ownership and management. (ii) Land was declared social property and peasants were allowed to seize the land of the
nobility. (iii) In cities, Bolsheviks enforced the partition of large houses according to family requirements.
(iv)They banned the use of the old titles of aristocracy. (v) To assert the change, new uniforms were designed for the army
and officials. (vi)The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party (Bolshevik).
OR
How did the Great Economic Depression of 1929-34 affect Germany?
Ans. (i) The economy of Germany was the worst hit by the economic crisis. By 1932, industrial production was reduced to
half of the 1929 level.
(ii) Most of the workers lost their jobs or were paid very low wages. Around 6 million people were unemployed.
(iii) Unemployed youth could be seen everywhere. They took to criminal activities and total despair became common place.
The crisis created anxieties and fears in people. The German currency lost its value. Small business persons, self-employed
and retailers suffered as their business was ruined.
12. What was the basic principle of the Marxist theory?
Ans. Marx believed that the condition of workers could not improve as long as profit was accumulated by private
capitalists. Workers had to overthrow capitalism and the rule of private property. Workers must construct a radically
socialist society where all property was socially controlled. This would be a communist society and a Communist Party was
the natural society of the future.
OR


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Give three reasons for Hitlers rise to power.
Ans. (i) The crisis in the economy, polity and society formed the background of Hitlers rise to power. Born in 1889 in
Austria, Hitler spent his youth in poverty. The
German defeat horrified him and the Versailles Treaty made him furious. In 1919, he joined a small group called the
German Workers Party. He subsequently took over the organisation and renamed it the Nationalist Socialist German
Workers Party. This party came to be known as the Nazi Party. Hitler assured the Germans about the establishment of the old prestige.
(ii) The economic crisis: Germany had to face a great economic crisis after the First World War. Many soldiers were no
longer in service, so they became unemployed.
Trade and commerce was ruined. Germany was in the grip of unemployment and starvation.
(iii) Exploiting the mentality of the Germans : The Germans had no faith in democracy.
It was against their culture and tradition. They at once gave their support to a strong man like Hitler who could transfer
their dreams into reality.
(iv) Making the best use of his personal qualities : Hitler was a powerful orator and an able organiser.
13. How have mountain passes been helpful to India since historic times?
Ans. The various mountain passes across the Himalayan range and other mountains in the north have provided passages to
travellers since ancient time. The land routes via mountain passes have contributed to the exchange of ideas and
commodities since historic times. The ideas of Upanishads and the Ramayana, the stories of the Panchtantra, the Indian
numerals and the decimal system could thus reach many parts of the world. The spices, muslin and other merchandise
were taken from India to different countries.
On the other hand, the architectural styles of dome and minarets from West Asia and influence of Greek sculpture, which
can be seen in different parts of India, came from other countries to India.
14. Distinguish between Bangar and Khadar.
Ans. Bangar Khadar
(a) Formed of older alluvium (a) Renewed every year.
(b) Lies above floodplains of rivers (b) Is newer, younger deposit of flood
(c) Presents a terrace like feature (c) Contains calcerous deposits locally known as Kankar.
(d) Less fertile (d) More fertile
15. Describe the Theory of Plate Tectonics.
Ans. A plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of continents and ocean basins and the
various landforms is the Theory of Plate Tectonics. According to the theory, the crust of the earth has been formed out of
seven major and some minor tectonic plates.
According to the Earth scientists, millions of years ago, the world comprised a super continent Pangaea surrounded by the
primeval ocean Panthalasa. The present continents and intervening oceans were formed due to splitting of the crust into
plates due to convection currents and drifting of these plates.
The movement of these plates in relation to each other results in building up stresses within the plates and continental
rocks above. This leads to geological activities like folding, faulting and volcanic activity. These are responsible for the
formation of the different physical features on the earths surface.
16. Why are lakes of great value to human beings? Explain any three reasons.
Ans. Lakes are of great value to human beings. (i) A lake helps to regulate the flow of a river. During heavy rainfall, it
prevents flooding. During dry reason, it helps to maintain an even flow of water. (ii) Lakes are also used for developing
hydel power. (iii) Lakes help develop tourism and provide recreation.
17. What were the differences between Pinochets rule in Chile and the Communist rule in Poland?
Ans. Pinochet, an Army General supported by the government of USA, led a coup in Chile in 1973 against Allendes
popularly elected government. With this, dictatorship was established in Chile. Pinochets government tortured and killed
several of those who supported Allende and wanted to restore democracy there. In Poland, a Communist Party called
Polish United Workers Party ruled in 1980. No other political party was allowed to function. The government of Poland was
supported by Soviet Union. But when the movement led by Lech Walesa spread demanding the workers rights, the
government had to give in. Finally, an agreement was signed between Lech Walesa and the Polish government in April 1989
for free elections. In 1990, elections were held in which more than one party could contest.
18. Enumerate the arguments given against democracy.
Ans. Some of the arguments against democracy are as follows:
(i) Leaders keep changing in a democracy. This leads to instability.
(ii) Democracy is all about political competition and power play, with no scope for morality.
(iii) Since so many people are to be consulted in a democracy, it leads to delays.
(iv) Elected leaders do not know the best interest of the people, so it leads to bad decisions.
(v) Democracy leads to corruption as it is based on electoral competition.
19. What is meant by the term Constitution?
Ans. The constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living together in a country. It is
the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens) and also the


74
relationship between the people and government. It specifies how the government will be constituted and who will have
the power to take different decisions.
20. What is the basic aim of production? What are the four essential requirements for production?
Ans. Basic aim of production is to produce goods and services that we want. Four requirements for production of goods and services are:
(i) Land and other natural resources like water, forests, and minerals.
(ii) Labour, i.e. people who would do the work. Each worker is providing the labour necessary for production.
(iii) Third requirement is physical capital, i.e. variety of inputs required at every stage during production.
(iv) Fourth requirement is knowledge and enterprise to be able to put together land, labour and physical capital and
produce an output.
21. Why is educated unemployment a peculiar problem of India?
Ans. The joblessness among the educated i.e. matriculates and above, is called educated unemployment. Unemployment
problem signifies the wastage of human resources. If unemployment is high among the educated persons, the quantum of
wastage of resources will be greater. This is due to investments in education and skill formation. There is a feeling of
hopelessness among the educated youth. India has to spend a lot of money on education every year. People who should
have been assets for the economy have turned into a liability.
22. How is the human resource different from the other resources? Explain.
Ans. Human resource differs from other resources like plants, machinery and raw materials in the following ways :
(i) Human resource can be improved through education, training and medical care and this improved human capital earns
higher income because of higher productivity while other resources would remain as it is.
(ii) Humans have power of thinking and creativity, while other resources are to be controlled by human mind. Creative
thinking makes human resources most valuable, through which higher national income can be expected.
(iii) Human resource can make use of land and capital while land and capital cannot become useful on their own. So we see
that human capital is considered as an asset to the government.
23. How would you explain the rise of Napoleon?
Ans. The fall of the Jacobin government allowed the wealthier middle classes to seize power. A new constitution was
introduced which denied the vote to non-propertied sections of society. It provided for two elected legislative councils.
These then appointed a Directory, an executive made up of five members. This was meant as a safeguard against the
concentration of power in a one-man executive as under the Jacobins.
However, the Directors often clashed with the legislative councils, who then sought to dismiss them. The political instability
of the Directory paved the way for the rise of a military dictator, Napoleon Bonaparte.
24. The French philosophers of the 18th century greatly influenced the people and it led to the French Revolution. Comment.
Ans. Philosophers such as Montesquieu and Rousseau put forward ideas envisaging a society based on freedom and equal
laws and opportunities for all. In his Two Treatises of Government, John Locke sought to refute the doctrine of the divine
and absolute right of the monarch. Rousseau carried the idea forward, proposing a form of government based on social
contract between people and their representatives. In the spirit of the laws, Montesquieu proposed a division of power
within the government between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary. This form of government was put into
force in USA. It was an important example for political thinkers in France.
25. Mention the consequences of the surrender of German armies in May 1945.
Ans. (i) Germany surrendered to the Allies in May 1945. In anticipation of this, Hitler,
Goebbels and his entire family committed suicide in April 1945.
(ii) An International Military Tribunal was set up to prosecute Nazi war criminals.
(iii) Territories conquered by Germany were taken back and divided into four zones of occupation.
(iv) Berlin was divided into various occupational sectors.
(v) This paved the way for a bipolar world led by the USA and USSR. Later on, the rivalry between these two powers led to
the cold war.
OR
Discuss Stalins collectivisation programme.
Ans. Stalin felt that collectivisation would definitely solve the problem of shortage. From 1929 the Party forced the
peasants to cultivate in collective farms (Kolkhoz). The bulk of land and implements were transferred to the ownership of
collective farms. Peasants worked on the land and the Kolkhoz profit was shared. Enraged peasants resisted the authorities
and destroyed their livestock. Between 1929 and 1931 the number of cattle fell by one-third. Those who resisted
collectivisation were severely punished. Many were exiled and deported. The peasants argued that they were not rich and
were not against socialism but they opposed collectivisation for a variety of reasons. Some independent cultivation was
allowed by Stalins government but such cultivators were treated unsympathetically. In spite of all these measures
production did not increase immediately.
26. How were the Great Northern Plains of India formed? Give a brief description.
Ans. The formation of the Himalayas due to upliftment of sediments out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern
flank of the Peninsular Plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin.
Over millions of years this depression gradually got filled up with alluvium deposited by the three major river systems the
Indus, the Ganga and the Brahamputra flowing from the Himalayas in the north. Sediments were also deposited by the


75
tributaries of these rivers rising from the mountains in the north as well as the Peninsular Plateau to its south. As a resul t,
the fertile Indo-Gangetic or Northern Plains, and the Brahmaputra Plain in the northeast, were formed. As the Himalayas
gained in height, the rivers, glaciers and other agents of denudation became increasingly active in erosion. As a result, large
amount of silt got deposited in the shrinking Tethys.
27. How does democracy provide a method to deal with differences and conflicts?
Ans. In any society people are bound to have differences of opinions and interests. These differences are particularly sharp
in a country like India which has deep social diversity.
The interests of one group may clash with those of the other groups. Democracy provides the only peaceful solution to this
problem. In democracy, no one is a permanent winner or a permanent loser. Different groups can live with one another
peacefully. In a diverse country like ours, democracy keeps our country together.
28. In which way was the system of apartheid oppressive?
Ans. The apartheid system was particularly oppressive for the blacks. They were forbidden from living in white areas. They
could work in white areas only if they had a permit. Trains, buses, taxis, hotels, hospitals, schools and colleges, swimming
pools, public toilet, etc. were all separate for the whites and blacks. They could not even visit the churches where the
whites worshipped. Blacks could not form associations or protest against the terrible treatment.
29. Explain the role of health in human capital formation.
Ans. Improved health contributes to economic growth in the following ways:
(i) It reduces production loss caused by workers illness. (ii) It increases the efficiency of workers.
(iii) It permits the use of natural and other resources.
(iv) It increases the enrolment of children in schools and makes them better able to learn.
30. What are the different ways of increasing production on the same piece of land ? Use examples to explain.
Ans. Ways of increasing production on the same piece of land.
Land area under cultivation is practically fixed. Hence, something should be done to increase production on the same piece
of land. There are two ways of increasing farm produce on the same piece of land. These are:
(i) Multiple Cropping: It is the most common way of increasing production on a given piece of land. Under it, more than one
crop is grown on the same piece of land during the year. Indian farmers should grow at least two main crops in a year. In
India, some farmers have been growing a third crop also over the past 20 years.
(ii) Modern Farming Methods: Production on the same piece of land can also be increased by adopting modern farming
methods. The Green Revolution in India is a remarkable example of it. Under modern farming, more cultivable areas should
be brought under HYV seeds and irrigation. The use of simple wooden plough must be replaced by tractors. The increasing
use of farm machinery like tractors, threshers, harvesters, etc. makes cultivation faster.







31.1 Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of
following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map.
(A) A mountain range (B) A river


31.2 Locate and label the following on the same political outline map of India.
(i) Satpura range (ii) Mahendragiri



76
Model Test Paper-2 (Solved) SA-1
TIME: 3 hours Maximum Marks : 90
Instructions
v. Q. No. 1 to 10 are MCQs ( 1mark for each question)
vi. Q. No. 11 to 23 are short answer questions write in 60-80 words ( 3 marks for each question)
vii. Q. No. 24 to 30 are long are questions write in 100-125 words ( 5 marks for each question)
viii. Q. No. 31-1 and 31-2 are map questions. Please attach the map inside the answer book.

1. Which of the following taxes was paid by the peasants to the church?
(a) Tithes (b) Taille (c) Both of these (d) None of these
2. What was the population of France on the eve of the French Revolution?
(a) 23 million (b) 26 million (c) 28 million (d) 40 million
3. Which of the following groups of islands belonging to Indian Territory lies in the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Sri Lanka (c) Lakshadweep (d) Maldives
4. Which of the following is an artificial lake located in Andhra Pradesh ?
(a) Kolleru (b) Nagarjuna Sagar (c) Krishnaraja Sagar (d) Vembanad
5. Which body of the UN works like a parliament?
(a) General Assembly (b) Security Council (c) International Court of Justice (d) International Labour Organisation
6. Who was elected the president of Poland in 1990?
(a) General Jaruzelski (b) Lech Walesa (c) V.I. Lenin (d) None of these
7. Who drafted a Constitution for India in 1928?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Motilal Nehru (d) None of these
8. The Green Revolution in the 1960s enabled farmers to use HYV seeds to grow which of the following crops ?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Pulses (d) Both (a) and (b)
9. Tertiary sector provides
(a) Services (b) goods (c) manufacture (d) all of these
10. Investment in human capital includes expenditure on
(a) Education (b) training (c) healthcare (d) all of these
Answer (MCQ) : 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. What was the role of the Tsar in the peasant revolt of 1905? Did the revolt fail? Discuss.
Ans. During the 1905 Revolution, the Tsar allowed the creation of an elected consultative parliament or Duma. The Tsar
dismissed it within 75 days and re-elected Second Duma within 3 months. He did not want any questioning of his authority
or any reduction in his powers. He changed the voting laws and packed the Duma with conservative politicians. The Revolt
did not fail. It proved to be a does rehearsal for the 1917 Revolution.
OR
What responsibilities did the Nazi state impose on women?
Ans. According to Hitlers ideology, women were radically different from men. The democratic idea of equal rights for men
and women was wrong and would destroy society. While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel-hearted,
girls were told that they had to become good mothers and bear pure blooded Aryan children. Girls had to maintain the
purity of the race, distance themselves from Jews, look after the home and teach their children Nazi values. They had to be
the bearers of the Aryan culture and race. Hitler said, In my state the mother is the most important citizen. But in Nazi
Germany all mothers were not treated equally.
12. Discuss the civil war that took place in Russia and its consequences.
Ans. When the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution the Russian army began to break up.
Non-Bolshevik socialists, liberals and supporters of autocracy condemned the Bolshevik uprising. They were supported by
the French, American, British and Japanese troops.
The Bolsheviks kept industries and banks nationalised during the civil war. A process of centralised planning was
introduced. Rapid construction and industrialisation started. An extended schooling system developed. Stalin introduced
collectivisation of the farms so that no shortage of grain should occur. The Bolsheviks controlled most of the farms of the
Russian Empire.
OR
Explain the social utopia of the Nazis.
Ans. According to Hitler and Nazi ideology, there was no equality between people, but only social hierarchy. In his view
blond blue-eyed, Nordic German Aryans were at the top, while Jews were located at the lowest rung. They came to be
regarded as an anti-race, the arch enemies of the Aryans.
Once in power, the Nazis quickly began to implement their dream of creating an exclusive racial community of pure
Germans by physically eliminating all those who were seen as undesirable in the extended empire. Nazis wanted a society
of pure and healthy Nordic Aryans. They alone were considered desirable. Under the shadow of war, the Nazis
proceeded to realise their murderous, racial ideal.


77
Genocide and war became two sides of the same coin. Occupied Poland was divided up. Much of north-western Poland was
annexed to Germany. Poles were forced to leave their homes and properties behind to be occupied by ethnic Germans
brought in from occupied Europe. Poles were then herded like cattle in the other part called the General Government, the
destination of all undesirables of the empire. With some of the largest ghettos and gas chambers the General Government
also served as the killing field for the Jews.
13. How has Indias geographic location aided the nation?
Ans. India is a southward extension of the Asian Continent. It has a central location between the East and West Asia. To the
north of India lie the lofty mountain ranges of the Himalayas which serve as a natural barrier separating Indian
subcontinent from the rest of Asia. The land routes through the mountain passes had served as channels for exchange of
culture and commodities since ancient times. To its south, the landmass tapers and the Deccan Peninsula protrudes into
the Indian Ocean providing opportunities for flourishing maritime trade. The trans-Indian Ocean routes which connect the
countries of Europe in the west and the countries of East Asia provide a strategic central location to India. India is able to
establish close contacts with oil rich countries of West Asia and countries of Africa and Europe from its western coast via
the Arabian Sea. The Suez Canal sea-route provides India the shortest route to industrial Europe and America.
14. Define tectonic or lithospheric plates.
Ans. Earth scientists have put forward the view that the Earths crust or the lithosphere is not a continuous block. It consists
of several large and small, rigid, irregularly shaped plates (slabs) which include continents and the ocean floor. These slabs
are moving or drifting in relation to each other by about 2.5 cm to 5 cm each year. These crustal slabs are called tectonic or
lithospheric plates. According to the Theory of Plate Tectonics the earths crust has been formed out of seven major and
some minor tectonic plates.
15. Describe the location and relief of the Indian desert.
Ans. The Indian Desert lies to the northwest of India towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills. It covers the western
part of Rajasthan. The Indian Desert is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes. Crescent-shaped sand dunes or
barchans cover larger portion of its area but longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo-Pakistan border.
The region receives very low rainfall, below 150 mm per year. Therefore, it has an arid climate with low vegetation cover
comprising of xerophytic plants. Streams that appear in the short rainy season soon disappear into the sand as they do not
have enough water to reach the sea. So, the region suffers from extreme aridity. Luni is the only remarkable river in this region.
16. Discuss various causes of water pollution.
Ans. Pollution of rivers is mainly caused by discharge of untreated sewage water and industrial effluents. The growing
domestic, municipal, industrial and agricultural demand for water from the rivers due to ever increasing population has led
to overexploitation of water. Excessive, uncontrolled use of this main source of fresh water has reduced their volume and
has affected the quality of water. Increasing urbanisation and industrialisation have increased the pollution level of many
rivers to such a level that the self-cleansing capacity of the river cannot cope up with it.
17. Give one example to prove that the global institution, IMF, fails to pass the simple test of democracy that is used for
national governments.
Ans. International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest moneylenders in the world.
But its 173 member states do not have equal voting rights as the vote of each country is weighed by how much money it
has contributed to the IMF. Nearly half of the voting power in the IMF is in the hands of only seven countries (US, Japan,
France, UK, Saudi Arabia, China and Russia).
18. How can you say that every government that holds an election is not a democracy? Give an example to prove your point.
Ans. It is true that every government that holds an election is not a democracy. In many dictatorships and monarchies,
there are formally elected parliaments and governments but the real power is with those who are not elected. Pakistan
under General Musharraf could not be called a democracy because people there elected their representatives to the
national and provincial assemblies but the power to take final decision rested with army officials and with General Musharraf.
19. Give a description of the composition of the constituent Assembly of India.
Ans. The Constituent Assembly was elected mainly by the members of the existing Provincial
Legislatures. This ensured a fair geographical share of members from all the regions of the country. Congress, which was
the dominant party in the Assembly, itself included a variety of political groups and opinions. It represented members from
different languages, castes, religions, classes and occupations.
20. What can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in villages?
Ans. In future, there should be more and more non-farming activities in the villages. The following steps/measures may be
undertaken in this regard.
(i) Although people with some amount of money can set up non-farm activities, it is important that concessional loans
should be made available.
(ii) Another thing which is essential for expansion of non-farm activities is to have markets where goods and services
produced can be sold. For example, there should be markets for milk, cloth, toys, utensils, etc.
(iii) More villages need to be connected to towns and cities through all-weather roads, transport and telephone.
21. What is the role of education in human capital formation?
Ans. Education is the most important component of human resource development. The role of education in human capital
formation can be judged from the following facts:


78
(i) Education increases labour productivity. (ii) Education modifies/improves human behaviour.
(iii) It develops personality and sense of national consciousness among the people which are important for rapid economic
growth. (iv) It promotes science and technology.
22. What is the difference between disguised employment and seasonal unemployment?
Ans. Disguised unemployment is usually found in agriculture where all family members are engaged in same farm but only
5 or 6 members are required. The rest 2 or 3 members are considered as disguised employed. In seasonal unemployment,
for a particular period of time no sufficient work is there, just like in agriculture. Certain months dont provide much work
to the people period after sowing and before harvesting..
23. Describe the Reign of Terror and the role played by Robespierre in it.
Ans. The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror. Maximilian Robespierre, leader of the Jacobins,
followed the policy of severe control and punishment. All those he saw as enemies of the Republic ex-nobles, clergy,
political opponents were arrested, tried and guillotined if found guilty. He issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on
wages and prices. Meat and bread were rationed. Use of expensive white flour was forbidden. Robespierre followed his
policies so relentlessly that even his supporters began to demand moderation. Finally, he was convicted, arrested and
guillotined in July 1794.
24. Describe the legacy of the French Revolution.
Ans. The ideas of liberty and democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution. These spread
from France to the rest of the Europe during the nineteenth century, where feudal systems were abolished. Colonised
people reworked the idea of freedom from bondage into their movements to create a sovereign state. Tipu Sultan and
Rammohan Roy are two examples of individuals who responded to the ideas coming from the revolutionary France.
25. Describe the main events of the October Revolution.
Ans. (i) 16th October 1917 Lenin persuaded the Petrograd Soviet and Bolshevik Party to agree to a socialist seizure of
power. A Military Revolutionary Committee was appointed by the Soviet to organise seizure.
(ii) Uprising began on 24th October. Prime Minister Kerensky left the city to summon troops.
(iii) Military men loyal to the government seized the buildings of two Bolshevik newspapers. Pro-government troops were
sent to take over telephone and telegraph offices and protect the Winter Place.
(iv) In response, Military Revolutionary Committee ordered to seize government offices and arrest ministers.
(v) The ship Aurora shelled the Winter Palace. Other ships took over strategic points.
(vi) By night, the city had been taken over and ministers had surrendered.
(vii) All Russian Congress of Soviets in Petrograd approved the Bolshevik action.
OR
What was the Nazi ideology of Lebensraum? How did they proceed to actualise it?
Ans. Lebensraum was the other aspect of Hitlers ideology related to a geopolitical concept.
It meant living space. He believed that new territories had to be acquired for settlement. This would enhance the area of
the mother country, while enabling the settlers on new lands to retain an intimate link with the place of their origin. It
would also enhance the material resources and power of the German nation.
Hitler intended to extend German boundaries by moving eastwards to concentrate all Germans geographically in one place.
Poland became the laboratory for this experimentation.
Hitler wrote A vigorous nation will always find ways of adapting its territory to its population size. Thus Hitler turned his
attention in conquering Eastern Europe. He wanted to ensure food supplies and living space for Germans.
26. Distinguish between the Northern Plains and the Peninsular Plateau.
Ans. The Northern Plains the Peninsular Plateau
(i) Geologically, the Northern Plains were formed in recent geological period. (ii) Northern Plains are the most recent
landform. (iii) They are being formed and reshaped by the river systems. (iv) It is a fertile, level land.
(v) The Northern Plains are formed of alluvial deposits brought down by the rivers.
(vi) The Northern Plains are divided into three sections : (a) The Punjab Plains formed by Indus and its tributaries.
(b) The Ganga Plains in North India. (c) The Brahmaputra Plain in Assam.
Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau is part of the Gondwanaland, the southern part of ancient super-continent Pangaea.
The Peninsular plateau is part of oldest landmass.
It is one of the most stable land blocks. It is a plateau or tableland with gently rising rounded hills and wide shallow
valleys. The Peninsular Plateau is composed of old crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks.
The Peninsular Plateau is divided mainly into two broad divisions :
(a) the Central Highlands and (b) the Deccan Plateau.
27. What were the steps taken by Musharraf in Pakistan to empower himself?
Ans. In Pakistan, General Pervez Musharraf led a military coup in October 1999. He overthrew a democratically elected
government and declared himself the Chief Executive of the country. Later he changed his designation to president and in
2002 held a referendum in the country that granted him a five year extension. This referendum was based on fraud and
malpractices. In 2002, he issued a Legal Framework Order that amended the Constitution of Pakistan. According to this
order, the President could dismiss the national and provincial assemblies.
28. Regarding the Constitution-making in South Africa what was the compromise reached at between the Blacks and Whites?


79
Ans. The Constitution of South Africa was drawn together by the party of Whites which had ruled through oppression and
the party that led the freedom struggle. The Constitution gave to its citizens the most extensive rights available in any
country. After long negotiations both parties agreed to a compromise. The Whites agreed to the principle of majority rule
and that of one person one vote. They also agreed to accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers. The Blacks
agreed that the majority rule would not be absolute. They agreed that the majority would not take away the property of
the White minority.
29. Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree?
Ans. Modern farming requires more inputs than traditional farming. It requires inputs like chemicals, fertilisers, pesticides,
pump sets, farm machinery, electricity, diesel, HYV seeds, water supply. Most of these inputs are manufactured in
industries. However, some inputs necessary for modern farming are not manufactured in factories. For example, HYV
seeds. HYV seeds are developed at research centres like Pusa Institute, Delhi, Agricultural Unversity, Pant Nagar, etc.
Similarly, water supply is provided by canals, tanks etc.
30. Why are women employed in low-paid work?
Ans. Women in India are generally employed in low-paid work. This is because of the reason that most women have
meagre education and low skill formation as compared to men. They work under insecure working conditions. Besides,
Indian women prefer to work at nearby place only. Also, they have to go on frequent maternity leave. All these factors
force them to work at low wages. However, women with higher education and skill formation are paid at par with men.
31.1 Two features (1-2) are shown in the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the
following information and write their correct names in your answer book.
(1) A coast (2) A lake

31.2 Locate and label the following on the same outline political map of India.
(a) Sambhar lake (b) Talchar
Ans.31-1 Ans. (1) Malabar Coast (2) Wular lake

SUMMATIVE ASSESMENT I (Unsolved) -1
TIME---3 HOURS M.M 90
Instructions
Q. No. 1 to 10 are MCQs ( 1mark for each question)
Q. No. 11 to 23 are short answer questions write in 60-80 words ( 3 marks for each question)
Q. No. 24 to 30 are long are questions write in 100-125 words ( 5 marks for each question)
Q. No. 31-1 and 31-2 are map questions. Please attach the map inside the answer book.

Q.1 Who issued and adopted the famous Declaration the right of a Man in France (1)
(a)the national assembly ( b)The Jacobins (c) the national convention (d) the directory
Q.2. Which estate of French society paid all taxes? (1)
(a) The first estate ( b) the second estate (c) the third estate (d) None
Q.3. Tropic of cancer passes through how many states of India (1)
(a)Four (b) six (c) eight (d) seven
Q.4. In which state is the satpura range situated (1)
(a)M.P (B) Jammu and Kashmir (c) Punjab (d) West Bengal
Q.5. Who was the president of Chile from 197073 (1)
(a)Salvador Allende (b) Marshall tito (c) George Washington (d) john Kennedy
Q.6 who said Democracy is the rule of people, for the people by the people (1)


80
(a)Abraham Lincoln (b) John Kennedy ( c)Macpherson ( d)Woodrow Wilson
Q.7 In which country of the world the policy of apartheid was followed between 1948 to 1994 (1)
(a) South Africa (b) U.S.A (C) Canada (d) Nepal
Q.8. The national rural employment guarantee scheme was launched in (1)
(a) 2007 (b) 2008 (c) 2009 (d) 2006
Q.9 Various economic activities have been divided in to how many sectors (1)
(a) One (b) two (c) three (d) four
Q.10. Seasonal unemployment is most common in (1)
(a) Education (b) agriculture (c) manufacturing (d) none
Q.11. Who were the Bolshevik? (3)
OR
What were the two main characteristics of the Nazi movement and Fascism?
Q.12. Describe the social and economic condition of Russia before the revolution of 1917? (3)
OR
What is meant by economic Depression?
Q.13. Why do we need a standard meridian for India? (3)
Q.14 Differentiate between Western coastal plain and eastern coastal plain? (3)
Q.15. what is the difference between a delta and an estuary? (3)
Q.16. what is the difference between tributary and a distributary? (3)
Q.17 what was the impact of the end of colonialism on the new independent country? (3)
Q.18. Explain the major three feature of democracy? (3)
Q.19. what changes have been brought in the constitution in South Africa after 1994? (3)
Q.20. What is the importance of green revolution for the Indian economy? (3)
Q.21 What is difference between economic and non-economic activities? (3)
Q.22. what do you understand by the term people as resource? (3)
Q.23. Discuss the causes of French revolution? (5)
Q.24. Why did the Tsarist autocracy collapse in 1917? (5)
OR
Q.Explain Nazi policy towards youth?
Q.25 Write some common features of non-democratic countries? (5)
Q.26. What are the causes of water pollution? How can it be controlled? (5)
Q.27. Define the term constitution what is its importance? (5)
Q.28give four suggestion to promote democracy in the world?. (5)
Q.29what is the difference between multiple cropping and modern farming? (5)
Q.30what are the causes of unemployment in India (5)
Q.31on outline map of India show 1x4 (4)
(1)karakoram range (2 )kaveri (3)nandadevi (4)loktak lake


SUMMATIVE ASSESMENT I (Unsolved) -2
TIME---3 HOURS M.M 90
Instructions
Q. No. 1 to 10 are MCQs ( 1mark for each question)
Q. No. 11 to 23 are short answer questions write in 60-80 words ( 3 marks for each question)
Q. No. 24 to 30 are long are questions write in 100-125 words ( 5 marks for each question)
Q. No. 31-1 and 31-2 are map questions. Please attach the map inside the answer book.

Q.1. Who wrote the pamphlet called What is the Third Estate? (1)
(a) Mirabeau, a nobleman (b) Abbe Sieyes (c) Rousseau, a philosopher (d) Montesquieu
Q.2. A guillotine was __________________ (1)
(a) a device consisting of two poles and a blade with which a person was beheaded (b) a fine sword with which heads were cut off
(c) a special noose to hang people (d) none of the above
Q.3. The landmass of India has an area of _______ million square km. (1)
(a) 2.4 (b) 3.28 (c) 2.38 (d) 8.23
Q.4. Which city is located on the water divide between the Indus and the Ganga river systems? (1)
(a) Jammu (b) Ambala (c) Amritsar (d) Patiala
Q.5. Michelle Bachelet was elected President of Chile in the year : (1)
(a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2009
Q.6. Which was the first country to adopt universal sufferage? (1)


81
(a) Russia (b) USA (c) New Zealand (d) Japan
Q.7. Which of the following leaders was not a member of the Constituent Assembly? (1)
(a) Baldev Singh (b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q.8. Which of the following are known as millets? (1)
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Jowar and Bajra (d) Cotton
Q.9. Money in hand is an example of (1)
(a) human capital (b) fixed capital (c) working capital (d) physical capital
Q.10. Self-consumption is a (1)
(a) non-production activity (b) non-market activity (c) non-economic activity (d) none of these
Q.11. What steps were taken by Lenin to make Russia a socialist state? (3)
OR
How did the Great Economic Depression of 1929-34 affect Germany?
Q.12. Describe the role of V.I. Lenin in the Russian Revolution. (3)
OR
What led to Germanys defeat in the Second World War?
Q.13. How many states form the Union of India? Write a note on the smallest and the largest Indian states. (3)
Q.14. Mention three points of difference between Converging and Diverging Tectonic Plates. (3)
Q.15. Distinguish between the Eastern and Western Ghats. (3)
Q.16. Write any three features of the rivers originating in the Himalayas. (3)
Q.17. What were the major changes that took place in Indias neighbourhood in 1990s and 2005? (3)
Q.18. Mention the general criticism of democracy by various scholars. Give any six points. (3)
Q.19. What do you understand by secularism? Why is India called a secular country? (3)
Q.20. How did the spread of electricity help farmers in Palampur? (3)
Q.21. Can you suggest some measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed?(3)
Q.22. What part does health play in an individuals working life? (3)
Q.23. Who were the Jacobins? What was their contribution to the French Revolution? (5)
Q.24. Describe the role and contribution of the Third Estate in the French Revolution. (5)
Q.25. How did the 1905 Revolution in Russia prove to be a dress rehearsal of October the 1917 Revolution? (5)
OR
What were the reasons that motivated Hitler to conquer Czechoslovakia in violation of the Munich Pact?
Q.26. How was India formed out of Gondwanaland? Discuss. (5)
Q.27. With reference to Zimbabwe, describe how the popular approval of rulers is necessary in a democracy but not sufficient. (5)
Q.28. How can you say that the apartheid system was based on racial discrimination?
Q.29. What do you mean by Rabi crops and Kharif crops? When are they sown and harvested? Give examples. (5)
Q.30. How did the 10th Five Year Plan gave emphasis on higher education? Explain. (5)
Q.31.1 Two features (1-2) are shown in the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the
following information and write their correct names in your answer book : (4)
(1) Mountain range (2) A river

31.2 Locate and label the following on the same outline political map of India:
(a) Lake Kolleru (b) Nanda Devi





82

SUMMATIVE ASSESMENT 2 (Term 2)
Unit 1: India and the Contemporary World I (HISTORY)
Sub-unit 1.2: Economies and Livelihoods (Any one of the following)
4. Pastoralists in the modern world.
Case studies: focus on two pastoral groups, one from Africa and one from India. (Chapter 5)
5. Forest society and colonialism:
Case studies: focus on two forest movements one in colonial India (Bastar) and one in Indonesia. (Chapter 4)
6. Farmers and peasants:
Case studies : focus on contrasting forms of rural change and different forms of rural societies (expansion of
large-scale wheat and cotton farming in USA, rural economy and the Agricultural Revolution in
England, and small peasant production in colonial India) (Chapter 6)
Sub-unit 1.3: Culture, Identity and Society (Any one of the following)
7. Sports and politics: (Chapter 7)
8. Clothes and cultures. (Chapter 8)
Unit 2: India - Land and the People Term I
3. Climate: (Chapter 4)
4. Natural Vegetation: (Chapter 5)
5. Wildlife: (Chapter 5)
6. Population: (Chapter 6)
7. Map Work (4 marks).
Unit - 3: Democratic Politics I
3. Electoral politics in democracy (Chapter 4)
4. Institutions of parliamentary democracy (Chapter 5)
5. Citizens rights in democracy (Chapter 6)
Unit - 4: Understanding Economic Development I
3. Poverty as a challenge facing India : (Chapter 3)
a) Food Security : Source of food grains- (Chapter 4)
















83
Part 1: History
CHAPTER 4FOREST SOCIETY AND COLONIALISM
CONCEPTS:
DEFORESTATION:-
Deforestation is cutting down of trees indiscriminately in a forest area. Under the colonial rule it became very systematic and extensive.
Why Deforestation
As population increased over the centuries and the demand for food went up, peasants extended the
boundaries of cultivation by clearing forests.
The British encouraged the production of commercial crops like jute, sugar, wheat and cotton for their
industries as raw material.
The British thought that forests were unproductive land as they yielded neither revenue nor agricultural
produce. Cultivation was viewed as a sign of progress. Oak forests in England were disappearing. There was
no timber supply for the shipbuilder industry. Forest resources of India were used to make ships for the Royal Navy.
Spread of railways required two things :
land to be cleared to lay railway tracks
wood as fuel for locomotives and for railway line sleepers.
Large areas of natural forests were cleared for tea, coffee and rubber plantations. Thus land was given to
planters at cheap rates.
COMMERCIAL FORESTRY:-
The British were worried that the use of forests by local people and the reckless felling of trees by traders would
destroy forests and hence invited German expert Dietrich Brandis as first Inspector General of Forests in India.
Brandis set up the Indian Forest Service in 1864 and helped formulate the Indian Forest Act of1865. The Imperial
Forest Research Institute was set up in Dehradun in 1906.Scientific forestry was taught there. In the scientific
forestry system, forests with different kinds of trees were replaced by plantations. Forest management plans
were made by forest officials.They planned how much of the forest had to be cut and how much had to be replanted.
The Forest Acts divided forests intoThe villagers were dissatisfied with the Forest Acts. They were now forced to
steal wood from the forests. If they were caught, they were punished.
Forest Rules and Cultivation
Shifting cultivation or Sweden agriculture was the agricultural practice in many parts of Asia, Africa and South
America. The colonial foresters did not favour this system as it made it difficult for the government to calculate
taxes. In addition, the forest officials saw in it the danger of fire and also that no trees could grow on this kind of land.
Hunting and Forest Laws: The forest laws forbade the villagers from hunting in the forests but encouraged
hunting as a big sport. They felt that the wild animals were savage, wild and primitive, just like the Indian society
and that it was their duty to civilise them.
New Trade and New Employment: New opportunities opened in trade as the forest department took control of
the forests, e.g., the Mundurucu peoples of the Brazilian Amazon.With the colonial influence trade was
completely regulated by the government. Many largeEuropean trading firms were given the sole right to trade
in forest products of a particulate area.Many pastoral communities lost their means of livelihood.New
opportunities of work did not always mean improved well-being for the people.
FOREST REBELLIONS
Forest communities rebelled against the changes imposed upon them. The people of Bastar were one such
group. The initiative was taken by the Dhurwas of the Kanger forest where reservation first took place. The
British sent troops to suppress the rebellion. It took them three months to regain control. A victory for the
people of Bastar was that the work on reservation was suspended and the area was reduced to half.
CHANGES IN JAVA:
The Kalangs: They rose in rebellion against the Dutch in 1770 but their uprising was suppressed.
Scientific Forestry in Java: Forest laws were enacted in Java. The villagers resisted these laws.Forest timber was
used for ships and railway sleepers. The Dutch government used the balandongdiensten system for extracting
free labour from the villagers.
Samins Movement: Samin of Randublatung village (a teak forest village) questioned the state ownership of
forests. A widespread movement spread. They protested by lying on the ground when the Dutch came to survey
it and refusing to pay taxes and perform labour.
World Wars and Deforestation: The world wars had a major impact on forests. The forest department cut freely
to meet the British demands. The Dutch followed the scorched earth policy of destroying saw mills, burning logs


84
of teak so that the Japanese could not benefit from it. The Japanese forced the villagers to cut down forests,
when they occupied the area.
New Developments: Conservation and preservation of forests has now become the focus rather than timber. It
has also been realised that if forests are to survive, the local community needs to be involved. There are many
such examples in India where communities are conserving forests in sacred groves. This looking after is done by
each member of the village and everyone is involved.
Tea/Coffee plantations The colonial state thought that forest land was unproductive.
It did not yield agricultural produce nor revenue. Large areas of natural forests were hence cleared to make way
for tea, coffee and rubber plantations to meet Europes growing need for these commodities. The colonial
government took over the forests and gave vast areas to European planters at cheap rates. The areas were
enclosed and cleared of forests and planted with tea or coffee.
Adivasis and other peasant users Adivasis and other peasant users do not cut down forests except to
practice shifting cultivation or gather timber for fuel. They also gather forest products and graze their cattle.
This does not destroy the forests except sometimes in shifting agriculture. In fact, now the new trends that
promote forest conservation tend to involve local villagers in conservation and preservation. The adivasis and
other peasant communities regard the forests as their own and even engage watchmen to keep a vigil over their
forests.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q.1. Who were the colonial power in Indonesia?
(a) British (b) Dutch (c) French (d) Portuguese
Q.2.Which place is now famous as a rice-producing island in Indonesia?
(a) Java (b) Sumatra (c) Borneo (d) Kalimantan
Q.3. Where did the Dutch start forest management in Indonesia?
(a) Java (b) Sumatra (c) Bali (d) None of the above
Q.4. Who were Kalangs of Java?
(a) Dynasty of rulers (b) Skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators
(c) A community of moneylenders (d) none of the above
Q.5 The Kalangs resisted the Dutch in
(a) 1700 (b) 1750 (c) 1770 (d) 1800
Q.6. According to the forest laws enacted by the Dutch in Java,
(a) Villagers access to forest was restricted
(b) Wood could be cut only for specified purposes like making river boats or constructing houses
(c) Villagers were punished for grazing cattle
(d) All the above
Q.7.What was the system of blandongdiensten?
(a) A system of education (b) Industrialisation
(c) First imposition of rent on land and then exemption (d) None of the above
Q.8.What did Surontiko Samin of Randublatung village, a teak forest village, begin questioning?
(a) The foreign policy of the Dutch (b) State ownership of the forest
(c) The export policy of the Dutch (d) none of the above
Q.9.What was the policy followed by the British in India towards forests during the First and the Second World Wars?
(a) The forest department cut trees freely to meet British war needs
(b) Cutting of trees was strictly prohibited for everyone, including the British
(c) More and more trees were planted to give employment to Indians
(d) None of the above
Q.10.What is the goal of governments across Asia and Africa since the 1980s?
(a) Conservation of forests (b) Collection of timber
(c) Settling people in forest areas (d) Destroying old forests and growing new ones
Q.11. Who wrote the book The Forests of India in the year 1923?
(a) David Spurr (b) E.P. Stebbing (c) Verrier Elvin (d) John Middleton
12. Which of the following is not associated with Sweden agriculture?
(a) Karacha (b) Jhum (c) Bewar (d) Penda
13. Indian Forest Service was set up in the year:


85
(a) 1865 (b) 1864 (c) 1854 (d) 1884
14. Which of the following was not a tribal community?
(a) Karacha (b) Jhum (c) Korava (d) Yerukula
15. The system of scientific forestry stands for:
(a) System whereby the local farmers were allowed to cultivate temporarily within a plantation
(b) System of cutting old trees and plant new ones
(c) Division of forest into three categories
(d) Disappearance of forests
16. In which year the Baster rebellion took place?
(a) 1910 (b) 1909 (c) 1911 (d) 1912
17. In South-East Asia shifting agriculture is known as:
(A) Chitemene (b) Tavy (c) Lading (d) Milpa
18. The Gond forest community belongs to which of the following
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Jharkhand (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Gujarat
19. Forests consisting of which type of trees were preferred by the Forest Department?
(a) Forests having trees which provided fuel, fodder and leaves
(b) Forests having soft wood
(c) Forests having trees suitable for building ships and railways
20. Which of the following term is not associated with shifting agriculture in India?
(a) Penda (b) Bewar (c) Khandad (d) Lading
21. Which of the following is a community of skilled forest cutters?
(a) Maasais of Africa (b) Mundas of Chotanagpur(c) Gonds of Orissa (d) Kalangs of Java
22. Why did the government decide to ban shifting cultivation? (a) To grow trees for railway timber
(b) When a forest was burnt, there was the danger of destroying valuable timber
(c) Difficulties for the government to calculate taxes
(d) All the above reasons
23. Wooden planks lay across railway tracks to hold these tracks in a position are called:
(a) Beams (b) Sleepers (c) Rail fasteners (d) none of these
24. Which of the following was the most essential for the colonial trade and movement of goods?
(a) Roadways (b) Railways (c) Airways (d) River ways
25. Which of the following is a commercial crop?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Cotton (d) Maize

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
Q.1 what is deforestation? Why is it considered harmful?
Ans.1 The disappearance of forests is referred to as deforestation. Forests are cleared for industrial uses,
cultivation, pastures and fuel wood.
2.Clearing of forests is harmful as forests give us manythings like paper, wood that makes our desks, tables,
doors and windows, dyes that colour our clothes, spices in our food, gum, honey, coffee, tea and rubber. They
are the home of animals and birds.
3. Forests check soil erosion and denudation, sand dunes. They preserve our ecological diversity and life support systems.
Q.2. Describe scientific forestry.
Ans.1. In scientific forestry, natural forests which had lots of different types of trees were cut down. In their
place one type of tree was planted in straight rows. This is called a plantation.
2. Forest officials surveyed the forests, estimated the area under different types of trees and made working
plans for forest management. They planned how much of the plantation area to cut every year.
3.The area cut was then to be replanted so that it was ready to be cut again in some years.
Q.3. Mention the various uses of forests
Ans. 1.Forests give us a mixture of things to satisfy our different needs fuel, fodder, leaves, trees suitable for
building ships or railways, trees that can provide hard wood.
2. Forest products like roots, fruits, tubers, herbs are used for medicinal purposes, wood for agricultural
implements like yokes, ploughs etc. Forests provide shelter to animals and birds. They also add moisture to
atmosphere. Rainfall is trapped in forest lands.
Q.4.What is shifting agriculture? Why was it regarded as harmful by the British?


86
Ans. 1.Shifting agriculture or Sweden agriculture is a traditional agricultural practice in many parts of Asia, Africa
and South America. It has many local names such as lading in South-EastAsia, milpa in central America,
chitemene or tavy in Africa, chena in Sril Lanka, dhya, Penda, bewar, nevad, jhum, podu, khandad and kumri in India.
2.In shifting cultivation, parts of a forest are cut and burnt in rotation, seeds are sown in ashes after the first
monsoon rains and the crop is harvested by October-November. Such plots are cultivated for a couple of years
and then left fallow for 12 to 18 years for the forest to grow back.
It was regarded as harmful by the British for the forests. They felt that land which was used for cultivation every
few years could not grow trees for railway timber. When the forest was burnt there was the danger of the
flames spreading and burning valuable timber.
Q.5. Explain why did the Dutch adopt the scorched earth policy during the war.
Ans.1. The First World War and Second World War had a major impact on forests. In India, working places were
abandoned and trees were cut freely to meet British demand for war needs.
2.In Java, just before the Japanese occupied the region, the Dutch followed the scorched earth policy
destroying saw mills, burning huge piles of giant teak logs so that they could not fall into Japanese hands.
Q.6. How did the forest rules affect cultivation?
Ans. 1.One of the major impacts of European colonialism was on the practice of shifting cultivation or Jhoom
cultivation .In shifting cultivation, a clearing is made in the forest, usually on the slopes of the hills. After the
trees are cut, they are burnt to provide ashes. The seeds are then scattered in the area, and left to be irrigated by the rain.
2. Shifting cultivation was harmful for forests and the land both.
3. It also made it harder for the Government to calculate taxes. Therefore, the government decided to ban shifting cultivation.
Q.7. Why did land under cultivation increase during colonial rule?
Ans.1. during the British domination of India, the British encouraged the cultivation of cash crops such as jute,
indigo, cotton, etc. Food crops were also required to be grown for food. Both things were important. 2.Secondly,
the forests were considered unproductive by the British government and hence large areas of forests were
cleared for agriculture. Now this forest land could be cultivated to enhance the income of this state.
Q.8.What did Dietrich Brandis suggest for the improvement of forests in India?
Ans. 1.Dietrich Brandis suggested that a proper system had to be followed. Felling of trees and grazing land had
to be protected. Rules about use of forests should be made. Anyone who broke rules needed to be punished.
Brandis set up in 1864 the Indian Forest Service. He also helped to formulate the Indian Forest Act of 1865.
Q.9.What was taught at the Imperial Forest Research Institute? How was this system carried out?
Ans. 1.Scientific forestry was taught at the Imperial Forest Research Institute. In this system, natural forests
which had a variety of trees were cut down and, instead, one type of tree was planted.
2. Appointed forest officials managed these forests. They planned and assessed how much of the planted area
had to be cut down and how much had to be replanted.
Q.10. Differentiate between the customary practice of hunting and hunting as a sport in India, after the Forest Acts were passed.
Ans. Before the laws were passed, people who depended on forests hunted birds and small animals for food.
After the laws were passed, hunting of big game became a sport. Under colonial rule the scale of hunting
increased so much that many species became extinct. Rewards were given for killing tigers, wolves, etc., on the
pretext that they were a threat to human life. Certain areas of the forests were reserved for hunting.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
Q.1. Discuss the rise of commercial forestry under the colonial governments.
Ans.1. Commercial forestry became important during the British rule. By the early nineteenth century oak
forests in England were disappearing. This created a problem of shortage of timber supply for the Navy.
2. How could English ships be built without a regular supply of strong and durable timber?How could imperial
power be protected and maintained without ships?
3. Because of the factors given above, before 1856 the commercial forestry was considered important in India.
By the 1820s, search parties were sent to explore the forest resources ofIndia.
4. These parties gave them green signal for commercial forestry in India.Within a decade trees were being felled
on a massive scale and large quantities of timber were being exported from India.
5.The spread of railway from the 1850s created a new demand. In India, the colonial government felt that
railways were essential for effective internal administration, for colonial trade, for the quick movement of imperial troops.
Q.3. The introduction of extremely exploitatives and oppressive policies proved to be a disaster. With
reference to Bastar
(a) What were these policies? (b) What were the consequences of these policies?


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Ans. (a) The colonial government proposed to reserve two-thirds of the forest in 1905 and stop shifting
cultivation, hunting and collection of forest produce. The people of Baster were very worried. Some villages
were allowed to remain on in the reserved forests on the condition that they worked free for the forest
department in cutting and transporting trees and protecting the forests from fires. Subsequently these came to
be known as forest villages. People of other villages were displaced without any notice or compensation. For
long the villagers had been suffering from increased land rents and frequent demands for free labour and goods
by colonial officials. Then came the terrible famines in 1899-1900 and again in 1907-1908. Reservations proved
to be the last straw.
(b) People began to gather and discuss these issues in their village councils, in bazars and at festivals or
wherever the headmen and priests of several villages were assembled. The initiative was taken by the Dhruvas
of the Kanger forest, where reservation first took place.Although there was no single leader, many people speak
of Gunda Dhur from villageNethanar as an important figure in the movement in 1910 mango boughs, a limp of
earth, chillies and arrows, began circulating between villages. These were actually messages inviting villagers to
rebel against the British.Every village contributed something to the rebellion expenses. Bazars were looted, the
houses of officials and traders, schools and police stations were burnt and robbed and grain redistributed.
The British sent troops to suppress the rebellion. The adivasi leaders tried to negotiate, but the British
surrounded their camps and fired upon them. After that they marched through the villages, flogging and
punishing those who had taken part in the rebellion.It took three months for the British to regain control.
However, they never managed to capture Gunda Dhur. In a major victory for the rebels, work on reservation
was temporarily suspended and the area to be reserved was reduced to roughly that planned before 1910.
Were forcibly displaced from their homes in the forests. Some had to change occupations, while some resisted through
large and small rebellions.
Q.5. How did the following contribute towards the decline of forest cover in India between1880-1920
(a) Railways and shipbuilding (b) Commercial farming
Ans. (a) (1) Railways: The spread of railways from 1850s created a new demand. Railways were essential for
successful colonial control, administration, trade and movement of troops. Thus to run locomotives, (a) wood
was needed as fuel (b) and to lay railway lines as sleepers were essential to hold tracks together. As the railway
tracks spread throughout India, larger and larger number of trees were felled. Forests around the railway tracks started disappearing
fast.
(2) Shipbuilding: UK had the largest colonial empire in the world. Shortage of oak forests created a great timber
problem for the shipbuilding of England. For the RoyalNavy, large wooden boats, ships, courtyards for shipping
etc., trees from Indian forests were being felled on massive scale from the 1820s or 1830s to export large
quantities of timber from India. Thus the forest cover of the subcontinent declined rapidly.
(b) Commercial Farming: Large areas of natural forest were also cleared to make space for the plantations or
commercial farming. Jute, rubber, indigo, tobacco etc. were the commercial crops that were planted to meet
Britains growing need for these commodities.The British colonial government took over the forests and gave of
a vast area and exportedit to Europe. Large areas of forests were cleared on the hilly slopes to plant tea or
coffee.
This also contributed to the decline of the forest cover in India.
Q.6. How was colonial management of forests in Bastar similar to that of Java?
Ans. The colonial government imposed new forest laws according to which two-thirds of the forests were
reserved. Shifting cultivation, hunting and collection of forest produce was banned. Most people in forest
villages were displaced without notice or compensation. In the same way, when the Dutch gained control over
the forests in Java, they enacted forest laws, restricting villagers' access to forests. Now wood could only be cut
for specific purposes and from specific forests under close supervision. Villagers were punished for grazing
cattle, transporting wood without a permit or travelling on forest road with horse-carts or cattle. This was the
similarity between the British (in Bastar) and Dutch (in Java) management of forests.
Q.7. What new trends and developments have affected the forestry of today?
Ans. 1.Since the 1980s governments across Asia and Africa have begun to see that scientific forestry and the
policy of keeping forest communities away from forests has resulted in many conflicts.Conservation of forests
rather than collecting timber has become a more important goal.
2.The government has realised/recognised that in order to meet this goal, the people who live near the forests
must be involved.
3.In many cases, across India, from Mizoram to Kerala, dense forests have survived only because villagers
protected them in sacred groves known as sarnas, Devarakudu, kau, rai etc. Some villages have been patrolling


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their own forests, with each household taking it in turns, instead of leaving it to the forest guards.Local forest
communities and environmentalists today are thinking of different forms of forest management.
Q.8. Where is Bastar located? Discuss its history and its people
Ans.1. Bastar is situated in the southern part of Chhattisgarh and borders Orissa, Andhra Pradesh and
Maharashtra. The river Indrawati flows from east to west across Bastar. The central part ofBastar is a plateau.
To the north of this plateau is the Chhattisgarh plain and to its south is the Godavari plain.
2.The people of Bastar believe that each village was bestowed land by the earth and hence they offer something
in return during agricultural celebrations. Apart from the earth the people of Bastar show reverence to the
spirits of rivers, forests and the mountains.
3.Different communities such as Maria and Muria Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras and Halbas practise common
customs and beliefs but speak different dialects. Each village is well aware of its boundaries. They look after and
preserve their natural resources.
4.There exists a give and take relationship among the communities. If a village wants some forest produce from
another village a small price is paid before taking it. This price is called dhand or man or devsari.Villagers
engage watchmen to look after their forests for a price.
5.This price is collected from all the families. There is a large annual gathering a big hunt where the headmen
of all the villages in a pargana (a group of villages) meet and discuss matters that concern them.
Q.9. Discuss the new developments in forestry after the 1980s.
Ans: 1. Since the 1980s the governments of Asia and Africa have begun to see that scientific forestry and the
policy of keeping forest communities away from the forests has resulted in many conflicts. Conservation and
preservation of forests have become the major goal.
2. Collection of timber is a secondary objective. The governments emphasise that in order to conserve and
preserve forests the involvement of people is important.
3.These are perfect examples to quote here across India, from Mizoram to Kerala, dense forests have
survived only because villagers protected them in sacred groves known as 'sarnas', 'devarakudu', 'kan', 'rai', etc.
Some villagers have been patrolling their own forests, with each household taking it in turns, today are thinking
of different forms of forest management.
Q.10. Why did the people of Bastar rise in revolt against the British? Explain.
Ans. (i) In 1905, the colonial government imposed laws to reserve two-thirds of the forests, stop shifting
cultivation, hunting and collection of forest produce. People of many villages were displaced without any notice
or compensation.
(ii) For long, villagers had been suffering from increased land rents and frequent demands for free labour and
goods by colonial officials.
(iii) The terrible famines in 18991900 and again in 19071908 made the life of people miserable. They blamed
the colonial rule for their sorry plight.
(iv) The initiative of rebellion was taken by the Dhurwas of the Kanger forest, where reservation first took place.
Gunda Dhur was an important leader of the rebellion.

HOTS
Q.18. How did the local people look after and protect the forests in Bastar region?
Ans. 1.The people of Bastar showed respect to the spirits of the river, the forest and the mountain.Since each
village knew its boundary the local people loked after all the natural resources within their boundary.
2. If the people from a village wanted to take some wood from forests of another village, they paid a small fee
called 'devsari,' 'dand' or 'man' in exchange.
3.Some villagers also protected their forests by engaging watchmen and each household contributed some grain to pay them.
4.Every year there was one big hunt where the headman of villages in a 'pargana' met and discussed issues of
concern, including forests

Q.2. How did the new forest laws affect the forest dwellers?
Ans.1. Foresters and villagers had very different ideas of what a good forest should look like.Villagers wanted
forests with a mixture of species to satisfy different needs fuel, fodder, leaves. The forest department wanted
trees which were suitable for building ships or railways.
2.They needed trees that could provide hard wood and were tall and straight. So particular species like teak and
sal were promoted and others were cut. The new forest laws meant severe hardship for villagers across the country.


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3.After the Act (Forest Act), all their everyday practices, cutting wood for their houses, grazing their cattle,
collecting fruits and roots, hunting and fishing became illegal. People were now forced to steal wood from the
forests, and if they were caught they were at the mercy of the forest guards who would take bribes from them.
Q.4. How did the transformation in the forest management during the colonial period affect the following?
(a) Pastoral communities (b) Shifting cultivators
Ans.1. The British required Indian forests in order to build ships and for railways. The British were worried that
the use of forest by local people and the reckless felling of trees by traders would destroy forest.
2.Therefore the colonial government decided to invite a German expert DietrichBrandis for advice and made
him the first Inspector General of Forests in India.Dietrich Brandis realised that a proper system had to be
introduced to manage the forests and people had to be trained in the science of conservation. Rules about the
use of forest resources had to be framed.
3. Felling of trees and grazing had to be restricted so that forests in India could be preserved for timber
production.The changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following groups of people.
(a) Pastoral communities: Pastoral communities were affected by the new forest laws.
Before these laws came into force, the people of pastoral as well as nomadic community had survived by
hunting deer, partridges and a variety of small animals. This customary practice was prohibited by the forest
laws. Those who were caught hunting were now punished for poaching. Some of them began to be called
criminal tribes and were forced to work in factories, mines and plantations under government supervision.
(b) Shifting cultivators:1 One of the major impacts of European colonialism was on the practice of shifting
cultivation or Jhoom agriculture. This is a traditional agricultural practice in several parts of Asia, Africa and South America.
2.European foresters regarded the practice of shifting cultivation as harmful for the forests.
They felt that land which was used for cultivation every few years could not grow trees for railway timber. When
a forest was burnt, there was the added danger of the flames spreading and burning valuable timber.Shifting
cultivation also made it harder for the British government to calculate taxes. So the colonial government
decided to ban shifting cultivation. As a result, shifting cultivators were forcibly displaced from their homes in
the forests. Some had to change occupations, while some resisted through large and small rebellions.
Q.5 Describe four provisions of the Forest Act of 1878.
Ans. (i) The Forest Act of 1878 divided forests into three categories: reserved, protected and village forests.
(ii) The best forests were called 'reserved forests'.
(iii) Villagers could not take anything from reserved forests, even for their own use.
(iv) For house building or fuel, they could take wood from protected or village forests.

VALUE BASED QUESTIONS
Q.7. Why did land under cultivation increase during colonial rule?
Q.4. what is shifting agriculture? Why was it regarded as harmful by the British?
Q.9. Where is Baster located? Discuss its history and its people.

KEY TO MCQ
Q.1(b) Q.2 (a) Q.3(a) Q.4(b) Q5(c) Q(d) Q.7(c) Q.8(b) Q.9(b) Q.10(a) Q.11(b) Q.12(a) Q.13(b) Q.14(b)
Q.15(b) Q.16(a)Q17(c) Q18(a)Q.19(c) Q.20(d) Q21(d) Q.22(b) Q.23(b) Q.24(b)Q.25(c)

CHAPTER-5 NOMADISM AS A WAY OF LIFE
CONCEPTS:
The Mountain Nomads :
The Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir They are pastoral nomads who move in groups called Kafila.
Their movements are governed by the cold and snow. In winters when the high mountains are covered with
snow these Gujjars move down to the low hills of the Sivalik range. On the onset of summer, when the snow
melts and the mountains become lush and green, these pastoralists move back to the mountains. The Gaddi
Shepherds of Himachal Pradesh have a similar cycle of movement. They also spend the winter on the low
Sivalik hills and the summers in Lahul and Spiti. The Gujjar cattle herders of Kumaon and Garhwal spend their
summers in thebugyals and their winters in the bhabar. The Bhotias, Sherpas and Kinnauri follow the cyclic
movement which helps them to adjust to seasonal changes and make best use of pastures.
On the plateaus, plains and deserts


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The Dhangars of Maharashtra: The Dhangars stay in the central plateau of Maharashtra during the monsoon.
This is a semi-arid region. By October they begin their movement towards Konkan. Here their cattle help to
manure the fields and hence they are welcomed by the Konkani peasant. As soon as the monsoon sets in, they
retreat back to the semi-arid land of Maharashtra. The Gollas who herd cattle and the Kurumas and Kurubas
who reared sheep and goat are from Karnataka and Andhra. They live near the woods and in the dry period
thecoastal tracts.
The Banjaras of Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra move to different places
in search of good pastures.The Raikas of Rajasthan combine cultivation with pastoralism. When their grazing
grounds become dry they move to new and greener pastures.Pastoral life was sustained by their sense of
judgement to know how long one must stay in an area to know where they could find food and water to assess
and calculate the timings of their movement their ability to set up a relationship with the farmers so that the
herds could graze on the harvested fields.
CHANGES IN PASTORAL LIFE DUE TO COLONIAL RULE:
Under colonial rule the life of the pastoralists changed completely. Their grazing grounds became less, their
movements were regulated, the revenues they had to pay increased, their trade and crafts and agricultural
produce declined.
Coping with changes
1. Some reduced the number of cattle in their herds. 2. Some discovered new pastures.
PASTORALISM IN AFRICA
The Maasai Changes in their way of life The Maasai cattle herders live primarily in East Africa. Rules, laws and
regulations have changed their way of life. There are many problems which they have faced, the most
possessions in Africa.Dividing the region into different colonies. best grazing grounds being taken over by the
white settlements. Grazing grounds being converted to cultivated land andnational parks and game reserves.
The Kaokoland herders have faced a similar fate.
Confined to special reserves Traditionally, pastoralists moved to different pastures but with the restrictions imposed
on them these pastoralists were confined to special reserves. They could not move without special permits. They were not
allowed to enter the markets in white areas. Some bought land and began to lead a settled life. Some poor peasants
borrowed money to survive, in due course of time they lost their cattle and sheep and became labourers. Some tribes were
affected by the Criminal Tribes Act. Even their trade activities were adversely affected.
Why nomadism Pastoralists are nomadic this allows them to survive bad times and avoid crises, such as
drought. But later they could not shift to greener pastures and their cattle died of starvation.
The Maasai society
The British appointed chiefs to administer the affairs of the tribe. These chiefs were wealthy and lived a settled
life as they had both pastoral and non-pastoral income. The poor pastoralists passed through bad times and
worked as labourers. There were two important changes:
1. The traditional difference between the elders and warriors was disturbed.
2. There came to be a marked difference between the rich and poor.
Developments within Pastoral Societies:
Pastoralists adapt to new times. They find new pastures, change their routes for their annual movement, reduce
their cattle numbers, press for their rights, etc. It is being advocated today that pastoral nomadism is the best
form of life suited to the dry, semi-arid and mountainous regions of the world.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q.1. Why were some forests classified as protected?
(a) In these the customary grazing rights of pastorals were granted but their movements were severely
restricted.
(b) The colonial officials believed that grazing destroyed the saplings and young shoots of trees that germinated on the forest floor.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Q.2. In what ways lives of Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir similar to that of Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh?
(a) They both have a similar cycle of seasonal movement
(b) They both spend their winters on low hills of Siwalik range, grazing their herds in dry scrub forests.
(c) In April, they begin their upward journey again for their summer grazing grounds
(d) All the above
Q.3.Which of these are the pastoral communities of the mountains?


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(a) Gujjars (b) Gaddis (c) Bhotiyas and Sherpas (d) All the above
Q.4. The social changes in Maasai society are that
(a) the traditional difference based on age, between the elders and warriors, has been disturbed, but it has not broken
down
(b) a new distinction between the wealthy and the poor pastoralists has developed
(c) both (a) and (b) , (d) none of the above
Q.5. Dhangars were an important pastoral community of
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) U.P. (d) Assam
Q.6.By October, the Dhangars harvested their bajra and started on their move to the west. Why were they
welcomed by the Konkani peasants?
(a) They married off their children in each others communities (b) The Dhangars brought bajra for them
(c) Dhangar flocks manured their fields and fed on the stubble (d) None of the above
Q.7. Where were the Banjaras found?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab, Rajasthan (c) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra (d) All the above
Q.8. Why did the colonial state want to transform all grazing lands into cultivated farms?
(a) Land revenue was one of the main sources of its finance
(b) It could produce more jute, cotton, wheat and other agricultural produce that were required in England
(c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of the above
Q.9. According to the Wasteland Rules
(a) uncultivated lands were taken over and given to select individuals
(b) these individuals were granted various concessions and encouraged to settle these lands
(c) some of them were made headmen of villages in the newly cleared areas
(d) all the above
Q.10. In which way did the Forest Acts change the lives of the pastoralists?
(a) In the areas of forests where the pastoralists were allowed, their movements were regulated
(b) They needed a permit for entry
(c) The timing of their entry and departure was specified
(d) All the above
Q.11. Which of the following statements best explains pastoralist nomads?
(a) The villagers who move from one place to another
(b) The people who do not have a permanent place to live in
(c) The herdsmen who move from one place to another looking for pasture for their herd
(d) The people who visit many places for enjoyment
Q.12.The pastoralists had to pay tax on
(a) every animal they grazed on the pastures (b) the houses they were living in
(c) number of animals they had (d) none of the above
Q13.What was the result of overgrazing pastures due to restrictions on pastoral movements?
(a) The quality of pastures declined (b) This created deterioration of animal stock
(c) Underfed cattle died in large numbers during scarcity and famine (d) All the above
Q.14.Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Some rich pastoralists started buying land and settling down giving up their nomadic life
(b) Some became settled peasants cultivating land, others took to more extensive trading
(c) The poor pastoralists became labourers, working on fields or in small towns
(d) All the above
Q.15.Which of these are the pastoral communities of Africa?
(a) Bedouins, Berbers (b) Maasai, Somali (c) Boran, Turkana (d) All the above
Q.16. In 1885, Massailand was cut into half with an international boundary between
(a) Kenya and Tanganyika (b) Kenya and Ethiopia (c) Congo and Angola (d) Angola and Botswana
Q.17.Which of these statements is true?
(a) Large areas of grazing land were turned into game reserves
(b) Pastoralists were not allowed to enter these reserves
(c) Serengeti National Park was created over 14,760 km of Maasai grazing land
(d) All the above
Q.18. When did a severe drought take place, killing over half the cattle in the Maasai Reserve?


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(a) 1900 (b) 1933 and 1934 more (c) 1945 (d) 1946 and 1947
Q.19. How was the authority of both elders and warriors adversely affected by the British efforts to
administer the affairs of the Maasai?
(a) The British appointed chiefs of different sub-groups of Maasai
(b) These chiefs were made responsible for the affairs of the tribe
(c) The British imposed various restrictions on raiding and warfare
(d) All the above
Q.20.Which of these statements is not true?
(a) Pastoralists are a matter of past now
(b) Pastoralists have tried to adapt to new times
(c) They have changed the paths of their annual movement
(d) They have demanded a right in the management of forests and water resources
Q.21.Which seasonal movements affect the Dhangars of Maharashtra?
(a) Cold and snow (b) Climatic disturbance (c) Drought and flood (d) Alternate monsoon and dry seasons
Q.22. Gaddi were an important pastoral community of:
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Chchattisgarh
Q.23. Nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another because of:
(a) Seasonal changes (b) In search of pastures (c) To maintain ecological balance (d) All the above
Q.24. The word Maasai means:
(a) my people (b) pasture land (c) shifting cultivation (d) wasteland
Q.25. Raika pastoral community belongs to:
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Rajasthan (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Maharashtra

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1. Describe the life of Dhangars of Maharashtra
Ans.
1. The Dhangar shepherds stay in the central plateau of Maharashtra during the monsoon. By October, they
harvest their bajra and move west to Konkan. The Dhangar flocks manure the fields and feed on stubble.
2. The Konkani peasants give them rice which they take to the plateau as grain is scarce there. With the onset
of monsoon they leave Konkan and return to the dry plateau.
Q.2. How did the life of pastoralists change under the colonialrule?
Ans. Under colonial rule, the life of pastoralists changed dramatically. Their grazing grounds shrank, their
movements were regulated and they had to pay more revenue. Their agricultural stock declined and their trade
and crafts were adversely affected.
Q.3. Why does a Raika genealogist recount the history of his community?
Ans. I am a 60-year-old Raika- herder, I have seen many changes in my life. We as herders have been affected in
a variety of ways by changes in the modern world. New laws and new borders have affected the pattern of our
lives and our movements. We have seen many restrictions being imposed on our mobility and we as pastoralists
find it difficult to move in search of new pastures.
We have adapted to new times. We have changed the path of our annual movement, reduced our cattle
numbers, pressed for rights to enter new areas, exerted political pressure on the government for relief, subsidy
and other forms of support and demanded a right in management of forests and water resources. We are not
relics of the past.
Q.4. How did the Forest Acts change the life of pastoralists?
Ans.
1. Forest Acts were enacted to protect and preserve forests for timber which was of commercial importance.
These Acts changed the life of pastoralists.
2. 2.They were now prevented from entering many forests that had earlier provided valuable forage for their
cattle.
3. 3.They were issued permits which monitored their entry into and exit from forests. They could not stay in the
forests as much as they liked because the permit specified the number of days and hours they could spend in
the forests. The permit ruled their lives.
Q.5 How did the pastoralists cope with the changes in production during the colonial period?
Ans.


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1. Under colonial rule the life of the pastoralists changed completely. Their grazing grounds became less, their
movements were regulated, the revenues they had to pay increased, their trade and crafts and agricultural
produce declined.
2. The pastoralists adjusted with these changes. They reduced the number of cattle in their herds. They
discovered new pastures. Some bought land and began to lead a settled life. Some poor peasants borrowed
money to survive.
3. In due course of time they lost their cattle and sheep and became labourers.
Q.6. Compare the lives of African pastoralists with pastoralists in India during the colonial period.
Ans.1. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral
communities in India and Africa.
1. All uncultivated land was seen as wasteland by colonial powers. It produced neither revenue nor
agricultural produce. This land was brought under cultivation. In most areas the lands taken over were actually
grazing tracts used regularly by pastoralists. So expansion of cultivation inevitably meant the decline of pastures
and a problem both for Indian pastoralists and the Maasai.
2. From the 19th century onwards the colonial government started imposing restrictions on the pastoral
communities. They were issued permits which allowed them to move out with their stocks and it was difficult to
get permits without trouble and harassment. Those found guilty of disobeying rules were punished.
Q.7. In Maasailand, as elsewhere in Africa, not all pastoralists were equally affected by the changes in the
colonial period. Explain.
Ans.1. In Maasailand, as elsewhere in Africa, not all pastoralists were equally affected by the changes in the
colonial period. In pre-colonal times, Maasai society was divided into elders and warriors.
2. To administer the affairs of Maasai, the British appointed chiefs who were made responsible for the affairs of
the people. These chiefs often accumulated wealth with which they could buy animals, goods and land.
3. They lent money to poor neighbours who needed to pay taxes. Many of them began living in cities and
became involved in trade. Their wives and children stayed back in villages to look after animals. These chiefs
managed to survive the devastation of war and drought. They had both pastoral and non-pastoral income. But
the poor pastoralists who depended only on their livestock did not have resources to tide over bad times. In
times of war and famines, they lost nearly everything and had to look for work in towns.
Q.8. Describe the social organisation of the Maasai tribe in the pre-colonial times. What changes occurred in
Maasai community during colonial period?
Ans.1. The Maasai society was divided into two social categories elders and warriors. The elders formed the
ruling group and the warriors were responsible for the protection of the tribe.
2. They were assertive, aggressive and brave but were subject to the authority of the elders. They proved their
manliness by conducting raids and participating in wars. Raiding was important in a society where cattle was
wealth.
3.The Maasai lost about 60% of their pre-colonial lands. Pasture lands were turned into cultivated fields and
Maasai were confined to an arid zone with uncertain rainfall and poor pastures.4. They could not move over
vast areas in search of pastures. It affected both their pastoral and trading activities as they were not only
deprived of land but of all forms of trade.
Q.9. What were the views of the British officials about nomadic people? Mention two provisions of the
Criminal Tribes Act.
Ans.1. British officials were suspicious of nomadic people. They distrusted mobile craftsmen and traders who
hawked their goods in villages, pastoralists who changed their residence every season.
2. The colonial government wanted to rule over a settled population. Under the Criminal Tribes Act, the
nomadic people were considered criminals by nature and birth and many communities of craftsmen, traders
and pastoralists were classified as Criminal Tribes.
3.These communities were restricted to living in notified village settlements and were not allowed to move
without a permit.
Q.10. Describe the life of pastoralists inhabiting the mountains of India.
Ans. 1.The Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir, the Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh, the Gujjar cattle
herders of Garhwal and Kumaon, the Bhotiyas, the Sherpas and Kinnauris move annually between their summer
and winter grazing grounds governed by the cycle of seasonal movements.
2. They adjust their movements to seasonal changes and make effective use of available pastures in different
places. When pastures are exhausted or unstable in one place they move their herds to new areas


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LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
Q.1. Discuss the main characteristic features of pastoralism.
Ans. 1.Pastoralists are people who rear animals, birds and move from place to place in search of green pastures.
They are nomadic tribes who need to move from one place to another to save their animals from adverse
climatic conditions and to provide meadows or pastures regularly.
2. Some of the pastoral nomads move to combine a range of activities cultivation, trade and herding to make
their living. Continuous movement of nomadic tribes is useful for environment.
3. Pastoral nomadism is a form of life that is perfectly suited to many hilly and dry regions of the world. Pastoral
movement allows time for the natural restoration of vegetation growth. Pastoralists play a very important role
as moving traders.
4.In search of good pasture land for their cattle the pastoralists move over long distances selling plough cattle
and other goods to villagers in exchange for grain and fodder.
Q.2. Discuss the factors on which the life of pastoralists depend.
Ans. Pastoralists live in small villages, in plateaus, in deserts or near the skirt of the woods. They cultivate a small
piece of land, Keep herds of cattle, flocks of sheep and goats or herds of camels. They move between their
summer and winter pastures with their herds, selling plough cattle and their things to farmers and getting grain
and rice, selling milk and ghee, animal skin and wool. The pastoral life is sustained by the knowledge of:
How long to stay in one area How to find food and water for their herds
How to assess the timing of their movement Their ability to set up relationship with farmers.
Q.3. Elaborate on the seasonal movement of Dhangars of Maharashtra.
Ans.1. The Dhangars live in the central plateau of Maharashtra during the monsoon season. They use it as a
grazing ground for their flock and herds. They sow their dry crop of bajra here during the monsoon season. By
October, they reap the harvest and move to Konkana fertile Agricultural region.
2. The Konkan peasants welcome them to manure and fertilise their fields for the rabi' crop. The flocks manure
the fields and feed on the stubble. They stay here till the monsoon arrives and then move on to the dry plateau.
They carry with them the rice given by the Konkans.
Q.4. Describe the various facts of pastoralism in Africa.
Ans. 1.Communities like Bedouins, Berbers, Maasai, Somali, Boran and Tinkana live pastoral life. They raise
cattle, camels, goats, sheep and donkeys. They sell milk, meat, animal skin and wool.
2.Some also earn through trade and transport, others combine pastoral activity with agriculture. Still others do a
variety of jobs to supplement their meagre income.
3.Like pastoralists in India, the lives of African pastoralists have changed dramatically over the colonial and post-
colonial periods. Cultivation expanded, pasture lands diminish. The new laws restricted their movements.
Q.5.Give two examples to illustrate how the pastoral nomads adjust to seasonal changes and make effective
use of available pastures in different places.
Ans. (1) The Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh are a good example. They spend their winter in the low hills
of the Sivalik range. Their cattle graze in the scrub forests.
2. As summer approaches (i.e. sometime in April) they move north to Lahul and Spiti. They stay there with their
cattle. Some of them even move to higher altitudes as the snow melts. As the summer ends by September they
begin their return journey.
3.Their return journey is interrupted in the villages of Lahul and Spiti where they reap their summer harvest and
sow their winter crop. They then go down to the Sivalik hills where they stay for the winter. Next April their
journey to the north begins again.
1.The Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir also follow the same pattern. During winters they stay in the low
Sivalik hills with their herds. The dry scrub forests provide fodder for their cattle. As summer approaches (i.e. by
April) they gather for their journey to the valley of Kashmir.
2.They cross the Pir Panjal passes and reach the lush green mountain side. They stay here with their cattle till
winter approaches (i.e. by September).
Q.6 Why did the colonial government pass the law Criminal Tribes Act and imposition of Grazing Tax?
Ans.1. British officials were suspicious of nomadic people. They distrusted mobile craftsmen and traders who
hawked their goods in villages, and pastoralists who changed their places of residence every season, moving in
search of good pastures for their herds.


95
2.The colonial government wanted to rule over a settled population. They wanted the rural people to live in
villages, in fixed places with fixed rights on particular fields. Such a population was easy to identified and
control.
3. Those who were settled were seen as peaceable and law abiding; those who were nomadic were considered
to be criminal. Because of all the above reasons, in 1871 the colonial government in India had passed the Criminal Tribes
Act.
4.By this Act, many communities of craftsmen, traders and pastoralists were classified as criminal tribes. They
were stated to be criminal by nature and birth.
5. To expand its revenue income, the colonial government imposed the grazing tax. Pastoralists had to pay tax
on every animal they grazed on the pastures.
Q.7. Explain any four laws which were introduced by the colonial government in India which changed the lives of pastoralists.
Ans. (i) from the mid-nineteenth century, Wasteland Rules were enacted in various parts of the country. By
these rules uncultivated lands were taken over and given to selected individuals.
(ii) By the mid-nineteenth century, various Forest Acts were also enacted in different provinces. Through these
Acts some forests which produced valuable timber like deodar or sal were declared 'Reserved'. No pastoralist
was allowed access to these forests. Other forests were classified as 'protected'.
(iii) In 1871, the colonial government in India passed the 'Criminal Tribes Act'. By this Act, many communities of
craftsmen, traders and pastoralists were classified as Criminal Tribes. They were stated to be criminal by nature
and birth. Once this Act came into force, these communities were expected to live only in notified village settlements.
(iv) to expand its revenue income, the colonial government looked for every possible source of taxation. So tax
was imposed on land, on canal water, on salt, on trade goods, and even on animals (the Grazing Tax).
Q.8. Who are Gujjar Bakarwals and Gaddis? What are the similarities between them?
Ans.1Gujjar Bakarwals are a pastoral community of Jammu and Kashmir. They are great herders of goats and sheep.
2.The Gaddis are a prominent pastoral community of Himachal Pradesh. The cycle of seasonal movements is
similar in case of Gujjar Bakarwals and Gaddis. The Gaddis too spent their winter in the low hills of Sivalik range,
grazing their flocks in scrub forests.
3.By April they moved north and spent the summer in Lahul and Spiti. When the snow melted and high passes
were clear, many of them moved on to higher mountain meadows.
4 By September they began their return movement. On the way they stopped once again in the villages of Lahul
and Spiti, reaping their summer harvest and sowing their winter crop. 5.Then they descended with their flock to
their winter grazing ground on the Sivalik hills. Next April, once again, they began their march with their goats
and sheep to the summer meadows.
HOTS
Q.1. How was the Grazing Tax implemented by the British on the pastoralists during mid-nineteenth century? Explain.
Ans. 1.Pastoralists had to pay tax on every animal they grazed on the pastures. In most pastoral tracts of India,
grazing tax was introduced in the mid-nineteenth century.
2.The tax per head of cattle went up rapidly and the system of collection was made increasingly efficient.
3.During the 1850s to the 1880s, the right to collect the tax was auctioned out to contractors. There contractors
tried to extract as high a tax as they could to recover the money they had paid to the state and earn as much
profit as they could within the year.
4.By the 1880s the government began collecting taxes directly from the pastoralists. Each of them was given a
pass. To enter a grazing tract, a cattle herder had to show the pass and pay the tax. The number of cattle heads
he had and the amount of tax he paid was entered on the pass.
Q.2. Explain factors responsible for the annual movement of the Dhangars.
Ans.1. Dhangars were an important pastoral community of Maharashtra. Most of them were shepherds, some
were blanket weavers, and still others were buffalo herders.
2.They stayed in the central plateau of Maharashtra during the monsoon. This was a semi-arid region with low
rainfall and poor soil. It was covered with thorny scrub. Dhangars sowed bajra there.
3. In the monsoon this region became a nast grazing ground for the Dhangar flocks. By October the Dhangars
harvested their bajra and started on their move west. After a month, they reached the Konkan. This was a
flourishing agricultural tract with high rainfall and rich soil. Here the Dhangar shepherds were welcomed by
Konkani peasants.
4. After the kharif harvest was cut, the fields had to be fertilised and made ready for the rabi harvest. Dhangar
flocks manured the fields and fed on the stubble. The Konkani peasants also gave supply of rice which the


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shepherds took back to the plateau where grain was scarce. 5.With the onset of the monsoon the Dhangars left
the Konkan with their flocks and returned to their settlement on the dry plateau. The sheep could not tolerate
the wet monsoon conditions.
Q.3. Compare and contrast the life of wealthy pastoralists with that of poor pastoralists in Africa.
Ans.1. In Maasailand, as elsewhere in Africa, not all pastoralists were equally affected by the changes in the
colonial period. Wealthy pastoralists including chiefs were appointed by the British.
2.They often accumulated wealth. They had regular income to buy animals, goods and land. They lent money to
the poor neighbours to pay taxes. Some of them lived in towns and got involved in trade. Their families stayed
back in villages to look after the animals.
3These rich pastoralists managed to survive devastation of wars and drought. But the life of poor pastoralists
depended only on their livestock.
4. They did not have resources to tide over bad times. In times of war and famine they lost everything. They had
to go looking for work in town. Some eked a living as charcoal burners. Others did odd jobs.
5.The lucky ones got more regular work in road or building construction.
Q4. Comment on the closure of the forests to grazing from the standpoint of (a) a forester (b) a pastoralist.
Ans. 1.The views of a forester: Rules about the use of forest resources were needed as indiscriminate felling of
trees had to be stopped; grazing as well, this was the only way of preserving timber.
2.We need trees suitable for building ships or railways. We need teak and sal trees. It can be done only if
villagers/pastoralists are barred from entering these forests; to stop them from taking anything from the forests.
3.The views of a pastoralist: We need fuel, fodder and leaves. Fruits and tubers are nutritious, Herbs are needed
for medicines, wood for agricultural implements like yokes and ploughs, bamboo for fences and making baskets and umbrellas.
4. The Forest Act and closure of forests have deprived us of all these; we cannot also graze our cattle. We
cannot also hunt and cannot supplement our food. We have been displaced from our houses in forests.

Value based question
Q.1. Why does a Raika genealogist recount the history of his community?
Q.2. What were the views of the British officials about nomadic people? Mention two provisionsof the Criminal Tribes Act.
Q.3 How did the pastoralists cope with the changes in production during the colonial period?
Q.4. Compare and contrast the life of wealthy pastoralists with that of poor pastoralists in Africa.
MCQ ANSWERS
Q.1(C)2 (D)3 (D)4 (C)5 (B)6 (C)7 (D)8 (C)9 (D)10 (D)11(C)12(B)13(D)14(D)15(D)16(A)17(A)18 (B)19 (D)20(A)
21(D)22(C)23(B)24(A)25 (B)

CHAPTER 6 PEASANTS AND FARMERS
CONCEPTS:
OPEN FIELDS AND COMMON LAND:
Peasants cultivated open fields which were strips of land near their villages. These strips were of varying quality.
This was a measure to ensure that everyone had a mix of good and bad land.Beyond these strips lay common
land which was used by all to graze cattle, gather fruits and berries and firewood.This began to change from the
16th century. Wool became important. Farmers began to enclose fields to improve sheep breeds and ensure
good feed. With enclosed fields there was no concept of common land. This changed the entire landscape of
England.
Thrust in Grain Cultivation: From the mid-18th century onwards enclosures became different.
They were now for grain cultivation. English population was expanding and Britain was industrialising. People
moved to urban areas. Lesser people had to produce more grains. The market for food grain expanded. Food
grain prices rose. This encouraged landowners to enclose lands and enlarge the area under grain cultivation.
Enclosures: Food grain production increased as much as population. England was producing almost 80% of the
food grain the population consumed. Crop production received a boost through various crop rotation
techniques. Enclosures allowed landowners to expand the land under their control and produce more for the
market.
The Farmers The Poor: The poor no longer had access to the commons. They were displaced from their lands
and found their customary rights disappearing. Work became uncertain, insecure and income unstable.
Dependency on Machines The Thresher: During the Napoleonic wars the threshing machine was introduced
to lessen dependency on labour and increase production. After theNapoleonic wars ended soldiers returned


97
home but found no work. At the same time an agricultural depression set in. There was agricultural surplus and
labourers without work.
BREAD BASKET AND DUST BOWL:
America the Land of Promises: During the time of enclosed fields in England, in the USA, the white American
settlers were confined to a small narrow strip in the east. By early 20
th
century, these Americans moved
westward. America was seen as a land of promises. TheAmerican Indians were forced to give up their land and
move westward. The white Americans now moved westward, cleared land and cultivated wheat.
The Demand for Wheat: From the late 19th century onwards there was a population increase.Export market in
wheat was also becoming bigger. Demand for wheat increased. Wheat supply from Russia was cut off. During
the First World War the wheat market boomed.
The Introduction of Inventions: New technology was introduced which aimed at increasing production.
Tractors, disk ploughs, mechanical reapers, combine harvesters, etc., began to be used.
THE INDIAN FARMER AND OPIUM PRODUCTION:
Trade with China: Opium production in India is directly linked to the British trade with China.The western
merchants wanted to balance their trade with China and hence searched for a commodity that could sell in
China. The English bought tea from China and the Chinese bought opium from them.
The Opium Its Source India: The Indian peasants were forced to grow opium. The
British government bought this opium from them at nominal rates.
Unwilling Cultivators: The cultivators were unwilling to produce opium for various reasons:
opium required fertile land rates paid by the British were very low it required looking after
The British discovered that opium produced in British territories was declining whereas in territories not under
British rule the production was increasing. Traders were selling opium directly to China. This forced the British to
establish its monopoly over this trade.
The Poor: The machines spelt misery for the poor farmers. Many bought machines on loan which they could not
pay later. Jobs were difficult to find. Production expanded and soon there was surplus. Wheat prices fell and
export markets were adversely affected. The Great AmericanDepression ruined the farmers in the 1930s.
Dust Bowl: In the 1930s, great dust storms were experienced. These killed cattle and destroyed land. Farmers
had cleared land of grass which rendered large areas of land coverless and dry. The sod was broken into dust.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q.1. The continuous movement of the pastoral communities helps in
(a) Recovery of the pastures (b) prevention of their overuse
(c) Reduction in the demand of houses (d) both A and B
Q.2. which practice disappeared by 1800, drastically changing the lives of the labourers?
(a) Till 1800, the labourers lived with landowners, ate with their masters and helped themthroughout the year doing various jobs
(b) Now they were paid wages and employed only during harvest times
(c) To increase their profits the landlords cut the amount they had to spend on their workers
(d) All the above
Q.3. why did the white settlers want to push away the Indian Americans from their lands?
(a) The land possessed by the Indians could be turned into cultivated fields
(b) Forest timber could be exported, animals hunted for skins, mountains mined for gold and Minerals
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) It was a committed policy of the US Government
Q.4. Who was Captain Swing?
(a) A farmer (b) A labourer (c) A mythical name (d) A landlord
Q.5. Which of these reasons led to a radical transformation of the landscape by the early 20
th
century?
(a) White Americans had moved westward (b) Local tribes were displaced
(c) Entire landscape was carved into different agricultural belts in the USA (d) All the above
Q.6. what were the reasons of the dust storms?
(a) Early 1930s were years of persistent drought
(b) The wind blew with ferocious speed
(c) The entire landscape had been ploughed over, stripped of all the grass that held ittogether.
(d) All the above
Q.7. In the 19th century, the two major commercial crops India came to produce for the world Market were
(a) indigo (b) opium (c) maize (d) both (a) and (b)


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Q.8. Why were the Confucian rulers of China, the Manchus, suspicious of all foreign Merchants?
(a) The British were buying tea at very low rates
(b) They feared that the British would interfere in local politics and disrupt their authority
(c) China was self-sufficient and did not want to trade with any country
(d) All the above
Q.9. Name the US President who said Plant more wheat, wheat will win the war.
(a) President Roosevelt (b) President Clinton (c) President Bush (d) President Wilson
Q.10. How much land did the wheat barons possess at this time in the USA?
(a) 1000-2000 acres of land (b) 2000-3000 acres of land
(c) 3000-4000 acres of land (d) 4000-5000 acres of land
Q.11. In 1831, Cyrus McCormick invented the first mechanical reaper. What was its most
Important advantage?
(a) In could harvest 50 acres of wheat (b) 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks
(c) It could cut grass on large areas (d) It could prepare the ground for cultivation
Q.12. Which one of these is not the correct option for the cause of the Great Agrarian
Depression in the USA?
(a) Production had declined rapidly (b) Storehouses overflowed with grain
(c) Vast amount of corn and wheat were turned into animal feed (b) Wheat prices fell and export marketscollapsed
Q.13. What did the settlers of the Great Plains realise after the 1930s?
(a) Using older methods of cultivation were better than modern machines
(b) Competition with other countries was not healthy
(c) They had to respect the ecological conditions of each region
(d) None of the above
Q.14. What was Chinese Emperors order about the use of opium in China?
(a) The British were allowed to sell opium in China
(b) The Chinese Emperor told his people to cultivate more and more opium
(c) The Emperor had forbidden its production and sale except for medicinal purposes
(d) None of the above
Q.15. In 1839, who was sent by the Emperor to Canton as a Special Commissioner to stop the opium trade?
(a) I-tsing (b) Lin Ze-xu (c) Lao-Tsu (d) None of the above
Q.16. What was the result of the Opium War (1837-42)?
(a) China was forced to accept the humiliating terms of the subsequent treaties signed
(b) It had to legalise the opium trade
(c) It had to open up China to foreign merchants
(d) All the above
Q.17. What did the enclosure imply?
(a) It meant green fields (b) Piece of land enclosed from all sides
(c) It meant open fields (d) Vast area of marshy land
Q.18. The Great Agrarian Depression of the 1930s was caused by
(a) overproduction of wheat (b) fall of wheat production
(c) rise in the price of wheat (d) overproduction of rice
Q.19. Opium was exported from India to:
(a) China (b) Rome (c) U.K. (d) Portugal
Q.20. The Manchus were
(a) Chinese rulers (b) Roman rulers (c) Indian rulers (d) Portuguese rulers
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1. Why were the poor farmers of England against the threshing machines? What was theCaptain Swing Movement
Ans. The poor farmers felt the threshing machines would replace people, would deprive them of their livelihood
and render them jobless. Captain Swing was a mythical name used in threatening letters, written by workmen
against the use of threshing machines by rich farmers
Q2. Define the following:
(a) Agriculture (b) Enclosure (c) Commons
Ans. Agriculture: It is the science or practice of farming, i.e. cultivating land for growing crops; keeping animals.


99
Enclosure: Enclosing land by building hedges around their holdings to separate their land-holdings from that of
others is called Enclosure. This deprived poor farmers of using the commons.
Commons: It was land which belonged to the villagers as a whole. Here they pastured their cows and grazed
their sheep, collected fuel wood, fruit and berries. They fished in the rivers and ponds and hunted rabbits in the common
forests.
Q.3. Over the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries the English countryside changeddramatically. Explain.
Ans.1. Over the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries the English countryside changed dramatically.
2. Before this time, in large parts of England the countryside was open. It was not partitioned into enclosed
lands privately owned by landlords. It was all open fields and common lands.
3. After the mid-eighteenth century the Enclosure Movement swept through the countryside, changing the
English landscape forever. Between 1750 and 1850, 6 million acres of land was enclosed.
Q.4. Why were the Manchus unwilling to allow the entry of foreign goods into China?
Ans. The Confucian rulers of China were suspicious of all foreign merchants. They felt that these foreigners
would meddle in local politics and disrupt their authority.
Q.5. Explain three factors which led to the Enclosure Movement in England after theMid-eighteenth century
Ans. The factors which led to the Enclosure Movement in England were:
(1) Rapid expansion of population from 7 million in 1750 to 21 million in 1850 and 30 million in 1900.
(2) Increased demand for food grains to feed the growing population.
(3)War with France disrupted trade and import of food grains from Europe. Prices in England skyrocketed, encouraging
landowners to enclose lands and enlarge the area under grain cultivation. Profits flowed in and landowners pressurised the
parliament to pass the Enclosure Acts.
Q.6. Discuss why the British Parliament passed the Enclosure Acts
Ans.1. Till the middle of the eighteenth century the Enclosure Movement proceeded very slowly. The early
enclosures were usually created by individual landlords.
2.They were not supported by the state or the Church. After the mid-eighteenth century, however, the Enclosure
Movement swept through the countryside, changing the English landscape forever. Between 1750 and 1850,3.6 million
acres of land was enclosed. The British Parliament no longer watched this progress from a distance. It passed 4,000 Acts legalising these
Enclosures.
Q.7. what was the effect of Enclosure Movement on landlords of England?
Ans. The Enclosure Movement was instrumental in making the rich landlords richer by filling. Due to it, the
landlords brought various changes in agricultural methods and technology. The richer farmers expanded grain
production, sold this grain in the world market, made profits and became powerful. The poor farmers sold their
small land pieces to richer farmers. They left the villages.
Q.8. Enclosure filled the pockets of landlords. What happened to the poor persons who depended on the commons for their survival?
Ans. Enclosures filled the pockets of the rich landlords. When fences came up the enclosed land become the
property of one landowner. The poor could no longer collect apples and berries or hunt small animals for meat,
nor could they gather the stalkes that lay on the fields after the crop was cut. Everything belonged to the land-
lord, everything had a price which the poor could not afford to pay. The poor were displaced from the land.
They tramped in search of work.From Midlands they moved to the southern countries of England.
Q.9. Explain three reasons for Captain Swing riots in English countryside.
Ans.1. Modern agriculture in England: Use of threshing machines deprived workmen of their livelihood.
2. Enclosures: These deprived the poor of the use of the commons which was essential for their survival. The
Enclosures barred them from pasteurising their cows
3. Collecting fruits and berries, fuel wood, hunting small animals for food etc., cutting of wages bylandlords
and cutting down of workmen.
All these factors prompted/induced the poor to start the Captain Swing riots.
Q.10. Discuss the effect of Agricultural Revolution on different sections of people in EnglishCountryside
Ans. 1.The coming of modern agriculture in England led to many different changes. The open fields disappeared,
and the customary rights of peasants were undermined.
2. The richer farmers expanded grain production, sold this grain in the world market, made profits, and became powerful.
3. The poor left their villages in large numbers. Some went from Midlands to the southern countries where jobs
were available, others to the cities. The income of labourers became unstable, their jobs insecure, their
livelihoods precarious.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
Q.1. Discuss the factors that precipitated the Agricultural Depression. What were the consequences of this Depression?


100
An1. after the Napoleonic wars had ended, thousands of soldiers returned to the villages. They needed
alternative jobs to survive.
2.But this was a time when grain from Europe began flowing into England, prices declined and an Agricultural Depression
set in. Anxious landowners began reducing the area they cultivated and demanded that the exports of crops be stopped
3.They tried to cut wages and the number of workmen they employed. The unemployed poor tramped from
village to village, and those with uncertain jobs lived in fear of a loss of their livelihood.
4.The Captain Swing riots spread in the countryside at this time. For the poor, the threshing machines had become sign of bad times.
Q.2. Why did the farmers feel the need to introduce mechanisation in agriculture during the Napoleonic
wars?
Ans. During the Napoleonic wars, prices of food grains were high and farmers expanded production vigorously.
Fearing a shortage of labour, they began buying the new threshing machines that had come into the market.
They complained of the insolvency of labourers, their drinking habits and the difficulty of making them work.
The machines, they thought, would help them reduce their dependence on labourers.
Q.3. Discuss the westward expansion of the white settlers in America.
Ans. The story of agrarian expansion is closely connected to the westward movement of the white settlers who
took over the land. After the American War of Independence from 1775 to 1783 and the formation of the
United States of America, the white Americans began to move westward. By the time Thomas Jefferson became
the President of the USA in 1800, over
700,000 white settlers had moved into Appalachian plateau through the passes.
Q.4. What were the problems associated with wheat expansion in USA? Discuss with special reference to
mechanisation and dust bowl.
Ans.1. In the late 19th century, there was a great expansion of wheat cultivation in the USA. With an increase in
population. The expansion was made possible by new technology.
2. Implements and tools were modified to suit their needs. Now farmers were using tractors and disk ploughs to
clear land for cultivation.
3. Mechanical reapers were used to reap and cut harvest. By the early 20th century, combined harvesters were
being used to cut grain.
4. Now with power-driven machinery large tracts of land could be ploughed, seeded, harvested within a short
time. But there were problems. Poor farmers were hard to pay the taxes. They could not buy these machines.
The bank offered loans but most and they could not repay these loans. Many of them left their farms in search
of a job. In addition, terrifying dust storms began to blow, blinding the people, choking the cattle, covering
fields, rivers, and machines with dust. This was because the entire area had been ploughed and stripped of grass
whose roots could have bounded the soil.
Q.5.Which system was introduced by the British to make the unwilling cultivators produce opium? How did
this system work? Discuss with special reference to it being a drawback for the peasants.
Ans.
1. Ever had enough to survive. It was difficult for them to pay rent to the landlord or to buy food and clothing
2. The government's opium agents advanced money to them through the headmen of their village.
3. They felt tempted to accept it, hoping to meet their immediate needs and pay back the loan at a later date,
but the loan paid by the peasants to the headmen and through him to the government.
4. By taking the loan the cultivator was forced to grow opium on a specified area of land and hand over the
produce to the agents once the crop had been harvested.
HOTS:
Q.1. The history of opium production in India was linked up with the story of British trade with China. Elaborate.
Ans. 1.The history of opium production in India was linked up with the story of British trade with China. The
English East India Company was buying tea and silk from China for sale i England. As tea became a popular
English drink, tea trade became more and more important. This created a problem.
2. England at this time was producing nothing that could easily be sold in China. How to finance the tea trade?
They searched for such a commodity. The Portuguese had introduced opium into China.
3. Western merchants began an illegal trade in opium. While the English cultivated a taste forChinese tea, the
Chinese became addicted to opium.
Q.2. Discuss the reasons for the Opium Wars (1837-42).
Ans.1. In 1839, the Chinese Emperor sent Lin-Ze-xu to Canton as a Special Commissioner with instructions to stop the opium
trade.


101
2. After he arrived in Canton in the spring of 1839, Lin arrested 1,600 men involved in the trade and confiscated
11,000 pounds of opium
3. He forced the factories to hand over their stocks of opium, burnt 20,000 crates of opium and blew the ashes to the wind.
4. When he announced that Canton was closed to foreign trade Britain declared war. Defeated in the Opium War (1837
42)
5. The Chinese were forced to accept the humiliating terms of the subsequent treaties, legalising opium trade
and opening up China to foreign merchants.
Q.3. The conflict between the British government, peasants and local traders continued as long as opium
production lasted. Elaborate.
Ans.1. By 1773, the British Government in Bengal had established a monopoly to trade in opium. No one else
was legally permitted to trade in the product.
2. By the 1820s, the British taxed opium production in their territories to make it declining, but it was increasing
outside British territories, especially in central India and Rajasthan within princely states, which are not under
direct British control.
3. The British tried to stop it. It instructed its agents in princely states to confiscate all opium and destroy the
crops. This conflict between the British Government, peasants and local traders continued as long as opium
production lasted.
VALUE BASED QUESTIONS:
Q.1. Discuss the westward expansion of the white settlers in America.
Q.2. Why were the farmers of Bengal unwilling to grow opium in their farms?
Q.3. Why the poor of England were opposed to the threshing machines
KEY TO MCQ:
Q.1.(d)2.(d)3.(c)4.(c)5.(d)6.(d)7.(d)8.(b)9.(d)10.(b)11.(b)12.(a)13.(c)14.(c)15.(d)16.(d)17.(b)18.(a)19(a)20(a)


CHAPTER 7: HISTORY AND SPORT: THE STORY OF CRICKET
CONCEPTS:
Cricket grew out of the many stick and ball games played in England. By the 17th century it evolved enough to
be recognisable as a distinct game. It became so popular that its fans did not mind to be fined for playing it on
Sunday instead of going to church.
HISTORICAL DEVELOPMENT OF CRICKET AS A GAME IN INDIA
Cricket was given its unique nature by the history of England.
Peculiarities of cricket
A match can go on for five days and still end in a draw.
Length of the pitch is specified 22 yards but the size or shape of the ground is not.
Reasons:
Cricket rules were made before the Industrial Revolution when life moved at a slow pace.
Cricket was played on the commons. Each common had a different shape and size. There were no designed
boundaries or boundary hits.
The First Written Laws of Cricket (1744)
Principals shall choose from among the gentlemen present two umpires who shall absolutely decide all disputes.
Stumps must be 22 inches high and bail across them six inches.
Ball must be between 5 to 6 ounces.
Two sets of stumps 22 yards apart.
The worlds first cricket club was formed in Hambledon in 1760s.The Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) was
founded in 1787. In 1788 the MCC published its first revision of the laws and became the guardian of crickets
regulations.A series of changes in the game occurred in the 2nd half of the 18th century.
It became common to pitch the ball through the air.
Curved bats were replaced by straight ones. Weight of ball was limited to between 5 to 5
ounces.
Width of the bat was limited to four inches. A third stump became common.
Three days had become the length of a major match. First six seam cricket ball was introduced.


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Cricket as a game changed and matured during the early phase of the Industrial Revolution but remained true to
its origins in rural England.Unlike other games, cricket has refused to remake its tools with industrial or man-
made materials.Protective equipment, however, has been influenced by technological change.
The Game and English Society
The organisation of cricket in England reflected the nature of English society. The players of this game were
divided into two categories.
Amateurs: These were the rich who played for pleasure. They were gentlemen.
Players: These were the professionals who played for money.
Rules of cricket were made to favour the gentlemen. These gentlemen did most of the batting.Their superiority over
players made only the batsmen captains of teams.It was said that the battle of Waterloo was won on the playing fields of
Eton.
THE SPREAD OF CRICKET
Cricket remained a colonial game. It was its colonial oddness that made it difficult to be accepted by other people. It was
played in colonies by the white settlers or the local elites who wanted to copy their white masters.This game became very
popular in the Caribbean. Success in cricket became a measure of racial equality and political progress.Through the early
history of Indian cricket, teams were not organised on geographical principles and it was not till 1932 that a
national team was given the right to represent India in a test match.
Cricket, Race and Religion
The first Indian club, the Calcutta Cricket Club, was established in 1792.The first Indian community was to play
cricket were the Parsis. They founded the first IndianCricket Club, the Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay in 1848.
This became a precedent for otherIndians who in turn established clubs based on the idea of religious
community. By the 1890s there was talk of a Hindu Gymkhana and Islam Gymkhana. The colonial government
encouraged communal clubs and institutions. Cricket began to be organised on communal and racial lines.This
was Quadrangular tournament because it was played by 4 teams Europeans, Parsis, Hindus and Muslims.
Later it become Pentangular when a fifth team was added namely the Rest.By 1930s and 1940s many people
including Indias most respected political figure, Mahatma Gandhi, condemned the Pentangular for dividing
India on communal lines.
THE MODERN TRANSFORMATION OF CRICKET
Modern cricket is dominated by Test and One-day internationals, played between national teams.
Decolonisation and Sport: Decolonisation was a process which led to the decline of English influence in many
areas including sports.The colonial favour of world cricket during the 1950s and 1960s can be seen from the fact
thatEngland and the other white Commonwealth countries, Australia and New Zealand continued to play
matches with South Africa. It was only with political pressure from countries of Asia andAfrica (recently
decolonised) combine with liberal feeling in Britain that forced the English cricket authorities to cancel a tour by
South Africa in 1970.
COMMERCE, MEDIA AND CRICKET TODAY
The 1970s were the decade in which cricket was transformed.1971 saw the first one-day international being
played between England and Australia inMelbourne.In 1977 the game was changed forever by an Australian
television tycoon, Kerry Packer. He saw cricket as a money-making televised sport. He signed up 51 of the
worlds leading cricketers and for almost two years staged unofficial tests and One-day Internationals under the
name of World Series Cricket. Packer drove home the point that cricket was a marketable game which could
generate huge revenue. Continuous television coverage made cricketers celebrities. Television coverage also
expanded the audience and children became cricket fans. Multinational companies created a global market for
cricket. This has shifted the balance of power in cricket. India has the largest viewership for the game and hence
the games centre of gravity shifted to South Asia.This shift was symbolised by the shifting of the ICC
headquarters from London to tax-free Dubai.The innovations in cricket have come from the practice of sub-
continental teams in countries like
India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka doosra and the reverse swing are Pakistani innovations.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q1There were revision of laws by MCC between 1770s and 1780s. They were:
(a) The weight of the ball and the width of the bat were specified
(b) The first leg-before law was published in 1774
(c) The third stump became common, and the first six seam cricket ball was created
(d) All the above
Q.2. The West Indies win in Test Series against England in 1950, had two ironical features.They were:


103
(a) The victory was considered a national achievement, a way of demonstrating that WestIndians were equals of white Englishmen
(b) The captain of the winning West Indies team was a white Englishman
(c) West Indies cricket team represented not one nation but several dominions which becameindependent countries later
(d) both (b) and (c)
Q3.. There was a quarrel between the Bombay Gymkhana (a Whites only club) and the ParsiClub, because :
(a) The Parsis complained that the public park was left unfit for cricket because the polopolies of the Gymkhana Club dug up the surface
(b) The colonial authorities were prejudiced in favour of their own White compatriots
(c) The White cricket elite in India offered no help to the enthusiastic Parsis
(d) All the above
Q4. When were the first written Laws of Cricket drawn up? (CBSE 2010)
(A) 1703 (b) 1744 (c) 1750 (d) 1760
Q.5. When was the Marylebone Cricket Club founded?
(a) 1760 (b) 1787 (c) 1788 (d) 1895
Q.6 Which of these features for cricket were laid down in the 1770s and 1780s?
(a) First leg-before law was published (b) A third stump became common
(c) Creation of first six-seam cricket ball (d) All the above
Q.7. The reason that cricket has originated from the villages is/are
(a) Cricket matches had no time limit (b) Vagueness of the size of the cricket ground
(c) Crickets most important tools are all made of pre-industrial materials (d) All the above
Q.8. What were the rich who played cricket for pleasure called?
(a) Amateurs (b) Professionals (c) Commons (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.9. The poor who played cricket for a living were called
(a) needy (b) entertainers (c) professionals (d) commons
Q.10. Who wrote a novel titled Tom Browns School Days which became popular in 1857?
(a) Thomas Arnold (b) Kim Hughes (c) Thomas Hughes (d) John Middleton
Q.11. In which of these countries was cricket established as a popular sport?
(a) South Africa, Zimbabwe (b) Australia, New Zealand
(c) West Indies, Kenya (d) All the above
Q.12. When and where was the first non-White club established?
(a) End of 18th century, India (b) End of 19th century, West Indies
(c) Mid-19th century, South Africa (d) Beginning of 19th century, Zimbabwe
Q.13. What was the term tournament called initially?
(a) Triangular (b) Quadrangular (c) Angular (d) Pentangular
Q.14. Who was Kerry Packer?
(a) British tycoon (b) Australian television tycoon (a) Sri Lankan rebel (b) None of these
Q.15. How did the cricket boards become rich?
(a) By organising large number of matches (b) Through patronage from rich industrialists
(c) By selling television rights to television companies (d) None of the above
Q.16. The ICC headquarters shifted from London to
(a) Sydney (b) India (c) Dubai (d) Singapore
Q.17. When was the first World Cup successfully staged? (CBSE 2010)
(a) 1972 (b) 1973 (c) 1974 (d) 1975
Q.18. Polo was a game invented by the _____
(a) French (b) Dutch (c) Colonial officials in India (d) Germans
Q.19. The first hockey club in India was started in
(a) Bombay (b) Madras (c) Bangalore (d) Calcutta
Q.20. How many times has India won the Olympic gold medals in hockey?
(a) Five (b) Six (c) Eight (d) Nine
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1. How did the National Movement affect cricket in India?
Ans.
1. A scheduled tour of MCC in 1930 was cancelled due to Gandhis Dandi March and the Civil Disobedience.
2. The first Indian team toured England in 1932. Due to World War II in 1939, various tournaments were
affected. By now Congress and Muslim League had taken opposite stands. Communal feelings had crept into sports.


104
3. In 1940, a Pentangular was played in Brabourne stadium, Bombay. Seats were allotted on communal basis,
2000 to Hindus, 1250 each to Muslim and Parsis.
Q.2. The MCCs revision of the laws brought in a series of changes in the game that occurred in the second
half of the eighteenth century. Discuss the revision of the laws.
Ans.
1. The MCCs revisions of the laws have brought in a series of changes in the game that occurred in the second
half of the eighteenth century.
2 During the 1760s and 1770s it became common to pitch the ball through the air, rather than roll it along the ground.
3. This change gave the bowlers the options of length, deception through the air, plus increased pace. It also
opened new possibilities for spin and swing. In response, the batsmen had to master timing and shot
selection.
Q.3. Why did cricket remain a colonial game till the 1930s?
Ans.
1. Cricket remained a colonial game. The reason was that it had a pre-industrial oddness which made it very
difficult to export.
2. It was played only in countries that the British conquered and ruled. Though the game was brought into the
colonies by the masters, they did nothing to make it popular.
3. The Afro-Caribbean population was discouraged from participating in organised club cricket.
Q.4. How did television coverage change cricket?
Ans.
1. Television coverage made the players celebrities. It expanded the audience for the game by bringing cricket
into small towns and villages.
2. Children became great fans. People could now watch and learn how to play cricket by imitating their heroes.
Q.5. Which changes were introduced in the game of cricket during the 19th century?
Ans. Many important changes occurred during the nineteenth century:
(i) The rule about wide balls was applied.
(ii) The exact circumference of the ball was specified.
(iii) Protective equipment like pads and gloves became available.
(iv) Boundaries were introduced where previously all shots had to be run.
(v) Overarm bowling became legal.
Q.6. Why did Mahatma Gandhi condemn the pentangular tournament?
Ans. The pentangular tournament was based on religious communities. The five teams were: the Europeans, the
Parsis, the Hindus, the Muslims and the Rest. India's most popular and respected politician, Mahatma Gandhi,
condemned the pentangular tournament as a communally divisive competition. This was out of place in a time
when nationalists were trying to unite India's diverse population. This tournament would have negative effect
on the national movement.
Q.7. How the centre of gravity in cricket has shifted from the old Anglo-Australian axis?
Explain.
Ans.
1. The technology of satellite television and the worldwide reach of multi-national television companies
created a global market for cricket.
2. This simple fact was brought to its logical conclusion by globalisation. Since India had the largest viewership
for the game among the cricket-playing nations and the largest market in the cricketing world, the game's
centre of gravity shifted to South Asia.
3. This shift was symbolised by the shifting of the ICC headquarters from London to tax-free Dubai.
Q.16. Describe three main differences between amateurs and professionals
Ans.
(i) The rich who could afford to play cricket for pleasure were called Amateurs and the poor who played it for a
living were called Professionals.
(ii) The wages of Professionals were paid by patronage or subscription or gate money. The
Amateurs were not paid at all.
(iii) Amateurs were called Gentlemen while Professionals were described as players.
(iv) Amateurs tended to be batsmen whereas Professionals tended to be bowlers.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIOMARKS


105
Q.1. What role did religion and politics play in the development of cricket in India?
Ans.
1. The origin of Indian cricket is to be found in Bombay and the first community to start playing it were the
Zoroastrians, the Parsis. Other religious communities soon followed.
2. By the 1890s, Hindus and Muslims were busy raising funds for a Hindu and a Muslim gymkhana. The British
did not consider colonial India as a nation. They saw it as a collection of castes, races and religions.
3. The history of gymkhana cricket led to first-class cricket being organised on communal and racial lines.
4. These teams did not represent regions (as teams in todays Ranji Trophy do) but religious communities.
5. The tournament was initially called the Quadrangular because it was played by four teams: the
Europeans, the Parsis, the Hindus and the Muslims. Later it became Pentangular when a fifth team The
Rest was added. It comprised all the communities leftover such as the Indian Christians.
Q.2. What part does nationalism play in the present-day cricket?
Ans.
1. The teams that play cricket at national and International level today do not represent religions and races but
regions and nationalities like in todays Ranji Trophy the Pentangular in colonial
India was replaced by a rival tournament, the National Cricket Championship later named the
2. Ranji Trophy. Cricket fans know that watching a match involves taking sides. In a Ranji Trophy match when
Delhi plays Mumbai, the loyalty of spectators watching the match depends on which city they came from or
support.
3. Earlier teams were not organised on geographical principles. It was not till 1932 that a national team was
given the right to represent India in Test match.
Q.3. Give your own reasons for the popularity of cricket in the world and specially India.
Ans.
1. Television coverage changed cricket. It expanded the audience for the game by beaming cricket into small
towns and villages. It also broadened the crickets social base
2. The technology of satellite television and the worldwide reach of multinational television companies created
a global market for cricket.
3. India has the largest viewership among the cricket-playing nations and the largest market in the cricketing
world. The games centre of gravity has shifted to South Asia, symbolised by shifting of ICC headquarters
from London to tax-free Dubai.
4. Innovations in cricket technique in recent years have mainly come from sub continental teams in countries
like India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. Pakistan pioneered two great advances in bowling: the doosra, and the reverse
swing.
Q.4. Its often said that the Battle of Waterloo was on won the playing fields of Eton.Explain
Ans.
1. This saying is based on the argument that the values taught to schoolboys in its public schools resulted in
Britains military success. Eton was the most famous of these schools.
2. These schools trained English boys for careers in the Military, the Civil Service and the Church the three
great institutions of Imperial England.
3. In actual fact the Napoleonic wars were won because of the economic contribution of the iron works of
Scotland and Wales, the mills of Lancashire and the financial houses of the city of London.
Q.5. Despite the exclusiveness of the White cricket elite in the West Indies, the game became hugely popular
in the Caribbean. Explain how and why?
Ans.
1. Despite the exclusiveness of the White cricket elite in the West Indies, the game became hugely popular in
the Caribbean. Success at cricket became a measure of racial equality and political progress.
2. At the time of their independence, many of the political leaders of Caribbean countries like Forbes Burnham
and Eric William saw in the game a chance for self-respect and international standing.
3. When the West Indies won its first Test series against England in 1950, it was celebrated as a national
achievement, as a way of demonstrating that West Indians were the equals of white Englishmen.
HOTS:
Q.1. How is cricket played in our subcontinent, West Indies and Africa, different from the wayit is played in England?
Ans.


106
1. The cricket played in our subcontinent (India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh), West Indies and South
Africa is hugely different from the way it is played in England.
2. All these countries were colonies of England and cricket was spread by our colonial masters. The game is
very popular and is played with a lot of passion and enthusiasm not seen anywhere in the world.
3. Cricket in these countries is synonymous with nationalism and patriotism. As these countries were under
colonialism, there is a passion to show national supremacy via the game of cricket.
4. The aggressiveness shown in these countries is not to be seen in English game which exhibits professionalism and indifference.
Q.2. Describe how crickets connection with a rural past can be seen in the length of a Test match and
vagueness about the size of a cricket ground.
Ans.
1. Crickets- connection with a rural past can be seen in the length of a Test match. Originally, cricket matches
had no time limit.
2. The game went on for as long as it took to bowl out a side twice. The rhythm of village life was slower and
crickets rules were made before the Industrial Revolution.
3. In the same way, vagueness about the size of a cricket ground is a result of its village origin.Cricket was
originally played on country commons, unfenced land that was public property.
4. The size of the commons varied from one village to another, so there were no designated boundaries or
boundary hits. When the ball went into the crowd, the crowd cleared a way for the fieldsman to retrieve it.
Q.3. Its often said that the Battle of Waterloo was on won the playing fields of Eton.Explain
Ans.
1. This saying is based on the argument that the values taught to schoolboys in its public schools resulted in
Britains military success.
2. Eton was the most famous of these schools. These schools trained English boys for careers in the Military,
the Civil Service and the Church the three great institutions of Imperial England.
3. In actual fact the Napoleonic wars were won because of the economic contribution of the iron works of
Scotland and Wales, the mills of Lancashire and the financial houses of the city of London.
4. It was the English lead in trade and industry that made Britain the worlds greatest power.
VALUE BASED QUESTION:
Q.3. How did the National Movement affect cricket in India?
Q.5. Throw light on the curious peculiarities or characteristics of cricket.
Q.2. What part does nationalism play in the present-day cricket?
KEY TO MCQ:
Q1.(d)2.(d)3.(d)4.(b)5.(b)6.(d)7.(d)8.(a)9.(c)10.(c)11.(d)12.(b)13.(b)14.(b)15.(c)16.(c)17.(d)18.(c)19.(d)20.(c)
CHAPTER 8: CLOTHING : A SOCIAL HISTORY CONCEPTS
CONCEPTS:
Before the democratic revolutions, most people dressed according to codes that were specified by their religion.
Clothing styles were regulated by class, gender or status in the social hierarchy.
Sumptuary Laws: Before the French Revolution people in France followed these laws. These laws restricted
social behaviour of the lower strata of the society and imposed restrictions upon their clothing, food and
entertainment. The French Revolution brought an end to these restrictions. Political symbols became part of
dress. Clothing became simple which signified equality. Now the way a person dressed depended on the
differences in earning rather than sumptuary laws.
Styles of Clothing: Men and women dressed differently. Men were supposed to be strong,Independent,
aggressive while women were supposed to be weak, dependent and docile. Their clothes were designed
accordingly. The women wore dresses which accentuated a slim waist. They had to wear a corset to show a
small waist. Though it hurt, this pain and suffering was accepted as normal for a woman.
Change in Ideas: 19th century brought about many changes. Women pressed for dress reform. The suffrage
movement also developed during this time. There was agitation against womens clothes in Europe as well in
America. Doctors explained the ill effects of tight clothes which affected the spine and long flowing gowns which
were unhygienic. It was argued by these movements that if women wore loose and comfortable clothes, they
could start working and become independent.
New Materials: Before the 17th century clothes for British women were made of flax, wool,linen which were
expensive and difficult to maintain. During the 17th century, with the onset of the Industrial Revolution cloth
and clothes saw a change. The attractive, cheap chintzes from India increased the volume of European


107
womens wardrobes. Artificial fibres used in cloth made dresses even easier to maintain. Now with great
demand for comfortable dresses, styles changed considerably.
The World Wars: The two world wars also brought about great changes in womens clothing. Styles reflected
seriousness and professionalism. Skirts became shorter and plainer. Women who worked in factories wore
uniforms. Trousers became an accepted and vital part of womens dress.
Sports and Games: The school curriculum also emphasised and included games and gymnastics as part of
curriculum. This also changed the way women dressed.
Colonial India: During this time India saw a great change in dress.
Many men began to incorporate western style clothing in their dress.
Many felt that western influence would lead to loss of traditional cultural identity.
Many wore western clothes without giving up Indian ones.
Caste and Dress: Though India had no formal sumptuary laws it had its own strict food, dress and behaviour
codes. It was the caste system that defined how or what the Hindus should wear, eat and behave. If anyone
deviated from the norms, they were severely punished. Even the government issued orders in some cases
ordering low caste Hindus to observe a strict code of conduct.
British Reactions to Indian Way of Dressing: As certain items of clothing signify specific things which could be
contrary, this often leads to misunderstanding and conflict. An example was a turban and a hat. The two
headgears signified different things. This difference created misunderstandings as the hat had to be removed
before superiors while the turban had to be worn consciously. The same was the case with shoes.
The Indian Dress: Indians wanted to create a dress which could express the unity of the nation. But this did not fully
succeed.
The Swadeshi and Khadi : British political control of India had two important effects peasants grew cash crops and the
British goods flooded the Indian markets, especially cotton. A lot of weavers and spinners were left without any work.
Murshidabad, Machilipatnam and Surat which were important textile centres declined as demand decreased.
Partition of Bengal, Swadeshi and Khadi : In 1905, Lord Curzon decided to partition Bengal on the pretext of
better management. The Swadeshi movement was a reaction to the partition.People boycotted British goods
and started patronising things made in India. Many Indian goods were patronised especially khadi. Cloth became
a symbolic weapon against British rule.
Khadi : Gandhi made khadi a forceful weapon against the British. Mahatma Gandhi even experimented with
various forms of clothing starting from the western form of dress to wearing it with a turban. He decided, by the
beginning of the 20th century, to wear a lungi and kurta (in Durban). A few years later he adorned himself as a
Kathiawadi peasant. The dhoti was adopted by him in 1921. But not all could wear khadi.Thus we can say that
changes in clothing reflect the changes within the social, political andeconomic spheres of a society.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q.1. The existing dress codes in Europe were swept away by
(a) American Revolution (b) French Revolution (c) Russian Revolution (d) The First World War
Q.2. Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of Sumptuary Laws?
(a) Laws on taxes framed by the government (b) Laws giving privileges to higher sections of society
(c) Laws meant to emphasise the social hierarchy (d) All the above
Q.3. The simplicity of clothing of Sans-Culottes was meant to express
(a) the poverty among the common people (b) the prosperity of textile industries
(c) the idea of equality (d) none of the above
Q.4. England passed a law which compelled all persons over 6 years of age, except those of high position, to
wear woollen caps made in England on Sundays and all holy days. What does this mean?
(a) All sumptuary laws were meant to emphasise social hierarchy
(b) Some sumptuary laws were passed to protect home production against imports
(c) Some sumptuary laws were made to promote the religion
(d) None of the above
Q.5. When did women in England start agitating for democratic rights?
(a) 1820s (b) 1830s (c) 1840s (d) 1850s
Q.6. On what grounds were the traditional feminine clothes criticised in the USA?
(a) Long skirts swept the grounds collecting filth and causing illness
(b) The skirts were voluminous and difficult to handle
(c) They hampered movement and prevented women from working and earning


108
(d) All the above
Q.7. Who was the first American dress reformer to launch loose tunics?
(a) Mrs Amelia Bloomer (b) Martha Somerville (c) Queen Victoria (d) None of the above
Q.8. Radical changes in womens clothing came about due to the
(a) Russian Revolution (b) World War I (c) World War II (d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.9. Which of the following events had an impact on the dressing style of women?
(a) Women working in industries during the First and Second World Wars.
(b) Gymnastics and games entered school curriculum for women.
(c) The Battle of Waterloo (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.10. Which of the following were among other important changes that came about for
Women?
(a) Trousers became a vital part of western womens clothing
(b) Women took to cutting their hair short for convenience
(c) As women took to gymnastics and games, they had to wear clothes that did not hamperMovement
(d) All the above
Q.11. To some Indians western clothes were a sign of
(a) Progress (b) modernity (c) Freedom from poverty (d) both (a) and (b)
Q.12. Why were Shanar women attacked by Nairs in May 1922?
(a) For wearing a tailored blouse (b) For wearing a cloth across their upper bodies
(c) For wearing gold ornaments (d) For using umbrellas
Q.13. Wearing of which two things created misunderstanding and conflict between the British and the
Indians?
(a) the wearing of turban and shoes (b) the umbrella and gold ornaments
(c) the wearing of saris and dhotis (d) The wearing of gowns and long skirts
Q.14. Who was Manockfee Cowasjee Entee?
(a) A taxpayer (b) A revenue collector (c) An assessor (d) A technocrat
Q.15. What was the idea of national dress as suggested by Rabindranath Tagore?
(a) Combination of Hindu and Muslim dress (b) Combination of Indian and European dress
(c) Only Hindu dress (d) Combination Hindu and Parsi dress
Q.16. Jnanadanandini Devis style of wearing sari was adopted by Brahmo Samaji women and came to be
called
(a) Brahmika sari (b) Brahmo sari (c) Samaji sari (d) Bhoomika sari
Q.17. In reaction to which measure of the British did the Swadeshi Movement begin?
(a) Partition of Bengal in 1905 (b) Surat split in 1907
(c) Starting of World War I in 1914 (d) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919
Q.18. According to Gandhi, which kind of dress would have a more powerful political effect?
(a) Western style (b) Indian style (c) Dressing unsuitably (d) Dressing suitably for the occasion
Q.19. In which year did Gandhi adopt dhoti?
(a) 1913 (b) 1915 (c) 1921 (d) 1928
Q.20. Why did Mahatma Gandhi adopt loin cloth and a chaddar as his dress?
(a) it was easy to wear (b) it was not easy to practise
(c) he believed that poor peasants could not afford more than that (d) it was a political statement of self-
respect
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1. Why is most of the knowledge about clothes inferential?
Ans.1 Most of the knowledge about clothes is inferential because clothes do not reveal anything directly.2
Clothes indirectly reveal the attitude, personality and socio-economic status of the wearer.3 Moreover, we can
only draw inference about attitudes, styles, personality andSocio-economic conditions of the people who wore
various kinds of clothes in the past.
Q.2. In what way do clothes give a message?
Ans.
1. Clothes do give a message, as the clothes of Sans Culottes did. They were men without knee breeches
different from the aristocrats who wore knee length breeches.
2.Their clothing, loose and comfortable along with colour of France blue, white and red was a sign of patriotic citizens.


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3. Gandhi made homespun khadi a symbol of national sentiment and his dress code of short dhoti was his way
of identifying with the poorest Indian. Khadi became a symbol of purity, simplicity and poverty.
Q.3. What did a patriotic French citizen wear in France after the French Revolution?
Ans1. French patriotic citizens in France started wearing clothing that was loose and comfortable. The colours of
France blue, white and red became popular as they were a sign of the patriotic citizen
2. Other political symbols too became a part of dress : the red cap of liberty, long trousers and the
revolutionary cockade pinned on to a hat.
3. 3 The simplicity of clothing was meant to express the idea of equality.
Q.4. Explain how European dress codes were different from Indian dress codes.
Ans.
1. In different cultures, specific items of clothing often convey contrary meanings.
2. 2 This creates misunderstanding and conflicts. Consider the case of the : turban and the hat. These two
headgears not only look different but also signify different things.
3. The turban in India is not just for protection from heat but is a sign of respectability and cannot be removed
at will. In the western tradition, this has to be removed before social superiors as a sign of respect.
Q.5. Discuss the witty answer of Mahatma Gandhi about his dress. What did it signify?
Ans.
1. Gandhi wore a short dhoti without a shirt when he went to England for the Round Table Conference in 1931.
2. He refused to compromise and wore it even before King George V at Buckingham Palace.
3. 3 When he was asked by journalists whether he was wearing enough clothes to go before the King, he joked
that the King has enough on for both of us. This was the reason for Gandhis witty remark about his dress.
Q.6. How did styles of clothing during Victorian Age in England emphasise differences
between men and women?
Ans
1. Women during this time were groomed from childhood to be docile, dutiful, submissive and obedient. Men
were supposed to be strong, serious, aggressive and independent.2.
2. These ideals were visible in the way they dressed. Girls were dressed in stays and were tightly laced up.
3. They also wore tight fitting corsets.
4. These clothes restricted their growth and kept their mould small and frail. Slim and small waisted women
were admired. This was not so in the case of boys and men.
Q.7. How did the French Revolution end all distinctions imposed by the Sumptuary laws?
Ans
1. After the French Revolution, it was income and not class which decided a persons clothing. Men and
women began to wear loose and comfortable clothing.
2. The colours of France became popular as they were considered a sign of the patriotic citizen.
3. 3 The red cap of liberty, long trousers and the revolutionary cockade pinned on a hat became fashion these
were political symbols. Simplicity of clothing was meant to express the idea of equality.
Q.8. With the help of an example show how cultural difference in dress can create misunderstanding.
Ans
1. Let us take the example of headgears a turban and a hat. Both although headgears signify different
things. Turbans are not only for protection from the sun but also worn as a mark of respectability.
2. It cannot be removed at will. The hat is for protection and is removed in front of seniors and superiors. This difference
created misunderstanding between the turban wearers, i.e. the Indians and the hat wearers, i.e. the British.
3. When the Indians walked into English company they did not remove their turbans as they wanted to assert
their national and regional identity. This at times offended the British.
Q.9. What changes came in women clothing as a result of the two world wars?
Ans.
1. Many European women stopped wearing jewellery and luxurious clothes. As upper-class women mixed with
other classes, social barriers were encoded and dresses of women became similar.
2. Clothes got shorter during the First World War out of practical necessity. About 7 lakh women who were employed in
ammunition factories wore a working uniform of blouse and trousers with scarves, which was gradually replaced by
khaki overalls and caps. Bright colours faded from sight. Clothes became plainer and simpler. Skirts became shorter and
trousers became a vital part of women's dress. Women also took to cutting their hair short.
3. A plain and austere style came to reflect seriousness and professionalism. WhenGymnastics and games
entered school curriculum, women had to wear clothes which did not hamper movement.


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Q.10. Describe Mahatma Gandhi's experiment with clothing during his lifetime.
Ans
1. As a boy he usually wore a shirt with a dhoti or pyjama, and sometimes a coat. When he went to London to
study law as a boy of 19 in 1888, he cut off the tuft on his head and dressed in a western suit.
2. On his return, he continued to wear western suits with a turban. As a lawyer in South Africa in the 1890s, he
still wore western clothes.
3. In Durban in 1913, Gandhi first appeared in a lungi and kurta with a shaved head as a sign of mourning to
protest against the shooting of Indian coal miners.
4. On his return to India in 1915, he decided to dress like a kathiawadi peasant. In 1921, during the non-cooperation
movement, he adopted the short dhoti or loin cloth with a chaddar. This dress he continued to wear until his death.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
Q.1. What were sumptuary laws? How did these laws affect society in France?
Ans.
1. Sumptuary laws were those laws which imposed upon members of different layers of society through
specified details the codes of behaviour.
2. These laws tried to control behaviour of those considered social inferiors, preventing them from wearing
certain clothes, consuming certain foods and beverages (usually alcohol) and hunting game in certain areas.
3. In France, during the medieval period the item of clothing a person could purchase per year was regulated
not only by income but also by social rank.
4. The material to be purchased for clothing was also legally prescribed.
5. Only royalty could wear expensive materials like ermine, fur, silk, velvet and brocade. Other classes were
debarred from clothing themselves with materials that were associated with the aristocracy.
Q.2. What was the Suffrage Movement? How did it bring about a reform in dress?
Ans.
1. Womens Suffrage Movement was a womans movement agitating for the right to vote in political elections and democratic rights.
2. 2As suffrage movement developed, people beganCampaigning for dress reform.
3. Womens magazines described how light dress and corsets caused deformities and illness among young girls.
Such clothing restricted body growth and Hampered blood circulation.
4. Muscles remained underdeveloped and the spines got bent.Doctors reported that many women were
regularly complaining of acute weakness, felt languid and fainted regularly.
5. By the end of the nineteenth century, change was clearly in the air the argument was simplify dress,
shorten skirts, abandon corsets.
Q.3. With an example, discuss how clothing can convey different meanings in different cultures and how
these interpretations can lead to misunderstanding.
Ans.
1. In different cultures, specific items of clothing often convey central meaning. This frequently leads to
misunderstandings and conflicts.
2. The case of the Turban and Hat is one. Turban and hat are two headgears that not only lookDifferent
3. They also signify different things. The turban in India was not just for protectionfrom the heat but was also a
sign of respectability and could not be removed at will
4. In the western tradition, the hat had to be removed before social superiors as a sign of respect
5. This cultural difference created misunderstanding. The British were often offended if Indians did not take off
their turban when they met colonial officials.
Q.4. How did Mahatma Gandhi's dream of clothing the nation in Khadi appeal only to some sections of the
Indian?
Ans.
1. Mahatma Gandhis dream was to clothe the whole nation in khadi. He felt khadi would be a means of
erasing differences between religions and classes; etc. But it wasnt easy for others to follow in his
footsteps. Just as the people could not take to the single peasant loin cloth as Gandhi had done. The people,
in fact, did not want to do so.
2. Nationalists such as Motilal Nehru, a successful barrister from Allahabad, gave up hisexpensive western style
suits and adopted the Indian dhoti and kurta. But these were not made of coarse cloth khadi. Those who
had been deprived by caste norms for centuries were attracted to western dress styles.
3.Therefore unlike Mahatma Gandhi, other nationalists such as Baba Saheb Ambedkar never gave up the western style suit.


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4. Many Dalits began in the early 1910s to wear three-piece suits, shoes and socks on all public occasions, as a
political statement of self-respect. A woman wrote to Gandhiji, I heard you speaking on the extreme
necessity of wearing khadi, but khadi is very costly and we are poor people.
5. Other women, like Sarojini Naidu and Kamla Nehru, wore coloured saris with designs, instead of coarse,
white homespun khadi.
Q.5. In India caste system played the role similar to Sumptuary Laws of Europe? Justify it.
Ans
1. India has no formal sumptuary laws but it has a very strict social code of food and dress. It is the caste
system which defines what each caste should wear, eat, give, take, etc
2. These codes are very rigid and are almost as forceful as laws. If there were any changes in these specified
codes then reactions were often violent and disturbing.
3. The case of the Shanar caste is an example. The Shanars are a community from Travancore.They migrated
to this area to work under the landlords who were the Nairs. The Shanars tapped toddy. They belonged to a
subordinate caste and as per the traditions had to follow certain specified norms
4. They were not allowed to wear slippers, use umbrellas and cover the upper portion of their body with clothing.
5. When the Christian missionaries came, they converted the Shanars to Christians. Under their
HOTS QUESTION
Q.1. How were clothes of the 18th century all over the world different from clothes of the 19th century?
Ans.
1. In France, in the 18th century sumptuary laws controlled the clothing style. After the French Revolution, it
was the income, the difference between the rich and poor which decided what people were to wear
2. In England and America and other European countries, women from childhood, as young girls were tightly laced and
dressed in stays. As women they had to wear tight fitting corsets and flowing gowns sweeping the ground.
3. The nineteenth century simplified dresses, shortened them and banned the corsets. Clothes got lighter,
shorter and simpler. The two world wars brought in trousers and blouses for women giving them greater
freedom of movement
4. Skirts became shorter, frills disappeared. Women now went for short hair as it was convenient and easy to maintain.
5. In India, the western style clothing came in the 19th century. The wealthy Parsis were the first to adopt it. It
was also attractive to Dalit. The dress code in India was much under theinfluence of strict codes of caste
system. The Swadeshi movement and national feelings alsoset the dress code of Indians.
Q.2. Discuss how society and clothes are linked.
Ans.
3. The history of clothing is linked to the larger history of society. Clothing is defined bydominant cultural
attitude and ideal of beauty.
2These notions change with time. Change inclothing has come due to changes within technology and economy
and pressures of changing times.Changes in womens clothing came as a result of the two world wars.
3. Women stopped wearing jewellery and luxurious clothes. Now women of all sections of society began to
look similar. Because of practical necessity clothes became shorter and without frills.
4. Women began to be employed in ammunition factories. This forced them to wear a uniform of blouse and
trousers with scarves. Thus, uniform of blouse and trousers was replaced by Khaki overalls and caps. Sober
colours were preferred as the war was on.
5.Clothes became simpler and more practical. Trousers became a common garment worn by women.
Garments became austere and professional.
Q.3. How was the Swadeshi Movement linked to the politics of clothing? Explain.
Ans
1. The Swadeshi movement was centrally linked to the politics of clothing. In 1905, LordCurzon decided to
partition Bengal to control the growing opposition to British rule.
2. The Swadeshi movement developed in reaction to this measure.
3. People were urged to boycott the British goods of all kinds and start their own industries for the
manufacture of goods such as match boxes and cigarettes.
4. Mass protests followed with people viewing to cleanse themselves of colonial rule.
5. The use of khadi was made a patriotic duty. Women were urged to throw away their silk andglass bangles
and wear simple shell bangles. Rough homespun was glorified in songs andPoems to popularise it.
VALUE BASED QUESTION


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Q.1. Mahatma Gandhis dream of clothing all Indians in khadi didnt fructify. Why?
Q.2.What does Sans Culottes mean? What did it signify?
Q.3. Ideals of womanhood prevalent during the Victorian Age affected womens dress.What were these
ideals and how did these ideals affect the dresses of women during theVictorian Age?

MCQ ANSWERS
1.(B)2.(C)3.(C)4.(B)5.(B) 6.(D)7.(A)8.(D)9.(D)10.(D)11.(D)12.(B)13.(A)14.(C)15.(A)16.(A)17.(A)18.(C)19.(C)20.(C)


Part 2: Geography
CHEPTER 4 : CLIMATE
Introduction:
Climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time
(more than thirty years). Weather refers to the state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time.
The elements of weather and climate are the same, i.e. temperature, atmospheric pressure, wind, humidity and
precipitation. The climate of India is described as the monsoon type. In Asia, this type of climate is found
mainly in the south and the southeast.
FACTORS AFFECTING INDIAS CLIMATE:
There are six major controls of the climate of any place. They are:
1. LATITUDE, 2. ALTITUDE, 3. PRESSURE AND WIND SYSTEM, 4. DISTANCE FROM THE SEA
5.OCEAN CURRENTS 6. RELIEF FEATURES.
THE INDIAN MONSOON
The climate of India is strongly influenced by monsoon winds. The sailors who came to India in historic times
were one of the first to have noticed the phenomenon of the monsoon. They benefited from the reversal of the
wind system as they came by sailing ships at the mercy of winds. The Arabs, who had also come to India as
traders named this seasonal reversal of the wind system monsoon.
The monsoons are experienced in the tropical area roughly between 20 N and 20 S. To understand the
mechanism of the monsoons, the following facts are important.
(a) The differential heating and cooling of land and water creates low pressure on the landmass of India while
the seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
(b) The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the Ganga plain (this is
the equatorial trough normally positioned about 5N of the equator. It is also known as the monsoon trough
during the monsoon season).
(c) The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20S over the Indian Ocean.
The intensity and position of this high-pressure area affects the Indian Monsoon.
(d) The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical air currents and
the formation of low pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level.
(e) The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical
easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula during summer.
THE SEASONS: The monsoon type of climate is characterised by a distinct seasonal pattern. The weather
conditions greatly change from one season. Four main seasons can be identified in India the cold weather
season, the hot weather season, the advancing monsoon and the retreating monsoon with some regional
variations.
DISTRIBUTION OF RAINFALL
Parts of western coast and north eastern India Receive over about 400 cm of rainfall annually.
Less than 60 cm in western Rajasthan and adjoining parts of Gujarat, Haryana and Punjab.
Rainfall is equally low in the interior of the Deccan plateau, and east of the Sahyadris.
A third area of low precipitation is around Leh in Jammu and Kashmir.
The rest of the country receives moderate rainfall.
Snowfall is restricted to the Himalayan region.
The annual rainfall is highly variable from year to year.


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Variability is high in the regions of low rainfall such as parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the
Western Ghats.
Areas of high rainfall are liable to be affected by floods, areas of low rainfall are drought-prone
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) (1 Mark)
Q.1 Choose the right term: it refers to the state of the atmosphere overran area at any point of time.
(a) Climate (b) Humidity (c) Weather (d) Rainfall
Q.2Which type of climate prevails in India ?
(a) Mediterranean (b) China Type (c) Equatorial (d) Monsoon
Q.3Which of the following receive most of its rain during October and November?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Punjab (d) Kerala
Q.4Which of the following latitudes pass through the middle of the country?
(a) Tropic of cancer (b) Tropic of Capricorn (c) Equator (d) Arctic Circle
Q.5 Indian subcontinent experiences comparatively mild winters as compare to Central Asia because of

(a) The Himalayas (b) Mizoram (c) Northern Plains (d) Thar Desert
Q.6Which of the following winds are responsible for the bulk of rainfall in India?
(a) Southwest Monsoon (b) Northeast Monsoon (c) South north Monsoon (d) Westerlies
Q.7What is ITCZ ?
(a) Inter Tropical Converter zone (b) Inter Tropical Convergence zone
(c) Indian Tropical Converter zone (d) None of these
Q.8In which of the following months the Monsoon retreats?
(a) August (b) September (c) October (d) November
Q.9Which of the following is not a climatic condition of the cold season of India?
(a) High Rainfall (b) Clear Sky (c) Low Temperature (d) Low Humidity
Q.10Which of the following crops is benefited because of winter cyclonic disturbances?
(a) Rabi Crops (b) Kharif Crops (c) Zaid Crops (d) None of These
Q.11What is Loo ?
(a) These are Cyclones (b) These are Cold Winds
(c) Strong, Dusty, hot, Dry winds blowing during the day over the north and western India
(d) These are variable winds blowing in cold season
Q.12Which of the following two states are affected by pre monsoon showers ?
(a) Kerala, Punjab (b) Punjab, Haryana (c) Kerala, Karnataka (d) Haryana, Rajasthan
Q.13Which is the Wettest city of India ?
(a) Cherapunji (b) Mawsynram (c) Barmer (d) Ladakh
Q.14In which of the following hills Mawsynram located ?
(a) Khasi Hills (b) Aravalli Hills (c) Nilgri Hills (d) Anaimalai Hills
Q.15Which of the following is responsible for the bulk of rainfall in the coromandal coast ?
(a) South West Monsoon (b) North East Monsoon
(c) Western Disturbance (d) Depressions and Cyclones
Q.16Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
(a) Silchar (c) Cherrapunji (b) Mawsynram (d) Guwahati
Q.17The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:
(a) Kaal Baisakhi (c) Trade Winds (b) Loo (d) None of the above
Q.18Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India?
(a) Cyclonic depression (c) Western disturbances
(b) Retreating monsoon (d) Southwest monsoon
Q.19Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
(a) Early May (c) Early June (b) Early July (d) Early August
Q.20Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?


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(a) Warm days and warm nights (b) Warm days and cold nights
(c) Cool days and cold nights (d) Cold days and warm nights
Short Answer Questions(3 Marks)
Q.1 Define Climate. What are the elements of climate?
Ans:
i. Climate refers to the sum of total weather conditions and their variations over a large area for a long
period of time (more than thirty years).
ii. The elements of weather and climate are the same i.e. temperature, atmospheric pressure, wind,
humidity and precipitation.
Q.2 What are the controlling elements of the climate of India?
Ans Indias climate is controlled by latitude, altitude, pressure and winds, distance from the sea, ocean
currents and physiography.
Q.3 Discuss the unifying role of the Indian monsoon.
Ans There is great diversity of the climatic conditions in India due to different locations and land relief
patterns. But these diversities are subdued by the monsoon, which blow over the whole country. The
arrival of the monsoon is welcomed all over the country.
1. Several festivals are celebrated welcoming the monsoonal rainfall in India.
2. The monsoonal rainfall provides water for agricultural activities.
3. Monsoon gives relief from the scorching heat. The entire life of the Indian people revolves around the
monsoon.
Q.4 Distinguish between weather and Climate.
Ans
Weather Climate
i. Weather refers to the state of the
atmosphere at any point of time and place.
i. Climate refers to the sum of total weather conditions
and variations over an area for a long period of time
(more than 30 years).
ii. Weather conditions may vary at intervals of a
few hours or a few days.
ii. Climate does not change so frequently.
iii. Weather data are the observations recorded
at a specific time.
iii. Climate refers to the average value of several elements
of weather, relating to a period of more than 30 years.
Q.5 Give three characteristics of monsoonal rainfall in India.
Ans Characteristics of monsoon rainfall are:-
i. Early in the season, the windward side of the Western Ghats receives heavy rainfall i.e. more than 250 cm.
ii. The rain shadow areas of Deccan Plateau and parts of Madhya Pradesh receive scanty rainfall. The maximum
rainfall is recorded in the north eastern part of the country.
iii. The frequency and intensity of tropical depressions determine the amount and duration of monsoon rains.
Q.6 What are the western disturbances?
Ans Western Disturbance is the term used in India, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Nepal to describe an extra
tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean that brings sudden winter rain and snow to the
northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent. This is a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by
the Westerly. The moisture in these storms usually originates over the Mediterranean Sea and the
Atlantic Ocean.
Q.7 What is El Nino? Mention any of its two effects.
Ans El Nino is a warm ocean current that flows over Peru in an interval of two to five years. The term El Nino,
derived from Spanish, means the child, i.e. baby Christ. It flows in the month of December.
Its effects are :-
i. Surface temperature in sea is increased. Ii. Trade winds in the region are weakened.
Q.8 What are the six controlling elements of the climate of India?
Ans Indias climate is controlled by
1. Latitude 2. Altitude 3. Pressure and winds
4. Distance from the sea 5. Ocean currents 6. Physiography
Q.9 What is a monsoon?


115
Ans The term Monsoon is derived from the Arabic word mausim, meaning season, applied by the Arabs to
the seasonal winds of the Arabian Sea. Monsoon winds mean a complete reversal in the direction of
wind over a large part of the land, causing seasons.
Q.10 What do you understand by the term burst of monsoon? What are the two branches of Indian monsoon?
Ans Around the time of the arrival of the monsoons, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues
constantly for several days. This is known as the burst of the monsoon
Monsoon gets divided into two branches
(i) The Arabian Sea branch: The Arabian Sea branch reaches Mumbai, as the name suggests it strikes India
from Arabian Sea side.
(ii) The Bay of Bengal branch: The Bay of Bengal branch also advances rapidly and arrives in Assam in the
first week of June. This branch is responsible for giving Meghalaya the highest rainfall in the world.
Q.11 What is Inter Tropical Convergence Zone? Write two features.
Ans
1. Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is the area encircling the earth near the equator where winds
originating in the northern and southern hemispheres come together. This is a low-pressure tropical
trough.
2. In summer it is over the Ganga plain. This equatorial trough is normally positioned about 5N of the
equator. It is also known as the monsoon trough during the monsoon season.
3. This trough keeps on changing its position according to the time of the year.
Q.12 Explain any three factors that affect the climate of a place?
(Ans) Factors that affect the climate of a place are:
1. Latitude: Due to the curvature of the earth, the amount of solar energy received varies according to the
latitude. As a result, air temperature decreases from the equator towards the poles.
2. Altitude: As one goes from the surface of the earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less
dense and temperature decreases. The hills are therefore cooler during summers.
3. Distance from the sea: The sea exerts a moderating influence on climate. As the distance from the sea
increases, its moderating influence decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions.
Q.13 Write any three features of western cyclonic disturbances?
Ans Three features of western cyclonic disturbances are:
1. The western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by the
westerly flow from the Mediterranean region.
2. They usually influence the weather of the north and north-western regions of India.
3. Tropical cyclones occur during the monsoon as well as in October - November, and are part of the
easterly flow. These disturbances affect the coastal regions of the country.
Long Answer Questions (5 Marks)
Q.1 Discuss the mechanisms of the Indian monsoons.
Ans The mechanism of Indian Monsoons:-
(i) The different heating and cooling of land and water: At the end of May, due to high temperature, low
pressure is created on the landmass of India while seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
It fixes the direction of the moisture laden wind from sea to land.
(ii) The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) : In summer, low pressure trough is
positioned over the Ganga plain, making the region suitable for the occurrence of rain.
(iii) The intensity and position of the high atmospheric pressure over the Indian Ocean affects the Indian
monsoon.
(iv) The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer which results in strong vertical air currents
and formation of high pressure over the plateau at about 9km above the sea level.
(v) The movements of the westerly Jet Streams to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the
tropical easterly Jet Streams over the Indian Peninsula during the summer affects monsoon.
Q.2 Distinguish between South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
Ans
South-West Monsoon North-East Monsoon
i) The season is from June to September. i) This season starts from December and ends in
February.
ii) It does not rain continuously. There are rainless ii) It does not possess any rainless intervals.


116
intervals in this season.
iii) It blows in India in two branches namely the
Arabian Sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
iii) It does not have any branches.
iv) Major portion of annual rainfall in India is due
to this type of monsoon.
iv) Minor portion of the annual rainfall in India is due to
this type of monsoon.
Q.3 Distinguish between Equable climate and Continental climate.
Ans
Equable Climate Continental Climate
i) Area which are neither too warm in summers
nor not too cold in winters (with low range of
temperature) are said to have an equable climate.
i) Places with higher range of temperature (extremes of
temperature)
Experience extreme climate, it is known as continental
climate.
ii) Equable climates are characterized by well
distributed rainfall throughout the year.
ii) Rainfall in extreme climate is restricted to summer
months.
iii) This type of climate is found in places located
close to the sea having the moderating influence
of the sea.
iii) Interiors of continents/countries which have the
least influence of the sea experience have this type of
climate.
iv) Chennai, Cochin, Mumbai etc. iv) Delhi, Kanpur, Bhopal etc.


HOTS
1. Why the houses in Rajasthan have thick walls and flat roofs?
2. Why is it that the houses in the Tarai region and in Goa and Mangalore have sloping roofs?
3. Why houses in Assam are built on stilts?
4. How the location and relief are important factors in determining the climate of India ?
Map Questions (4 Marks)
Q.1 Four features from (i) to (iv) are shown in the given outline political map of India. Identify these
features with the help of the following information and write their correct names in your answer
book:
(i) Capital of Tamil Nadu (ii) Capital of West Bengal
(iii) Indias capital (iv) Main city of cold desert

Q.2 Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India:
(i) Chennai (iii) Area receiving more than 400 cms of rainfall in Arabian Sea
(ii) Leh (iv) Area receiving less than 20 cms of rainfall in Rajasthan

Ans
Q.3 Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India:
(i) Jaipur (ii) Area receiving less than 20 cms of rainfall in Jammu & Kashmir
(ii) Mumbai (iv) Area receiving more than 400 cms of rainfall in Western coast of India
Ans
Q.4 Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India:


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(i) Shillong (ii) An area receiving rainfall less than 20 cms in western region
(iii) Nagpur (iv) An area receiving rainfall over 400 cms in Bay of Bengal
Ans
Q.5 Four features from (i) to (iv) are shown in the given outline political map of India. Identify these
features with the help of the following information and write their correct names in your answer book:
(i) Capital of Rajasthan (ii) Tourist place in Ladakh (iii) Capital of West Bengal (iv) Capital of India

CHEPTER 5 : NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILD LIFE
India is one of the twelve mega bio-diversity countries of the world. With about 47,000 plant species India
occupies tenth place in the world and fourth in Asia in plant diversity. There are about 15,000 flowering plants in
India which account for 6 per cent in the worlds total number of flowering plants. The country has many non-
flowering plants such as ferns, algae and fungi. India also has approximately 90,000 species of animals as well as
a rich variety of fish in its fresh and marine waters.
Factors Responsible for Diversity in Flora and Fauna
RELIEF: Land Soil
CLIMATE: Temperature Photoperiod (Sunlight ) Precipitation
TYPES OF VEGETATION
The following major types of vegetation may be identified in our country.
(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests (ii) Tropical Deciduous Forests (iii) Tropical Thorn Forests and
Scrubs (iv) Mountain Forests (v) Mangrove Forests
WILD LIFE
India is rich in its fauna. It has approximately 90,000 of animal species. The country has about 2,000 species of
birds. They constitute 13% of the worlds total. There are 2,546 species of fish, which account for nearly 12% of
the worlds stock. It also shares between 5 and 8 per cent of the worlds amphibians, reptiles and mammals.
The elephants are the most majestic animals among the mammals. They are found in the hot wet forests of
Assam, Karnataka and Kerala.
One-horned rhinoceroses are live in swampy and marshy lands of Assam and West Bengal.
Arid areas of the Rann of Kachchh and the Thar Desert are the habitat for wild ass and camels.
Indian bison, nilgai (blue bull), chousingha (four horned antelope), gazel and different species of deer are some
other animals found in India
India is the only country in the world that has both tigers and lions. The natural habitat of the Indian lion is the
Gir forest in Gujarat.
Tigers are found in the forests of Madhya Pradesh, the Sundarbans of West Bengal and the Himalayan region.
Ladakhs freezing high altitudes are a home to yak, the shaggy horned wild ox weighing around one tonne, the
Tibetan antelope, the bharal (blue sheep), wild sheep, and the kiang (Tibetan wild ass).
In the rivers, lakes and coastal areas, turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found.
Peacocks, pheasants, ducks, parakeets, cranes and pigeons are some of the birds inhabiting the forests and
wetlands of the country.
To protect the flora and fauna the government has taken followings steps.
(i) Fourteen biosphere reserves have been set up in the country to protect flora and fauna.
(ii) Financial and technical assistance is provided too many Botanical Gardens by the government since 1992.
(iii) Project Tiger, Project Rhino, Project Great Indian Bustard and many other eco developmental projects
have been introduced
(iv) 89 National Parks, 490 Wildlife sanctuaries and Zoological gardens are set up to take care of Natural heritage.









Fourteen Bio-reserves
Sunderbans Simlipal
Gulf of Mannar Dihang-Dibang
The Nilgiris Dibru Saikhowa
Nanda devi Agasthyamalai
Nokrek Kanchenjunga
Great Nicobar Pachmari
Manas Achanakmar-Amarkantak


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Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
Q.1 Which of the following word is used to denote plants of a particular region ?
(a) Flora (b) Fauna (c) Natural Vegetation (d) Vegetation
Q.2 Which of the following word is used to denote species of animals of a particular region ?
(a) Flora (b) Fauna (c) Natural Vegetation (d) Vegetation
Q.3 Where are mangrove forests found ?
(a) Desert (b) Deccan Plateau (c) The Himalayas (d) The coastal area influenced by tides
Q.4 A very large ecosystem on land heaving distinct types of vegetation and animal life is called
(a) Ecosystem (b) Flora and Fauna (c) Biome (d) Vegetation
Q.5 Which of the following vegetation is not found in India ?
(a) Tropical Evergreen Forests (b)Tropical Deciduous Forests
(c) Mangrove Forests (d) Mediterranean type
Q.6 Which parts/regions of India have tropical evergreen forests ?
(a) Western Ghats, Upper parts of Assam (b) North Western parts of country
(c) The Deltas of the Ganga and the Mahanadi (d) Mountainous areas
Q.7 In which of the following states forests you will find one horned rhinoceros ?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Gujarat (d) Kerala
Q.8 Which of the following is not a tree of Tropical Evergreen Forests ?
(a) Acacia (b) Rosewood (c) Ebony (d) Rubber
Q.9 Which of the following is the most wide spread vegetation of India ?
(a) Tropical Evergreen Forests (b)Tropical Deciduous Forests
(c) Mangrove Forests (d) Mediterranean type
Q.10Which of the following animal is not found in mountain forests ?
(a) Kashmir Stag (b) Leopard (c) one horned rhinoceros (d) Yak
Q.11Which is the famous animal of the mangrove forests ?
(a) Royal Bengal Tiger (b) Leopard (c) Monkey (d) Lion
Q.12 In which of the following states/ regions the wild ass are found ?
(a) Assam (b) Rann of Kachchh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Manipur
Q.13 Which of the following has not been included in the world network of Biosphere reserves ?
(a) Sunderbans (b) Manas (c) Nanda Devi (d) Nilgiris
Q.14 In which of the following states is the Simlipal Biosphere reserve located ?
(a) West Bengal (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Orissa
Q.15 Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(a) Dudhwa Rajasthan (b) Manas Assam (c) Dachigam J & K (d) Gir - Gujrat
Q.16To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to?
(a) Tundra (c) Himalayan (b) Tidal (d) Tropical Evergreen
Q.17Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than
(a) 100 cm (c) 70 cm (b) 50 cm (d) less than 50 cm
Q.18In which of the following state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located?
(a) Punjab (b) Delhi (c) Odisha (d) West Bengal
Q.19Which one of the following bio reserves of India is not included in the world network of bio reserve?
(a) Manas (c) Gulf of Mannar (b) Nilgiri (d) Nanda devi
Short Answer Questions
Q.1 Mention any three features of Nokrek Biosphere Reserve.
Ans
1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is a national park located 2 km from Tura Peak in the Garo Hills district of
Meghalaya in India.
2. UNESCO added this National park to its list of Biosphere Reserves in May 2009.


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3. There is a vast range of plants and animals found in the park, including the fishing cat, the serow and the
tiger. Famous sites in the park include the famous Siju Cave.
Q.2 How does relief and rainfall influence the distribution of natural vegetation in India. Explain.
Ans The relief and rainfall of any region determine the natural vegetation of that place. In Indian sub-
continent it can be seen through the following points:
1. The western slopes of the Western Ghats receive more than 200 cm of rainfall. Due to heavy rainfall,
tropical evergreen forests are found in this region on a large scale.
2. Indifferent mountainous regions different types of vegetation are found, at the height of 1500 to 3000
coniferous trees are found but at the height of 1000 to 2000 wet temperate forests are found.
3. In areas with rainfall of 70 cm to 100 cm and in semi-arid regions, the vegetation consists of acacias and
palm.
Q.3 What is biome? State the number of biomes into which land ecosystem is divided with their names.
Ans A large ecosystem on the land having distinct type of vegetation and animal life is called biome. In
general, biomes are divided into the following categories:
1. Forests: It consists of evergreen forests, deciduous forests, and coniferous forests.
2. Grasslands: Savana grasslands.
3. Alpine/Tundra vegetation.
4. Desert vegetation.
Though the animals are also included in the biomes but they are not counted in the classification of biomes.
Q.4 Distinguish between flora and fauna.
Ans The major differences between Flora and Fauna are as follows:
Flora Fauna
1. Natural vegetation growing in an particular area
is referred as flora.
2. It makes its food with help of solar energy.
3. It was the very first form of life that appeared
on the earth in the chronological history of
earth.
1. Wild life living in a particular area of the
globe is termed as Fauna.
2. They cannot make their own food so they
are dependent upon the flora.
3. They developed on earth after flora
because they are dependent upon flora.
Q.5 Why has India a rich heritage of flora and fauna? How can you say that India has rich bio-diversity?
Ans This is because the factors like, temperature, sunlight, precipitation, soil and relief are suitable for the
growth and development of both animal and plant kingdom in India. These five factors are essential for
the growth of the bio-diversity.
India has been listed among the twelve mega biodiversity countries of the world.47,000 plant species and 89,000
animal species are found here. Besides these species, there are about 15,000 flowering plants in India.
Q.6 Distinguish between thorn forests and mangrove forests.
Ans
Thorn Forests Mangrove Forests
1. Rainfall:Rainfall in these types of forests are
somewhere 70 cmor less.
2. Vegetation: Babool, kiker, palm, cacti and acasia
are the main plants.
3. Location: Found in semi-arid regions of Gujrat,
Rajasthan, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
1. Rainfall: These types of forests develop in the deltaic
region, and does not concern with the rainfall.
2. Vegetation: Sundari is the major tree type in these
types of forests. The others are Agar and Keora.
3. Location: They are found in the deltas of Ganga,
Mahanadi, Kaveri, Krishna and Godavary.
Q.7 India has extremely rich and wild variety of fauna. Explain this statement.
Ans India has a rich variety of wild fauna. It can be explained through following ways:
1. The richness of wild variety of fauna is due to the high variety of variation in the relief, rainfall,
temperature, etc. There are 89,457 known species of flora, out of which many are in the list of
endangered species.
2. The variety of fauna can be seen in different parts of India such as in the mountains, the deserts, the
plateaus, the rivers, the lakes, etc.
3. If we try to divide the species then it may make several groups as follows:
Mammals 390, Fish 2546, Birds 1232, Insects 60,000, Reptiles 456, Mollusks 5,000,
Amphibians 209.
Q.8 Write any three major factors responsible for the huge diversity in plant and animal kingdom?


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Ans The three factors, which are responsible for the huge diversity in flora and fauna kingdom, are as
follows:
(i) Relief: Natural vegetation are different in mountains, plateaus and plain areas mainly due to the
difference in their relief. It is also different in wet and dry land. Fertile level plains are generally devoted
to agriculture. The undulating and rough terrains are devoted to terrace cultivation.
(ii) Soil: Different types of soils provide basis for different types of vegetation. The sandy desert soils
support cactus and thorny bushes. Wet, marshy and deltaic soils support mangroves and deltaic
vegetation. The hill slopes with some depth of soil have conical trees.
(iii) Temperature: On the hills of the Himalayas above the height of 915 metres, the temperature get
reduce and affects the types of vegetation and its growth. This changes it from Tropical to Subtropical,
Temperate and Alpine Vegetation.
Q.9 Why are forests important in our life? Write any six points.
Ans Forests play a vital role in the life of human beings by:
(i) Modifying local climate.
(ii) Controlling soil erosion.
(iii) Supporting a variety of industries.
(iv) Providing livelihood for many communities.
(v) Controlling wind and temperature and cause rainfall.
(vi) Providing humus to the soil and shelter to the wild life.
Q.10 Distinguish between Montane Forests and Mangrove Forests. Give three differences.
Ans The major differences between montane forests and mangrove forests are as follows:
Montane forests Mangrove forests
1. The decrease in temperature with increasing altitude
leads to the appearance of montane forests at higher
altitude.
1. These forests are found in the coastal areas where
mud and silt get accumulated.
2.These forests are mainly found along the southern
slope of the Himalayas, places having high altitude
innorthern and north-east India.

2. The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the
Krishana, the Godavari and the Kaveri are
covered by such vegetation.
3. Evergreen broad-leaf Oaks and Chestnuts are the
common trees.
Between 1500 and 3000 meters, temperate forest
containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fir,
spruce and cedar, are found.
3. Dense mangroves are the common varieties with
roots of the plants submerged under water.
Palm, coconut, keora, agar, also grow in some
parts of the delta.
Q.11 What is a Biosphere Reserve? Name the four-biosphere Reserves of India, which have been included
in the world network of biosphere reserve?
Ans Biosphere reserves are areas of terrestrial and coastal ecosystems promoting solutions to reconcile the
conservation of biodiversity with its sustainable use.
Four-biosphere reserves of India, which have been included in the world network of biosphere
reservesare:
(i) The Sunderbans in the West Bengal (ii) Nanda Devi in Uttranchal
(iii) The Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu (iv) Nilgiris of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Map Questions
Q.1 Label the following on the outline map of India:
1. Two wild life sanctuaries in each, northern, southern and eastern parts in India.
2. Two bird centuries in south India.
Q.2 On an outline map of India, label the following:
1. Rain Forest. 2. Tropical Deciduous Forest. 3. Montane Forest. 4. Mangrove Forest.
Q.3 On an outline map of India, show the following:
a. Gir forests. b. Jim Corbett national park. c. Manas national park. d. Bandipur national park.
Q.4 Four features from (i) to (iv) are shown in the given outline political map of India. Identify these
features with the help of the following information and write their correct names in your answer book:
(i) A wildlife sanctuary in Jammu & Kashmir (ii) Type of forest
(iii) A National park in Assam (iv) A bird sanctuary in Rajasthan


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Q.5 Four features from (i) to (iv) are shown in the given outline political map of India. Identify these
features with the help of the following information and write their correct names in your answer book:
(i) A national park in Assam (ii) A National Park in Madhya Pradesh
(iii) A Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttaranchal (iv) A Bird Sanctuary in Karnataka

CHEPTER 6 : POPULATION
Introduction:
The people are important to develop the economy and society. The people make and use resources and are
themselves resources with varying quality. Resources, calamities and disasters are all meaningful only in
relation to human beings. Their numbers, distribution, growth and characteristics or qualities provide the basic
background for understanding and appreciating all aspects of the environment. Human beings are producers
and consumers of earths resources. Therefore, it is important to know how many people are there in a country,
where do they live, how and why their numbers are increasing and what are their characteristics.
POPULATION SIZE AND DISTRIBUTION
POPULATION GROWTH AND PROCESSES OF POPULATION CHANGE
Population Growth: Growth of population refers to the change in the number of inhabitants of a
country/territory during a specific period of time.
Processes of Population Change/Growth
1. Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year. It is a major component of growth
because in India, birth rates have always been higher than death rates.
2. Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year. The main cause of the rate of growth
of the Indian population has been the rapid decline in death rates.
3. Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal (within the
country) or international (between the countries).
Age Composition: The age composition of a population refers to the number of people in different age
groups in a country. It is one of the most basic characteristics of a population.The population of a nation is
generally grouped into three broad categories:
1. Children (generally below 15 years)They are economically unproductive and need to be provided with
food, clothing, education and medical care.
2. Working Age (15-59 years)They are economically productive and biologically reproductive. They comprise
the working population.
3. Aged (Above 59 years)They can be economically productive though they may have retired. They may be
working voluntarily but they are not available for employment through recruitment.
Sex Ratio. Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the population. This
information is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females
in a society at a given time.
Literacy Rates: Literacy is a very important quality of a population. Obviously, only an informed and
educated citizen can make intelligent choices and undertake research and development projects. Low
levels of literacy are a serious obstacle for economic improvement.
Occupational Structure: The percentage of population that is economically active is an important index of
development. The distribution of the population according to different types of occupation is referred to
as the occupational structure
Primary activities include agriculture, animal husbandry, forestry, fishing, mining and quarrying etc.
Secondary activities include manufacturing industry, building and construction work etc.
Tertiary activities include transport, communications, commerce, administration and other services.
Health : Health is an important component of population composition, which affects the process of
development. Sustained efforts of government programmes have registered significant improvements in
the health conditions of the Indian population.
Adolescent Population: The most significant feature of the Indian population is the size of its adolescent
population. It constitutes one-fifth of the total population of India. Adolescents are generally grouped in
the age-group of 10 to 19 years. They are the most important resource for the future.


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National Population Policy: Recognising that the planning of families would improve individual health and
welfare, the Government of India initiated the comprehensive Family Planning Programme in 1952. The
Family Welfare Programme has sought to promote responsible and planned parenthood on a voluntary
basis.
NPP 2000 and Adolescents: NPP 2000 identified adolescents as one of the major sections of the
population that need greater attention. Besides nutritional requirements, the policy put greater emphasis
on other important needs of adolescents including protection from unwanted pregnancies and sexually
transmitted diseases (STD). It called for programmes that aim towards encouraging delayed marriage and
child-bearing, education of adolescents about the risks of unprotected sex, making contraceptive services
accessible and affordable, providing food supplements, nutritional services, strengthening legal measures
to prevent child marriage.
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
Q.1 Which of the following provides us information regarding the population of our Country ?
(a) The Census of India (b) Government of India
(c) Central Statistical Orgnisation (d) Reserve Bank of India
Q.2 Which is the most populous state of India ?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Utter Pradesh (c) Haryana (d) West Bengal
Q.3 Which is the least populous state of India ?
(a) Nagaland (b) Goa (c) Manipur (d) Sikkim
Q.4 Which is the largest state of India ?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Utter Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka
Q.5 Which state has the highest density of population ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) West Bengal (c) Utter Pradesh (d) Haryana
Q.6 Which of the following is not responsible for making population a dynamic phenomenon ?
(a) Education (b) Migration (c) Birth rate (d) Death rate
Q.7 Choose the right word : To change in the number of inhabitants of a country/ territory during a specific period of time.
(a) Birth rate (b) Death rate (c) Migration (d) Growth of Population
Q.8 What is Migration ?
(a) It is Movement of people across regions and territories.
(b) It is Movement of people, goods and services.
(c) It is the composition of population.
(d) None of the mentioned above
Q.9 In which of the following age groups the dependency ratio will be the highest ?
(a) Below 15 years (b) between 15-59 years (c) Above 60 years (d) None of These
Q.10 As per Census 2011 What is sex ratio of India ?
(a) 915 (b) 940 (c) 980 (d) 1025
Q.11 As per Census 2011 What is the literacy rate of Male in India ?
(a) 65.46 (b) 74.05 (c) 82.14 (d) 85.12
Q.12 Which of the following is not a primary activity ?
(a) Animal Husbandry (b) forestry (c) Communication (d) Fishing
Q.13 Which of the following programs aims towards encouraging delayed marriage and child-bearing,
education of adolescence.
(a) NPP (b) KPP (c) MPP (d) LPP
Q.14 Which of the following is responsible for a large proportion of children in a population ?
(a) High Birth Rate (b) High Death Rate (c) High Life Expectations (d) More Married Couples
Q.15 Which is the most populous country of the world ?
(a) United States (b) India (c) China (d) Pakistan
Q.16 Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in


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(a) The area of departure (c) both the area of departure
and arrival
(b) The area of arrival (d) none of the above
Q.17 A large proportion of children in a population are a result of
(a) High birth rates (b) high death rates (c) high life expectancies (d) more married couples
Q.18 The magnitude of population growth refers to
(a) The total population of an area (b) the number of persons added each year
(c) The rate at which the population increases (d) the number of females per thousand males
Q.19 According to the Census 2001, a literate person is one who
(a) Can read and write his/her name
(b) Can read and write any language
(c) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
(d) knows the 3 Rs (reading, writing, arithmetic)
Short Answer Questions
Q.1 What is environmental resistance of population growth?
Ans Environmental resistance of population growth are :
i) Scarcity of food and shelter;
ii) Natural calamities like drought, floods and;
iii) Biotic factors like pathogens, parasites, predators is known as environmental resistance.
Q.2 Distinguish between: Total population and Average density of population.
Ans
Total Population Average Density of Population
i) It is the number of people actually
existing in the area.
i) It is the number of people in a unit area after the
distribution of the total population uniformly.
ii) Its unit of measurement is number of
people.
ii) Its unit of measurement is number of people per unit
area.
iii) Its value depends on number of people
only.
iii) Its value depends on both the number of people as
well as the total area.
Q.3 What is meant by the natural growth rate of population? What does the change in population of a
territory indicate at?
Ans The population increased in a particular region between two points of times termed as natural growth
rate of population. It is calculated by Birth-Deaths.
The change in population of a territory is an important indicator of:
Economic development Social upliftment Historical background Cultural background
Q.4 Mention any three disadvantages of large population?
Ans Disadvantages of large population are:
(i) Per Capita Income goes down as the national income is distributed among large number of people.
(ii) Increasing population results in increased pressure on land and it adversely affects productivity in agriculture.
(iii) Poverty and unemployment conditions increase day by day.
Q.5 What are the three special features of human resources of India?
Ans Three special features of human resources of Indiaare:
(i) The human resource of India is very large.
(iii) Its distribution is quite uneven.
(iv) It has been increasing very rapidly.
Q.6 What are the three major questions about the population?
Ans Three major questions about the population:
1. Population size and distribution: How many people are there and where are they located?
2. Population growth and processes of population change: How has the population grown are changed with time?
3. Characteristics or qualities of the population: What are their ages, sex compositions, literacy levels,
occupational structures and health conditions?
Q.7 Population is the pivotal element in social studies. Support your answer giving three points.
Ans Population is the pivotal element in social studies. We can say this because:
1. It is the point of reference from which all other elements are observed and from which they derive
significance and meaning.


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2. Resources, calamities and disasters are all meaningful only in relation to human beings.
3. Their numbers, distribution, growth and characteristics or qualities provide the basic background for
understanding and appreciating all aspects of the environment.
Q.8 What is population density? How can you say that population density is not same throughout India?
Give any two examples.
Ans Population density is calculated as the number of persons per unit area. Population density is not the
same throughout India.
1. The population density of India varies from 904 persons per sq km in West Bengal to only 13 persons
per sq km in Arunachal Pradesh.
2. The Northern Plains and Kerala in the south have high to very high population densities because of the
flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.
Q.9 What is population growth?What are the two key factors for declining growth rate of population since 1981?
Ans Population growth refers to the natural increase in the population plus any net gain from migration.
Two key factors for declining growth rate of population since 1981 are:
(i)Improved medical facilities (ii)Rise in literacy levels
Q.10 What are Primary, Secondary and Tertiary activities?
Ans Primary activities are related to extraction of raw materials from nature. It includes agriculture, animal
husbandry, forestry, fishing, mining and quarrying etc.
Secondary activities include industries that transform raw materials into finished goods. It includes
manufacturing industry, building and construction work etc.
Tertiary activities include the services like transportation, communication, commerce, administration, etc.
Long Answer Questions (5 Marks)
Q.1 Distinguish between: Growth rate and Birth rate.
Ans
Growth Rate Birth Rate
i) It is the rate at which the population grows in a region
during a certain period of time.
i) It is the number of the people born in a region during
a certain period of time.
ii) Its value is calculated as the difference between the birth
rate and the death rate during a certain period.
ii) Its value is directly received from births and deaths
registration offices in the region.
iii) The current high population growth rate is due to the
large size of the population in the reproductive age-group,
higher fertility due to unmet need for contraception; and
high wanted fertility due to prevailing high IMR.
iii)It was 22.50 in 2009, according to a World Bank
report, published in 2010. The birth rate declined from
26.8 in 1998 to 22.8 in 2008.
Q.2 Write a short note on the population distribution in India.
Ans India is a vast country having diverse types of relief patterns, soils and climatic conditions. Owing to this
fact, it is usual to have uneven distribution of population.
1. Climate: Areas having moderate climate have more population than the areas having extreme climatic conditions.
2. Types of Soil: Indias northern plains are made up of alluvial soil which are very fertile and are densely
populated. On the other hand hilly areas and deserts are sparsely populated.
3. Opportunity for jobs: Urban areas are thickly populated because of the good opportunity of job.
4. Religious and historical places: Like Allahabad, Varanasi, Rameshwaram, Agra, etc. are also thickly populated areas.
Q.3 Give a brief account of economic advantages and disadvantages of large population.
Ans Advantages of large population: - A large population makes positive contribution to economic growth
because of availability of larger manpowerfor productive activities in the fields of secondary, tertiary
and quaternary sectors.
Disadvantages of large population:
i) Per capita income goes down as the national income is distributed among larger number of people.
ii) Consumption trend gets upward, reducing the size of savings.
iii) Increasing population results in increased pressure on land and it adversely affects productivity in agriculture.
iv) Poverty and unemployment conditions increase day by day.
Q.4 Describe the basic factors affecting the population of India.
Ans The basic factors affecting the population of India are:
i) Birth rate It is the number of births per 1000 individuals of a countrys population per annum. It
increases both population size and population density.


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ii) Death rate It is expressed as the number of deaths per 1000 individuals of a nations population per
year. It decreases both population size and density.
iii) Immigration It is the entry of more individuals into a local population of a species in a specific area
from outside due to more favourable conditions in that area.
iv) Emigration It is the departure of some individuals from a local population to another area due to
unfavourable conditions in the former. It decreases population size of that area.
Q.5 What is the concept of value education adopted under national population policy, 2000 in India?
Mention its components.
Ans Concept of value education is primarily aimed to inculcate moral, environmental, educational,
democratic and literary values in the individuals. It is for the improvement of individuals themselves as
well as of society, nation and universe as a whole.
Components of Value Education are:
i) Moral education, ii) Environmental education, iii) Population education,
iv) Human rights and duties, v) Health education, vi) Indian cultural education,
vii) Physical education, viii) Yoga education and ix) History of Indian freedom movement.
Map Question
Q.1 Four features from (i) to (iv) are shown in the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with
the help of the following information and write their correct names in your answer book:
(i) The state having highest density of population (ii) The state having lowest sex ratio
(iii) The most populous state of India (iv) The state having lowest density of population

Q.2 Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India:
(i) The state having the highest sex ratio (ii) The state having the lowest density of population
(iii) The least populous state of India (iv) The state having the lowest sex ratio
Q.3 Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India:
(i) The state having the highest sex ratio (ii) The state having the highest density of population
(iii) The least populous state of India (iv) The state having the lowest sex ratio
HOTS
Q.1 What are the significance features of the National Population Policy 2000
Q.2 Study of population is important. Why?
Q.3 How can you say that the population in urban areas have increased in India?Why is population in urban
areas growing fast?
Q.4 Growing population in urban areas affect the development of a country. How?
Q.5 How can you say that the population in urban areas have increased in India?

Part 3: Political Science
CHAPTER 4 : ELECTORAL POLITICS
CONCEPTS
NEED OF ELECTION
Elections are a democratic way of selecting representatives.They ensure that the representatives rule as per the
wishes of the people.


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Elections help voters to choose representatives who will make laws for them, form the government and take
Major decisions.
The voters can choose the party whose policies will guide the government and law making.
Thus election is a mechanism by which people can choose their representatives at regular intervals And change
them if they wish to.
What Makes an Election Democratic?
Everyone should be able to choose, i.e. everyone should have one vote and every vote should have equal value.
Universal Adult Franchise. There should be parties and candidates to choose from, freedom to contest and a
wide choice for people. Elections must be held at regular intervals.
Candidate preferred by the people should be elected.
Elections should be held in a fair and free atmosphere to be democratic.
Political Competition: Demerits
Creates a sense of disunity and party politics.
Parties level allegations against each other of using dirty tricks to win elections.
Long-term policies cannot be formulated.
Good people do not enter politic
Merits: Elections are good because they force the ruling party to perform. The government is aware that it will
be voted out of power if it does not perform as the people expected It forces parties and leaders to perform, so
competition is good.
Our Election System
First a voters list is compiled.
Then the election date is announced.
The country is divided into constituencies for purpose of elections.
The voters have to elect one representative for the Lok Sabha from each constituency (Lok Sabha has 543
constituencies), called Member of Parliament. The constituencies are formed on basis of population.
Similarly, each state is divided into constituencies and a specific number of members called Members of the
Legislative Assembly are elected.
The dates of General Elections are announced.
Each party declares its Manifesto and prepares a list of nominations. The people behind them. But in non-
democratic countries elections are not free or fair (as in Mugabes Zimbabwe) or allow everyone to vote (as in
China). You have to be a member of the Chinese Communist Party to be able to vote.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q.1. Who led the Nyaya Yudh?
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh (b) Chaudhary Devi Lal (c) Ajit Singh (d) None of these
Q.2.What was the promise Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen?
(a) He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen
(b) He would lessen the rate of interest on their loans
(c) He would modernise agriculture
(d) He would provide free seeds and pesticides to them
Q.3.Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world
(b) Indias Election Commission is very powerful
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
(d) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict
Q.4Which of these is not a condition of a democratic election?
(a) Everyone is allowed to vote (b) There are political parties to contest elections
(c) The candidate not preferred by people gets elected (d) Elections are held at regular intervals
Q.5.What is meant by the term constituency?
(a) Place where the copy of constitution is kept
(b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha
(c) A body of voters
(d) None of the above
Q.6.Which of the options below is the demerits of the electoral competition?
(a) Creates a sense of factionalism (b) Parties use dirty tricks to win elections


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(c) Parties respect each other (d) both (a) and (b)
Q.7In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years?
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha (c) Vidhan Parishad (d) Only Lok Sabha
Q.8. Elections held after the term of 5 years of Lok Sabha are called-
(a) Mid-term elections (b) General elections (c) By-elections (d) Special elections
Q.9.What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or
resignation of a member called?
(a) By-election (b) Mid-term election (c) General election (d) None of these
Q.10. Into how many constituencies is the country divided for Lok Sabha elections?
(a) 544 (b) 543 (c) 560 (d) 535
Q.11. Constituencies called wards are made for the election to
(a) Parliament (b) State Legislative Assembly
(c) State Legislative Council (d) Panchayats and municipal bodies
Q.12. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 51 (d) 71
Q.13.Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies?
(a) Panchayats (b) Municipalities (c) Corporations (d) Lok Sabha
Q.14.Which of the options given below is applicable to the principle of Universal Adult Franchise?
(a) Only rich and educated can vote (b) Only men can vote
(c) All citizens aged 18 and above can vote (d) only employed people can vote
Q.15. for voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof?
(a) Ration card (b) Driving license (c) Election Photo Identity Card (d) None of these
Q.16.What is the minimum age required to contest an election to Lok Sabha?
(a) 20 years (b) 18 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years
Q.17.What is the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections?
(a) Serious criminal cases pending against them
(b) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family
(c) Educational qualification of the candidate (d) All the above
Q.18.What is a set of norms and guidelines, which is to be followed by political parties and contesting
candidates during the election time, called?
(a) Discipline Roll (b) Code of Conduct (c) Conduct rules (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.19 Name the body which conducts the elections in India
(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament (c) Cabinet (d) Election Commission
Q.20. How is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) chosen?
(a) Appointed by the President (b) Elected by the people
(c) Elected by the MPs (d) Elected by MPs and MLAs
Q.21. When on election duty, under whose control does the government officers work?
(a) Central Government (b) Election Commission (c) District Magistrate (d) District Court
Q.22.In India, who votes in a larger proportion in the elections?
(a) Poor and illiterate (b) Rich and privileged (c) Educated people (d) Women
Q.23.What does the term incumbent mean?
(a) The current holder of a political office (b) The candidate contesting the election
(c) The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House (d) None of the above
Q.24.An electoral malpractice in which a person assumes the identity of another for unlawful Purpose is
(a) Incumbent (b) Rigging (c) Impersonation (d) Turnact
Q.25.The Election Commission is:
(a) An elected body (b) An appointed body (c) An independent body (d) both (b) and (c)
Q.26Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out election campaign?
(a) Giving money to voters to cast vote for candidates (b) Using TV channels
(c) Door to door canvassing (d) Contacting voters on phone
Q.27Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election
(b) Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender
(c) Some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote in rare situations


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(d) It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters list
Q.28 Save Democracy slogan was given by which of the following political party in 1977
Lok Sabha elections?
(a) Congress Party (b) Janata Party (c) Telugu Desam Party (d) Left Front
Q.29.What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 35 years (d) 40 years
Q.30. In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and powerful body which is known as
(a) Election Commission (b) Parliament (c) Judiciary (d) Lok Sabha
Q.31. Voters List is also known as:
(a) Election Number (b) Voter Identity Card (c) Electoral Roll (d) None of these
Q.32.What is the tenure of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 9 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years
Q.33.Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?
(a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
(b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
(c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only
(d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner
Q.34.Which state has the largest vidhan sabha in the country?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (Uttar Pradesh) (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal
Q.35. Reserved Constituencies ensures
(a) Right to equality (b) Proper representation to all religious groups
(c) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society (d) None of these
Q.36.Which of the following has the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Bihar
Q.37. Who has given the slogan Garibi Hatao?
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Sonia Gandhi (d) Pt. Nehru
Q.38.The number of Lok Sabha constituencies at present is
(a) 541 (b) 546 (c) 543 (d) 540
Q.39. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) The Chief Justice of India (b)The Prime Minister of India
(c) The President of India (d) The people of India
Q.40. Who is responsible for free and fair elections in India?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Election Commissioner (d) Council of Ministers
Q.41.The number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha is:
(a) 59 (b) 79 (c) 89 (d) 99
SHORT QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1. Mention the provisions laid down under the Model Code of Conduct to regulate the election campaign.
Ans.According to the Model Code of Conduct, no party can:
(i) Use any place of worship for election propaganda.
(ii) Use government vehicles, aircraft and officials for elections.
(iii) Once elections are announced ministers shall not lay foundation stones of any projects, take any big policy
decisions or make any promises of providing public facilities.
Q2.What is the choices that voters make in an election?
Ans. In an election, the voters make many choices:
(i) They can choose who will make laws for them.
(ii) They can choose who will form the government and take major decisions.
(iii) They can choose the party whose policies will guide the government and law-making.
Q.3.In which way does the Election Commission enjoy the same kind of independence as the judiciary?
Ans.The Election Commission enjoys the same kind of independence that the judiciary enjoys. The Chief Election
Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President of India. But once appointed, he is not answerable to the
President or the government. Even if the ruling party or the government does not like what the Commission
does, it is virtually impossible for it to remove the CEC.
.Q.4. Mention any three techniques of election campaign.
Ans. (i) Candidates contact their voters (ii) They address election meetings


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(iii) Use newspapers and TV for publicity
Q.5 Discuss the importance of elections in a democracy.
Ans. Elections give people a chance to choose the representatives the government and policies they prefer. The
democratic way of selecting representatives can be had by holding elections. The voters can make their choice.
Q.6. Discuss the importance of an election manifesto.
Ans.An election manifesto is a statement by a political party explaining its policies, saying what they will do if
they win the election.
Q.7.What is a reserved constitueney? How does it strengthen democracy?
Ans.In a reserved constituency only someone who belongs to the scheduled caste or scheduled tribe community
can stand for election. In the Lok Sabha, 79 seats are reserved for SC and 41 for ST Communities. This
reservation system makes our democracy a representative democracy
Q.8.What is the demerits of political competition?
Ans.The political competition has many demerits
(i) It creates a sense of disunity and factionalism in every locality. Different political parties and leaders often
level allegations against one another. Parties and candidates often use dirty tricks to win elections.
(ii) This pressure to win electoral fights does not allow sensible long-term policies to be formulated.
(iii) Some good people who wish to serve the country do not enter this area as they do not like to be dragged
into unhealthy competition.
LONG QUESTIONS [5MARKS]
Q.1 state how the elections are held in India?
Ans.1-For elections, the country is divided into different areas called electoral constituencies.
2-The voters who live in an area elect one representative.
3- For Lok Sabha elections, the country is divided into 543 constituencies.
4-The representative elected from each constituency is called a Member of Parliament (MP).
Similarly, each state is divided into Assembly constituencies. In this case, the elected representative is called the
Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA).
Q.2.How can you say that very few Election Commissions in the world have such wide ranging powers as the
Election Commission of India?
Ans. (i) Election Commission takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of elections.
(ii) It implements the code of conduct and punishes any candidate or party that violates it.
(iii) During the election period, the EC can order the government to follow some guidelines,
To prevent use and misuse of governmental power to enhance its chances to win elections,
Or to transfer some government officials.
(iv)When on election duty, government officers work under the control of the EC and not the government.
Q.3 Explain how the outcome of elections is a final test of free and fair elections.
Ans. (i) The ruling parties routinely lose elections in India both at the national and state level. In fact, in every
two out of the three elections held so far, the ruling party lost.
(ii) In the US, an incumbent or sitting elected representative rarely loses an election. In
India, about half of the sitting MPs or MLAs lose elections.
(iii) Candidates who are known to have spent a lot of money on buying votes and those with known criminal
connections often lose elections.
Q.4.What is the main functions of the Election Commission of India?
Ans.1-It takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of election
.2- It implements code of conduct. It orders guidelines for the government to prevent misuse of power to win elections.
3-It EC feels unfairness in polling it orders a repoll.
Q.5.What is some of the activities undertaken by political parties to carry out election campaign?
Ans.1-In election campaigns, political parties try to focus public attention on some big issues, e.g.,the Congress
party led by Indira Gandhi gave the slogan of "Gharibi Hatao" in the Lok Sabha elections of 1971. "Save
Democracy" was the slogan of Janata Party in the Lok Sabha election of 1977.
2- Secondly, political leaders contact their voters, address election meetings, and promise to remove the
grievances of the people.
3-Thirdly, support of media TV Channels and newspaper columns is also taken by the political parties to
further their cause to gather more votes.
Q.6. Explain the nomination process as practised in Indian elections.


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Ans.1-Every candidate who wishes to contest an election has to fill a nomination form and give some money as
deposit.
2-According to recent directive from Supreme Court every candidate has to make a legal declaration giving full details of
assets liabilities, educational qualification & details of any serious criminal cases pending against them.
Q.7. Describe any four demerits of electoral competition.
Ans. An electoral competition has many demerits.
(i) It creates a sense of disunity and factionalism.
(ii) Different political parties level allegations against each others.
(iii) Long-term policies cannot be formulated.
(iv) Some good people who wish to serve do not enter this arena.
Q.8. Explain any four conditions that make an election democratic.
Ans. (i) Every section of citizens should get equal representation.
(ii) Everyone should get an equal opportunity to choose representatives.
(iii) Voters' list which is revised every five year.
(iv) Election Photo-Identity Card.
Q.9. What is a reserved constituency? Why did India introduce this system?
Ans in a reserved constituency only someone who belongs to the SC/ST or weaker section can stand for
election. This was done to give a fair representation to the weaker section who did not stand a good chance to
get elected to the Lok Sabha.
Q.10. Explain any four challenges faced by election system in India.
Ans. (i) A few candidates may win purely on the basis of money money power sun four wean.
(ii) Are peoples preferences based on real knowledge. (iii) Are the voters getting a real choice?
(iv) Is Election leally level playing field for everyone?
Q.11. Explain any four powers enjoyed by Election Commission in India.
Ans. (i) Election Commission takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from
announcement of elections to declaration of results.
(ii) It implements the code of conduct and punishes any candidate or party that violates it.
(iii) During Elections EC can order the government to follow some guidelines to use/misuse governmental
power, its chances to win.
(iv) When on election duty, government officials work under control of EC.
Q.12.What is Secret Ballot System? Give three reasons why Secret Ballot System is good.
Ans.A ballot paper is a sheet of paper on which the names of the contesting candidates along with party names
and symbol are listed.
(i) The voter can vote in secricies (ii) The voter feels secure, safe and fearless
(iii) The voter is free of threat and coercion.
Q.13.What are the conditions which make an election democratic?
Ans. (i) The presence of an independent and very powerful Election Commission (EC). It enjoys the same kind of
independence that the judiciary does.
(ii) The Chief Election Commissioner is not answerable to the President or the government.
(iii) It is virtually impossible to remove the CEC, once he is appointed.
(iv) When election officials come to the opinion that polling was not fair in some booths or
even in an entire constituency, they order a repoll.
Q.14. Enumerate any four challenges to free and fair elections.
Ans. (i) Inclusion of false names and exclusion of genuine names in the voters list.
(ii) Misuse of government facilities and officials in ruling party.
(iii) Excessive use of money by rich candidates and big parties.
(iv) Intimidation of voters and rigging on the polling day.
HOTS
Q.1. Why is there a provision of reservation of seats in the legislatures?
Ans.1-The constitution makers were worried that in an open electoral competition, certain weaker sections may
not stand a good chance to get elected to the Lok sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
2-They may not have the required resources, education and contacts to contest and win elections against the
more influential contestants. So seats are reserved for them in the legislature.
Q.2.What is the check on the political leaders which makes them serve the people?


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Ans.1-The check on the political leaders comes from the need to serve the people if they want to win the next
elections. Regular electoral competition provides incentives to political parties and leaders.
2-They know that if they raise issues that people want to be raised, their popularity and chances of victory will
increase in the next elections.
3- But if they fail to satisfy the voters with their work, they will not be able to win again.
Q.3.What is the trends of popular participation in India?
Ans.The trends of popular participation in India are:
(i) Peoples participation in election is usually measured by voter turnout figures. In India the turnout over all
these years has either remained stable or gone up.
(ii) In India, the poor illiterate and underprivileged people vote in larger proportion as compared to rich sections.
(iii) Common people in India attach a lot of importance to elections as they feel that through elections they can
bring pressure on political parties to adopt policies favouring them.
Q.4. Write about any three challenges which an ordinary citizen would have to face if he wants to contest an
election.
Ans An ordinary citizen would have to face some of the following challenges if he wants to contest the elections:
(i) Candidates with lot of money enjoy a big and unfair advantage over contestants.
(ii) Sometimes candidates with criminal connections push others out of the electoral race and
Secure a ticket.
(iii) Some families tend to dominate political parties
Q.5. Why is there no educational qualification prescribed for the political leaders who hold such an important
position of governing the country?
Ans. (i) Educational qualifications are not relevant to all kinds of jobs. Just as a cricketer needs an ability to play
well, irrespective of educational qualification, similarly the relevant qualification for an MLA or an MP is the
ability to understand peoples concerns, problems, and to represent their interests.
(ii) In our country, putting an educational qualification would go against the spirit of democracy as it would
mean depriving a majority of the countrys citizens the right to contest elections. For example, if graduation is
made a compulsory qualification, then 90 % of the citizens will become ineligible to contest elections.
Q.6. Explain the term constituency. Give reasons why the system of reserved constituencies was introduced
by our constitution makers.
Ans.1-The country is divided into different areas for purposes of elections. These are called Constituencies. 2-
The voters who live in an area elect one representative. For Lok Sabha elections the country is divided into 543
constituents. The representative elected is called an MP.
3-Similarly, each state is divided into a specific number of assembly constituencies. In this case the elected
representative is called an MLA.
4-To give protection to the weaker section, the makers of our constitution thought of reserved constituencies.
These are reserved for people who belong to SC or ST. The Lok Sabha has 79 reserved seats for SCs and 41 for
STs.
KEY M.C.Q.
1 (b)2 (a)3 (d)4 (c)5 (b)6 (d)7 (b)8 (b)9 (a)10 (b)11 (d)12 (b)13(d)14 (c)15 (d)16 (c)17 (d)18 (b)19 (d)
20 (a)21(b)22 (a)23 (a)24 (c)25 (d)26 (a)27 (a)28 (b)29 (a)30 (a)31 (c)32 (c)33(c)34 (b)35 (c)36 (b)
37 (a)38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (c) 41 (b)
CHAPTER 5 : WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS
CONCEPTS
Need for Political Institutions
A government has to perform various duties, formulate policies and implement them.
Some have to formulate schemes, some have to take decisions, and some have to implement the decisions. Hence the need
for institutions to do all the above. The Constitution of a country lays down basic rules on powers and functions of each
institution. The institutions are the Legislative (Parliament), the Executive (the Government) and the Judiciary.
The Parliament: (i) It is needed as final authority to make laws in the country. (ii) To exercise control over the workings of
the government. (iii) To control the expenditure of the government, and control public money. (iv) As the highest forum of
discussion and debate it decides public
Issues and national policies.
Two Houses of Parliament. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The former has elected representatives and is the House of People.
The Rajya Sabha elected by the elected members of each State Assembly is called the Council of States.


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Lok Sabha is more important in money matters; control over the executive Lok Sabha is elected for a period of five years.
The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House, with one third members retiring every two years. The term of each member is for
six years.
Political Executive
The President, the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers and the civil servants form the executive.
The Political Executive consists of political leaders elected by the people, who act on their behalf and are responsible to the
public who elected them. They take all the decisions, understand the overall picture.
The second category is called the permanent executive consisting of civil servants. They help the political executive in
carrying out the day to day work. They are experts but do not take the final decision.
Prime Minister has three kinds of ministers to help him: (i) Cabinet Ministers, (ii) Ministers of State and (iii) Deputy
Ministers.
The Prime Ministers position is supreme. He chooses his Cabinet and his decision is final, except in a coalition government
where he has to listen to other party members. When the Prime Minister quits, the entire ministry quits. The President is
the nominal head in India. He is not directly elected by the people as in USA.
All the Members of Parliament and Members of the State Legislatures elect him. Since he is elected indirectly, he does not
have the same powers as the Prime Minister.
The President exercises all his legislative, executive, financial, judicial, military powers only on the advice of the Prime
Minister and his Council of Ministers.
The President can only delay a bill. If the Parliament passes it again, he has to sign it.
President has the power to appoint the leaders when there is a coalition on his own discretion.
The Judiciary: India has one of the most powerful judiciaries.
The Judiciary is independent of both the Executive and the Legislature.
The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister and his Council of
Ministers.
The other judges of the Supreme Court and the State High Courts are appointed in the same way but on the advice of the
Chief Justice.
Once appointed, the Judges can be removed only by impeachment.
The Judiciary is the custodian of the Constitution, and the Supreme Court and the High
Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution.
It can declare any law passed by the Legislature as invalid, if it violates the Constitution.
It safeguards the Fundamental Rights of the people of India, and checks malpractices and misuse of power by the Executive
or the Legislatures, and has more members.
Rajya Sabha is more important in matters concerning the states.
Some examples of policy making
Government of India appointed a Commission in 1979, headed by B.P. Mandal, called second backward commission
Commission gave a report in 1980. One of the suggestions was to reserve 27 per cent of
Government jobs for socially and Economically Backward Classes (SEBC).
Parliament discussed this for many years.
Janata Dal won elections in 1989. V.P. Singh, the Prime Minister, decided to implement Reservations.
The President announced it in his address to the Parliament.
On 6 August 1990, the Cabinet decided to implement and the Prime Minister announced it in both Houses of Parliament.
The senior officers drafted an order, signed by an officer and it became the Memorandum issued on 13 August 1990.
There was a heated debate on the issue and it was finally taken to the Supreme Court. The case was known as Indira
Sawhney and others vs. Union of India case.
1992 Supreme Court declared the Mandal order as valid but asked for some modifications
SOME IMPORTANT M.C.Qs.
Q.1. When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?
(a) 1989 (b) 1979 (c) 1999 (d) 2001
Q.2 what is meant by Office Memorandum?
(a) Order issued by the Government of India (b) Memoirs of the leaders of the past
(c) Important defence documents (d) none of the above
Q.3What do the Civil Servants do?
(a) They take important policy decisions (b) They implement the ministers decisions
(c) They settle the disputes (d) none of the above
Q.4.Why did people react strongly to the Mandal Commission Report?
(a) It left out many backward communities (b) It affected thousands of job opportunities
(c) Some high castes wanted to be included in it (d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.5.What is Parliament?


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(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level (b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges (d) Assembly of only appointed members
Q.6.Which of these is correct so far as powers of the Parliament are concerned, apart from Making laws?
(a) Exercising control over the government (b) Controlling finance of the country
(c) Serving as the highest forum of discussion and debate (d) All the above
Q.7. Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) Governor (d) President
Q.8.What happens if there is a difference of opinion between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over an ordinary bill?
(a) The President decides the matter (b) The will of Rajya Sabha prevails
(c) There is a joint sitting of the two Houses (d) the bill is cancelled
Q.9.For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(a) 15 days (b) 1 month (c) 3 months (d) 14 days
Q.10.Which of these disputes can the Supreme Court take?
(a) Between citizens of the country (b) Between citizens and the government
(c) Between two or more state governments (d) All the above
Q.11. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(a) President, according to his own wishes (b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (d) None of the above
Q.12. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Speaker (b) Vice President (c) President (d) Prime Minister
Q.13. Two features of Indian judicial system are:
(a) Independent Judiciary (b) Integrated Judiciary (c) Dependent Judiciary (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.14. How can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed?
(a) By the Supreme Court itself (b) By the Parliament through impeachment
(c) By the President alone (d) By the Police
Q.15.Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?
(a) The Supreme Court (b) The President (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Parliament
Q.16.What does the Supreme Court say over the Parliaments power of amendment of the Constitution?
(a) Parliament can amend the entire Constitution
(b) Parliament can amend only the basic structure of the Constitution
(c) Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution
(d) None of the above
Q.17.Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(a) District Courts (b) Supreme Court (c) Election Commission (d) Legislature
Q.18.What is a Public Interest Litigation?
(a) Filing a case in the court in the interest of the public (b) Reviewing of Supreme Court judgements
(c) Procedure of removal of a judge (d) None of the above
Q. 19. Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?
(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated (d) None of the above
Q.20. Who holds the most important and powerful position in the government?
(a) President (b) Vice President (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker
Q.21.Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?
(a) Anyone he likes (b) Leader of the majority party
(c) MP who has secured the largest number of votes (d) None of the above
Q.22.What is the tenure of office of the Prime Minister?
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) As long as he wants (d) He does not have a fixed tenure
Q.23.What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called?
(a) Cooperation government (b) Coalition government
(c) Consensus government (d) Cooperative government
Q.24.Which organ of the government has the power to interpret the Constitution?
(a) Supreme Court (b) District Court (c) High Court (d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.25.Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister?


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(a) He chairs the Cabinet meetings (b) He distributes work to the different departments
(c) He can dismiss ministers (d) All the above
Q.26.What is the position of the President?
(a) Nominal head of the state (b) Real head of the state
(c) Hereditary head of the state (d) None of the above
Q.27.Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The Judiciary safeguards the laws (b) The Legislature implements the laws
(c) The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives
(d) The permanent executives comprises the civil servants
Q.28.The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to
(a) The President (b) the Prime Minister (c) The Rajya Sabha (d) the Lok Sabha
Q.29.The president of India is elected by
(a) Direct Election by citizens ... 18 years of age
(b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College
(c) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
(d) None of the above
Q.30. President of India is
(a) Head of the Government (b) Head of the State (c) Head of the parliament (d) None of the above
Q.31.The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Justice (d) Law Minister
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1. Who appoints the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, and on what basis?
Ans.The Prime Minister is appointed by the President. But he cannot appoint anyone he likes. He appoints the leader of the
majority party or the coalition of the parties that commands a majority in the Lok Sabha, as Prime Minister. In case no
single party or alliance gets a majority, the President appoints the person most likely to secure a majority support.
Q2. In which way do the cabinet ministers exercise more powers than the other ministers?
Ans. Cabinet ministers are the top-level leaders of the ruling party or parties, and are in charge of the major
ministries. Ministers of state with independent charge are on the other hand usually in-charge of smaller
ministries. The decisions are taken in cabinet meetings and the other ministers have to follow these decisions.
They attend the cabinet meeting only if they are invited.
Q.3. State how the delays and complications introduced by the institutions are very useful in a democracy?
Ans. Working with institutions involves rules and regulations, meetings, committees and routines, often leading
to delays and complications. But some of these delays are very useful as they provide an opportunity for a wider
set of people to be consulted in any decision. They make it difficult to rush through a bad decision
Q.4. How has the rise of coalition politics imposed constraints on the power of the Prime Minister?
Ans.The Prime Minister of a coalition government cannot take decisions as he likes. He has to accommodate
different groups and factions in his party as well as among alliance partners. He also has need to the views and
positions of the coalition partners and other parties, on whose support the survival of the government depends.
Q.5. Why is an independent and powerful judiciary considered essential for democracies?
Ans. Independence of the judiciary is essential in a democracy so that it does not act under the control and direction of the
legislature or the executive. The judges do not act according to the wishes of the government, i.e. the party in power.
Indian Judiciary is powerful in the sense that it can declare only law invalid if it is against the constitution. Thus Indian
judiciary acts as a guardian of the Fundamental Rights which is essential for a democracy.
.Q6. Discuss the powers and functions of the Parliament.
Ans. Parliament is the final authority for making laws in the country. It can also change laws and make new ones
in their place. It exercises control over those who run the government. In India this control is direct and full. If
also controls all the money that the government has. It is the highest forum of discussion and debate on public
issues and national policies.
Q.7. Explain the composition of the council of ministers.
Ans.After the appointment of the Prime Minister, the President appoints other ministers on the advice of the
Prime Minister. The ministers are usually from the party or the coalition that has the majority in the Lok Sabha.
The Prime Minister is free to choose ministers as long as they are members of parliament. Council of ministers is
the official name for the body that includes all the ministers. It usually has 60 to 80 ministers of different rank.
Q.8. Write about the process of appointment and removal of a judge of Supreme Court.


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Ans.The judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts are appointed by the President on the advice of the
Prime Minister and in consultation with the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
In practice the senior judges of the Supreme Court select the new judges of the Supreme Court. A judge can be
removed only by an impeachment motion passed separately by two-third members of the two houses of the Parliament.
.Q.9.Which house of the parliament is more powerful in India and why? Give any four reasons.
Ans. Rajya Sabha is called the Upper House but that does not mean that it is more powerful than Lok Sabha. Our
constitution does not give Rajya Sabha same special powers over the states. But on most matters the Lok Sabha
exercises supreme power.
(i) Any ordinary law needs to be passed by both Houses. The final decision is taken in a joint session but as
number of Lok Sabha members is greater, the view of the Lok Sabha prevails.
(ii) Lok Sabha exercises more power in money matters. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget the Rajya Sabha
cannot reject it. It can hold it only for 14 days.
(iii) Lok Sabha controls the council of ministers. A person who enjoys the support of the majority members in the
Lok Sabha is appointed the Prime Minister.
(iv)If majority members of the Lok Sabha say they have no confidence in the council of ministers all ministers
including the Prime Minister have to quit.
Q.10 Why are political institutions important? Give any three points.
Ans. Governing a country involves various activities. For attending to all these activities/tasks several
arrangements are made. Such arrangements are called institutions. A democracy works well when these
Institutions perform these functions.
(i) The Prime Minister and the cabinet are institutions.
(ii) The civil servants working together are responsible for taking steps to implement the ministers decisions.
(iii) Supreme Court is an institution where disputes between citizens are finally settled.
Q.11. Give three differences between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Ans. Members of the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people. Lok Sabha exercises the real power on behalf
of the people. Rajya Sabha is elected indirectly and performs some special functions. Like looking after the
interests of various states, regions or federal units. In some ways Lok Sabha is more important as it has more
members and in any decision making, its opinion prevails it controls council of ministers.
Q.12What is the tenure of the President in India? Mention the qualifications for President of India.
Ans.The President in India is the head of the state. He has only nominal powers. The President of India is like the
Queen of Britain whose functions are to a large extent ceremonial. The President supervises the overall
functioning of all the political institutions in the country. The President exercises all his powers on the advice of
the council of ministers. His tenure is for five years.
Q.13. Under what circumstances does the President exercise his discretion in the appointment of the Prime
Minister? Who appoints the other ministers?
Ans. When a party or coalition of parties secures a clear majority in the elections; the President has to appoint
the leader of the majority party or the coalition that enjoys majority support in the Lok Sabha. When no party or
coalition gets a majority in the Lok Sabha President exercises his/her discretion and appoints a leader who in
his/her opinion can muster majority support in the Lok Sabha within a specified time.
Q.14What is a coalition government? Why the Prime Minister of a coalition government cannot take decisions as he likes?
Ans.The rise of coalition politics has imposed certain constraints on the power of the Prime Minister. The Prime
Minister of a coalition government cannot take decision as he likes. He has to accommodate different groups
and factions in his party as well as among alliance partners. He also has to heed to the views and positions of the
coalition partners and other parties on whose support the survival of the government depends.
Q.15What is the powers of the Prime Minister? Describe any three.
Ans.As the head of the government the Prime Minister has wide-ranging powers.
(i) He chairs cabinet meetings (ii) He coordinates the work of different Departments.
(iii) He exercises general supervision of different ministries. He can and does dismiss ministers. When the Prime
Minister quits the entire ministry quits.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
Q.1. Write about some of the activities involved in governing a country.
Ans.1- Governing a country involves various activities. For example, the government is responsible for ensuring
security to the citizens and providing facilities for education and health to all.
2-It collects taxes and spends the money thus raised on administration, defence and development programmes.


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3-It formulates and implements several welfare schemes. Some persons have to take decisions on how to go
about these activities. Others have to implement these decisions.
4-It is also important that these activities keep taking place even if the persons in key positions change.
Q.2.In which ways does the Parliament exercise political authority on behalf of the people?
Ans. (i) Parliament can make new laws, change existing laws, or abolish existing laws and make new ones in their place.
(ii) Those who run the government can take decisions only so long as they enjoy support of the Parliament.
(iii) Parliament controls all the money that government has. Public money can be spent only when the
Parliament sanctions it.
(iv)Parliament is the highest forum of discussion and debate on public issues and national policy.
Q.3. Describe the ways in which Lok Sabha is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.
Ans. (i) An ordinary law has to pass through both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. In case of differences, a joint
session is held. Since Lok Sabha has larger number of members will prevail.
(ii) Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters. Once it passes the budget or the money bills, the Rajya
cannot reject it. It can delay it by 14 days or suggest changes in it. The Lok Sabha may or may not accept these changes.
(iii) Lok Sabha controls the Council of Ministers. If the majority of Lok Sabha members say they have no
confidence in the Council of Ministers, all ministers including the Prime Minister, have to quit. Rajya Sabha does
not have this power.
Q.4How can you say that the President occupies the position of a nominal head of the State?
Ans.1-The President is not elected directly by the people. She or he can never claim the kind of direct popular
mandate that the Prime Minister can.
2- This ensures that she or he remains only a nominal executive.
3- The Constitution gives vast powers to the President. But the latter exercises them only on the advice of the
Council of Ministers.
4-The President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice. But if the same advice is given again,
she or he is bound to act according to it. Similarly, when a bill comes to the President for signatures she or he
can return it to the Parliament with her or his advice.
5- But when the bill comes for her signatures again, she or he has to sign it, whether the Parliament agrees to
her / his advice or not.
Q.5. Write the powers of the Prime Minister?
Ans.The Prime Minister is the most important political institution in the country. He/ She have wide ranging
powers.
(i) He chairs cabinet meetings. (ii) His decisions are final in case of disagreement between departments.
(iii) He distributes and redistributes work to ministers
(iv) He also has power to dismiss ministers. (v)When the Prime Minister quits, the entire ministry quits.
Thus within the cabinet the Prime Minister is the most powerful so much so that parliamentary democracies are
sometimes seen as prime ministerial form of government.
Q.6. Explain the difference between Political Executive and Permanent Executive.
Ans.1-In a democratic country two types of executives are there. One that is elected by the people for a
specific period, it is called the political executive. Political leaders who take big decisions fall into this category.
2- In the second category people are appointed on a long-term basis. This is called the permanent executive or
civil services. Persons working in civil services are called civil servants. They remain in office even when the
ruling changes. These officers work under political executive.
Q.7. In what ways does the Parliament exercise political authority? Explain.
Ans.1- Parliament is the final authority for making laws in any country. This task of law making or legislation is so
crucial that these assemblies are called legislatures.
2- Parliaments all over the world exercise some control over these who run the government. In some countries
like India this control is direct and full.
3- Those who run the government can take decisions only, so long as they enjoy support of the Parliament.
4-Parliaments control all the money that governments have.
5- The Parliament is the highest forum of discussion.
Q.8. Explain any four constitutional provisions for making judiciary independent.
Ans. Independence of the judiciary means that it is not under the control of the legislature or the executive. The
judges do not act on the direction of the government or according to the wishes of the party in power. There is
very little scope for the ruling party to interfere.


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(i) The appointment of judges of Supreme Court and High Courts is done by the President on the advice of the
Prime Minister and in consultation with the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(ii) Once a person is appointed as judge of the Supreme Court or the High Court, it is impossible to remove him.
(iii) The judiciary in India is one of the most powerful in the world. The Supreme Court and the High Courts have
the power to interpret the constitution of the country.
(iv)They can declare invalid any law of the legislative or the actions of the executive whether at the Union level
or at the State level.
Q.9. State the powers of the Supreme Court?
Ans.1-The Supreme Court controls the judicial administration of the country
.2- Its decisions are binding on all other courts of the country.
3- It can take up any dispute
Between citizens of the country; between citizens and government; between two or more state
governments; between governments at the union and state level.
4-It is the highest court of appeal in civil and criminal cases. It can hear appeals against the decisions of the High Courts.
5-The Supreme Court has the power to interpret the Constitution of the country. It can determine the
constitutional validity of any law. This is known as judicial review
Q.10. Why is the Prime Minister the most powerful man in the government? Explain.
Ans.1- The Prime Minister has wide-ranging powers as head of the government.
2-He chairs cabinet meetings, coordinates the work of different departments.
3- His decisions are final. All ministers work under him/his leadership.
4- He distributes and redistributes work to the ministers.
5- He also has the power to dismiss them and when he quits the entire ministry quits. The Prime Minister
controls the cabinet and the Parliament through the party.
HOTS
Q.1. Even though civil servants are far more educated and has expert knowledge on various subjects, why
does the ultimate power to decide matters lie with the ministers?
Ans.1-A minister is elected by the people and thus empowered to exercise the will of the people on their behalf.
2-They are finally answerable to the people for all the consequences of her/his decision. The Minister is not
expected to be an expert in the technical matters of her or his ministry.
3-The civil servants, though far more educated, work under these ministers and the final decisions are taken by
the ministers
Q.2What is the procedure for the removal of the judges?
Ans.1- The procedure to remove a judge is called impeachment. An impeachment motion is passed separately
by two thirds members of the two Houses of the Parliament.
2-Thus the judges who are appointed by the President cannot be removed by the President alone.
3-Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have to pass a resolution by two-thirds majority to remove a judge.
Q.3.Under what condition can a state of emergency be declared in India? Explain.
Ans.A state of emergency can be declared under the following conditions:
(i) Increase of external aggression or armed rebellion;
(ii) It the government machinery of a state breaks down;
(iii) If there is a threat to the financial stability of the country. Under these circumstances the
President can impose a state of emergency and this is called President Rule
Q.4 Parliament is the supreme legislature of India. Justify the statement.
Ans.1-In all democracies, an assembly of elected representatives exercises supreme political authority on behalf
of the people.
2- In India, such a national assembly of elected representatives is called Parliament.
3- At the state level, it is called Legislature or Legislative Assembly
4- Parliament is the final authority for making laws in any country.
5-Parliaments all over the world can make new laws, change existing laws or abolish existing laws and make new
ones in their place
Q.5.What was the reaction of the people to the implementation of Mandal Commission Report?
Ans.1-The implementation of the Mandal Commission Report led to widespread protests and counter protests,
some of which were violent.
2- People reacted strongly because this decision affected thousands of job opportunities.


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3-Some felt that job reservations were essential to cope up with the inequalities among people of different
castes in India.
4- Others felt that this was unfair as it would deny equality of opportunity to people who did not belong to the
backward communities. They would be denied jobs even if they were more qualified.
Q.6. Write two ways in which it can be proved that the President does not have any real powers. What can
the President really do on his/her own?
Ans.1- In our political system the head of the state exercises only nominal powers. The President of
India is like the Queen of Britain whose functions are to a large extent ceremonial. ThePresident supervises the
overall functioning of all the political institutions in the country so that they operate in harmony to achieve the
objectives of the state.
2-The President represents the entire nation but can never claim the kind of direct popular mandate that the
Prime Minister can. The same is true of his powers. All government activities do take place in the name of the
President. All laws and major decisions of the government are issued in his name, all international treaties and
agreements are made in his name but the President exercises these powers only on the advice of the Council of Ministers

KEY OF M.C.Qs.
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (c) 9 (d 10 (d) 11(c) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (b)
18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (b) 31 (a)

CHAPTER 6: DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS CONCEPTS
What are Rights?
Rights are reasonable claims of persons recognised by society and sanctioned by law
Rights in a Democracy
Rights are a must to ensure the dignity, security and fair play to all the citizens.
Democracy is a system in which maximum rights are guaranteed to its citizens
Why do We Need Rights in a Democracy?
Rights sustain a democracy.
They give to every citizen a right to vote and the right to be elected to government.
They allow citizens to express their views freely, form parties and take part in political activities.
Rights are guarantees when things go wrong. They do not allow the majority to dominate the minority.
Some rights are placed higher than the government, so that the government does not violate them.
Rights in the Indian Constitution
The Indian Constitution has given us six Fundamental Rights. They are the basic features of Indias Constitution.
Fundamental Rights are: (i) Right to Equality (ii) Right to Freedom (iii) Right against
Exploitation (iv) Right to Freedom of Religion (v) Cultural and Educational Rights (vi) Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Right to Equality: It grants equality to all its citizens in the eyes of law. No discrimination can be made against
any citizen on grounds of birth, caste, religion and gender.
Untouchability is made a cognisable offence. Equal opportunity is guaranteed to all the citizens.
Right to Freedom: It grants (i) freedom of speech and expression, (ii) freedom to assemble in a peaceful
manner, (iii) freedom to form associations, (iv) freedom to move freely in any part of the country, (v) freedom to
reside in any part of the country and (vi) practice any profession, carry out any occupation or trade.
Right against Exploitation: The constitution prohibits (i) traffic in human beings,
(ii) Prohibits forced labour or beggar and (iii) prohibits child labour.
Right to Freedom of Religion: There is no state religion in India. All religions are given equal respect. Every
person has a right to profess, practice and propagate his own religion.
Cultural and Educational Rights: Minorities have the right to conserve their language and culture. They have the
right to establish their own educational institutions.
NATIONAL HUMAN RIGHTS COMMISSION (NHRC)-
It is an independent commission set up by law in 1993 .
The commission is appointed by the President and includes retired judges , officers and eminent citizens .
But it does not have the burden of deciding court cases.
It focuses on helping the victims secure their human rights.


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The NHRC can not by itself punish the guilty .It makes inquiry into any case of violation human rights and
takes other general steps to promote human rights in country.
Right to Constitutional Remedies: This is the right that makes all rights effective. If a citizens fundamental
rights are violated or taken away, he/she can seek remedy through courts.
National Human Rights Commission is an independent organisation established in 1993. Its main work is to
focus on human rights and help the victims, whose rights are violated.
Expanding Scope of Rights
The Constitution offers scope to expand the Fundamental Rights. Examples:
(i) School education has become a right for Indian citizens. (ii) Right to property is a legal right.
(iii) Right to seek information from government offices. (iv)Right to vote in elections.
International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
This international covenant recognises many rights. Examples (i) Right to work (ii) Right to safe and healthy
environment (iii) Right to adequate standard of living (iv)Right to social security and insurance (VI) Right to
health and medical care, etc.
The South African Constitution Guarantees
Right to privacy, Adequate housing, Right to access to health care, Sufficient food and water.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
Q.1 What was the reason given by America for imprisoning people at Guantanamo Bay?
(a) They had been caught spying.
(b) They were planning to kill the US President.
(c) They were planning to set up a Communist government in USA.
(d) America considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11
th
September, 2001.
Q.2.Which body exposed to the world that prisoners at Guantanamo Bay were being tortured in ways that
violated the US laws?
(A) United Nations (b) International Court of Justice (c) Amnesty International (d) Supreme Court of USA
Q.3.Which of these options is not correct regarding Saudi Arabian political system?
(a) The king selects the executive, legislature and judiciary (b) Citizens cannot form political parties
(c) There is no freedom of religion (d) none of the above
Q.4.What is the position of women in Saudi Arabia?
(a) Women are given all the rights (b) Women are given equal status with men
(c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions (d) They are offered high positions
Q.5.What was Milosevics attitude towards the Albanians?
(a) His government was hostile to the Kosovo Albanians (b) He wanted to bring equality between Serbs and Albanians
(c) He wanted Serbs to dominate the Albanians (d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.6. How was the massacre of Albanians finally stopped?
(a) The UN ordered for Milosevics arrest (b) Several countries intervened to stop the massacre
(c) The Serbs turned against Milosevic (d) Milosevic reformed himself
Q.7.What is meant by rights?
(A) Ones demand to get everything without sharing with others
(b) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, society and the government
(c) Not possessing any freedoms (d) none of the above
Q.8.Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid?
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy
(d) All the above
Q.9.Under which Fundamental Right has the Parliament enacted a law giving the Right to
Information to the citizens?
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to freedom of thought and expression
(c) Right to freedom of equality (d) Right to constitutional remedies
Q.10.Which of these is/are the new rights guaranteed by the constitution of South Africa for its citizens?
(a) Right to privacy (b) Right to an environment that is not harmful to the peoples health
(c) Right to have access to adequate housing (d) All the above
Q.11.The right to seek the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights is called:


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(a) Right against Exploitation (b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies (d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Q.12. If our Fundamental Rights are violated, where can we seek the remedy?
(a) Supreme Court or High Courts (b) Parliament
(c) Election Commission (d) Council of Ministers
Q.13.What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to the Right to Constitutional Remedies as?
(a) The brain of our Constitution (b) The heart and soul of our Constitution
(c) The heart of our Constitution (d) the soul of our Constitution
Q.14.What is meant by the term writ?
(a) Written laws (b) A formal document containing an order of the court to the government
(c) Basic features of the Constitution (d) none of the above
Q.15. When was the NHRC set up?
(a) 1998 (b) 1996 (c) 1993 (d) 2001
Q.16. How many Fundamental Rights does the Indian constitution provide?
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 8
Q.17Which of the following terms is correct for the feature of the Indian constitution stating that no person is
above the law?
(a) State of law (b) Application of law (c) Rule of law (d) Governance by law
Q.18.What does Right to Equality say about the public jobs?
(a) Jobs will be provided to all by the government (b) Jobs will be reserved for the more meritorious students
(c) All citizens will be provided with equal opportunity in matters of employment (d) None of the above
Q.19.What does the Constitution say about the practice of untouchability?
(a) It stands abolished (b) Its practice in any form is punishable by law
(c) Since it is an age-old custom, it should be respected (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.20.Which of these is false regarding the Freedom of Speech and Expression?
(a) Everyone has a right to think differently (b) One may disagree with a policy of the government
(c) One can use it to incite people against the government (d) One is free to criticise the government
Q.21.Which of these rights is/are provided to a person arrested by the government or police?
(a) To be informed of the reasons of his arrest
(b) To be produced before a magistrate within 24 hrs of his arrest
(c) To engage a lawyer for his defence (d) All the above
Q.22. One of the forms of exploitation as mentioned in the constitution is traffic. What does it mean?
(a) Transport system (b) Buying and selling of human beings
(c) Buying and selling of goods (d) none of the above
Q.23.What is meant by begar?
(a) Practice of begging (b) Practice of forcing workers to work without any wages
(c) Practice of encouraging workers to work at normal wages (d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.24. Laws have been made to prohibit children from working in which of these industries?
(a) Beedi making (b) Fire crackers and matches (c) Printing and dyeing (d) All the above
Q.25.Which of the following freedom is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to start a movement to change the government (b) Freedom to oppose the government
(c) Freedom to participate in armed revolution (d) None of these
Q.26.Which among the following cannot be challenged in a court?
(a) Directive principles of state policy (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Freedom to choose any profession or business (d) Right to move freely to any part of the country.
Q.27. Cultural and Educational Rights are safeguarded mainly for:
(a) Women (b) minorities (c) children (d) Men
Q.28.Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Freedom (b) Right to Vote (c) Right to Equality (d) None of these
Q.29.Which of the following rights is not available under the fundamental rights?
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Freedom (b) Right to protect ones culture (d) Right to property.
Q.30. India is a secular state. What does the word secular mean?
(a) The state gives protection to the Hindu religion (b) The state allows only the majority to propagate their religion
(c) The state has no religion of its own (d) none of the above.


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Q.31. Civil Rights are given to the individual by:
(a) Nature (b) God (c) The State (d) The people
Q.32.The Indian Constitution prescribes Fundamental Rights in:
(a) Part III (b) part VII (c) part V (d) part IV
Q.33Who called the right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the constitution?
(a) J.L. Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Rajendra Prasad
Q.34.The National Human Right Commission is an independent commission, set up by the law in the year:
(a) 1993 (b) 1995 (c) 1999 (d) 2001
Q.35.Which of these is not a freedom available under the Right to Freedom in India?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression (b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government
(c) Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner (d) Freedom to form associations and unions
Q.36.Which among the following is correct regarding PIL?
(a) Public Interest Legislature (b) Public Interest Litigation
(c) Public Information Litigation (d) Public Information Legislature
Q.37.Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to criticise the government (b) Freedom to participate in armed rebellion
(c) Freedom to reside in any part of the country (d) All the above
Q.38.Which of these is not allowed under the Culture and Educational Right in India?
(a) Every cultural group has the right to protect its language and culture.
(b) Admissions can be denied on the basis of religion and culture in government aided educational organisations
set up by cultural groups.
(c) All minority groups have the right to establish educational institutions of their choice. (d) None of these
Q.39.Which one of the following is not a Political Right?
(a) Right to contest election (b) Right to vote
(c) Right to seek any political office (d) Right to freedom
Q.40. If anyone violates our Fundamental Rights we can directly approach the:
(a) Prime Minister (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) Vice President
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
Q.1. Describe in detail the cultural and educational rights of the minorities as provided in the Indian constitution
Ans.The language, culture and religion of minorities need protection otherwise they may get neglected or
undermined under the impact of the language, culture and religion of the majority. All minorities have the right
to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
.Q.2. Explain what is meant by Rule of Law.
Ans. Rule of law means equality before the law or equal protection of the laws. It means that the laws apply in
the same manner to all, regardless of a persons status. Rule of law is the foundation of any democracy. It
implies that no person is above the law. There cannot be any distinction between a political leader, government
official and ordinary citizen.
Q.3. Mention the freedoms provided under the Right to Freedom?
AnsUnder the Right to Freedom, the Indian constitution guarantees six freedoms. These are:
(i) Freedom of speech and expression (ii) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(iii) Freedom to form associations and unions (iv)Freedom to move freely throughout the country
(v) Freedom to reside in any part of the country and,
(vi Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Q.4What does the term minority refer to under the Cultural and Educational Rights?
Ans.Here minority does not mean only religious minority at the national level. In some places, people speaking a
particular language are in majority; people speaking a different language are in a minority. For example, Telugu-
speaking people form a majority in Andhra Pradesh but they are a minority in Karnataka. Sikhs constitute a
majority in Punjab, but they are a minority in Rajasthan, Haryana and Delhi.
.Q.5. Give some examples with regard to the expansion of the scope of rights for the citizens.
Ans. Certain rights like right to freedom of press, right to information, and right to education are derived from
the Fundamental Rights. Recently school education has become a right for Indian citizens. Parliament has
passed a law giving the right to information to the citizens. Under the direction of the Supreme Court, right to
life now includes the right to food. Right to property is not a Fundamental Right but it is a legal right. Right to
vote in elections is an important constitutional right.


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Q.6. Explain the 'Right to Equality' enjoyed by the citizens of India. What is its importance?
Ans All citizens irrespective of caste, colour, region, religion ethnicity, sex or place of birth are equal before the
law. There shall be no discrimination against any citizen. All citizens shall have equal opportunity in matters of
employment. This is what the 'Right to Equality' means.
Q.7. The right to freedom is a cluster of six rights. Explain. Ans. The right to freedom is a cluster of six rights. Therefore:
(i) Freedom of speech and expression (ii) Freedom of assembly in peaceful manner
(iii) To form association and unions (iv)Move freely throughout the country
(v) Reside in any part of the country (vi) Practice any profession or occupation.
Q.8.Why are the rights guaranteed by the Indian constitution called Fundamental Rights?
Ans. (i) They are fundamental to our life.
(ii) Fundamental Rights put into effect the securing for all citizens equality, liberty and justice as given in the
Preamble to our constitution.
Q.9. State any three provisions of the Fundamental Right Against Exploitation.
Ans. (i) The constitution prohibits traffic in human beings i.e. selling and buying of human beings.
(ii) It also prohibits forced labour or begar in any form.
(iii) The constitution also prohibits child labour. No one can employ a child below the age of fourteen to work in
a factory, mine or any hazardous work.
Q.10.Why do we need rights in a democracy?
Ans. Rights are claims of a person over other fellow beings; over the society, and over the government. Rights
are necessary for the very sustenance of democracy. Rights protect minorities. Rights are guarantees which can
be used when things growing.
Q.11. Write three constitutional provisions for the protection of women and children in India.
Ans.These are: The constitution prohibits
(i) Traffic in human beings i.e. selling & buying of human beings specially women for immoral purposes.
(ii) It prohibits forced labour
(iii) It protects children under years of age by prohibiting their employment in any factory, mine or hazardous work.
.Q.12. Mention any three features of Right to Equality.
Ans. (i) The law apples to all citizens irrespective of his status (The Rule of Law).
(ii) The government shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, caste ethnicity, sex or place of birth.
(iii) All citizens have equality of opportunity in matters of employment
Q.13. Mention any three rights of a detained person.
Ans. (i) A person who is arrested and detained in custody will have to be informed of the reasons for such arrest.
(ii) Such a person shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of arrest.
(iii) Such a person has the right to consult a lawyer or engage a lawyer for his defence.
Q.14. Right to constitutional remedies is the heart and soul of the constitution. Justify.
AnsThis right makes other rights effective when any of our rights are violated we can seek remedy through
courts. If it is a Fundamental Right we can directly approach the Supreme Court. That is why Dr Ambedkar called
it the heart and soul of our constitution.
Q.15.What was the background in which ethnic massacre took place in Kosovo?
Ans. Kosovo was a province of Yugoslavia before it split away. In this province the population was
overwhelmingly ethnic Albanian. But in the entire country, Serbs were in majority. A narrow minded Serb
nationalist, Milosevic, had won the election and became the President of Yugoslavia. His government was very
hostile to the Kosovo Albanians. He wanted that ethnic minorities like Albanians should either leave the country
or accept the dominance of the Serbs. The massacre was carried out by the army under the direction of the government
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
Q.1. Explain the provisions included in the Right against Exploitation?
Ans- 1-Once the right to liberty and equality is granted it follows that every citizen has a right to not to be
exploited yet the constitution makers thought it was necessary to write down certain clear provisions to prevent
exploitation of the weaker sections of the society.
2-The constitution mentions three weaker sections of the society.
3-The constitution mentions three evils and declares these as illegal.
4-First, the constitution prohibits traffic in human beings, i.e., selling and buying of human beings.
5-Secondly, it prohibits begar or forced labour in any form.
Finally the constitution prohibits child labour. No one can employ a child below the age of fourteen to work in a factory or mine.


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Q.2. Mention the provisions of the Cultural and Educational Rights.
Ans 1- For the simple reason that the working of democracy gives power to the majority, it is the language,
culture and religion of minorities that needs special protection. Therefore, the cultural and educational rights of
the minorities are specified in the constitution.
2-Any section of citizens with a distinct language or culture has a right to conserve it.
3-Admission to any educational institution maintained by government or receiving government aid cannot be
denied to any citizen on the ground of religion or language.
4-All minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
5-Full compensation has to be paid if the state seeks to acquire the property of a minority educational institution.
Q.3. Explain what is meant by the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Ans. 1-Rights guaranteed by the constitution are useless if there are no special provisions to guarantee them.
2-The Fundamental Rights in the constitution are enforceable. We have the right to seek the enforcement of
these rights by moving to the High Courts or the Supreme Court. This is called the Right to Constitutional
Remedies which is provided by Article 32 of the constitution.
3-This itself is a Fundamental Right. This right makes other rights effective. It is possible that sometimes our
rights may be violated by fellow citizens, private bodies or by the government.
4-When any of the rights are violated we can seek remedy through a court. If it is a Fundamental Right we can
directly approach the Supreme Court or the High Court of a state.
5- Dr. Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) the heart and soul of our constitution.
There can be no law or action that violates the Fundamental Rights. Such a law can be declared null and void by
the Supreme Court.
Q.4.What can a person do in case of the violation of Fundamental Rights? What is PIL and how does it work?
Ans.1-In case of any violation of Fundamental Right, the aggrieved person can approach the High Court or the
Supreme Court for remedy.
2- Moreover any person can go to court against the violation of the Fundamental Right, if it is of social or public
interest. It is called the Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
3-Under this any citizen or group of citizens can approach the Supreme Court or the High Court for the
protection of public interest against a particular law or action of the government.
4-One can write to the judges even on a postcard. The court will take up the matter if the judges find.
Q.5.Explain the correctness of the following statement, Rights are necessary for the very sustenance of a democracy.
Ans.1-It is absolutely correct to say that rights are necessary for the very sustenance of a democracy. Rights are
the heart and soul of democracy.
.2- In a democracy, every citizen has the right to vote and the right to be elected to government. For democratic
elections to take place, it is necessary that citizens should have the right to express their opinion, form political
parties and take part in political activities.
3-Rights also perform a very special role in a democracy. They protect minorities from the oppression of the majority. They
ensure that interests of the minorities are protected and majority does not act as per its whims and fancies.
4- Rights are guarantees which can be used when things go wrong. Things may go wrong when some citizens
may wish to take away the rights of others. Generally, the majority wants to dominate the minority.
5-The government should protect the citizens rights in such a situation. Sometimes elected governments may
not protect or even attack the rights of their own citizens (as happened in Yugoslavia under
Milosevic). Therefore, some basic rights of the citizens are written down in the constitution of most
democracies. it in public interest. Even a newspaper article or report can be treated as a PIL by the court.
Q.6.Mention four new rights which the constitution of South Africa has guaranteed to its citizens.
Ans.1-The scope of rights has been expanding and new rights are evolving over time. They are the result of the
struggle of the people. New rights emerge as societies develop or as new constitutions are made.
The constitution of South Africa guarantees its citizens several kinds of new rights.
2-Right to privacy, so that citizens or their home cannot be searched, their phones cannot be tapped, their
communication cannot be opened.
3-Right to an environment that is not harmful to their health or well-being.
4-Right to have access to adequate housing.
5-Right to have access to health care services, sufficient food and water; no one can be refused emergency
medical treatment.
Q.7 The Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression does not come without qualifications. Explain?


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Ans.1- Freedom of speech is one of the essential features of any democracy.
2- Our ideas and personality develop only when we are able to freely communicate with others. You may
disagree with a policy of government, you are free to criticise the government.
3-You may publicise your views through pamphlet, magazine or newspaper. However, you cannot use this
freedom to instigate violence against others.
4-You cannot incite people to rebel against the government, nor can you use it to defame others by saying false and mean
things that cause damage to a person's reputation. This is called freedom of speech with qualifications.
HOTS
Q.1. Are the reservations provided to the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and OBCs against the Right to
Equality? Give reasons.
Ans.1-These reservations are not against the Right to Equality.
2-In a broader sense, equality does mean giving everyone the same treatments, no matter what they need.
3-Equality means giving everyone an equal opportunity to achieve whatever one is capable of. Sometimes, it is necessary to
give job reservations to socially and economically backward sections of the society to ensure equal opportunity.
4-The constitution says that reservations of this kind are not a violation of the Right to Equality.
Q.2What is the role of National Human Rights Commission in securing the human rights?
How does it work?
Ans.1-The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) focuses on helping the victims secure their human rights.
These include all the rights granted to the citizens by the constitution. For NHRC human rights also include the
rights mentioned in the UN-sponsored international treaties that India has signed.
2-The NHRC cannot by itself punish the guilty that is the responsibility of the courts. The NHRC makes an
independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of human rights.
3-The commission presents its findings and recommendations to the government or intervenes in the court on
behalf of the victims.
4- Like any court, it can summon witnesses, question any government official, demand any official paper, visit
any prison for inspection or send its own team for on-the-spot inquiry
Q.3.The 'Right to Constitutional Remedies' is called the heart of the constitution. Explain.
Ans.1-This 'Right' makes other 'Rights' effective. If sometimes our rights are violated by fellow citizens, private
bodies or by the government, we can seek remedy through courts.
2-If it is aFundamental Right we can directly approach the Supreme Court or the high court of a state. That is
why Dr. Ambedkar called it "the heart and soul" of our constitution.
Q.4. Right to freedom comes with some limitations. Justify with three suitable examples.
Ans. (i) You cannot use your Right to Freedom to incite people to rebel against government or to defame others.
(ii) We can hold meetings but peacefully.
(iii) We cannot carry weapons while participating in a procession or a meeting
Q.5.What is a secular state? In which way does our constitution make India a secular state?
Ans 1-A secular state is one that does not confer any privilege or favour on any particular religion. It does not
punish or discriminate against people on the basis of religion they follow.
2-It implies that the government cannot compel any person to pay any taxes for the promotion or maintenance
of a particular religion or religious institution.
3- There shall be no religious instruction in the government educational institutions. In private institutions, no
person can be compelled to take part in a religious activity. A secular state is one that does not establish any one
religion as official religion.
4-Indian secularism practises an attitude of principled and equal distance from all religions. The Preamble to
Indian constitution declares India to be a secular nation. There is no official religion in India. The Indian state is
neutral and impartial in dealing with all religions.
5- Right to freedom of religion is a Fundamental Right. Every citizen of India has a right to profess, practise and
propagate the religion he/she believes in. Every religious group or sect is free to manage its religious affairs
Key to MCQ
Q.1 (d),Q.2. (c),Q.3. (d),Q.4 (c),Q.5.(d),Q.6.(b),Q.7. (b),Q.8. (b),Q.9. (b), Q.10. (d),Q.11. (c), Q.12. (a)
Q.13.(b),Q.14. (b), Q.15(c), Q.16 (b),Q.17(c), Q.18. (c), Q.19.(d),Q.20. (c),Q.21. (d), Q.22(b) Q.23. (b)
Q.24 (d),Q.25. (c), Q.26. (b), Q.27. (b), Q.28. (b), Q.29. (d),Q.30 (c) ,Q.31 (c),Q.32. (a) Q.33 (b), Q.34. (a)
Q.35.(b),Q.36. (b), Q.37. (b),Q.38. (b), Q.39.(d),Q.40. (b)



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Part 4: Economics
CHAPTER : 3. POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE
CONCEPTS
Poor: In our daily life we come across many poor people such as landless labourers in villages, people living in jhuggis, daily
wage workers at construction sites, child labourers in dhabas, rickshaw-pullers, domestic servants, cobblers, beggars, etc.
Meaning of Poverty: Usually the levels of income and consumption are used to define poverty. In India, poverty has been
defined as a situation in which a person fails to earn income sufficient to buy him bare means of subsistence.
Other Indicators of Poverty: Now poverty is looked through other indicators like illiteracy level, lack of access to health
care, lack of job opportunities, lack of access to safe drinking water, sanitation, etc. Nowadays, the concept of social
exclusion is becoming very common in the analysis of poverty.
Estimates of Poverty: The incidence of poverty in India was around 55 per cent in 1973 which declined to 36 per cent in
1993 and further to 26 per cent in 2000. Social groups which are most vulnerable to poverty are Scheduled Caste and
Scheduled Tribe households.
Inequality of Incomes within a Family: In poor families, old people, women and female children are denied equal access to
familys available resources. They are the poorest of the poor.
Inter-State Disparities: The proportion of poor people is not the same in every state. In 20 states and union territories the
poverty ratio is less than the national average. Orissa and Bihar are the poorest states of India with poverty ratios of 47 per
cent and 43 per cent respectively. Lowest incidence of poverty is found in Jammu and Kashmir with poverty ratio of just 3.5
per cent.
Global Poverty Scenario: There has been substantial decline in global poverty. However, it is marked with great regional
differences. Poverty has declined more in China and South-East Asian countries.
Causes of Poverty: There are a number of causes for the widespread poverty in India. These are :
1. Rapid growth of population, particularly among the poor is considered a major cause of Indian poverty.
2. Our agricultural sector has failed to generate much employment opportunities for the farm labourers. Similarly, our
industries could not provide much job for the job seekers.
3. One of the major causes of poverty is the unequal distribution of land and other resources. Various land reform
measures introduced after Independence could not improve the life of millions of rural poor because of their poor
implementation.
4. Social factors: People in India, including the very poor, spend a lot of money on social occasions like marriages, festivals,
etc. Poor people hardly have any savings; they are, thus forced to borrow. Unable to pay because of poverty, they became
victims of indebtedness. Joint family system has prevented people from doing hard work.
Steps taken by the Government for Poverty Alleviation
Our governments strategy to poverty reduction has been twofold. One, promotion of economic growth and, two, targeted
poverty alleviation programmes.
Poverty Alleviation Programmes: To address the poor, a need for targeted anti-poverty programmes was strongly felt.
Some of them are given below:
1. Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana (PMRY) : The aim of this programme (which was started in 1993) was to create self-
employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns.
2. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) : REGP was launched in 1995 to create self-employment
opportunities in rural areas.
3. Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) : SGSY was started in 1999. The programme aims at bringing the assisted
poor families above the poverty line.
4. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY) was launched in 2000.
5. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) for the poorest of poors and elders.
6. National Food for Work Programme (NFWP) was launched in 2004.
7. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) was passed in September 2005. The Act provides 100-days assured
employment every year to every rural household in 200 districts.
The Challenges Ahead Though poverty has declined in India, poverty reduction remains Indias most compelling challenge.
We will have to do something special to fight against wide regional disparities. We must broaden the definition of poverty
from a minimum subsistence level of living to a reasonable level of living. Bigger challenges before us are: providing health
care, education and job security for all the achieving gender equality
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Which country of South-East Asia made rapid economic growth?
(a) India (b) China (c) Nepal (d) Pakistan
2. NFWP is stand for:
(a) National Federation for Work and Progress (b) National Forest for Wildlife Protection
(c) National Food and Wheat Processing (d) National Food for Work Programme


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3. Social exclusion denies certain individuals the
(a) facilities (b) benefits (c) opportunities (d) all the above
4. How many people in India live below the poverty line?
(a) 30 crores (b) 26 crores (c) 28 crores (d) 24 crores
5. Which organization carries out survey for determining the poverty line?
(a) NSSO (b) CSO (c) Planning Commission (d) None of the above
6. Which social group is most vulnerable to poverty in India?
(a) Scheduled castes (b) Scheduled tribes (c) Casual labourers (d) All the above
7. Which two states of India continue to be the poorest states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir (b) Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand (c) Orissa, Bihar (d) None 8.
Poverty line in rural areas is (As per 1999 2000 prices)
(a) Rs 328 (b) Rs. 370 (c) Rs 454 (d) Rs. 460
9. Who are the poorest of the poor?
(a) Women (b) Old people (c) Children (d) All the above

10. What is the poverty ratio in the state of Orissa?
(a) 50% (b) 47% (c) 60% (d) 57%
11. In which state has the high agricultural growth helped to reduce poverty?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) West Bengal (c) Punjab (d) Gujarat
12. In which state have the land reform measures helped to reduce poverty?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Punjab (c) West Bengal (d) Kerala
13. Which state has focused more on human resource development?
(a) Gujarat (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala
14. In which state is the public distribution system responsible for the reduction in poverty?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
15. What is the main cause of poverty in India?
(a) High income inequalities (b) Less job opportunities (c) High growth in population (d) All of these
16. Which of the following is responsible for high poverty rates?
(a) Huge income inequalities (b) Unequal distribution of land
(c) Lack of effective implementation of land reforms (d) All the above
17. In rural areas, which of the following are not poor?
(a) Landless agricultural workers (b) Backward classes (c) Rural artisans (d) Medium farmers
18. Nutritional level of food energy is expressed in the form of
(a) calories per day (b) wheat consumption (c) rice consumption per day (d) none of the above
19. As per Planning Commission, minimum daily intake of calories for determining poverty line for rural area is
(a) 2100 (b) 2400 (c) 1500 (d) none of the above
Q.20. Poverty ratio in India as compared to Pakistan is
(a) same (b) half (c) two times (d) two and a half times
21. What are accepted average calories required in India in urban areas?
(a) 2100 (b) 2400 (c) 2800 (d) 2500
22.Which one from the following is considered as poor?
(a) A rich landlord (b) A businessman (c) A landless labourer (d) A teacher
23. Which among the following is the method to estimate the poverty line?
(a) Investment method (b) Income method (c) Capital method (d) Human method
24. Which state has the largest percentage of poors in India?
(a) Bihar (b) Orissa (c) Kerala (d) Punjab
25. When was National Rural Employment Guarantee Act passed?
(a) September 2005 (b) August 2004 (c) May 2009 (d) None of these
26. Who advocated that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of its people become free of human suffering ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Jawahar lal Nehru (d) Subhash Chandra Bose
27. Which of the following programmes was launched in the year 2000?
(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (b) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana
(c) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna (d) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
28. Who do not come under the category of urban poor?


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(a) The casual workers (b) The unemployed (c) The shopkeepers (d) Rickshawpullers
29. How many percent of Indian people were poor in the year 2000?
(a) 36% (b) 46% (c) 26% (d) 29%
30. Which scheme was started in 1993 to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed
youth in rural areas and small towns?
(a) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana (b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(c) Rural Employment Generation Programme (d) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
31. For how many days MNREGA provides employment?
(a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 100
32. Which one of the social groups is vulnerable to poverty?
(a) Scheduled caste (b) Urban casual labour (c) Rural agricultural households (d) All the above
33. By which year governments are aiming to meet the Millennium Development Goals including halving the
rate of global poverty?
(a) 2011 (b) 2015 (c) 2045 (d) 2035
34. Which one are not the major causes of income inequality in India?
(a) Unequal distribution of land (b) Lack of fertile land
(c) Gap between rich and the poor (d) Increase in population
35. In which of the following countries did poverty actually rise from 1981 to 2001?
(a) Sub-Saharan Africa (b) India (c) China (d) Russia
36. The calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas because:
(a) they do not enjoy as much as people in the urban areas. (b) food items are expensive.
(c) they are engaged in mental work. (d) people are engaged in physical labour.
37. Which of the following is an indicator of poverty in India?
(a) Income level (b) Illiteracy level (c) Employment level (d) All of these
38. Which of the following is not a valid reason for the poverty alleviation programme in India?
(a) Lack of proper implementation (b) Lack of right targeting
(c) Corruption at the highest level (d) Overlapping of schemes
39. Which industry suffered the most during colonial period?
(a) Jute (b) Textile (c) Indigo (d) All the above
40. Which one from the following states is above the national average of poverty ratio?
(a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. Explain how poverty begets more poverty?
Ans. Poverty begets more poverty. It is both a cause as well as consequence of poverty. A poor country cannot
save much out of its national income. As a result, it suffers from capital deficiency which adversely affects the
level of production and income in the country.
2. Explain the concepts of : (a) Social exclusion (b) Vulnerability
Ans. (a) Social Exclusion : According to this concept, poverty must be seen in terms of the poor who have to live
only in a poor surroundings with other poor people. Poor people are excluded from better surroundings with
better-off people. For example, in India people belonging to certain castes are excluded from equal
opportunities.
(b) Vulnerability : There is a greater possibility of remaining poor in case of certain communities (such as
members of a backward classes, widows, physically handicapped persons). These groups of people face greater
risks at the time of natural disasters (earthquakes, tsunami). Thus vulnerability describes the greater possibility
of being adversely affected in comparison of other people in odd times.
3. Suggest some measures to reduce regional poverty?
Ans. Measures to reduce regional poverty: Several states of India like Orissa, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar
Pradesh, Nagaland, etc., are economically very poor. To remove this regional poverty the following measures
may be suggested:
(a) More Central assistance and grants should be given to backward states.
(b) Special concessions may be given for investments in backward areas.
(c) Public sector enterprises should be set up in backward states.
4. Discuss any three measures to reduce poverty in India?


148
Ans. More Industrialisation: In order to remove poverty and unemployment, especially in cities, more and
more industries are to be set up.
Improvement in Agriculture: While latest methods should be adopted in improving agriculture, steps should
also be taken so that land is provided to the tiller and it is not concentrated in the hands of few rich farmers and landlords.
Education: Education is must for removing any evil, including poverty and unemployment.
It must be made cheaper so that every person could get it easily.
5. Discuss any three government programmes for poverty alleviation?
Ans. 1. Prime Minister's Rojgar Yojana (PMRY) : These schemes have been started for the welfare of the
educated unemployed in urban areas. Youth belonging to the weaker sections of society are given priority.
2. Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) : These were launched in 1999 to create wage employment to families
below poverty line and to improve the quality of life in the rural areas.
3. Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY) : The objective of this programme is to generate gainful employment
for the unemployed and underemployed men and women in rural areas, community and social assets are
created such as soil conservation work.
6. Mention any three features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005?
Ans. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 was passed in September 2005 with the following features:-
(i) It provides 100-days assured employment every year to every rural household with the reservation for one-
third of the proposed jobs for women.
(ii) The central government will establish a National Employment Guarantee Fund for Women and state
governments will establish State Employment Guarantee Funds for implementation of the scheme.
(iii) If an applicant is not provided employment within 15 days, he/she will get daily unemployment allowance.
7. What are the main causes of poverty in India?
Ans. Main causes of poverty in India are:-
(i) Huge income inequalities make it difficult for the government policies to implement properly for poverty
elimination. Therefore income inequality is a major cause of poverty in India.
(ii) Exploitation of traditional Indian handicrafts and textile industries by British colonial administration is
another major cause of poverty.
(iii) In order to fulfill social obligations and observe religious ceremonies, the poor spend a lot of money. Poor
people borrow money for different reasons and become the victims of indebtedness.
8. Explain three ways in which poverty can be estimated in India?
Ans. While determining the poverty line in India, a minimum level of food requirement, clothing, footwear, fuel
and light, educational and medical requirement etc. are determined for subsistence.
(i) The calorie requirement depending upon the age, sex, area and type of work is the way of estimating poverty. Average
calorie requirement in India is 2400 per person per day in rural areas and 2100 per person per day in urban areas.
(ii) Monetary expenditure per capita needed is also a way of estimating poverty. In the year 2000, poverty line
for a person was fixed at Rs 328 per month for the rural areas and Rs 454 for the urban areas.
(iii) A uniform standard for poverty line is also used, which is given by international organisations like World
Bank. This is equivalent of $ 1 per person per day.
9. Explain the principal measures taken in Punjab, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh to reduce poverty?
Ans. (i) The principal measures taken in Punjab to reduce poverty is increasing the agricultural growth rates.
(ii) Kerala focused more on human resource development to reduce poverty.
(iii) Andhra Pradesh focused on public distribution of foodgrains to reduce poverty.
10. Give one positive and one negative side of poverty conditions in India, and mention the major weaknesses
of poverty alleviation programmes?
Ans. Positive aspect:-
(i) India's economic growth is one of the fastest in the world which helps in reducing poverty.
Negative aspect:-
(i) Large number of poors lives in villages and dependent upon agriculture where growth is much below expectation.
Weakness of Poverty alleviation programme :-
(i) Lack of proper implementation and right targeting with lots of over lapping schemes.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. What are the main features of poverty in India?
Ans. Features of Poverty in India: Following are the main features of poverty in India.


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(i) Declining Trend: The proportion of people below poverty line in India had variations. Poverty ratio increased
during the decade of the 1970s. It decreased sharply during the decade of the 1980s. During the decade of
1990s, there was first a rise following the period of economic reforms and then a fall in the incidence of poverty.
Since 1993-94, the total number of the poor shows a declining trend.
(ii) Inter-State Variations: Poverty is not equally distributed through the country. A recent study shows that
more than 90 per cent of Indias rural poor live in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh,
Karnataka, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. Further, 50 per cent of Indias
rural poor live in three states (namely, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh). As against this, the poverty
ratio in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Gujarat, Kerala, Punjab and Haryana is quite low.
(iii) Nature of Poverty: Poverty is visible both in our rural and urban areas. The rural poor consist of people of
low castes and tribal groups. The major group of the poor include landless agricultural labourers, small and
marginal farmers, rural artisans, etc. In the urban sector, the poor include largely unemployed, underemployed
or persons employed in low productivity occupations such as rickshawpullers, cobblers, and street vendors.
2. Describe in brief the important poverty alleviation programmes undertaken by the Government of India?
Ans. Poverty Alleviation Programmes of India: The important poverty alleviation programmes which are in
operation in rural and urban areas are :
(i) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana (PMRY): PMRY was launched on 2 October 1993. The aim of this programme is
to create self-employment opportunities for educated youth in rural areas and small towns. They are helped in
setting up small business and industries.
(ii) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) : SGSY was launched on 1 April, 1999. It aims at promoting
enterprises at the village level. It helps the rural people to organise themselves into self-help groups. The
objective of SGSY is to bring the existing poor families above the poverty line by providing them income
generation assets through a mix of bank credit and government subsidy.
(iii) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY) : PMGY was introduced in 2000. Its objective is to focus on
village level development in five critical areas, that is, primary health, primary education, rural shelter, rural
drinking water and rural roads. As a result of this, the quality of life of rural people will improve.
(iv) Sampoorna Grameen Rojgar Yojana (SGRY) : This programme was launched in September 2001. The
objectives of this scheme are :
(a) to provide wage employment along with food security in the rural areas.
(b) to create durable community, social and economic assets.
The ongoing Employment Assurance Scheme and JGSY would be merged with SGRY.
(v) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) : NREGA was passed in September 2005. The Act
provides for 100-days assured employment to every rural household in 200 districts. Later, the scheme will be
extended to 600 districts. However, the results of these programmes have not been very effective. One of the
major reasons for their less effectiveness is the lack of proper implementation and right targeting. Also, there
has been overlapping of schemes. Therefore, the major emphasis in recent years is on their proper monitoring.
3. How can poverty be reduced in future in India? Suggest any four points?
Ans. Poverty can be reduced in the following ways:-
(i) Increasing empowerment of women and the economically weaker sections of society.
(ii) Fostering the economic growth. (iii) Increasing the stress on universal free elementary education.
(iv) Caste and gender discrimination to be avoided. (v) Improving health care, education and job security.
(vi) Removing inequality of wealth among people.
4. Mention the two planks on which the current anti-poverty strategy of the government is based. Why the
poverty alleviation was programmes not successful in most parts of India?
Ans. The current anti-poverty strategy of the government is based broadly on two planks:
(i) Promotion of economic growth.
(ii) Targeted anti-poverty programmes. The results of poverty alleviation programmes have been mixed. The
major reasons for less effectiveness are :-
(i) Lack of proper implementation and right targeting.
(ii) Overlapping of a number of schemes. They lack proper monitoring and therefore the benefits of these
schemes do not fully reach out to the deserving poor.
5. NREGA 2005 is an important anti-poverty programme? Explain.
Ans. NREGA stands for National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005. Following things were included in the scheme:
(i) It aims at providing 100-days assured employment every year to every rural household.


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(ii) It initially started for 200 districts but later on extended to 600 districts.
(iii) One-third of the proposed jobs were reserved for women.
(iv) The Central government established National Employment Guarantee Funds and state government
established State Employment Guarantee Funds for implementation of the scheme.
(v) If an applicant is not provided employment within fifteen days he/she will be entitled to a daily
unemployment allowance.
6. Give brief account of inter-state disparities of poverty in India?
Ans. Proportion of poor people is not the same in every state.
a. In 20 states and union territories, the poverty ratio is less than national average.
b. In the states of Orissa, Bihar, Assam, Tripura and Uttar Pradesh poverty percentage is more than 35. So
poverty is serious problem in these states. Along with rural poverty, urban poverty is also high in these states.
c. While in the states like Kerala, Jammu and Kashmir, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh there is significant decline
in poverty.
d. States like Punjab and Haryana have succeeded in reducing poverty with the help of high agricultural growth rates.
e. In West Bengal, land reform measures have helped in reducing poverty.
HOTS
1. What is meant by 'vulnerability' to poverty? Which economic categories are more vulnerable to poverty in India?
Ans. Vulnerability to poverty: It is a measure which describes the greater probability of certain communities or
individuals (such as widow or a physically handicapped person) of becoming or remaining poor in coming years.
Economic categories more vulnerable to poverty in India: Schedule tribes, urban casual labourers, rural
agriculture labourers, scheduled castes are major economic groups, which are more vulnerable to poverty.
Among these, scheduled tribes contribute to 51% of poverty in India which average Indian poverty ratio is 26.
2. Social exclusion can be both a cause as well as consequence of poverty? Explain.
Ans. Social exclusion can be seen in the terms of poors who have to live only in a poor surrounding with other
poor people. Poor people are excluded from better surroundings with better-off people. For example, in India
people belonging to certain lower castes (i.e., Scheduled Castes) are excluded from equal opportunities. Poor
people of certain castes have to live in a separate locality and are excluded from mixing with better-off people.
Due to such discrimination These people are deprived of better employment and growth opportunities. Social
exclusion thus lead to poverty and can cause more damage than having a very low income.
3. Who are the most vulnerable as far as poverty is concerned? How have the states of West Bengal, Punjab
and Tamil Nadu tackled poverty?
Ans. The most vulnerable groups to poverty are:
(i) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (ii) Rural agricultural labour
(iii) Urban casual labour.
States tackled poverty in the following ways:-
i. West Bengal:- Land reform measures have helped in reducing poverty.
ii. Punjab:- Reduce poverty with high growth rates of agriculture.
iii. Tamil Nadu:- Public distribution of food grains has reduced the poverty.
Value based questions:
1. Why do different countries use different poverty lines?
2. In poor families all suffer but some suffer more than others. Explain.
3. There is a strong link between economic growth and poverty reduction. Explain.
4. How is the illiteracy responsible for Poverty in India? Explain.

KEY OF MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. (b), 2. (d), 3. (d), 4. (b), 5. (a), 6. (d), 7. (c), 8. (a), 9. (d), 10. (b),11. (c),12. (c),13. (d), 14. (c),
15. (d), 16. (d), 17. (d), 18. (a),19. (b), 20. (c), 21. (b), 22.(c), 23. (b), 24. (b), 25. (a), 26. (a), 27. (d)
28. (c), 29. (c), 30. (a), 31. (d), 32. (d), 33. (b), 34. (b), 35.(a), 36. (d), 37. (d), 38. (c), 39. (a), 40. (a)


CHAPTER: 4. FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA
CONCEPTS
Food security: Food security means availability, accessibility and affordability of food to all people at all times.


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Why food security is necessary? The poorest section of the society remains food insecure all the times. People above
poverty line might also feel food insecure in times of natural calamity like earthquake, drought, flood, tsunami, etc.
Food-insecure: In rural areas, the worst affected people are: landless and small farmers, traditional artisans (weavers,
potters, blacksmith etc.) providers of services (e.g. barbers, washermen etc), petty self-employed workers and
destitutes. In the urban areas, persons employed in ill-paid occupations and casual labourers are food insecure.
Hunger. Hunger has chronic and seasonal dimensions. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger and are food insecure all
the times. Seasonal hunger is caused by the seasonal nature of agricultural activities in rural areas. In urban areas,
seasonal hunger occurs because of the casual type of work. Thus, seasonal hunger exists when people are unable to
get work for the whole year.
Need for self-sufficiency in food grains. Our government since Independence realised the need to attain self-sufficiency
in food grains because India experienced acute shortage of food grains after partition of the country in 1947. The need
for self-sufficiency arises from the following :
(a) to feed rising population (b) to fight against droughts, floods, cyclone, etc.
(c) to reduce import of food grains (d) to control prices of food grains.
Food Security System in India. Since the advent of the Green Revolution in the 1960s the country has avoided famine,
even during adverse weather conditions. India has become self-sufficient in food grains during the last 30 years because
of the variety of crops grown all over the country. Also, we have developed a food security system.
Buffer Stock. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains (wheat and rice) procured by the government through the Food
Corporation of India (FCI). The FCI purchases wheat and rice for the government from the farmers of surplus states at
pre-announced prices. This price is called minimum support price.
Public Distribution System (PDS) PDS refers to a system through which the food procured by the FCI is distributed
among the poor through government regulated ration shops. The consumers are issued ration cards.
Types of Ration Cards in India. There are three kinds of ration cards : (a) Antyodaya cards for the poorest of the poor,
(b) BPL cards for those below poverty line and, (c) APL cards for those above poverty line.
Three Important Food Intervention Programmes. In the wake of high incidence of poverty levels in mid-1970s, three
important food Intervention programmes were introduced:
(a) Public Distribution System (in existence earlier ) (b) Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) in 1975
(c) Food for work in 1977-78.
In 2000, two special schemes were launched viz. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) and the Annapurna scheme (APS) with
special target groups of the poorest of the poor and indigent senior citizens, respectively.
Excessive Food Stocks: In July 2002, the stock of wheat and rice with FCI was 63 million tonnes which was much more
than the minimum buffer norms of 24.3 million tonnes. The stock reduced thereafter but always remained higher than
the buffer norms.
Paradox of Excess Stocks and Starvation. In fact, India has experienced a paradoxical situation in recent years. While
the granaries (godowns) of the government are overflowing with excess stocks of food, we also find people without
food. The main reason for this unfortunate situation is that many poor families do not have enough money or income to
buy food.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1.The most affected groups in rural areas facing food insecurity are:
(a) landless people (b) traditional artisans (c) beggars (d) all the above
2. MSP is stand for:
(a) Minimum Support Price (b) Maximum Support Price (c) Marginal Support Price (d) None of these
3. Green Revolution of 1960s was associated with:
(a) use of HYV seeds (b) tree plantation programme (c) fisheries development (d) None of these
4. P D S is associated with:
(a) fair price shops (b) cooperative stores (c) super bazars (d) none of the above
5. Revamped Public Distribution System provides benefits to:
(a) cities (b) remote and backward areas (c) self-help groups (d) cooperative societies
6. White Revolution of the country is associated to:
(a) sugar (b) milk (c) paper (d) none of the above
7. Annapurna Scheme fulfills the food requirements of:
(a) indigent senior citizens (b) children (c) pregnant ladies (d) young persons
8. Antyodaya cards are related to
(a) all poors (b) poorest of the poor (c) persons below poverty line (d) none of the above
9. Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Annapurna Scheme are linked with :
(a) Public distribution system (b) mid-day meal (c) special nutrition programme (d) none of the above
10. Under the Public Distribution System foodgrains given per family per month is:


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(a) 40 kg (b) 35 kg (c) 25 kg (d) 20 kg
11. In which state more than 90% ration shops are run by cooperatives
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Orissa (d) Bihar
12. The society which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions is :
(a) Amul (Gujarat) (b) Academy of Development Science (Maharashtra)
(c) Mother Dairy (Delhi) (d) None of the above
13. NREGA provides:
(a) 200-days of assured work (b) 100-days of assured work (c) No assured work (d) None of the above
14. Minimum Support Price is announced by the government to provide :
(a) incentives to farmers for raising production (b) incentives to traders to earn maximum profit from farmers
(c) incentives to moneylenders to lend maximum to farmers (d) none of the above
15. Seasonal hunger mostly found in:
(a) urban areas (b) rural areas (c) metro cities (d) both (a) and (b)
16.In which crop largest increase in production as a result of Green Revolution?
(a) wheat (b) rice (c) maize (d) none of the above
17. Main purpose of buffer stock is :
(a) to save food grains from pest attack (b) to stop price fluctuations
(c) to meet the crisis of low production (d) both (b) and (c)
18. Who is the nodal officer at district level?
(a) Commissioner (b) Superintendent of police (c) District officer (d) Collector
19.What is Food security means:
(a) availability of food (b) accessibility of food (c) affordability of food (d) all the above
20. Massive starvation takes place due to:
(a) rise in the price of essential commodities (b) decline in production of foodgrains
(c) drought (d) both (a) and (b)
21. Chronic hunger refers to :
(a) low income (b) inadequate quantity of food (c) inadequate quality of food (d) all the above
22. The most devastating famine occurred in India in 1943 in :
(a) Assam (b) Bengal (c) Bihar (d) Orissa
23. In which of the following states do we find the largest number of food insecure people?
(a) Bihar, Jharkhand and Orissa (b) Bihar, Jharkhand and Gujarat
(c) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Tamilnadu (d) Bihar, Chhattisgarh and Karnataka
24. In which state of India, Amul Dairy is situated?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Karnataka (d) Bihar
25. Who released a special stamp entitled Wheat Revolution in July 1968?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Motilal Nehru
26. The price that is announced before the sowing season is called:
(a) Issue price (b) Fair price (c) Market price (d) Minimum support price
27. To whom the yellow card is issued?
(a) To shop keeper (b) To land lord's (c) To government employee (d) People below the poverty line
28. Which are the special target groups in Antyodaya Anna Yojana?
(a) Poorest of the poor (b) Poor and non-poor (c) Backward class (d) None of these
29. Food for Work Programme was launched in which of the following years?
(a) 2003 (b) 2001 (c) 2004 (d) 2005
30. Kalahandi is situated in which of the following states?
(a) Orissa (b) Punjab (c) Rajasthan (d) Bihar
31. The Mother Dairy is an important cooperative in ___________ .
(a) Gujarat (b) Punjab (c) Haryana (d) Delhi
32. Women and children under the age of five are food insecure population due to :
(a) Malnutrition (b) Healthy diet (c) Fats (d) None of the above
33. F.C.I. stands for
(a) Foreign Co-operation with India (b) Food Corporation of India
(c) Fossils Corporation of India (d) Food Coming to India
34. Which among the following schemes was started in the year 2000 for the indigent senior citizens?


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(a) PDS (b) NFWP (c) SGSY (d) APS
35. Name the cooperative that provides milk and vegetables controlled rate decided by the Government of
Delhi:
(a) Amul (b) Kendriya Bhandar (c) Mother Dairy (d) None of these
36. Which among the following schemes was initiated for the poor in all areas?
(a) TPDS (b) RPDS (c) AAY (d) All of these
37. Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by the government through
(a) IFCI (b) FCI (c) IDBI (d) FICCI
38. In which part of the country, grain banks have been set up by NGO's?
(a) Gujarat (b) Haryana (c) Punjab (d) Maharashtra
39. When was the Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme launched?
(a) In Jan 1999 (b) In May 2000 (c) In Dec 2000 (d) In October 2005
40. Percentage of seasonal as well as chronic hunger in India over the years has
(a) increased (b) decreased (c) remained constant (d) None of these
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1.What are the essentials of food security system?
Ans. Essentials of Food Security System are the following:
1. Increasing domestic production of food to meet its growing demand
2. Food should be available in adequate quantity as well as to meet nutritional requirements
3. Food should be available at reasonable prices
4. Buffer stock of food should be maintained
2. Why is there need for self-sufficiency in food grains in India?
Ans. Need for self-sufficiency in foodgrains arises from the following:
(i) to feed growing population
(ii) to fight against any natural calamity
(iii) to reduce import of foodgrains
(iv) to control prices of foodgrains
3. How cooperatives are helpful in food security?
Ans. Role of cooperatives in providing food security:
In many parts of India, the cooperative societies set up their own cooperatives to supply different items at
cheaper rates. Following are the examples:
(i) In Tamil Nadu 94% of ration shops are run by cooperatives.
(ii) In Delhi, the Mother Dairy is supplying milk and milk products like butter, ghee etc. to the people at much
subsidised rates.
(iii) In Gujarat, Amul is doing the same job of supplying milk and milk products to people at much cheaper rates.
It is being run by cooperatives. It has brought 'White Revolution' in India.
4. Why is food security essential? How food security is affected during disaster?
Ans. Need of food security: The poorest section of the society might be food-insecure most of the times, while
persons above poverty lines might also be food insecure when the country faces national disaster. Due to
natural calamity, say drought, total production of foodgrain decreases. It creates a shortage of food in affected
areas. Due to shortage of food, the prices go up. At higher prices, some people cannot buy food. So food
security is essential.
5. State three dimensions of food security?
Ans. Three dimensions of food security:
(i) Availability of food: There should be enough stocks of food items in the country through good production,
through imports or previous year's stock stored in government godowns.
(ii) Accessibility of food: Food should be within the reach of everybody.
(iii) Affordability of food: The prices of different food articles should be such that every individual is able to buy
them. The foodgrain items should be within the reach of the people.
6. Why has Public Distribution System been criticised? Explain any three reasons.
Ans. (i) Market ineffectiveness of PDS : Average consumption of PDS grain at all India level is only 1 kg per
person per month. Average consumption figure in the states of Bihar, Orissa and Uttar Pradesh is only 300 gms,
while in states like Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu this figure is 3-4 kg per person per month. As a result, the poor
has to depend on markets rather than ration shops.


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(ii) With the introduction of three types of cards and three different prices for the same articles to the different
people, the whole system of Public Distribution System has become much complicated.
(iii) PDS dealers malpractices: The ration shop dealers resort to malpractices. They divert the grains to the open
market to get a better margin.
7. What is the difference between chronic and seasonal hunger? Write any two.
Ans. Chronic Hunger: When diet is inadequate in terms of quantity or quality, it is called chronic hunger. Usually
poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their low income and as a result their inability to buy food
even for their survival. This type of hunger is more or less of a permanent nature and presents throughout the
year.
Seasonal Hunger: Seasonal hunger persists only during a particular period of the season. It is linked with the
cycles of food growing and harvesting. In rural areas, the seasonal hunger is prevalent because of the seasonal
nature of agricultural activities. The gap between the sowing season and the reaping season is marked by
seasonal hunger.
8. What steps have been taken by the Government of India to provide food security to the poor? Explain any
three.
Ans. To provide food security to the poor following steps have been taken by the Government of India:
(i) PDS:- Public Distribution System (PDS) was established for the distribution of food grains among poors.
(ii) ICDS:- Integrated Child Development Services were launched in 1975 to ensure nutrition among children of
backward area.
(iii) FFW:- Food for work was introduced in 1977-78 to provide employment opportunities for poors to ensure
food security for them.
9. Why is buffer stock created by the government? Give any three reasons?
Ans. Buffer stock is created due to following reasons:-
(i) To distribute food grains in deficit areas.
(ii) To distribute food grains among the poorer strata of society at prices lower than market price.
(iii) To resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of
calamity.
Q.10.What are the major functions of the Food Corporation of India?
Ans. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) has the following major functions:-
(i) FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production.
(ii) They announce Minimum Support Price (MSP) on which government buy the surplus from the farmers.
(iii) They keep the record and maintain the buffer stock.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
Q.1.What is the difference between PDS and TPDS?
Ans. Difference between PDS and TPDS:
The food procured by the FCI is distributed through fair price shops among the poor. This is called public
distribution system. There was no discrimination between the poor and non poor under PDS.
Under the TPDS, the government has announced separate issue prices for people below poverty line (BPL) and
for above poverty line (APL) families. In December 2000, two special schemes were launched to make the TPDS
more focused and targeted towards the poor.
These were Antyodayo Anna Yojana (AAY) and the Annapurna Scheme (APS). The two schemes were linked with
TPDS. Under the AAY, poor families were identified by the respective state rural development boards.
Twenty-five kilograms of foodgrains were made available to each eligible family at highly subsidised rate of Rs 2
per kg for wheat and Rs 3 per kg for rice.
This quantity has been raised from 25 to 35 kg with effect from April 2002.
Q.2. Explain briefly the measures undertaken by the government to increase the production and supply of
foodgrains?
Ans. Government's measures to increase the production and supply of foodgrains
Main steps undertaken by the government in this regard are as follows :
(i) Land Reform Measures: Our government introduced several land reform measures soon after independence
to increase domestic production of foodgrains. These measures included (i) abolition of intermediaries to
transfer land to the actual tiller (ii) tenancy reforms to regulate rents paid by the tenants to the landlords (iii)
imposition of ceiling on landholdings to procure surplus land for distribution among the landless.


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(ii) Provision of Institutional Credit. To provide cheap and adequate agricultural finance many institutional
credit agencies were set up. The expansions of institutional credit to farmers were made especially through
cooperatives and commercial banks. As a result, the importance of village moneylenders, who used to exploit
the farmers by charging high rates of interest, has drastically declined. Initially, only four percent of the total
agricultural credit was advanced by cooperatives and commercial banks in 1950-51. Now their percentage share
rose to 89 percent in 2004-05.
(iii) New Agricultural Strategy. New agricultural strategy was introduced which resulted in the Green
Revolution, especially in the production of wheat and rice. Total production of foodgrain has increased from
50.8 million tonnes in 1950-51 to 212.0 million tonnes in 2003-04.
Q.3. Point out the major defects of Indias food security system?
Ans. Defects of Indias Food Security System:
The major flaws/drawbacks of food security system in India are as follows:
(i) Limited Benefit to the Poor. The poor has not benefited much from the PDS. They have depended to a great
extent on the open market for most of the commodities. Ration cards are issued only to those households who
have proper residential addresses. Hence, a large number of homeless poor could not be covered under the
PDS.
(ii) Leakages from PDS. Another defect of PDS relates to the problem of leakages of goods from PDS to open
market. The shopkeepers who are running ration shops sell ration in the open market at higher prices instead of
selling to ration card-holders at subsidised prices.
(iii) Increase in Prices. The PDS has also failed to protect the poor against price rise. There have been frequent
increases in procurement and issue prices. Moreover, excessive buffer stocks of foodgrains has reduced its
quantity available in the open market. This has also put an upward pressure on the market prices of food grains.
(iv) Rising Burden of Food Subsidy. PDS is highly subsidised in India. This has put a huge fiscal burden on the
government. For example, food subsidy burden has risen from Rs 602 crore in 1980-81 to Rs 25,800 crore in
2003-04.
Q.4.Describe four main advantages of the Public Distribution System in India ?
Ans. The main advantages of Public Distribution System are :-
(i) It is the most effective instrument of government policy over the years in stabilising prices and making food
available to consumers at affordable prices.
(ii) It averts widespread hunger and famine by supplying food from surplus regions of the country to the deficit
ones.
(iii) It revises the prices of food grains in favour of poor household.
(iv) The declaration of minimum support price and procurement has contributed to an increase in food grains
production and provided income security to farmers in certain regions.
Q.5. Describe Public Distribution System (PDS) is the most important step taken by the Government of India
towards ensuring food security?
Ans. In the beginning, the coverage of PDS was universal with no discrimination between poor and non-poor.
Then later on the policy was made more targeted.
Important Features of PDS
Name of Scheme Year of
introduction
Coverage target group Full name
PDS upto 1992 Universal Public Distribution System
RDPS 1992 Backward block Revamped Public Distribution
System
TDPS 1997 Poor and noon poor Targeted Public Distribution
system
AAY 2000 Poorest of the poor Antyodaya Anna Yojana
APS 2000 Indigent senior citizen Anna Purana yojana
HOTS
Q.1. What are the problems of the functioning of ration shops?
Ans. There are various problem of the functioning of ration shops such as;
1. Ration cards are issued only to those people who have their proper residential addresses. Hence a large
number of homeless poor fail to get ration from these shops.
2. The owners of these shops sell ration in the open market at higher prices.


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3. Sometimes shopkeepers make bogus entries in the ration cards.
Q.2. Which are the people more prone to food insecurity? Explain?
Ans. The people worst affected by food insecurity in India are landless labourers, traditional artisans, providers
of traditional services and destitutes including beggars. In the urban areas, the food insecure people are those
whose working members are generally employed in ill-paid occupations and casual labour market. These
workers are largely engaged in seasonal activities and are paid very low wages that just ensure bare survival.
Q.3.Which are the people more prone to food insecurity?
Ans. People more prone to food insecurity are:
(i) Landless and small farmers
(ii) Traditional artisans
(iii) Providers of traditional services
(iv) Petty self-employed persons and
(v) Beggars
Q.4. What has our government done to provide food security for the poor? Discuss any two schemes
launched by the government?
Ans. Our government has undertaken a number of measures to provide food security for the poor.
A brief account of these measures is given below :
1. Maintenance of Buffer Stock. Our government maintains buffer stock of foodgrains through Food
Corporation of India. The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in surplus states and stores in
granaries.
2. Public Distribution System (PDS). The food procured by the FCI is distributed among the poor through ration
shops. Presently, there are about 4.6 lakh ration shops in the country.
3. Nutritional Programmes. In order to provide nutritional security, our government has launched various
schemes. Mid-day meal scheme for schoolchildren, scheme for supply of foodgrains to scheduled
castes/scheduled tribes and special nutrition programmes for pregnant/nursing mothers are examples of such
schemes. In 2000, two special schemes were launched. One, Antyodaya Anna Yojana and second, the
Annapurna Schemes. The former relate to the poorest of the poor, while the latter targets indigent senior
citizens. The functioning of these two schemes was linked with the PDS. Under AAY scheme, thirty-five
kilograms of foodgrains are made available to each eligible family at a rate of Rs. 2 per kg for wheat and Rs. 3
per kg for rice. Under APS, 10 kilograms of food grains is made available to eligible persons free of cost.

Value based questions
1. Discuss the role of government in the stabilisation of food grain prices?
2. Explain how Green Revolution helped India to be self-sufficient in food grain production?
3. Describe any four points your awareness about National Food for Work Programme?
4. Describe briefly the measures adopted to achieve self-sufficiency in foodgrains since Independence?
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Key
1. (d), 2(a), 3(a), 4 (a), 5. (b), 6. (b), 7. (a), 8. (b), 9. (a), 10. (b), 11. (b), 12. (b), 13. (b), 14. (a) ,15. (b),16. (a), 17.
(d), 18. (d), 19. (d), 20. (c),21. (d), 22. (b), 23. (a), 24. (b), 25. (b), 26. (d), 27. (d), 28. (a), 29. (c), 30. (a), 31. (d),
32. (a), 33. (b), 34. (d), 35. (c), 36. (d), 37. (b), 38. (d), 39. (c), 40. (b)

Model Test Paper-1 (Solved) S.A. II
TIME : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 90

Instructions
Q. No. 1 to 10 are MCQs ( 1mark for each question)
Q. No. 11 to 23 are short answer questions write in 60-80 words ( 3 marks for each question)
Q. No. 24 to 30 are long are questions write in 100-125 words ( 5 marks for each question)
Q. No. 31-1 and 31-2 are map questions. Please attach the map inside the answer book
Q.1 Till the eighteenth century the shape of the cricket bat was in the shape of hockey stick. Choose the correct reason :
a) The ground was uneven. b) The ball was bowled underarm along the ground.
c) There was no limit on the shape and the size of the bat. d) It was easy to play in open ground.
Q.2 Which combination was suggested by the Rabindra Nath Tagore for India's national dress?


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(a) Elements of Hindu and Muslim Dress. (b) Elements of Hindu and Parsi Dress.
(c) Elements of Muslim and European Dress. (d) Elements of European and Hindu Dress.
Q.3 Why is cricket match different from other sports? Choose the correct answer.
a) The match can go on for five days and still end in a draw. (b)The playing time is an hour and half.
c)The dimension of the playing area is specified. (d)The game gets completed in nine innings.
Q.4 The red cap introduced by Jacobin Club symbolized :
(a)Liberty (b)Equality (C)Broken Chain (d)Fraternity
Q.5 Which one of the following types of forests is found in the Ganga-Bramputra Delta?
a) Thorny forest b)Montane forest (c) Mangrove forest d)Tropical Rain forest

Q.6 Which one of the following provides an ideal habitat for the animal 'Yak'?
a) Sunderbans b)Swampy and marshy lands of Assam
b) Rann of Kutch d)Freezing high altitudes of Ladakh
Q.7 Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?

a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections.
b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over.
c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only.
d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner.
Q. 8 Which one of the following is a violation of the right to life or personal liberty?
a) The arrested person was informed about the reason of his arrest.
b) He was produced before the court within 24 hours of his arrest.
c) He was not allowed to consult his lawyer.
d) He was shown the warrant before arrest.
Q.9 Which one of the following rights is available to the citizens of India and not to the citizens of Saudi Arabia?
a) The country is ruled by a hereditary king. b)Citizens cannot form political parties.
c)Women are subjected to many public restrictions. d)Citizens enjoy the freedom of religion.
Q.10 Which one of the following is not considered as a social indicator of poverty?
a) Illiteracy level. b)Lack of access of health care.
C)Inadequate safe drinking water. d)Ample job opportunities.
Ans. b)
Answer (MCQ): 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. b)
Q.11 What is shifting cultivation? Why did the European foresters discourage the practice of shifting cultivation?
(i) In shifting cultivation, parts of the forest are cut and burnt in rotation. Seeds are sown in the ashes. Such plots are
cultivated for a couple of years and then left follow to regain fertility.
ii. Europeans discouraged practice of shifting cultivation:
a. Considered the practice harmful for the forests.
b. Lands used for shifting cultivation could not be used to grow trees for railway timber.
c. Danger of the flames spreading and burning valuable timber.
d. Difficulty in the calculation of taxes.
OR
How did the Pastoralists cope with the changes in the modern world?
Ans. Pastoralists coped with the changes by the following ways.
1. Reduced the number of cattle. 2. Moved to new pasture lands.
3. Became agriculturalist. 4. Became traders.
OR
Explain the impact of introduction of machines in agriculture on poor farmers.
Ans. Impact of introduction of machine in agriculture on poor farmers-
1. It brought misery to poor farmers. 2. They came under debt. 3. They had to leave their farms.
Q.12 What was the main objective of Sumptuary laws? Mention any two restrictions imposed under these laws.
Ans. Objective of Sumptuary laws was to control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors. Restrictions.
1. Preventing them from wearing certain clothes. 2. Consuming certain foods & beverages.
3. Hunting game in certain areas.
Q.13 How is the climate of India governed by the atmospheric conditions? Explain with three suitable examples.
i. Pressure and surface winds. Ii. Upper air circulation.
Ans: Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical cyclones.
a. Development of low and high pressure during different seasons and the consequent development and pattern of
wind movements.
b. Development and the position of Jet stream during different seasons.


158
c. Inflow of western disturbances during winters and the development of tropical cyclones over the seas. Explanation
of each point.
Q.14 Describe any three features of advancing monsoon season.
1. June to September is the period of advancing monsoon. 2. Development of monsoon low pressure trough.
3. Formation of south west monsoon winds. 4. Distribution of rainfull across the country.
5. Breaks in monsoon. 6. Known for uncertainties.
Q.15 In which region are the tropical thorny forests and shrubs found in India? Mention any four characteristics of such
type of vegetation.
Ans. Thorn forests and scrubs are found in the north western part of India including semi-arid areas of
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.
1. Found in regions with less than 70cm of rainfall
2. Trees are scattered and have long roots penetrating deep into soil to get moisture.
3. Stems are succulent to conserve water.
4. Leaves are thick and small to minimise evaporation.
Q.16 Explain three main processes of change of population in India.
Ans. i) Birth Rateis the number of live births per thousand persons in a year. It is a major component growth of population. In India birth
rates have always been higher than death rates.
(ii) Death Rateis the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year. Rapid decline in death rate is themain cause of
rapid growth in population rapidly. Since 1981 birth rate has also started declining resulting in a gradual decline in the rate
of population growth.
(iii) Migrationis the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal orinternational.
Internal migration does not change the size of the population within the nation. Migration plays a very significant role in
changing the composition and distribution of population.
Q.17 How does the Election Commission of India regulate campaigns of political parties and candidates to ensure fair
and equal chances to compete?
Ans. According to our election commission laws no party or candidate can:
1. Bribe or threaten voters 2. Appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion
3. Use government resources for election campaign ; 4. Spend not more than 25 lakhs in a constituency for Lok
Sabha election or 10 lakhs in a constituency in an assembly election.
Q.18 What are 'Reserved Constituencies'? Why was the system of reserved constituencies introduced in India?
Ans. Reserved Constituencies:
1. Some constituencies are reserved for people who belong to the Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST). In
these constituencies, only someone who belongs to these categories can contest election.
2. Arguments for introduction of Reserved Contituencies
3. The Constitution makers were worried that in an open electoral competition, certain weaker sections may not stand
a good chance to get elected to Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.
4. They may not have the required resources, education and contacts to contest and win elections against others.
5. If the reservation is not done, our Parliament and Assemblies would be deprived of the voice of a significant section
of our population.
Q.19 Explain any three powers of the Prime Minister of India as Head of the State.
Ans. Powers of the Prime Minister as Head of the State.The Prime minister:
1. Chairs cabinet meetings. 2 Coordinates the work of different departments.
3. Exercises general supervision of different ministries. 4. Distributes and redistributes work to the ministers.
5. Has the power to dismiss ministers. 6 His/her decisions are final in case of disagreement
between the departments.
Q.20 Explain with examples how the poverty line is estimated in India?
The poverty line is estimated in India.
The common method used to estimate poverty line in India is based on income or consumption method.
Income Method - For the year 2000, the poverty line for a person was fixed at Rs 328 per month for the rural areas
and Rs. 454 for the urban areas.
Consumption Method - The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in
rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas.
Q.21 Explain any three causes for the widespread poverty in India.
Causes for the widespread poverty in India:
1. Low level of economic development under colonial rule. 2. Less job opportunities
3. Low growth rate of income. 4. High growth rate of population.
5. Low per capital income


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Q.22 Describe the three dimensions of food security.
Food security has following dimensions:-
1. Availability of food means food production within the country, food imports and the previous years stock stored
in government granaries.
2. Accessibility means food is within reach of every person
3. Affordability implies that an individual has enough money to buy sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet one's
dietary needs.
Any other relevant point
Q.23 Explain any five ideas of Detach Brandis for management of forests in India during British period.
Ans. Five Ideas of Dietrich Brandis for Management of forest in India Training people in the science of conservation
Framing rules about the use of forest resources Restriction on felling of trees
Restriction on grazing Preservation of forest for timber production
OR
Why are Maasais of Africa continuously losing their grazing grounds? Explain any five reasons.
The main reasons for the continuous loss of grazing lands of Maasais:
1. Europeon imperial powers scrambled for territorial possessions in Africa, slicing up the region into different colonies.
2. Maasai land was divided into British Kenya and German Tanganyika.
3. The best grazing lands were gradually taken over by white settlements and Maasais were pushed into a small area.
4. The Maasais lost about 60 percent of their pre-coloical lands.
5. They were confined to an arid zone with uncertain rainfall and poor pastures.
6. Large areas of grazing land were turned into game reserves.
OR
How did the Enclosure Movement benefit Britain. Explain any fine benefits.
1. Grain production grew as quickly as population.
2. Landlords sliced up pasture lands, carved up open fields, cut up forest commons, took over marshes, and turned
larger areas into agricultural fields.
3. Enclosures were seen as necessity to make long term investments on land.
4. Planned crop rotation to improve their soil
5. It also allowed the rich landowners to expand the land under their control and produce more for the markets.
Q.24 Explain any five reasons for increase in deforestation under colonial rule.
Five reasons for increase in deforestation under the colonial rule:
1. Increase in demand for food. 2. Forests were considered unproductive by the colonial rulers.
3. Increase in need for raw materials for industrial production. 4. Spread of railways
5. Development of plantation
OR
What was the impact of the colonial policies on the life of the pastoralists. Explain any five.
Impact of the colonial policies on the life of Pastoralists-
1. Loss of grazing land. 2. Loss of cattle.
3. Decline in the quality pastures. 4. Shortage of forage for animals.
5. Death of cattle
OR
Why were the peasants not willing to grow opium in their fields?
The Peasants were not willing to grow opium in their fields.
1. The crop had to be grown on their best lands. 2. Many cultivators owned no land.
3. The rents charged on good lands near village were very high. 4. Growing of opium was a difficult process.
5. The price given by government was low.
Q.25 The Battle of Waterloo was won on the playing field of Eton". Justify the statement with any five suitable arguments.
Britain's military success was based on the values taught to school boys in its public schools.
1. Eton was the most famous of these schools.
2. The English boarding school was the institution that trained English boys for careers in the military, the
civil service & the church.
3. Men like Thomas Arnold, head master of the famous Rugby School and founder of the modern public school
system, saw team support like cricket and rugby not just as outdoor play, but as an organised way of teaching
English boys the discipline.
4. It taught the English boys, the importance of codes of honour and the leadership qualities that helped then build
and run the British Empire.
OR
"The introduction of western style clothing in the 19th century in India met with severe reactions in different ways".
Support the statement with suitable arguments.
Many Indians reacted differently by the introduction of western style clothing.


160
1. The wealthy Parsis of western India were among the first to adapt western style of clothing. Baggy trousers and
the Phenta (or hat) were added to long colourless coats with boots and a walking stick to look like a gentleman.
2. To some, western clothes were a sign of modernity and progress.
3. There were others who were convinced that western culture would lead to a loss of traditional cultural identity.
The use of western style clothes was taken as a sign of the world turning upside down.
4. Some men resolved this dilemma by wearing western clothes without giving up their Indian ones.
Q.26 Describe any five provisions made in the National Population Policy of 2000.
Provisions made in the National Population Policy 2000
1. Imparting compulsory school education upto 14 years of age.
2. Reducing infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live birth.
3. Achieving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases.
4. Raising marriage age for girls.
5. Making family welfare a people centred programme.
Q.27 Name the two houses of Parliament in India. Which of the two houses in more powerful? Justify your answer with
any three suitable arguments.
Two Houses of Parliament in India:
Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha is more powerful.
1. If both the houses disagree on an ordinary bill, the will of Lok Sabha will prevail in the joint session due to its larger number.
2. Lok Sabha enjoys more powers in money matter. For example a money bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
3. Lok Sabha controls the Council of Ministers.
4. Only Lok Sabha can pass the no confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.
Q.28 "Rights are necessary for the very sustenance of a democracy". Give any five arguments to support the statement.
Rights are necessary for the sustenance of democracy because:
1. Every citizen must have the right to vote and the right to be elected.
2. Every citizen should have the right to express his/her opinion.
3. Citizens have the right to form political parties.
4. Right to project minorities from the oppression of majority.
5. Right to act as a check on misuse of government power.
Q.29 Explain five important anti-poverty measures undertaken by the Government of India.
Anti-Poverty Measures taken by teh Government of India.
1. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005 The Act provides 100 days assured employment every
year to every rural household in 200 districts.
2. National Food for Work Programme. (NFWP) 2004 was launched in 150 most backward districts of the country. It
is open to all rural poor who are in need of wage employment.
3. Prime Minister Rozgar Yogana (PMRY) 1993. The aim is to create self-employment opportunities for educated
youth in rural areas and small towns.
4. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) 1995 The aim to is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas.
5. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yogana (SGSY) 1999. It aims at bringing the poor families above poverty line by
organizing them into self-help groups through bank credit and government subsidy.
Q.30 What is buffer stock? Why is the buffer stock created by the government?
Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India
1. Buffer stock is created by the government : 2. To distribute foodgrains in the deficit areas.
3. To use among the poorer strata of society at a lower price.
4. To resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.
Q.31 a) Two features A and B are shown in the political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of
following information and write their correct names on the line marked on the map.
A- Type of forest B- The state having lowest sex-ratio
b) On the same map of India locate and label the following items with appropriate symbols:
1. Thiruvananthapuram 2. Corbett National Park


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Ans. Q. 31
a) 1. Evergreen forest 2. Haryana


Model Test Paper-2 (Solved) S.A. II
TIME : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 90

Instructions
Q. No. 1 to 10 are MCQs ( 1mark for each question)
Q. No. 11 to 23 are short answer questions write in 60-80 words ( 3 marks for each question)
Q. No. 24 to 30 are long are questions write in 100-125 words ( 5 marks for each question)
Q. No. 31-1 and 31-2 are map questions. Please attach the map inside the answer book

Q.1 When were the first written Laws of Cricket drawn?
(a) 1774 (b) 1775 (c) 1776 (d) 1780
or
Radical changes in women clothing were enabled by:
(a) New times (b) Womens movement (c) World war (d) Industrial revolution
Q2 When did Gandhiji adopt the short dhoti ,a form of dress and wore until his death ?
(a) 1920 (b) 1923 (c) 1922 (d) 1921
Q3 Why do trees grow faster in summer?
(a) Due to high temperature (b) Due to longer duration of sunlight
(c) Due to low temperature (d) None of these
Q4 How many types of plants species are found in India?
(a) About45,000 (b) About 40,000 (c) About47,000 (d) 20,000
Q5 How many seats are reserved for the S.C.& S.T. in the Lok Sabha ?
(a) 49, 79 (b) 50, 80 (c) 79, 49 (d) 49, 50
Q6 How many Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to the citizens by our Constitution ?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d)6
Q7 What is PIL?
(a) Public Interest Litigation (b) Public Information Litigation
(c) Public Interest Legislature (d) Private Interest Litigation
Q8 What is average poverty ratio in India ?
(a) 25% (b) 28% (c) 27% (d) 26%
Q9 What are two components of food security system ?
(a) Buffer stock, FCI (b)PDS ,FCI (c)Buffer stock, PDS (d)Buffer stock, Issue Prise
Q10 When was AAY launched ?
(a) 1990 (b) 1992 (c) 2001 (d) 2000
Answer (MCQ): 1. (a) or (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10.(d)
Q11- What is meant by the term deforestation? How are forests useful to us? (3)


162
Ans:-The disappearance of forest area to full fill the demand of developing civilisations is known as deforestation. During
the period of Colonialism, deforestation took a systematic approach towards industrial development.
Forests provide bamboo, wood for fuel, grass, charcoal, packaging, fruits, flowers, animals, birds, the tannin used to convert
skins and hides into leather, the herbs and roots used for medicinal purposes, gum, honey, coffee, tea, rubber, oil and many
other things. OR
Why did the colonial government want to convert grazing lands into cultivable farms?
Ans:-Land revenue was the main source of finance of the colonial government. By expanding cultivation it could increase its
revenue collection. It would get more jute, cotton, wheat and other agricultural produce that was required in England.
Uncultivated land appeared unproductive to the colonial officials as it produced neither revenue nor agricultural produce. It
was seen as waste land that needed to be brought under cultivation.
OR
Why did the whole region of the Great Plains become a dust bowl?
Ans :-The Great Agrarian Depression started in 1930s which ruined the wheat farmers all around. The acts of these zealous
farmers who, to expand the wheat cultivation, recklessly uprooted all vegetation. They turned the soil coverinto dust by using
tractors. Their overzealous acts turned the whole regions of the Great Plains into dust bowl.
Q12-The Battle of Waterloo was won on the playing fields of Eton. What does this mean? (3)
Ans:-This statement actually implies that Britains military success was based on the values taught to schoolboys in Britains
best public school, the Eton.
1) Men like Thomas Arnold, headmaster of the famous Rugby School and founder of the modern public school system in the
19
th
century, saw team sports like cricket and Rugby as an organised way of teaching
2) English boys learnt discipline, the importance of hierarchy, the skills, the codes of honour and the leadership qualities that
helped them build and run the British empire.
3) Victorian empire builders justified the conquest of other countries as an act of unselfish social service, by which backward
people were introduced to the civilising influence of British law and Western knowledge
OR
How did the British use their political control to improve their textile industry?
Ans:-Political control helped the British to introduce cheap and fine mill made clothes in Indian market. Indian peasants
could be forced to grow crops such as indigo. The coarser Indian clothes were easily made out of the market. As a result
many weavers and spinners were rendered without work and important textile weaving centres such as Surat, Machilipatnam
and Murshidabad declined.
Q13-What are the six controlling elements of the climate of India? (3)
Ans:-Indias climate is controlled by
1 . Latitude 2. Altitude 3. Pressureandwinds 4. Distancefrom the sea 5. Ocean currents 6. Physiography
Q14-Give three characteristics of monsoonal rainfall in India. (3)
Ans:-Characteristics of monsoon rainfall are :-
i) Early in the season, the windward side of the Western Ghats receives heavy rainfall i.e. more than 250 cm.
ii) The rain shadow areas of Deccan Plateaue and parts of Madhya Pradeshreceive scanty rainfall. The maximum rainfall is
recorded in the north eastern part of the country.
iii)The frequency and intensity of tropical depressions determine the amount and duration of monsoon rains.
Q15-Why are forests important in our life? Write any six points. (3)
Ans:-Forests play a vital role in the life of human beings by:
(i)Modifying local climate. (ii)Controlling soil erosion.
(iii)Supporting a variety of industries. (iv)Providing livelihood for many communities.
(v)Controlling wind and temperature and cause rainfall. (vi)Providing humus to the soil and shelter to the wild life.
Q16-What are the three special features of human resources of India? (3)
Ans:-Three special features of human resources of Indiaare:
(i)The human resource of Indiais very large. (ii)Its distribution is quite uneven. (iii) It has been increasing very
rapidly.
Q17- What are the advantages of EVM? (3)
Ans:-Some of the advantages of Electronic Voting Machineare as follows:-
a. Used for voting b. Being fast and absolutely reliable c. Saves considerable time, money and manpower.
d. Helps in maintaining total voting secrecy without the use of ballot papers.
Q18-Write any three functions of the Election Commission of India? (3)
Ans:-The three functions of the Election Commission of India are as follows:


163
The Election Commission prepares, maintains and periodically updates the Electoral Roll, which shows that the person
is entitled to vote.
Organises the polling booths where voting takes place.
Looks after the counting of votes and the declaration of results.
Q19-What is the Parliamentary system of Government? (3)
Ans:-It is the government where the executive head of government is known as Prime Minister.She/he is the leader of the
majority party in Legislature.Prime Minster and his Council of Ministersare answerable to the legislature. The head of the
state may be the Monarch or the President.The President or the Monarch is ceremonial executive. The President has to act on
the advice of the Council of Ministers. The Ministers are both responsible and responsive. For example:- India, U.K.,Canada
and Italy.
Q20-If you were the Prime Minister of India, what steps would you like to take to reduce poverty in India? (3)
Ans:-If I were the Prime Minister of India, I would have emphasis on the following points to reduce poverty in India:-
(i) Free education for all children (ii) Empowerment of women
(iii) Empowerment of weaker sections of the society (iv) Population control
(v) Proper implementation of anti-poverty programmes initiated by the government.
Q21-Why poverty remains a challenge inspite of the anti-poverty programmes initiated by the government of India? (3)
Ans:-Poverty remains a challenge in spite of the anti-poverty programmes initiated by the government of India because:
(i)Corruption in government administration
(ii) Neglect of the target group i.e, the poorare not considered during the formulation ofpolicies
(iii) The benefit of these schemes does not fully reach the targeted groups.
(iv) The shortage of resources (money) and lack of proper implementation of programmes
Q22-Why do we need food security? (3)
Ans:-Food is the basic need of life and an important source of nutrition. Only healthypersons constitute human resources for
development. Under-fed and ill-nourished persons cannot perform this role. Larger the number of under-fed and ill-nourished
persons, greater is the burden that the country has to carry. Conversely, a well-nourished and food secure population is a
valuable asset for a countrys development.
Q23-What does a good forest meant to Indian villagers? How forest acts affected the lives of the villagers? (5)
Ans:-Indian villagers considered forests with different species of trees valuable. Different varieties of trees were able to
fulfill theirneeds like fodder, fuel, medicine etc.
The Forest Act brought severe hardship for villagers across the country. The act declared all their everyday practices
cutting wood for their houses, grazing their cattle, collecting fruits and roots, hunting and fishing, as illegal. People were now
forced to steal wood from the forests and if caught, they were at the mercy of the forest guards who would take bribes from
them. Women who collected fuel woods were especially worried. It was also common for police constables and forest guards
to harass people by demanding free food from them.
Q24-Railways brought about deforestation during the British rule. Explain.(5 Marks)
Ans:- Essential for the colonial trade and for the movement of imperial troops. Railways were Wood was also required to run
locomotive and for laying the railway tracks. As the Railway tracks spread, a larger number of trees were felled to meet up
the growing demand of timber. The Government gave out contracts to individuals to supply the required quantity of timber.
These contractors started random cutting of trees and this led to immediate disappearance of forests around the railway tracks.
OR
Q23-State the difference between Reserved and Protected forests. (5)
Ans:-The terms Reseved and Protected forests were coined by the British Government during the colonial India.
Reserved forests were those where access to pastoralists was totally denied. Actually, these forests produced commercially
valuable timber like deodar or sal, which raised revenue for the colonial state. All other forests were classified as Protected
where pastoralists were granted customary grazing rights. However, here too their movements were severely restricted.
Since grazing herds would trample over saplings and munch away the shoots, the colonial officials believed that grazing
would destroy saplings and young shoots germinated on the forest floor. This would, in turn, prevent new trees from
growing. Hence, they allowed pastoralists limited time and period for grazing their cattle.
Q24-Describe how the pastoralists coped up with the changes imposed by the colonial government. (5)
Ans:-Indian pastoralists reacted to imposition by the colonial government in different ways. Some reduced the number of
cattle in their herds, as there were not enough pastures to feed large numbers. Others discovered
new pastures when movement to old grazing grounds became difficult, for example, due to political boundaries between the
newly formed India and Pakistan, the Raikas could no longer move into Sindh and graze their camels on the banks of the
Indus. They have since been migrating to Haryana where sheep can graze on agricultural ields after the harvests are cut.


164
Further, richer pastoralists bought land and settled down, giving up their nomadic life. Others took to cultivation or trading.
Poor pastoralists, on the other hand, borrowed money from moneylenders to survive, but eventually losing all their cattle and
becoming labourers, working on fields or in small towns. OR
Q23-What kind of new technology was used in the USA to improve farming? (5)
Ans:-In the USA, a dramatic increase in the food-grain production was made possible by improved technology. During 19th
century, white settlers modified their simple agricultural implements according to the new land in the interiors. One such
implement was 12-feet long plough, which became necessary to break the sod and turn the soil over in prairies. But by early
20th century, farmers in the Great Plains started breaking the ground with tractors and disk ploughs, clearing vast stretches
for wheat cultivation with greater ease. Even the harvesting procedures changed.
Manual harvesting required hundreds of men and women using cradles and sickles. Earlier, hundreds of men and women
could be seen in fields harvesting a crop using cradles and sickles. In mid-18th century, mechanical reaper was used, which
could cut in one day as much as five men could cut with cradles and 16 men with sickles. But in early 20th century, most
farmers started using combined harvesters to cut grains. With one such machine, 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in
two weeks. Thus, agriculture transformed from a labour-intensive to technology-intensive and profit-churning business.
Q24-How the coming of modern agriculture in England meant many different changes? Explain. (5)
Ans:-With the coming of modern agriculture in England, many changes took place. The open fields disappeared and the once
open countryside saw a dramatic change in its landscape with all the enclosures. The customary rights of ordinary peasants
over the common lands progressively diminished. The richer farmers expanded grain production, sold grain in the world
market, made profits and became powerful. On the contrary, poor left their villages for working either as agricultural
labourers in the Midlands or as workers in towns and cities. Over time, modern equipment like the threshing machines
replaced manual labour, which led to the income of labourers becoming unstable, their jobs becoming insecure and their
livelihood becoming precarious.
Q25-What does the term amateur and professional mean in the game of Cricket? (5)
Ans:-The English society was divided into two distinct cricket segments - the rich who could afford to play it for pleasure
and the poor who played it for a living. These two categories of cricket-playing people were respectively called amateurs and professionals.
The rich were termed amateurs for two reasons. They considered the sport of cricket a kind of leisure, and played it for the
pleasure of playing and not for money. Also, there was not enough money in the game for the rich to be interested. On the
contrary, the limited money associated with this game was attractive for the poor of the professionals. The wages of
professionals were paid by patronage or subscription or gate money. The game was seasonal and did not offer employment
the year round. Most professionals worked as miners or in other forms of working class employment in winter, the off-season.
OR
Q25-What was the Swadeshi Movement in relation to clothing? (5)
Ans:-Swadeshi Movement occurred in retaliation to Lord Curzons decision of partitioning Bengal in 1905. It was an effort
to control the growing opposition to British rule. In this movement, people were urged to boycott British goods of all kinds
and start their own industries for the manufacture of textile and goods such as matchboxes. The use of khadi was made a
patriotic duty. Women were urged to throw away their silk clothes and glass bangles, and wear khadi. Rough homespun
Khadi was glorified in songs and poems. However, this switch over to khadi appealed largely to the upper castes and classes
rather than the poor who could not afford the new products. The Swadeshi Movement then got a setback when many among
the upper classes returned to wearing European dresses. However, the swadeshi movement was significant as cloth was used
as a symbolic weapon against the British rule.
Q26-Give a brief account of economic advantages and disadvantages of large population. (5)
Ans:-Advantages of large population: -
A large population makes positive contribution to economic growth because of availability of larger manpowerfor productive
activities in the fields of secondary, tertiary and quaternary sectors.
Disadvantages of large population:
i) Per capita income goes down as the national income is distributed among larger number of people.
ii) Consumption trend gets upward, reducing the size of savings.
iii) Increasing population results in increased pressure on land and it adversely affects productivity in agriculture.
iv) Poverty and unemployment conditions increase day by day.
Q27:-Discuss the powers of the Prime Minister of India. (5)
Ans:-As a head of the government, the Prime Minister enjoys following powers:
1. The Prime Minister is the Chairperson of the Cabinet. He /She decides the agenda of the cabinet meetings.
2. He/she guides and directs all ministers, decides national policies and leads other ministers in and outside the Parliament.
3. The Prime Minister acts as a link between the president and the cabinet. He/she keeps the president informed about the


165
cabinet decisions and advises the president to issue ordinances when the Parliament is not in session.
4. The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party of the Lok Sabha. He/she is the chief spoke person of the
government in the Lok Sabha.
5. If the Prime Minister resigns, the entire cabinet gets dissolved.
Q28-What are rights? Why do we need rights in a democracy? (5)
Ans:-Rights are reasonable claims of a person over other fellow beings, over the society and over the government. When the
socially recognised claims are written into law, they acquire real legal force. Otherwise, they remain merely as natural or
moral rights. Rights are not unlimited, instead, each right brings certain obligations attached to it.
Rights are necessary for the sustainment of democracy. In a democratic country, the role of citizens is very important, right
from electing the representatives of the government to taking part in the decision making of the government. Rights protect
minorities from the oppression of majority. In most democracies, the basic rights of the citizens are written down in the constitution.
Q29-Describe the steps taken by the government for poverty alleviation. (5)
Ans:-Poverty has definitely declined in India in last few years. Removal of poverty has been one of the major objectives of
the government. The government has taken measures to eradicate poverty keeping in view two objectives:
a. Promoting economic growth b. Anti-poverty programmes
Following are the anti-poverty programmes
- Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
It was started in 1993 and aimed to create self- employment opportunities for educated employed youth.
- Pradhan Mantri Gramodya Yojana (PMGY)
It was started in 2000 and aimed to create basic necessities like health, education, shelter and water.
- National Food for Work Programme (NFWP)
It was started in 2004 and aimed at the rural people looking for unskilled manual work and wage employment.
- National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA)
It was started in 2004 and aimed at providing 100 days assured employment to every rural household, covering nearly 200 districts.
Q30-What is buffer stock and why is it created? (5)
Ans:-Buffer stock can be defined as the stock of food grains procured by the government through Food Corporation of India
with the aim to meet any shortage of demand in future. Buffer stock (mainly wheat and rice) is created by the government for
following purposes:
1. For distributing it to the deficit areas 2. To distribute it among poor people at lower prices
3. To meet the problem of food insecurity at the times of natural calamities
Q31-On the outline map of India mark the following: _ (4Marks)
(i)Name the National park (ii)Name the state receiving more than 400 cm.of rainfall.
(iii)Name the type of forest (iv) Name the state having a high density of population


SUMMATIVE ASSESMENT II (Unsolved) -1
TIME---3 HOURS M.M90
Instructions
Q. No. 1 to 10 are MCQs ( 1mark for each question)
Q. No. 11 to 23 are short answer questions write in 60-80 words ( 3 marks for each question)
Q. No. 24 to 30 are long are questions write in 100-125 words ( 5 marks for each question)


166
Q. No. 31-1 and 31-2 are map questions. Please attach the map inside the answer book.

Q.1Where was the imperial Forest Research institute set up in 1906? (1)
(a)Dehradun (b) Baster (c) Nagpur (d) Bangalore
or
When the Criminal was tribes Act was passed?
(a ) In1889 (b) in1878 (c) in1871 (d) in1870
or
The English population began to expand rapidly from
(a) The nineteenth century (b) the mid eighteenth century
(c) The early eighteenth century (d) the eighteenth century
Q.2. Which country invented the game of cricket? (1)
(a)England (b) India (c) America (d) West Indies
or
From1294 to1789 people of France Strictly followed which of the following
(a) Parliamentary law (b) Republican law (c) sumptuary laws (d) Revenue laws
Q.3. Which of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world? (1)
(a) Silchar (b) Mawsynram (c) Guwahati (c)Cherapunji
Q.4In which of the following state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located? (1)
(a)Punjab (b) Delhi (c) Orissa (d) West Bengal
Q.5. A large proportion of children in population are a result of (1)
(a) high birth rate (b) high life expectancies (c) high death rate (d) more married couple
Q.6. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner in India? (1)
(a) The chief justice of India (b) the lok sabha speaker (C) The prime minister of India (d) the president of India
Q.7How many members are there in Lok Sabah (1)
(a) 245members (b) 530 members (c) 552members (d)545members
Q.8 Which of the following right is available under the Indian constitution (1)
(a) Right to work (b) right to adequate livelihood
(c)Right to protect one culture (d)Right to privacy
Q.9. When was the National Food for Work Programme launched? (1)
(a) 2000 (b) 2002 (c) 2004 (d) 2006
Q.10. The full form of AAY is (1)
(a) Amul Anna Yojana (b) Annapurna Anna Yojana (c)Antyodya Anna yojana (d)none
Q.11.what is scientific forestry? Explain. (3)
Or
Distinguish between the reserved forest and protected forest
OR
Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclose in England?
Q.12. Describe one way in which the nineteenth century technology brought about a change in equipment with example (3)

Or
What were the sumptuary laws in France?
Q.13. Why does the rain fall decrease from the east to the west in Northern -India? (3)
Q.14. Write short notes on mangrove forest. (3)
Q.15 define a) Population growth b) population change (3)
Q.16. Why do flora and fauna need to be conserved? (3)
Q.17. Define the terms---a) Booth capturing b) Code of conduct (3)
Q.18. What is the election procedure of the president of India? (3)
Q.19what is cultural and educational right ? (3)
Q.20. Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India? (3)
Q.21. Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger? (3)
Q.22. Define social exclusion (b) subsidy (3)
Q.23. What policy did the Dutch follow in java to have a control over the forest? (5)
or
Write a brief notes on the pastoralism in Africa?
or
How were the Chinese made addicted to opium?
Q.24. Distinguish between amateurs and the professionals? (5)
or
In what different ways did Indians react to the western style of clothing?


167
Q.25. Discuss the mechanism of monsoon? (5)
Q.26. What are the limitations and challenges of Indian elections? (5)
Q.27. Distinguish between the Lok Sabha and the Rajyasabha? (5)
Q.28Give a brief account of national Human Right Commission? (5)
Q.29 What are the causes of poverty in India? (5)
Q.30. Write a note on the role of cooperatives in providing food and related items? (5)
Q.31. On outline map of India 2X2=4
A) LOCATE-------area receiving rainfall over400cm. B) IDENTIFY--River

SUMMATIVE ASSESMENT II (Unsolved) -2
TIME---3 HOURS M.M 90
Instructions
Q. No. 1 to 10 are MCQs ( 1mark for each question)
Q. No. 11 to 23 are short answer questions write in 60-80 words ( 3 marks for each question)
Q. No. 24 to 30 are long are questions write in 100-125 words ( 5 marks for each question)
Q. No. 31-1 and 31-2 are map questions. Please attach the map inside the answer book.

Q.1. In the Amazon forests or in the __________ it is possible to find as many as 500 different plant species in one forest patch. (1)
(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats (c) Himalayas (d) Northern Plains
or
Between 1880 and 1920, cultivated area rose by __________ million hectares in colonial India.
(a) 4.7 (b) 5.7 (c) 6.7 (d) 7.7
Q.2. Which of the following are pastoral communities of the Himalayas? (1)
(a) Bhotiyas (b) Sherpas (c) Kinnauris (d) All of these
or
Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
(a) Maldharis Rann of Kutch (c) Bhabar A dry forested area below the foothills of Garhwal and Kumaun
(b) Maru Raikas Barmer (d) Gaddi Shepherds Bihar
Q.3. Which of the following was not one of the consequences of end of the Napoleonic wars in rural England? (1)
(a) Soldiers needed alternative jobs to survive (b) Grains were imported from Europe and their prices declived
(c) Landlords grew anxious and demanded that imports of grains be stopped (d) An agricultural boom set in
or
By the time Thomas Jefferson became president of the USA in 1800, over 7 lakh whitesettlers had moved on to the
__________ through the passes.
(a) Great plains (b) Honduras (c) Mexico (d) Appalachian plateau
or
The climate of India is strongly influenced by _____________.
(a) Jet Stream (b) El Nino (c) Monsoons (d) None of these
Q.4. What is the main cause for the growth rate of population? (1)
(a) Rise in death rate (b) Decrease in birth rate (c) Decline in death rate (d) None of these
Q.5. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India? (1)
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Justice (d) Union Law Minister
Q.6. Which of these legislative bodies does not have a tenure of five years? (1)
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Vidhan Sabha (c) Rajya Sabha (d) None of these
Q.7. How was the massacre of Albanians stopped? (1)
(a) The UN ordered Miloseviks arrest (b) Foreign countries intervened to stop the massacre
(c) The Serbs rebelled against Milosevic (d) Milosevic reformed his policies
Q.8. Which of the following is the greatest challenge facing India since Independence? (1)
(a) Poverty (b) Food security (c) Social harmony (d) National integrity
Q.9. In which state 94% ration shops are run by cooperatives? (1)
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Orissa (d) Bihar
Q.10. Average consumption of PDS grains per person per month at all India level is (1)
(a) 1 kg (b) 4 kg (c) 5 kg (d) 10 kg
Q.11. Give brief explanations for the following: (3)
(i) The Parsis were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in India.
(ii) Gandhiji condemned the Pentangular tournament. (iii) ICC headquaters was shifted from London to Dubai.
or
Examine the significance of Khadi as clothing material for colonial India. Why did Gandhiji insist on it?
Q.12. Trace the evolution of cricket in India in pre-independence period. (3)


168
or
What did the patriotic French citizens wear in France after the French Revolution?
Q.13. The climate of India is strongly influenced by monsoon winds. Comment. (3)
Q.14. Describe the characteristic features of the following types of natural vegetation. (3)
(i) Tropical rain forests (ii) Mangrove forests
Q.15. Name three Indian medicinal plants and describe their uses. (3)
Q.16. Bring out the main features of the National Population Policy 2000. (3)
Q.17.Why is an independent and powerful judiciary considered essential for India? (3)
Q.18. Compare and contrast between the powers of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. (3)
Q.19. What are the rights available to the minorities and women in Saudi Arabia? How are these different from the rights
available to minorities and women in India? (3)
Q.20. Highlight the global poverty scenario. (3)
Q.21. Why is agriculture a seasonal activity? Give an example of a non-seasonal activity. (3)
Q.22. What are the problems in the functioning of ration shops? (3)
Q.24. Describe the livelihood, life cycle and and practices of the Dhangars pastoral community of Maharashtra. (5)
or
Enclosures filled the pockets of landlords. But what happened to those who depended on the commons for their survival?
or
How did forest rules affect cultivation in colonial India?
Q.25. Give brief explanation for the following.
or
Explain the reasons for the changes in clothing patterns and materials in the 18
th
century.
Q.26. Mention the five major types of vegetation found in India. Describe any one of them. (5)
Q.27.Why is an independent and powerful judiciary considered essential for democracies? Discuss. (5)
Q.28. Can we do without rights in a democracy? Give reasons.
Q.29. Explain the limitations of anti-poverty measures in India. Mention two other measures for removal of poverty in India. (5)
Q.30. Mention any four provisions for improving food security in India. What are the limitations of current food security measures? (5)
Q.31.1. Two features 1 and 2 are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of
following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. 1x2=2
(1) Meteorological station at Kerala (2) National park in Uttarakhand that is famous for tigers.
Q.31.2. Locate and label the following places on the given outline political map of India: 1x2=2
(a) Shilong Meteorological station of North East India (b) Tropical Evergreen Forest