COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 1

1. All the following nerves are related to the mandible EXCEPT A. Lingual nerve B. C. Auriculotemporal nerve Chorda tympani 10. The lateral lingual swellings and tuberculum impar give rise to 2. The mandibular nerve supplies all EXCEPT A. B. C. Masseter Lateral pterygoid Buccinator A. Anterior 1/3rd of tongue B. C. Anterior 2/3rd of tongue Posterior 2/3rd of tongue A. Eye ball B. C. Ear Both

D. None

D. Mental nerve

D. Lateral side of the tongue 11. Safety muscle of tongue is

D. Anterior Digastric 3. Which of the following arteries does not supply the Circle of Willis? A. Anterior cerebral B. C. Middle cerebral Posterior-inferior cerebellar 12. Posterior 1/3rd of tongue including vallate Papillae drains into nodes 4. Oropharyngeal isthmus is closed by contraction of A. Styloglossus B. C. Palatoglossus Genioglossus A. Submental B. C. Submandibular Jugulo omohyoid A. Hyoglossus B. C. Genioglossus Chondroglossus

D. Styloglossus.

D. Posterior communicating

D. Deep cervical 13. The relation not considered during parotid duct

D. A & B 5. The tonisllar fossa is bounded by all except A. Salpingo palatine arch B. C. Palato glossal arch Palato pharyngeal arch C. localization is A. Anterior border of masseter B. At the opening just opposite to lower second molar Pierces the buccinators D. At the anterior surface of parotid gland 6. Kiesselbach's area is present on ____ part of nasal septum A. Antero inferior B. C. Postero inferior Antero superior 14. Which of the following muscle helps in depressing the mandible? A. Temporalis B. C. Masseter Lateral pterygoid

D. Dorsal surface of posterior 1/3rd of tongue

D. Postero superior 7. Each wall of tympanic cavity is provided with A. Arteries B. C. Veins Nerves

D. Medial pterygoid 15. Temporomandibular joint is A. Simple joint B. C. Compound joint Complex joint

D. Lymphatics 8. Infra-nuclear lesion of facial nerve at internal acoustic meatus leads to A. Bell's palsy B. C. Deafness Blindness

D. Uniaxial joint 16. Fusion of the premaxilla occurs at A. Birth B. C. 7 weeks post natally 18 months after birth

D. A and C 9. ______ is considered as moving brain

D. 32 weeks I. U

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 2

17. The mature ovum after ovulation is covered by _________ A. Vitelline membrane B. C. Zona pellucida & Corona radiata A and B 25. Cranial nerve emerging from cerebello pontine angle is A. 6th B. C. 3rd 8th

D. None of the above 18. Which one of the following is a junction of frontal, parietal, temporal and greater wing of sphenoid bone A. Pterion B. C. Lambda Vertex

D. 12th 26. Pre synaptic ganglionic parasympathetic fibres to ciliary ganglion comes from A. Superior salivatory nucleus B. C. Inferior salivatory nucleus Edinger - Westphal nucleus

D. Inion 19. Neurocranium constitutes A. Eight bones B. C. Encloses the brain, meninges, its vascularity Composed of membranous bones

D. Lacrimatory nucleus 27. Cervical rib is associated with A. Thoracic outlet syndrome B. C. Floating rib syndrome Both of the above

D. All of the above 20. Which of the following statement is true about sella turcica A. Resemble a turkish saddle B. C. Consists of tuberculum sellae , hypophyseal fossa, dorsum sellae Related to sphenoid bone D. All of the Above 21. Metopic suture is present between A. Two parietal bones B. C. Parietal and frontal bones Two frontal bones

D. None of the above 28. The main arterial trunk supplying the infratemporal fossa is A. Infratemporal artery B. C. Deep temporal artery Maxillary artery

D. Posterior superior alveolar artery 29. The arterial supply of trachea is by the A. Bronchial artery B. C. Tracheal artery Inferior Thyroid artery

D. Parietal and occipital bones 22. The cells which are provided with extra reserve of cell layers belongs to ------------------- epithelium A. Transitional B. C. Stratified squamous Stratified cuboidal

D. Superior Thyroid artery 30. Infections spreading via lymphatics from the lower lip would first enter the blood stream at the A. Brachiocephalic vein B. C. Inferior labial vein Inferior labial artery

D. Stratified columnar 23. During which phase of mitosis the division of chromosome appears A. Telophase B. C. Metaphase Prophase

D. Pterygoid venous plexus 31. Pulsation of facial artery is felt at A. Lateral angle of mouth B. C. Anteroinferior angle of masseter Above greater cornu of hyoid bone

D. All of the above 32. ________ are distributing vessels

D. Anaphase 24. The outermost layer of nerve fibers is called as A. Neurolemma B. C. Perineurium Axolemma A. Elastic artery B. C. Muscular artery Arterioles

D. Capillaries.

D. Myelin sheath

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 3

33. Which part of internal carotid artery does not have any branches A. Cerebral B. C. Petrous Cavernous B. C. 41. Active transport of drugs through a membrane A. Requires energy & is a process which can be saturated Can move a drug against a concentration gradient Is illustrated by the movement of penicillin through the renal tube cells from the blood into the urine 34. Blood supply to an arterial wall is by A. Vasa vasorum B. C. Blood in its own lumen Nervi vascularis 42. A drug may accumulate in milk if A. It is lipid soluble B. C. 35. Muscle attached with articular disc and has role in condylar displacement is A. Lateral pterygoid B. C. Medial pterygoid Masseter 43. Drugs often bind to the albumin fraction of plasma proteins A. True B. C. 36. Which of the following is known as Musician's nerve A. Ulnar B. C. Median Radial 44. A patient is given 600 mg and the of certain drug plasma intravenously extrapolated False None It is a basic drug It binds to calcium D. All of the Above

D. Cervical

D. Both A and B

D. All of the Above

D. Temporalis

D. Don't know

D. Mucocutaneous 37. True about chorda tympani is A. Carries parasympathetic fibers to submandibular gland B. C. Part of nerve of pterygoid canal Sensory to tympanic membrane

concentration at the time zero is 12 mg/L. What the apparent volume of distribution is? A. 20 L B. C. 50 L 96 L

D. 112 L 45. The elimination of ethanol is expresses as a decrease in mg% of blood ethanol concentration per hour. The elimination reaction. A. True B. C. False None is therefore independent of drug

D. All 38. All the extra ocular muscles are supplied by Occulomotor nerve EXCEPT A. Superior rectus B. C. Superior oblique Lateral rectus

concentration. This is an example of a zero order

D. B and C 39. The only cranial nerve which is covered by three meninges of brain is A. Ophthalmic B. C. Optic Occulomotor

D. Don't know 46. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE? A. Lipid solubility decreases renal excretion B. C. Alkalinization of urine will increase excretion of a weak base Addition of bicarbonate will decrease reabsorption of a weak acid 40. Fibrous joints consist of A. Sutures B. C. Syndesmoses Gomphosis 47. Which are prototype inducers of CYP1A? A. Aryl hydrocarbons B. C. Chronic alcohol consumption Glucocorticoids D. Excretion is enhanced by increasing polarity

D. Trigeminal

D. All of the above

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 4

D. Anticonvulsants 48. Ethanol metabolism in the body A. Zero order kinetics B. C. First order kinetics Both D. A and C 55. Parasympathetic agents can act directly on smooth muscle to A. Contract B. C. Relax Both

D. Neither 49. A. Potency of a drug which requires 10 mg to elicit its maximal response B. Potency of a drug which requires 100 mg to elicit its maximal response A. A > B B. C. A<B A=B

D. None 56. A drug that specifically enhances metabolic ally the activity of brain dopamine is A. Benzotropine B. C. Selegiline Trihexyphenidyl

D. None 50. After daily administration of a drug for 30 days at the same dose, the expected response to the dose of the drug is decreased without a change in plasma level. This is an example of A. Metabolic tolerance B. C. Cellular tolerance Competitive tolerance

D. Bromocriptine 57. What is the "on-off phenomenon" that is associated with levodopa (L-dopa) therapy? A. Fluctuation in clinical response independent of drug levels B. C. Improvement of clinical response after a drug holiday Shortened duration of clinical response per dose D. None of the above 58. The preferred agent to combat extreme digoxin overdose is A. K+ B. C. Ca2+ Phenytoin

D. Drug accumulation 51. Increased activity to drug A is observed in a patient who has been on long-term drug B therapy. Drug B is an inhibitor of the process stimulated by drug A. This is an example of A. Supersensitivity B. C. Summation Potentiation

D. Fab fragments of digoxin antibodies 59. Which drug is used as an aversion technique in chronic alcoholics A. Diazepam B. C. Methyl alcohol Sodium valproate

D. Competition for receptor sites 52. The autonomic neurotransmitters in the heart are A. Catecholamines released by sympathetic nerves B. C. Atropine, which causes tachycardia Acetylcholine released by parasympathetic nerves

D. Disulfiram 60. Which of the following opioid agonists is only

D. Both A & C 53. Pralidoxime (2PAM) A. Is superior to atropine in antagonizing the muscarinic B. C. Reactivates Both signs and symptoms of nerve by gaspoisoning cholinesterase inhibited irreversibleanticholinesterase agents 61. Which of the following local anesthetics is useful for topical (surface) administration only? A. Procaine 54. Epinephrine causes relaxation of A. Bronchioles B. C. Cutaneous blood vessels Smooth muscle of the intestinal wall B. C. Bupivacaine Etidocaine D. None of the Above administered by the parenteral route? A. Morphine B. C. Codeine Fentanyl

D. Methadone

D. Benzocaine

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 5

62. Convulsions caused by drug poisoning are most commonly associated with A. Phenobarbital B. C. Diazepam Strychnine C. 68. Which of the following best describes ampicillin's effect on therapeutically administered estrogens? A. It decreases estrogen metabolism B. It decreases the enterohepatic circulation of estrogen It decreases the plasma protein binding of estrogen 63. A 45-year-old male has an insulinoma. Which of the following agentsis the treatment of choice? A. Cyclophosphamide B. C. Carboplatin Vincristine 69. N-acetylbenzoquinoneimine metabolite of which drug? A. Sulindac B. C. 64. Of the following mechanisms of anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects of glucocorticoidsT which one is uniformly observed? A. Increased influx of leukocytes to the site of inflammation B. C. Reduced formation of lipocor tins Reduced capillary permeability and edema at the inflammatory site D. Increased prostaglandin formation 71. Osmotic pressure 65. Drug X is an antimycobacterial agent that inhibits other bacteria as well as poxviruses. However, it should not be used as a single agent becauseresistant mutants frequently form. The responsible mutation may alter the site of action of drug X [i.e., the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)-dependent ribonucleic acid (RNA) polymerase]. What is drug X? A. INH B. C. Rifampin Pyrazinamide 72. Which of the following molecules can easily penetrate a biological membrane A. Small sized, lipid soluble and unionized molecules 66. A 75-year-old woman is hospitalized for pneumonia and treated withan intravenous antibiotic. On day three she develops severe diarrhea. Stoolis positive for Clostridium difficile toxin what is the best treatment? A. Clindamycin B. C. Cefaclor Metronidazole B. C. 73. Which of the following is true A. Smooth ER is responsible for synthesis of proteins and rough ER is responsible for synthesis of lipids. Rough ER is responsible for synthesis of lipids and proteins 67. A drug primarily used in pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis carinii is A. Nifurtimox B. C. Penicillin G Metronidazole 74. An end plate potential is an example of A. Graded event Smooth ER is responsible for synthesis of lipids and steroids and release of Ca2++ in cytosol D. The smooth ER is a flatened sac with multiple branching C. B. Highly charged, large sized and lipid non soluble molecules Small sized, ionised and lipid soluble molecules D. Large sized, lipid non-soluble molecules C. B. A. It is a pressure of a solution which causes osmotic flow It is the pressure that must be applied to the solution to prevent osmotic flow It is directly proportional to the molecular weight of the solute D. It arises due to complete impermeability to solute and water of a membrane 70. The most effective drug for immunosuppression of rejection of the allografted kidney is A. Azathioprine B. C. Cyclosporine 3-fluorouracil (5-FU) Acetaminophen Isoniazid is the hepatotoxic D. It decreases the renal excretion of estrogen

D. Phenytoin

D. Streptozocin

D. Indomethacin

D. Cyclophosphamide

D. Ethambutol

D. Erythromycin

D. Pentamidine

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 6

B. C. Local event Excitatory event B. C. Hypoxia inhibits Hexokinase Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane D. Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high pH 75. Which of the following are sources of high-energy phosphate that keep the ATP pool filled for muscle contraction? A. Creatine phosphate B. C. Glycolysis of glucose from stored glycogen Cellular respiration in the mitochondria of the muscle fibers D. All of the above 76. A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates is called a A. Map unit B. C. Svedberg unit Motor unit 84. Which of the following are heat-generating mechanisms? A. Increased metabolism B. C. 77. RBCs divide till the stage of A. Pronormoblast B. C. Intermediate normoblast Early normoblast 85. Dead space is equal to A. 450 ml B. C. 78. An average life span of erythrocyte is A. 60 days B. C. 3 days 120 days 86. The surfactant is secreted by type II cells of alveolar epithelium. Its function is A. Protective by forming lung macrophages B. 79. Normal prothrombin time is A. 5-7 sec B. C. 10-20 sec 30 sec 87. Ventilation-perfusion ratio (whole lung) is normally: A. 1 B. 80. Biconcave shape of RBC helps in A. Increasing flexibility B. C. Increasing surface area Carrying more haemoglobin 88. In running 100 meters, the increased oxygen requirements of tissues is met by A. Increased cardiac output 81. Which of the following causes lysis of clot A. Fibrin B. C. Plasmin Hyaluronidase B. C. Increased 2,3DPG Increased erythropoietin chemoreceptors 89. Baroreceptors located in all EXCEPT 82. Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by A. Hypoxia stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased 2, 3 DPG A. Carotid sinus B. C. Carotid body Right atrium C. 0.8 0.6 C. Secretion for mucus To reduce surface tension of lung alveoli 350 ml 150 ml Shivering Vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels C. B. 83. True about Haldane's effect A. Increase of oxygen affinity to hemoglobin when pH increases Decrease of oxygen affinity to hemoglobin when pH increases Increase of oxygen affinity to hemoglobin when pH decreases D. Decrease of oxygen affinity to hemoglobin when pH decreases

D. All of the above

D. King unit

D. All of the above

D. Late normoblast

D. 0 ml

D. 2 days

D. For ventilation of O2 and CO2.

D. 1 min

D. 1.2

D. Passing easily through smaller capillaries

D. Rise in CO2 partial pressure, activating peripheral

D. Coagulase

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 7

D. Aortic arch 90. The volume of blood pumped per minute by each ventricle is the A. Total peripheral resistance (TPR) B. C. Cardiac output (CO) Stroke volume (SV) C. 98. Carbohydrates A. Are a source of dietary energy B. Act as starting materials for the synthesis of other compounds Play a role as part of the structure of other material 91. Fat digestion A. Bile salts are the most efficient emulsifiers B. C. Gastric lipase is the most important Pancreatic lipase in the duodenum 99. Fatty acids are classified into A. Saturated acids B. 92. In the small intestine, glucose is absorbed A. Passively B. C. In combination with Sodium By facilitated diffusion 100. Gangliosides are A. Fatty acids 93. When mind is relaxed and eyes close, the wave in EEG is A. ? (alpha) B. C. ? (beta) ? (theta) 101. Vasodilatation occurs due to A. Accumulation of metabolites 94. The action potential is a positive feedback B. C. Histamine Nitric oxide mechanism that is initiated by a A. Polarizing stimulus B. C. Depolarizing stimulus Repolarizing stimulus 102. Buffers are of primary importance in A. Regulating the pH of the fluids and tissues of living organisms 95. The primary effect of Calcitonin is A. Bone deposition B. C. Bone resorption Increase intestinal absorption of calcium B. Weakly dissociated solutions C. Completely dissociated solutions D. Neutral solutions in water E. None of the above B. C. Hexoseamine Sphingosine C. E. Unsaturated acids Branched - chain acids All of the above D. Supply the major portion of the energy of the diet E. Are all of the above D. Sucrose, lactose and maltose E. None of the above

D. Heart rate (HR)

D. Digestion takes place in micelles

D. Hydroxyl acids and cyclic acids

D. By cotransport with Chloride

D. A class of carbohydrate - rich glycolipids E. None of the above

D. ? (delta)

D. All of the above

D. A& C

D. Decreases intestinal absorption of calcium 103. Which of the following enzymes at a pH of 8.6 has a 96. A complex factor mucopolysaccharide present in the lung and liver that also prevents coagulation of blood is A. Heparin B. C. Plasmin Acetylsalicylic acid function in bone mineralization and hydrolyzes of phosphoric acid A. Acid phosphatase B. C. Alkaline phosphatase Collagenase

D. Hyaluronidase 104. Iron is present in all of the following except

D. Histamine 97. The most important disaccharides are A. Turanose and melibiose B. C. Trehalose, sucrose Fructose and galactose A. Myoglobin B. C. Catalase Cytochrome

D. Pyruvate kinase

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 8

A. Chromosome 10 105. Mitochondria are involved in all of the following except A. ATP production B. C. Apoptosis Tricarboxylic acid cycle 113. The approximate number of genes contained in the human genome is A. 40,000 106. The known fat soluble vitamins are A. Vitamin A and D B. C. E. Vitamin A, D and K Vitamins D and K 114. Arthus reaction is what type of hypersensitivity reaction A. Localized immune complex 107. Vitamin A deficiency is characterized by A. Growth failure only B. Growth failure, visual defects, inability to maintain the integrity of epithelial structures and reproduction failure C. Visual defects only structures E. None of the above D. Inability to maintain the integrity of epithelial 115. What is the best method for confirming amyloidosis A. Colonoscopy B. C. Sigmoidoscopy Rectal biopsy B. C. Ag-Ab reaction Compliment mediated None of the above B. C. 30,000 80,000 B. C. Chromosome 6 X Chromosome

D. Chromosome 13

D. Fatty acid biosynthesis

D. 1,00,000

D. Vitamins A, D , E and K

D. Ab mediated

D. Tongue biopsy 116. The following protein defects can cause hereditary spherocytosis except A. Ankyrin B. Palladin C. Glycophorin C D. Anion transport protein 117. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is seen in A. ALL B. AML C. CLL D. CML 118. Spherocytosis in blood smear is seen in

108. The saliva is composed of A. Mucin B. C. Amino acids and vitamins Minerals

D. Buffers E. All of the above 109. Fluoride A. Definitely postpones the onset of caries B. C. E. May only postpones the onset of caries Does not postpone the onset of caries Is None of the above

D. Enhances the onset of caries

110. Methotrexate is an antagonist of ___________ A. Thiamin B. C. Cobalamin Folic acid

A. Hemoglobin C B. C. Mechanical trauma Hereditary spherocytosis

D. Hereditary elliptocytosis 119. A 15 year old boy presented with one day history of

D. Riboflavin 111. Virchow's triad includes all except A. Injury to vein B. C. Venous thrombosis Venous stasis bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric rash. Investigations revealed the following results: Hb - 6.4 gm/dL TLC - 26,500/mm 3 Platelet 35,000 mm 3 prothrombin time-20 sec with a control of 13 sec partial thromboplastin time -50 sec and Fibrinogen 10 mg/dL. Peripheral smear was suggestive of acute 112. Gene for major histocompatibility complex is located on which chromosome myeloblastic leukemia. Which of the following is the most likely.

D. Hypercoagulability of blood

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 9

A. Myeloblastic leukemia without maturation B. C. Myeloblastic leukemia with maturation Promyelocytic leukemia C. Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods D. Sterilization is easier to achieve 127. which of the following immunoglobulin exists as a 120. The presence of small sized platelets on the peripheral smear is characteristic of A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura B. C. Bernard Soulier syndrome Disseminated intravascular coagulation dimer and is the second most abundant class? A. Ig G B. C. Ig A Ig M

D. Myelomonocytic leukemia

D. Ig E 128. The immunoglobulin produced in the lining of

D. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome 121. Troponin - T is a marker of A. Renal disease B. C. Muscular dystrophy Cirrhosis of liver respiratory and intestinal tract? A. IgG B. C. IgA IgM

D. Myocardial infarction 122. In malignant hypertension hyperplastic

D. IgE 129. The primary lymphoid organs is/are A. Liver B. C. Spleen Thymus

arteriosclerosis is seen in all except A. Heart B. C. Kidney Pericardial fat

D. All of the above 130. To be a useful chemotherapeutic agent, the

D. Peripancreatic fat 123. All are the histological features of pulmonary hypertension except A. Capillaritis of alveolar septa B. C. Thrombi in pulmonary vasculature Veno-occlusive disease compound must be A. Bacteriostatic and sterile B. C. Sterile Either bacteriostatic or bactericidal in vivo

D. A noncationic agent 131. Bacteria are controlled in water by which of the

D. Thickened arterial wall 124. Earliest lesion seen in asbestosis is A. Pleural plaques B. C. Hilar lymphadenopathy Adenoma lung following methods A. Sanitation of drinking water B. C. Sewage purification (screening sludge formation) Sludge digestion

D. Mesothelioma 125. A 14 years old girl on exposure to cold develops pallor of extremities followed by pain and cyanosis. In later ages of life she is prone to develop A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. C. Scleroderma Rheumatoid arthritis

D. All of the above 132. Exotoxins A. Are nonantigenic B. Are specific injurious substances secreted into the environment by certain gram positive bacteria (rarely by gram -ve) C. Are not rapidly destroyed by heat 90?C D. Are not converted into nonpoisonous toxics by heat

D. Histiocytosis 126. The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that A. Disinfection kills all spores but sterilisation does not B. Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not

133. Arthus reaction A. Is a delayed reaction resulting in localized tissue damage B. C. Is an immediate type of reaction which results in localized tissue damage Is a desensitization reaction

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 10

D. Is None of the above 134. The microscopic flora of the oral cavity contains which of the following species indigenous to the oral tissues A. 30 species B. 100 species C. 2 species D. None of the above 135. Microbially induced oral lesions are caused by which of the following microorganisms A. Bacterial B. C. Rickettsial Viral, mycotic, and protozoal (metazoal) 142. Cytopathic effect is shown by A. Virus B. C. Bacteria Spirochetes 141. HIV is transmitted by all of following routes except A. Saliva B. C. Needle prick injury Blood transmission C. Variation between individuals, on different teeth in the same mouth, and on different sites of the same tooth D. All of the above

D. Sexual intercourse

D. All of the above 136. The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is A. Schick test B. C. Dick test Casoni's test

D. Anaerobic. 143. Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent hepatitis B virus infection during windowperiod A. HBsAg B. C. IgM anti HBC Anit HBs

D. Charles test. 137. The microorganisms which characteristically occurs in grape-like clusters and produce golden yellow colonies. A. Staph aureus B. C. Staph albus Streptococcus

D. None of the above 144. DNA covering material in a virus is called as A. Capsomere B. C. Capsid Nucleocapsid

D. Envelope. 145. Eclipse stage of a viral infection refers to

D. Alpha-streptococci 138. Staphylococci A. Are gram - positive spherical cells arranged in clusters B. C. Grow readily on a variety of media and are active metabolically When pathogenic often hemolyze blood and coagulate plasma D. Are all of the above 139. Spirochetes A. Are a large, heterogeneous group of spiral motile organisms B. Treponema causes syphilis, bejel, yaws, and pinta 147. Which of the following are examples of infections encountered in oral surgery A. Herpes simplex infection 140. Supragingival plaque grows by A. The addition of new bacteria B. The multiplication of bacteria B. C. Palatal infection Periorbital space infection C. Borrelia causes relapsing fever D. Do all of the above 146. Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent hepatitis B virus infection during windowperiod A. HBsAg B. C. IgM anti HBC Anti HBs A. Development of lysogenic phase B. Absence of demonstration virus particles C. Increase in number of virus particle D. None of the above

D. None of the above

D. All of the above 148. Which worm is longest

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 11

A. T.solium B. C. T.saginata Hook worm 156. QT interval is shortened in A. Hypoclacaemia B. C. Hypokalemia Hypercalcemia

D. A lumbricoides 149. Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to A. Hook worm B. C. Thread worm Ascaris

D. Hyperkalemia 157. A chronic alcoholic develops palpitations suddenly after alcohol binge. Which of the following arrhythmia is most commonly associated with alcohol binge in the alcoholics A. Ventricular fibrillations 150. Facultative parasites A. Cannot survive with a host B. C. Have absolute requirement for a host Stimulate rickettsial growth 158. In the treatment of severe bradycardia, all of the following can be the best modality of treatment except 151. All of the following are causes of fragmented RBC in peripheral blood except (PGI june 05, 02) A. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia B. C. DLC Hemophilia A 159. A 45 year old woman underwent a modified radical mastectomy 4 years ago. She was treated for multiple 152. A seven year old girl presents with repeated episodes of bleeding into joints. APTT is prolonged and PT is normal. The most likely diagnosis is A. Factor VIII deficiency (Hemophilia A) B. C. Factor VII deficiency Von Willebrand Disease bone metastases with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and fluorouracil for 6 months. She is complaining of exertion on exercise, swelling of the legs, and swelling around eyes in the morning. On examination, she has bilateral rales in the lungs, S1, S2 audible, S3, S4 gallop present. Her BP is 149/117 mm Hg, PR is 80/min, and RR is 18/min. What is the most likely cause for her cardiac condition 153. Which of the following statements about Acute Hemolytic blood mediated reactions is true A. Complement mediated Hemolysis is seen B. C. Type III hypersensitivity is responsible for most cases Rarely life threatening 160. Which of the following is a minor criteria for diagnosis of RF according to modified Jones criteria? A. ASO titre 154. True about third heart sound is A. Absent in Chr. Constructive pericarditis B. C. Absent in aortic aneurysm Absent in MS 161. Decreased maximum mid-expiratory flow rate indicates obstruction in 155. What is false in relation to Carey Coombs Murmur A. Delayed Diastolic Murmur B. C. Seen in Rheumatic Fever Associated with AR A. Small airways B. C. Trachea Large airways B. C. Past History of Rheumatic Fever Fever D. Renal blood flow is always maintained A. Systolic dysfunction CHF B. C. Drug induced cardiac toxicity Metastatic cardiac disease A. Atropine B. C. Pacing Isoproterenol independent of a host B. C. Verticular premature contractions Atrial flutter

D. Guinea worm

D. Atrial fibrillation

D. Live either in relationship to or are completely

D. Diltiazem

D. Malignant hypertension

D. Factor XII deficiency

D. Pneumonia

D. Subcutaneous nodules

D. Normal physiologically in Athletes

D. Trachea & Bronchi both 162. Aspirin-sensitive asthma is associated with

D. Low Pitched Murmur

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 12

A. Obesity B. C. Urticaria Nasal polyp A. Good pasture's syndrome B. C. Nephrotic syndrome Gullian Barre syndrome

D. Extrinsic asthma 163. Universal finding in Asthma is A. Hypoxia B. C. Hypercarbia Respiratory acidosis

D. IgA Nephropathy 171. The most common fetal response to acute hypoxia is A. Tachycardia B. C. Tachypnea Bradycardia

D. Metabolic Acidosis 164. Bronchiectasis is most common in which lobe A. Right upper lobe B. C. Right middle lobe Left upper lobe

D. Ventricular Arrhythmia 172. Coloured urine is not seen in A. Quinine B. C. Rifampcin Nitrofurantoin

D. Left lower lobe 165. A 40 year old man presented with repeated episodes of bronchospasm and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray revealed perihilar bronchiectasis. The most likely diagnosis is A. Sarcoidosis B. C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

D. Pyridium 173. Which of the following values are suggestive of acute tubular necrosis A. Urine osmolality > 500 B. C. Urine sodium > 40 Blood urea nitrogen / plasma creatinine > 20

D. Urine creatine / plasma creatinine > 40 174. Increased IgA deposits are seen in A. Henoch Schonlein Purpura B. C. Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis Chronic Pyelonephritis

D. Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis 166. Most common cause of empyema is A. Bronchopleural fistula B. C. Tubercular pneumonia Bacterial pneumonia

D. Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome 175. HLA-B27 is typically associated with A. Rheumatoid Arthritis B. C. Ankylosing spondylitis Sjogren's syndrome

D. Pleurisy 167. Clubbing is least common in A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Small cell carcinoma of lung D. Mesothelioma 168. The commonest intrabronchial cause of haemoptysis is A. Carcinoma lung B. C. Adenoma lung Emphysema

D. Scleroderma 176. Metabolic complication of massive blood transfusion of banked blood is A. Alkalosis B. C. Hyponatremia Hyperkalemia

D. Hypercalcemia 177. Cimino fistula is A. A traumatic fistula B. C. A type of hemagioma An aneurysm used for hemodialysis 178. Side effects of cyclosporine is all EXCEPT

D. Bronchiectasis 169. Bronchial adenoma commonly present as A. Recurrent hemoptysis B. C. Cough Dysponea

D. Anastomosis of radial artery with cephalic vein

D. Chest pain 170. Rama, a 20 year old smoker, presents with A. Hepatotoxicity B. Nephrotoxicity

hemoptysis and hematuria. Likely diagnosis is

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 13

C. Hirsutism B. C. Addison's disease Cushing's disease

D. CMV infection 179. All of the following statement sregarding electrical burns are true EXCEPT A. Usually deeper than indicated on surface B. C. Muscle necrosis is more than estimated Mannitol is used for prevention of myoglobinuria

D. Thyrotoxicosis 187. All the following statements about aldosteronism is TRUE EXCEPT A. Responsible for 1 - 2 % of hypertension of all hypertensive patient B. C. 180. Common all EXCEPT A. Hypertension B. C. Alcoholism Diabetes 188. Injury of both recurrent laryngeal nerve during thyroidectomy results in all EXCEPT A. Hoarseness B. 181. Intermittent EXCEPT A. Recovered by standing still B. C. Brought on by walking Present during first step 189. Crouzon's syndrome includes A. Microcephaly of skull B. C. 182. Iatrogenic injury during repair of aortic aneurysm to the artery of Adam Kiewicz can cause A. Spinal cord ischemia B. C. Ischemic colitis Renal failure 190. Sir Hugh Crain was famous for A. Introduction of EMV scale B. C. 183. Nicoladoni's sign refers to A. Aortic aneurysm B. C. Popliteal aneurysm Superficial thrombophlebitis 191. Monro - kellies hypothesis is associated with A. Cerebral oedema 184. Phlegmesia alba dolen is complication of A. Superficial thrombophlebitis B. C. Deep vein thrombosis Buerger's disease 192. Biot's breathing is seen in A. Medullary lesion 185. Treatment of choice in Nelson's syndrome A. Bilateral adrenelectomy B. C. Radiation Pituitary microadenectomy 193. Majority of neoplasm of the salivary glands arise from 186. Lemon - on - matchstick appearance is seen in A. Hyperparathyroidism A. Parotid B. Submandibular B. C. Lesion of cerebral hemisphere Lesion of upper pons B. C. Raised intracranial pressure Subdural hematoma For classification of head injury For demonstrating the first craniotomy dispatch riders in second world war and Macrocephaly of skull Scaphalocephaly and respiratory problem claudication characterized by all C. D. Bilateral vocal cord paralysis Air way compromise Adducted vocal cord position risk features which predisposes to development of artherosclerosis in a patient include Surgery is very regarding when the cause is hyperplasia Secondary aldosteronism labeled is associated is used with for cirrhosis of liver D. Radioactive cholesterol localization of tumour

D. Blood vessels, nerves, bones have low resistance to electric current

D. Hyperlipidemia

D. A cramp like pain felt in the muscle

D. Synostosis with obstruction of venous drainage

D. Aorto duodenal fistula

D. For introduction of crash helmet for motorcycle introduction of legislation for head protection

D. A -V fistula

D. Subarachnoid bleed

D. Aortic aneurysm

D. Lesion of lower pons

D. Chemotherapy

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 14

C. Minor salivary gland of cheek

D. Minor salivary gland of palate 194. A green discharge from nipple is most likely to be due to A. Malignancy B. C. Fibroadenoma Fibroadenosis

D. Duct ectasia 195. Risk factor for carcinoma breast is A. Fibroadenoma on one side B. C. Sister dead from carcinoma breast Jewish in orgin

D. Breast abscess 196. Fibroadenosis is A. Cyclical aberration of process of proliferation and regression of breast tissue B. C. Not precancerous Only occurs in young female

D. Not responsive to any medical treatment 197. Majority of carcinoma of the mucosal side of cheek is A. Basal cell carcinoma B. C. Lymphoma Adeno carcinoma

D. Squamous cell carcinoma 198. Organism causing osteomyelitis of jaw is A. Streptococci B. C. Staphylococcus auris Keibsella

D. Actinomyces 199. D. D of branchial cyst are ALL EXCEPT A. Solitary cyst of thyroid B. C. Cold abscess on neck Cervical dermoid

D. Carotid body tumour 200. Causes of cold abscess are all EXCEPT A. Tuberculosis B. C. Leprosy Syphilis (gumma degeneration)

D. Infectious mononucleiosis

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 15

SL No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. Ans C C C A B A C A A B B C D C C B C A D D C B D B C C A C C B B B D D A A A D A D D D A B A B A A 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. A B A D B D A B A D D C D C D C B C D B B A B A C C D C B C B D B C A D C C B A B B C B A B A A D 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. E E D D A B D D D B E B C B B D A C C C A C D D A A A B B B D C C D B D A D A A B C D A A B B B B

COMPREHENSIVE REVISION TEST - BASICS 16

147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. D B A B C C A C C C D D B C A C A D D C C A A A C A B A B C D A D B C A D B C C D A D D B A A D B 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. A D C D D