Chemestry English Part-2 New

QUESTION BANK
CHEMISTRY
Gujarat Secondary and Higher
Secondary Education Board,
Gandhinagar
Price : ` 60.00
Published by :
Secretary
Gujarat Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Board,
Gandhinagar
I
Copyright of this book is reserved by Gujarat Secondary and Higher Secondary Education
Board, Gandhinagar. No reproduction of this book in whole or in part, or in any form is
permitted without written permission of the Secretary, Gujarat Secondary and Higher
Secondary Education Board, Gandhinagar.
Contribution
1 Dr. Hasmukh Adhiya (IAS) Principal Secretary , Education Department Gandhinagar
2 Shri R. R. Varsani (IAS) Chairman , G.S&H.S.E. Bord, Gandhinagar
3 Shri H. K. Patel (G.A.S) Dy. Chairman, G.S&H.S.E. Bord, Gandhinagar
4 Shri M. I. Joshi (G.E.S) Secretary , G.S&H.S.E. Bord, Gandhinagar
Coordination
1 Shri B. K. Patel O.S.D., G.S&H.S.E. Bord, Gandhinagar
2 Shri D. A.Vankar Assistant Secretary (Retd.), G.S&H.S.E. Bord, Gandhinagar
5 Shri M. P. Parmar Assistant Secretary, G.S&H.S.E. Bord, Gandhinagar
Expert Teachers
1. Shri C. I. Patel (Convenor) Shri Vidyanagar High School, Ahmedabad
2. Shri S. B. Gor (Co-Convenor) Ghyanda Girls High School, Ahmedabad
3. Shri A. I. Patel Navchetan High School, Ahmedabad
4. Shri V. R. Patel
5. Shri B. R. Patel Muktjeevan Vidhyalaya, Ahmedabad
6. Shri K. K. Purohit M. K. Higher Sec. School, Ahmedabad
7. Shri M. B. Patel New Vidhyavihar for Girls, Ahmedabad
8. Shri B. A. Nayak Swaminarayan High School, Ahmedabad
9. Shri H. M. Patel
10. Shri S. B. Suthar R.P.T.P. Science School, Vallabh Vidhyanagar
11. Shri R. N. Patel R.P.T.P. Science School, Vallabh Vidhyanagar
12. Shri N. N. Shah Best High School, Ahmedabad
13. Shri J . Y. Mehta
14. Shri I. B. Amlani
15. Smt. M. N. Shethiya
16. Smt. H. N. Nayak
17. Smt. P. S. Thakar R.P.T.P. Science School, Vallabh Vidhyanagar
18. Shri G. S. Patel
19. Shri M. L. Sharma
20. Shri H. K. Patel
II
PREFACE
Uptil now , the Students had to appear in various entrance examinations for
engineering and medical courses after std-12. The burden of examinations on the side of the
students was increasing day-by-day. For alleviating this difficulty faced by the students,
from the current year, the Ministry of Human Resource Development , Government of India,
has Introduced a system of examination covering whole country. For entrance to engineering
colleges, J EE(Main) and J EE(Advanced) examinations will be held by the CBSE. The
Government of Gujarat has except the new system and has decided to follow the examinations
to be held by the CBSE.
Necessary information pertaining to the proposed J EE (Main) and
JEE(Advanced) examination is available on CBSE website www.cbse.nic.in and it is requested
that the parents and students may visit this website and obtain latest information guidance
and prepare for the proposed examination accordingly. The detailed information about the
syllabus of the proposed examination, method of entrances in the examination /centers/
places/cities of the examinations etc. is available on the said website. You are requested to
go through the same carefully. The information booklet in Gujarati for JEE( Main) examination
booklet has been brought out by the Board for Students and the beneficieries and a copy of
this has been already sent to all the schools of the state. You are requested to take full
advantage of the same also However, it is very essential to visit the above CBSE website
from time to time for the latest information guidance . An humble effort has been made by
the Gujarat secondary and Higher Secondary Education Boards, Gandhinagar for J EE and
NEET examinations considering the demands of the students and parents , a question bank
has been prepared by the expert teachers of the science stream in the state. The MCQ type
Objective questions in this Question Bank will provide best guidance to the students and we
hope that it will be helpful for the JEE and NEET examinations.
It may please be noted that this Question Bank is only for the guidance of the
Students and it is not a necessary to believe that questions given in it will be asked in the
examinations. This Question Bank is only for the guidance and practice of the Students. We
hope that this Question Bank will be useful and guiding for the Students appearing in JEE and
NEET entrance examinations. We have taken all the care to make this Question Bank error
free, however, if any error or omission is found, you are requested to refer to the text
books.
M.I. Joshi R.R. Varsani (IAS)
Date: 02/ 01/ 2013 Secretary Chairman
III
INDEX
IV
UNIT 15 P - BLOCK ELEMENTS 1
UNIT 16 D & F BLOCK ELEMENTS 48
UNIT 17 CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS 63
UNIT 18 ENVIROMENTAL CHEMISTRY 76
UNIT 19 PURIFICIATION AND CHARACTERISATION
OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS 82
UNIT 20 BASIC PRINCIPLES OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY 94
UNIT 21 HYDROCARBONS 128
UNIT 22 ORGANIC COMPOUNDS CONTAINING HALOGENS 154
UNIT 23 ORGANIC COMPOUNDS CONTAINING OXYGEN 173
UNIT 24 ORGANIC COMPOUNDS CONTAINING NITROGEN 190
UNIT 25 POLYMER 209
UNIT 26 BIOMOLECULES 220
UNIT 27 CHEMISTRY IN EVERY DAY LIFE 234
UNIT 28 CHEMISTRY PRACTICAL 241
1
UNIT : 15 P - BLOCK ELEMENTS
Important Points
The elements (except He atom) having outermost valence shell electronic configuration ns
2
np
1
to ns
2
np
6
are called p-block elements. Since p-orbital can accommodate six maximum
electrons, six groups 13 to 18 are there in p-block elements. We shall study group 13 and
14 i.e. Boron and carbon group elements in this unit. Generally in a row or period
eletrongativity, ionisation enthalpy and oxidising power are increasing as the atomic number
increases while in group it decreases as the atomic number increases. Generally, in group
covalent radius, van der Waals radius and metallic character increases as the atomic number
increases. It is a characteristic of the p-block elements that metal, non-metal and metalloid
are included in the same group.
The group 13 includes elements, Boron, Aluminium, Gallium, Indium and Thalium. Alu-
minium is the third most abundant element found in earth's crust. The important ores of
aluminium are bauxite and cryolite. Variation in some properties of group 13 elements are
like atomic radii and ionic radii, ionisation enthalphy, metallic character, electronegativity,
melting point and boiling point, density, character as reducing and nature of compound are
observed in elements of boron group i.e. Group 13 elements having electronic configuration
ns
2
np
1
. Hence, they possess +3 oxidation state and their stability goes on decreasing as
the atomic number increases. These elements also possess +1 oxidation state and the sta-
bility goes on increasing as the atomic number increases.
The chemical reactivity of group 13 elements are as given below. Group 13 elements do
not combine directly with hydrogen but they combine indirectly to form hydride com-
pounds. Boron forms a number of hydrides having molecular formula B
n
H
n+4
and B
n
H
n+6
which are known as boranes. The other elements of this group form polymeric hy-
drides. Group 13 elements form MX
3
type trihalides, where X =F, Cl, Br and I is unknown.
AlCl
3
exists in dimer form. The group 13 elements form oxides and hydroxides having
fomula M
2
O
3
and M(OH)
3
respectively. As the atomic number of elements goes on
increasing, the acidic character of oxide and hydroxide goes on dcereasing. Elements of
these group form octahedral complexes. Aluminium sulphate reacts and forms double salts
with sulphate of
+
4
NH and alkali metal ions having fomula M
2
SO
4
A
2
(SO
4
)
3
.
24H
2
O or
MAl(SO
4
)
2
.
12H
2
O where M =Na
+
, K
+
, Rb
+
and
+
4
NH . The first element (Boron) of group
13 shows anomalous behaviour. Boron is chemically less reactive and almost inert with
normal chemical reagents at normal temperature but reacts with strong oxidising agents and
with some typical reagents like non-metal, acid alkali and metals. Some important com-
pounds of boron are borax powder, boric acid and boron hydride. The properties and uses
of aluminium are as given in the text. Aluminium reacts with acid and base so it is ampho-
teric in nature.
The group 14 includes elements carbon, silicon, germanium, tin and lead. The first element
2
of this group is carbon, so it is also known as carbon group elements. Carbon shows
catenation property due to its small size, high electronegativity and very high carbon-carbon
bond energy. Due to typical characteristic of catenation it forms number of compounds
which are studied in organic chemistry. It also forms compounds with metals and non-
metals. Group 14 elements have variation in properties like atomic radii, ionisation enthalpy
electropositive character, electronegativity, melting points and boiling points density, catena-
tion and allotropy. The oxidation state of group 14 elements are +2 and +4. The trends in
chemical reactivity are as given in the text. The carbon shows anomalous behaviour. The
crystalline allotropes of carbon are diamond, graphite and fullerenes. The physical proper-
ties and chemical properties are as given in the text. Some important compounds of carbon
are halides of carbon, carbon disulphide, carbide compounds, carbon monoxide and carbon
dioxide, and the method of preparation and uses are as given in the text. The important
compounds of silicon are silicon hydrides having general formula Si
n
H
2n+2
. The
valueof bondenthalpyfor silicon-siliconis297kJ mol
1
hence catenation character is ob-
served in silicon and it forms limited hydride compounds, having formula Si
n
H
2n+2
where
n =1 to 8, and these compounds are also known as silanes. The stability of silane com-
pounds are less compared to hydrides of carbon and hence reducing power is more. Silicon
also forms silicon dioxide known as silica and more than 22 allotropic structures are known
in which some are crystalline and some are amorphous. Silica is acidic and hence it dis-
solves in liquid alkali or alkaline carbonate to form silicatecompounds. Silicon reacts with
only F
2
and formSiF
4
while reacts with Cl
2
and form SiCl
4
. The hydrolysis of SiCl
4
gives
silicic acid and the mechanism for hydrolysis are in two steps. The silicones are synthetic
materials containing Si

O Si bond linkage. Thesecompounds are polymeric substances
containing R
2
SiO reapeating unit. The general formula is R
2
SiO)
n
, where R is methyl or
phenyl group. The empirical formula is R
2
SiO which is similar to that of organic compound,
ketone, so it is called silicone. The prepartion, properties and uses are as given in the text.
Approximately 95% of earth's crust consists of silicates and silica compounds, containing
independent
4
4
SiO

having tetrahedral structure. The types of silicates depending upon the
number of corners 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the
4
4
SiO

tetrahedron are shared with other
tetrahedrons and based on that they are classified as given in the text. In a three dimensional
structure of SiO
2
, its Si
4+
partially substituted by Al
3+
gives aluminosilicate are called
feldspar and zeolites. In zeolites the
4
4
SiO

and
5
4
AlO

. tetrahedron joined together in simple
way to form three dimensional network. The uses of silicates are as a molecular sieves and
shape selectives catalyst. One important catalyst of silicate is ZSM-5 used in petrochemical
industry which converts alcohol directly into gasoline.
3
The elements of groups 13 to 18 in the periodic table are known as p-block elementes.
The general electronic configuration of these elements is ns
2
np
16
. We have studied about the
elements of groups 15, 16 ,17 and 18 in this unit.
General introduction of elements of groups 15, 16, 17, 18
group 15 group 16 group 17 group 18
Common name/ Nitrogen Chalogens or Halogen Group Noble Gas
Identification group Oxygen group Group
Electronic configuration ns
2
np
3
ns
2
np
4
ns
2
np
5
ns
2
np
6
of valence shell
N O F Ne
3, to +5 2, 1, +1, +2 1
Oxidation state P, As S, Se, Te Cl, Br, I Xe
3, +3, +5 2, +2, +4, +6 1, +1, +3, +5, +7 +2, +4, +6, +8
Sb, Bi Po
+3, +5 +2, +4
18
He
Ne
Ar
Kr
Xe
Rn
17
F
Cl
Br
I
At
16
O
S
Se
Te
Po
15
N
P
As
Sb
Bi
2p
3p
4p
5p
6p
A
t
o
m
i
c

r
a
d
i
u
s
,

m
e
t
a
l
l
i
c

c
h
a
r
a
c
t
e
r
E
l
e
c
t
r
o
n
e
g
a
t
i
v
i
t
y
,

I
o
n
i
s
a
t
i
o
n

e
n
t
h
a
l
p
y
Atomic radius, metallic character
The first element of group 15, differs in many as-
pects fromthe other elements in the group. The rea-
son for which is its smaller size, the capacity of
formation of ptpt triplebond between, nitrogen atoms
and the nonavailability of dorbitals. As we go down
from above in the group, variations are found
inproperties. Dinitrogen N
2
can be prepared in
the laboratory as well as on commercial level. The
oxides of nitrogen element are N
2
O, NO, N
2
O
3
,
N
2
O
4
and N
2
O
5
which possess resonance forms.
Ammonia and nitric acid are compounds of nitrogen.
Phosphorus element exists as P
4
molecule. It has
many allotropes. It forms hydrides, halides and
oxoacid compounds.
Poloniumelement of group 16 is radioactive. Oxygen forms metal oxides with metals. Ozone is a strong
oxidising agent. Sulphur element possessess different allotropes. Out of these o and | allotropes are very
important. Sulphur element combines with oxygen and forms oxide compounds like SO
2
and SO
3
. Out
of the different oxoacids of sulphur, sulphuric acid is very important. It is called 'King of Chemicals.'
Astatine element of group 17 is radioactaive. As these elements require one electron to have stable
electronic configuration, they are very reactive. As a result of this, the elements of this group are not
available in free state, but are availalbe in the combined state as negative ions. The elements of this
group formoxides, hydrogen halides, interhalogen compounds and oxoacid compounds.
Radon element of group 18 is radioactive. As the octet structure is complete in all the elements of this
group they are chemically inert. Xenon element of this group, under specific reaction conditions combine
with fluorine and oxygen elements and formfluoride and oxide compounds.
The periodicity in properties of elements of groups 15,16,17,18.
4
M.C.Q.
Boron Family
(1) Boron form covalent Compound due to
(a) Higher ionisation enthalpy (b) Lower ionisation enthalpy
(c) Small size (d) Both (a) and (c)
(2) In diborane the Two H-B-H angles are nearly
(a)
60
,
120
(b)
95
,
120
(c)
95
,
150
(d)
120
,
180
(3) The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence

(a) Al<Ga<In<Tl (b) Tl<In<Ga<Al (c) In<Tl<Ga<Al (d)Ga<In<Al<Tl
(4) Which of the following is most acidic
(a) Na
2
O (b) Mgo (c) Al
2
O
3
(d) Cao
(5) Cohen Orthoboric acid (H
3
BO
3
) is strongly heated, the residue is
(a) Meta boric acid (b) Boron (c) Al
2
O
3
, 2H
2
O (d) None of above
(6) Bauxite has the composition
(a) Al
2
O
3
(b) Al
2
O
3
, H
2
O (c) Al
2
O
3
2H
2
O (d) None of above
(7) Which one of the following is correct statement
(a) The hydroxide of aluminium is more acidic than that of boron
(b) The hydroxide of boron is basic, while that of aluminium is amphoteric
(c) The hydroxide of boron is acidic, while that of aluminium is amphoteric
(d) The hydroxide of boron & aluminium are amphoteric
(8) AlCl
3
is
(a) Anhydrous & covalent (b) Anhydrous & ionic
(c) covalent & basic (d) coordinate & acidic
(9) Aluminium (III) chloride forms a dimer because
(a) Higher coordination number can be achieved by aluminium
(b) Aluminium has high ionization energy
(c) Aluminium belongs to III group
(d) It cannot form a trimer
(10) Aluminium has a great affinity for oxygen & its oxidation is an exothermic process. This fact
is used in
(a) Preparing thin foils of aluminium (b) Making utensils
(c) Preparing duralumin alloy (d) Thermite welding
(11) Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide.
(a) MgO (b) Al
2
O
3
(c) Cl
2
O
7
(d) Ti
2
O
2
(12) When Al is added to KOH solution
(a) No action takes place (b) Oxygen is evolved
(c) Water is produced (d) Hydrogen is evolved
5
(13) Aluminium is more reactive than iron. But Aluminium is less easily corroded than iron because
(a) Aluminium is noble metal (b) Oxygen forms a protective oxide layer
(c) Iron undergoes reaction easily with water (d) Iron forms mono and divalent ions
(14) Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda since
(a) Washing soda is expensive
(b) Washing soda is easily decomposed
(c) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
(d) Washing soda reats with aluminium to form insoluble aluminium oxide
(15) Which of the statements about anhydrous aluminium chloride is corret
(a) It exists as AlCl
3
molecule (b) It is not easily hydrolysed
(c) It sublimes at 100
C under vaccum (d) It is a strong lewis base

(16) Number of water molecules in Mohrs salt is
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 8
(17) The liquid field metal expanding on solidification is
(a) Ga (b) Al (c) Zn (d) Ca
(18) Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al
2
Cl
6
in solid state as well as in solution of non-polar solvents
such as benzene when dissolved in water gives
(a) [Al(OH)
6
)
3-
+3HCl (b) [Al(H
2
O)
6
)
3-
+ 3Cl
(c) Al
3+
+
3Cl
(d) Al
2
O
3
+6HCl
(19) The hardest substance amongst the following is
(a) Be
2
C (b) Graphite (c) Titanium (d) SiC
(20) Inorganic Benzene is
(a) B
2
H
6
(b) B
3
N
3
H
6
(c) B
3
O
3
H
6
(d) (BH
3
)
3
(21) Anhydrous AlCl
3
cannot be obtained from which of the following reactions
(a) Heating AlCl
3
6H
2
O
(b) By Passing dry HCl over hot aluminium powder
(c) By Passing dry Cl
2
over hot aluminium powder
(d) By passing dry Cl
2
over a hot mixture of alumina and coke
(22) Diborane combines with ammonia at
120
C
to give
(a) B
2
H
6
NH
3
(b) B
2
H
6
. 2NH
3
(c) B
2
H
6
.3NH
3
(d) B
2
H
6
. 4 NH
3
(23) Which metal burn in air at high temperature with the evolution of much heat.
(a) Cu (b) Hg (c) Pb (d) Al
(24) Aluminium hydroxide is soluble in excess of sodium hydroxide forming the ion
(a)
3
2
AlO
+
(b)
3
2
AlO
(c)
2
AlO
(d) AlO
3
6
(25) Moissan boron is ________
(a) Amorphous boron of ultra purity (b) Crystaline boron of ultra purity
(c) Amorphous boron of low purity (d) Crystalline boron of low purity
(26) Which of the following is only acidic in nature
(a) Be(OH)
2
(b) Mg(OH)
2
(c) B(OH)
3
(d) Al(OH)
3
(27) Which of the following does not exist in free form
(a) BF
3
(b) BCl
3
(c) BBr
3
(d) BH
3
(28) Alumina is ________
(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Amphoteric (d) None of these
(29) Hydrogen gas will not produce
(a) Heated cupric oxide (b) Heated ferric oxide
(c) Heated stannic oxide (d) Heated aluminium oxide
(30) Conc.HNO
3
________
(a) Reacts with aluminium vigrously
(b) Reacts with aluminium to form aluminium nitrate.
(c) Doesnt react with aluminium
(d) Reacts with platinum
(31) Anhydrous AlCl
3
is obtained from
(a) Dilute HCl & aluminium metal (b) Aluminium & chlorine gas.
(c) Hydrogen chloride gas & aluminium metal (d) None of the above
(32) Which is true for an element & present in III group of the periodic table
(a) It is gas at room temperature (b) It has oxidation state of +4
(c) It forms R
2
O
3
(d) It forms RX
2
(33) An aqueous solution of borax is
(a) neutral (b) acidic (c) basic (d) none
(34) Crystalline metal can be transformed into metallic glass by
(a) alloying (b) Pressing into thin plates
(c) slow cooling of molten metal (d) Very rapid cooling of the molten metal
(35) Which metal is protected by a layer of it own oxide
(a) Al (b) Ag (c) Au (d) Fe
(36) B(OH)
3
+NaOH
NaBO
2
+Na[B(OH)
4
] +H
2
O How can this reaction is made to proceed
in forward direction.
(a) Addition of cis Benzene - 1,2-diol (b) Addition of Borax
(c) Addition of trans-Benzene 1,2-diol (d) Addition of Na
2
HPO
4
7
(37) An element A dissolves both in acid and alkali. It is an example of
(a) Allotropie nature of A (b) Dimorphic nature of A
(c) Amorphous nature of A (d) Amphoteric nature of A
(38) Which among the following is not a borane.
(a) B
2
H
6
(b) B
3
H
6
(c)B
4
H
10
(d) None of these
(39) In Goldschmidt aluminothermic process, thermite contains
(a) 3 parts of Al
2
O
3
and 4 Parts of Al (b) 3 parts of Fe
2
O
3
and 2 parts of Al
(c) 3 Parts of Fe
2
O
3
and 1 part of Al (d) 1 Part of Fe
2
O
3
and 1 Part of Al
(40) Aluminium oxide is not reduced by chemical reactions since
(a) Aluminium oxide is reative (b) Reducing agents contaminate
(c) Aluminium oxide is highly stable (d) The process pollutes the environment
(41) Aluminium is not used
(a) In silvery paints (b) For making utensils
(c) As a reducing agent (d) As oxidizer in metalurgy
(42) Bauxite containing impurities of iron oxide is purified by
(a) Hoops Process (b) Serpecks Process (c) Bayers Process (d) Electrolytic process
(43) In the purification of Bauxite by Halls process
(a) Bauxite ore is heated with NaOH solution at 50
0
C
(b) Bauxite ore is heated with NaHCO
3
(c) Bauxite ore is fused with coke and heated at 1800
C in a current of nitrogen
(d) Bauxite ore is heated with NaHCO
3
(44) The molecular formula of feldspar is
(a) K
2
O. Al
2
O
3
. 6SiO
2
(b) K
2
O. 3Al
2
O
3
. 6SiO
2
(c) Na
3
AlF
6
(d) CaSO
4
. 2H
2
O
(45) Common alum is
(a) K
2
SO
4
. Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
. 24H
2
O (b) K
2
SO
4
. Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
. 24H
2
O
(c) K
2
SO
4
. Fe
2
(SO
4
)
3
. 24H
2
O (d) (NH
4
)
2
SO
4
. FeSO
4
. 6H
2
O
(46) Which of the following is not true about potash Alum
(a) Its empirical formula is KAl(SO
4
)
2
. 12H
2
O (b) Its aqeous solution is basic
(c) It is Used in dyeing industries
(d) On heating it melts in its water of crystallization
(47) Which of the following statements about H
3
BO
3
is not correct.
(a) It is a strong tribasic acid
(b) It is prepared by acidifying an aqeous solution of Borax.
(c) It has a layer structure in which planar
3
3
BO

Units are joined by hydrogen bonds.
(d) It doesnt act as proton donar but acts as a lewis acid by accepting hydroxyl ion.
8
(48) The type of hybridization of boron in diborane is.
(a) Sp- hybridization (b) Sp
2
- hybridization (c) Sp
3
- hybridization (d) Sp
3
d
2
- hybridization
(49) Identify the statement that is not correct as far as structure of diborane is concerned.
(a) There are two bridging hydrogen atoms in diborane
(b) Each boron atom forms four bonds in diborane
(c) The hydrogen atoms are not in the same plane in diborane
(d) All B-H bonds in diborane are similar
(50) Soft heavy metal melts at
30
C
and is used in making heat sensitive thermometers, the metal is
(a) Gallium (b) Sodium (c) Potassium (d) cesium
(51) In the reaction
2 3 2
B O +C+Cl A +CO . The A is
(a) BCl
3
(b) BCl
2
(c) B
2
Cl
2
(d) CCl
2
(52) The most acidic of the following compound is
(a) P
2
O
3
(b) Sb
2
O
3
(c) B
2
O
3
(d) As
2
O
3
(53) Heating an aqeous solution of aluminium chloride to dryness will give
(a) AlCl
3
(b) Al
2
Cl
6
(c) Al
2
O
3
(d) Al(OH)Cl
2
(54) Which of the following is the electron deficient molecule
(a) B
2
H
6
(b) C
2
H
6
(c) PH
3
(d) SiH
4
(55) The structure of diborane Contains
(a) four 2c - 2e bonds and two 3c - 2e bonds
(b) Two 2c - 2e bonds and Four 3c - 2e bonds
(c) Two 2c - 2e bonds and two 3c - 3e bonds
(d) Four 2c - 2e bonds and four 3c - 2e bonds
(56) In Hall Heroult's process, the main reagent is mixed with
(a) B
2
H
6
(b) C
2
H
6
(c) Na
3
AlF
6
(d) SiH
4
(57) Which of the following statement in incorrect
(a) Al react with excess NaOH to give Al (OH)
3
(b) NaHCO
3
on hating gives Na
2
CO
3
(c) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution
(d) NaOH reats with glass to give sodium silicate
(58) Which of the following is nonmetal
(a) Ga (b) In (c) Th (d) B
(59) Which one of the following statements about diborane is not true
(a) The B atoms in it are SP
3
hybridised
(b) It contains two 3-centre-2-electron bonds
(c) All B-H bond lengths in it are equal due to resonance
(d) The molecule contains 12 valence electrons
9
(60) Boron shows single oxidation state due to absence of
(a) Inert pair effect (b) Screening effect
(c) Isotope effect (d) None
(61) Which of the following is non - existent
(a) AlF
3-
6
(b)
3
6
COF

(c)
2
6
BF

(d)
2
6
SiF

(62) Which of the processes is used in thermite welding
(a) TiO
2
+4Na Ti +2Na
2
O (b) 2Al +Fe
2
O
3
Al
2
O
3
+2Fe
(c) SnO
2
+2C Sn +2CO (d) Cr
2
O
3
+2Al Al
2
O
3
+2Cr
(63) In which of the following molecules is hydrogen bond absent
(a) Water (b) Inorganic benzene (c) Diborane (d) Methanol
(64) The tendency of BF
3
, BCl
3
& BBr
3
to behave as lewis acid decreases in the sequence
(a) BF
3
>BCl
3
>BBr
3
(b) BCl
3
>BF
3
>BBr
3
(c) BBr
3
>BCl
3
>BF
3
(d) BBr
3
>BF
3
>BCl
3
(65) Which one of the following molecular hydrides acts a a lewis acid
(a) CH
4
(b) NH
3
(c) H
2
O (d) B
2
H
6
1 d 16 b 31 c 46 d 61 c
2 b 17 a 32 c 47 a 62 b
3 a 18 b 33 c 48 c 63 c
4 c 19 c 34 d 49 d 64 c
5 a 20 b 35 a 50 a 65 d
6 c 21 a 36 a 51 a
7 c 22 b 37 d 52 c
8 a 23 d 38 b 53 c
9 a 24 c 39 c 54 a
10 d 25 c 40 c 55 a
11 b 26 c 41 d 56 c
12 d 27 d 42 c 57 a
13 b 28 c 43 b 58 d
14 c 29 d 44 a 59 c
15 c 30 c 45 a 60 a
ANSWER KEY
10
HINTS
(2)
H
H
B
H
H
B
H
H
122 97
0 0
(3) The Order is due to inert pair effect
(5) 2H
3
BO
3

A
B
2
O
3
+3H
2
O
(7) B(OH)
3
H
3
BO
3
(Boricacid), Al(OH)
3
amphoteric
(11) Al
2
O
3
is an amphoteric Oxide
(12) 2KOH +2Al +2H
2
O 2KAIO
2
+3H
2
(14) Na
2
CO
3
+ H
2
O 2NaOH + CO
2
2NaOH+2Al +6H
2
O2Na [Al(OH)
4
] +3H
2
(16) FesO
4
(NH
4
)
2
SO
4
.6H
2
O
(17) Liquified Ga expand on solidification Ga is less electropositive in nature. It has the weak
metallic bond. so it expand on solidification
(18) Al
2
Cl
6
+12H
2
O2[Al(H
2
O)
6
]3
+
+6Cl
(19) B
4
C is the hardest substance along with diamond
(20) AlCl
3
-6H
2
O
A
Al(OH)
3
+3HCl +3H
2
O
Thus AlCl
3
cannot be obtained by this method
(21) AlCl
3
6H
2
O
A
Al (OH)
3
+3HCl +3H
2
O
Thus AlCl
3
cannot be obtained by this method.
(26) Except B(OH)
3
all other hydroxides are of metallic hydroxide having the basic nature
B(OH)
3
are the hydroxides of non metal showing the acidic nature.
(27) Boro form different hydrides of general formula B
n
H
n +4
and B
n
H
n+6
but BH
3
is unknown.
(28) Alumina is amphoteric oxide which reacts with acid as well as base
(31) 2Al +6HCl 2AlCl
3
+3H
2
(32) Al III group form Al Al
2
O
3
(36) Due to formation of chelated complex, the reaction moves in forword direction.
(39) In aluminothermic process, Thermite contains 3 parts of Fe
2
O
3
and one part of Al.
(40) Aluminium oxide is highly stable therefore it is not reduced by chemical reactions
(49) B
2
H
6
has two types of B - H bonds.
(55)
H
H
B
H
H
B
H
H
3C - 2e

: BHB 2C 2e

: HBH
(57) 2Al
(s)
+2NaOH
(aq)
+6H
2
O
(l)
2Na
+
[Al(OH)
4
]
-
(aq)
+3H
2(g)
sodium tetra hydroxo aluminate (III)
11
CARBON FAMILY
(1) The compound which does not possess a peroxide linkage is
(A) Na
2
O
2
(B) CrO
5
(C) H
2
SO
5
(D) PbO
2
(2) Soldiers of Napolean army while at Alps during freezing winter suffered a serious problem as
regards To the tin buttons of their uniforms. white metallic tin buttons got converted to grey
powder. This Transformation is related to
(A) A change in the partial pressure of oxygen in the air
(B) A change in the crystalline structure of tin
(C) An interaction with nitrogen of air at very low to temperatures
(D) An interaction with water vapour contained in the humid air.
(3) Which one of the following statements about the zeolites is false
(A) Zeolites are aluminosilicates having 3D network
(B) Some of the SiO
4
4
units are replaced by AlO
4
5
and AlO
6
9
ions in zeolites
(C) They are used as cation exchangers
(D) They have open structure which enables them to take up small molecules.
(4) Which of the following acts UV rays
(A) Soda glass (B) Crook's glass (C) Pyrex (D) None
(5) The Stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb increases steadily in the sequence
(A) Gex
2
s
SiX
2
s
SnX
2
s
PbX
2
(B) SiX
2
s
Gex
2
s
PbX
2
s
SnX
2
(C) SiX
2
s
GeX
2
s
SnX
2
s
PbX
2
(D) PbX
2
s
SnX
2
s
Gex
2
s
SiX
2
(6) Sodium oxalate on heating with cone H
2
SO
4
gives
(A) CO Only (B) CO
2
Only (C) CO and CO
2
(D) SO
2
and SO
3
(7) Glass reacts with HF to produce
(A) SiF
4
(B) H
2
SiF
6
(C)H
2
SiO
3
(D) Na
3
AlF
6
(8) Extraction of lead by reduction methods done by
(A) adding more galena into reverberatory furnace
(B) Adding more lead sulphate in reverberatory furnace
(C) Adding more galena and coke into the reverberatory furnace
(D) Self reduction of oxide form sulphide present in the furnace.
(9) Which is used to produce smoke screen
(A) Calcium phosphide (B) Zinc sulphide (C) Sodium carbonate(D) Zinc phosphide
(10) When tin is treated with concentrated nitric acid
(A) It is converted in to stannous nitrate (B) It is converted in to stannic nitrate
(C) It is converted in to metastannic acid (D) It becomes passive
12
(11) In lll A group Tl (thallium) shows +1 Oxidation state while other members show +3
oxidation state. Why?
(A) Presence of lone pair of electron in Tl. (B) Inert pair effect
(C) Large Ionic redius of Tl ion (D) None
(12) Carbon suboxide C
3
O
2
has
(A) Linear structure (B) Bent structure
(C) Trigonal planar structure (D) Distorted tetrahedral structure.
(13) Which of the following is a mixed oxide
(A) Fe
2
O
3
(B) PbO
2
(C) Pb
3
O
4
(D) BaO
2
(14) Noble gases are absorbed in
(A) Anhydrous CaCl
2
(B) Charcoal (C) Conc, H
2
SO
4
(D) Coconut
(15) Solid CO
2
is known as dry ice because
(A) it melts as 0
o
C (B) it evaporates at 40
o
C
(C) it evaporates at - 78
o
C without melting (D) its boiling point is more than 199
o
C
(16) Carborundumis
(A) SiC (B) AlCl
3
(C)Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
(D) Al
2
O
3
. 9H
2
O
(17) H
2
O
2
on reaction with PbS gives
(A) PbO (B) PbSO
4
(C) PbO
2
(D) PbHSO
4
(18) Which of the following statements is incorrect
(A) Silicon is extensively used as a semiconductor (B) Carborandum is SiC
(C) Silicon occurs in free state in nature (D) Mica contains the element silicon
(19) SiF
4
gets hydrolysed gives
(A) SiO
2
(B) Si(OH)
2
F
2
(C) H
2
SiF
6
(D)Si(OH)
4
(20) Silicon is an important constituent of
(A) Rocks (B) Amalgams (C) Chlorophyll (D) Haemoglobin
(21) The number of unpaired electrons in carbon atom is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(22) Colour is imparted to glass by mixing
(A) Synthetic gas (B) Metal oxide
(C) Oxide of non - metal (D) Coloured Salt
(23) Which of the following glass is used in making wind screen of automobiles.
(A) Crook's Glass (B) Jena Glass (C) Safety Glass (D) Pyrex Glass
(24) Which of the following is insoluble in water
(A) Na
2
CO
3
(B) CaCO
3
(C) ZnCO
3
(D) Al
2
(CO
3
)
3
(25) In which of the following the inert pair effect is most prominent
(A) C (B) Si (C) Ge (D) pb
13
(26) Plumbosoluancy implies dissolution of lead in
(A) Bases (B) Acids (C) Ordinary Water (D) CuSO
4
(27) Which of the following glass is used to make lenses and prisms
(A) Flint (B) Jena (C) Pyrex (D) Quartz
(28) N
2
gas is absorbed by
(A) Calcium hydroxide (B) Ferrous sulphate
(C) Calcium Carbide (D) AluminiumCarbide
(29) White lead is
(A) PbCO
3
(B) PbCO
3
. PbO (C) 2PbCO
3
.Pb(OH)
2
(D) 2PbSO
4
. PbO.
(30) Red lead is
(A) Pb
3
O
4
(B) PbO (C) PbO
2
(D) Pb
4
O
3
(31) Name of the structure of silicates in which three oxygen atoms of [SiO
4
]
4
are shared is
(A) pyrosilicate (B) Sheet Silicate
(C) Linear chain Silicates (D) Three dimensional Silicate
(32) A metal used in storage battries is
(A) Copper (B) Lead (C) Tin (D) Nickel
(33) Solder is an alloys of
(A) Pb+Zn+Sn (B) Pb+Zn (C) Pb+Sn (D) Sn+Zn
(34) Which of the following statement is correct with respect ot the property of elements in the
carbon Family with an increase in atomic number their.
(A) Atomic size decreases (B) Ionization energy increases
(C) Metallic character decreases (D) Stability of +2 oxidation state increases
(35) Lapis lazuli is
(A) Ferrous sulphate (B) Copper Sulphate
(C) Sodium Alumino Silicate (D) Zinc Sulphate
(36) 'Lead pencil' contains
(A) PbS (B) Graphite (C) FeS (D) Pb
(37) Which of the following gives propyne on hydrolysis
(A) Al
4
C
3
(B) Mg
2
C
3
(C)B
4
C (D) La
4
C
3
(38) The ionic carbide is
(A) ZnC (B) TiC (C)SiC (D) CaC
2
(39) Which of the following is not iso structural with SiCl
4
(A) PO
4
3-
(B) NH
+
4
(C) SCl
4
(D)
2
4
SO

(40) For prevention of rusting of iron which is used in paints.
(A) PbO (B) PbO
2
(C) Pb
3
O
4
(D)PbSO
4
14
(41) Diamond is harder than graphite because
(A) Graphite is planar (B) Diamond has free electron
(C) Graphite is sp
3
hybridized (D) None
(42) Supercritical CO
2
is used as
(A) Dry ice (B) Fire fighting
(C) A Solvent for extraction of organic compound from natural sources
(D) A highly inert medium for carrying out various reactions.
(43) Products formed on heating Pb(NO
3
)
2
are
(A) PbO, N
2
, O
2
(B) Pb(NO
2
)
2
, O
2
(C) PbO, NO
2
, O
2
(D) Pb, N
2
, O
2
(44) Which of the following lead oxide is 'Sindhur'
(A) PbO (B) PbO
2
(C) Pb
2
O
3
(D) Pb
3
O
4
(45) Percentage of lead in lead pencil is
(A) O (B) 20 (C) 80 (D) 70
(46) Pb reacts with dilute HNO
3
gives
(A) NO (B) NH
4
NO
3
(C)N
2
O
5
(d) NO
2
(47) In silicon dioxide
(A) Each Si atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to
two Si Atoms
(B) Each Si atom is surrounded by four O
2
atoms and each O
2
by 2Si atom
(C) Si atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms
(D) None of above
(48) Litharge is chemically
(A) PbO (B) PbO
2
(C) Pb
3
O
4
(D) Pb(CH
3
COO)
2
(49) Which of the following has most density
(A) Fe (B) Ca (C) B (D) Pb
(50) Red lead is an example of an ______ Oxide
(A) Basic (B) Super (C) Mixed (D) Amphoteric
(51) Element showing the phenomenon of allotropy is ______
(A) Alluminium (B) Lead (C) Tin (D) Copper
(52) Which of the following is a metalloid
(A) Bi (B) Sn (C) Ge (D) C
(53) Which gas is liberated when Al
4
C
3
is hydrolysed
(A) CH
4
(B) C
2
H
2
(C) C
2
H
6
(D) CO
2
(54) Which of the following attacks glass
(A) HCl (B) HF (C) HI (D) HBr
15
(55) Dry ice is
(A) Solid CO
2
(B) Solid NO
2
(C) Solid SO
2
(D) None
(56) SiCl
4
on hydrolysis forms 'X' & HCl Compound 'X' loses water at 1000
o
C & gives 'Y'. Compound
'X' & 'Y' are respectively.
(A) H
2
SiCl
6
, SiO
2
(B) H
2
SiO
4
, Si (C) SiO
2
, Si (D) H
4
SiO
4
, SiO
2
(57) Pb +Conc, HNO
3
gives
(A) Pb(NO
3
)
2
+ NO
2
(B) PbNO
3
+ NO (C) Pb(NO
3
)
4
+ NO
3
(D) Pb(NO
3
)
3
+
N
2
O
(58) Which of the following has least tendency to undergo catenation
(A) C (B) Si (C) Ge (D) Sn
(59) The products of the following reaction are SiO
2
+C
A
(A) SiC & CO

2
(B) SiO & CO (C) SiC & CO (D) Si & CO
2
(60) PbO
2
is
(A) Basic (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) Amphoteric
(61) On controlled hydrolysis and condensation R
3
SiCl yields
(A) R
3
SiOSiR
3
(B) [R
3
Si - O - SiR
3
]
n
(C) R
3
SiOH (D) R
3
Si
4
O
4
(62) Hydrolysis of which of the following does not occur?
(A) VCl
4
(B) TiCl
4
(C) SiCl
4
(D) CCl
4
(63) Pure silicon doped with phosphorous is a
(A) Metallic conductor (B) Insulator
(C) n - type semiconductor (D) P - type semiconductor
(64) Carbogen is a mixture of
(A) CO +N
2
(B) CO +O
2
(C) CO
2
+ O
2
(D) C +H
2
+N
2
(65) The element evolving two different gases on reaction with conc. H2SO4 is ______.
(A) P (B) C (C) Hg (D) S
(66) Carborundum is obtained when silica is heated at high temperature with
(A) C (B) CO (C) CO
2
(D) CaCo
3
(67) Lead pipes are corroded quickly by
(A) DiL H
2
SO
4
(B) Conc.H
2
SO
4
(C) Acetic Acid (D) Water
(68) Which is the correct oxidation state of lead
(A) +2, +4 (B) +1, +2 (C)+3, +4 (D) +4
(69) Quartz is an example of
(A) Chain Silicate (B) Sheet Silicate
(C) Cyclic Silicate (D) 3D network Silicate
16
1 D 16 A 31 D 46 A 61 A
2 B 17 B 32 B 47 A 62 D
3 B 18 C 33 C 48 A 63 C
4 B 19 D 34 D 49 D 64 C
5 C 20 A 35 C 50 C 65 B
6 C 21 B 36 B 51 C 66 A
7 B 22 B 37 B 52 C 67 C
8 A 23 c 38 D 53 A 68 A
9 A 24 D 39 C 54 B 69 D
10 C 25 D 40 C 55 A
11 B 26 C 41 D 56 D
12 A 27 A 42 C 57 A
13 C 28 C 43 C 58 D
14 B 29 C 44 D 59 C
15 C 30 A 45 A 60 D
Answer Key
17
HINTS
(2) Grey tin is very brittle & easily crumbles down to a powder in very cold climates
Grey Tin White Tin
(Cubic) (Tetragonal)
The change of white tin to grey is accompanied by increase in volume. This is called disease
or tin Plague.
(3) Zeolite have SiO
4
& AlO
4
tetrahadrones linked together in a three dimensional open structure
in which four or six member ring predominate. Due to open chain structure they have cavities
& can take up water & other small molecules.
(4) Crook's glass is a special type of glass containain cerium oxide. It does not allow the passage
of ultraviolate rays & is used for making lense.
(5) Due to inert pair effect, stability of +2 oxidation state increases as we move down this
groupSiX
2
s
GeX
2
s
SnX
2
s
pbX
2
(6) Sodium oxalate react with conc. H
2
SO
4
to form CO & CO
2
gas
(10) tin is oxidized to meta stannic acid when it is treated with nitricacid
Sn +4 HNO
3
H
2
SnO
3
+4NO
2
+H
2
O
(11) Inert pair effect become significant for 6th & 7th period of p- block element.
(12) Carbon Suboxide has linear structure with C - C bond lenth equal to 130 A
o
& C - O
bond length equal to 120A
o
O =C =C =C =O O

C C C O
+
(13) Pb
3
O
4
is mixed oxide. It can be represented as 2PbO PbO
2
(14) Noble gas are found in very minute amount in atmosphers. These are separated fromeach other
by using coconut char coal. Which absorb different gas at different temperatures.
(15) SolidCO
2
is known as dry ice because it evaporate at -18
o
C without changing in Liquid state.
(17) When hydrogen peroxide reacts with PbS then they forms PbSO
4
(18) Silicon occurs in combined state in nature as silica, SiO
2
(19) It is hydrolysed with water to form a Si(OH)
4
(21)
| |
2p
2
2s
2
1s
2
6
C
No of unpaired e- in p =2.
(22) Metal oxides or some salts are fused with glass to imparted colour of glass.
(24) Al
2
(CO
3
)
3
is less soluble in water than Na
2
CO
3
, ZnCO
3
(25) inert pair effect is most prominent in Pb because from top to bottom due to increase in number
of shells.
18
(29) White lead 2PbCO
3
. Pb(OH)
2
.
(30) Pb
3
O
4
Red Lead (Sindhur)

(31) Three dimensional sheet structure are formed when three oxygen atom of each
[SiO
4
]
4-
Tetrahedrdls are formed
(33) Pb +Sn
(34) In carbon family stability +2 oxidation state increases on moving down the group in the periodic
table with an increase in atomic number due to screening effect.
(37) Propyne can be prepared by hydrolysis of magnesium carbide.
Mg
2
C
3
+4H
2
OCH
3
CCH +2Mg(OH)
2
.
(41) In crystalline lattice of diamond, each crbon atom is linked to four other carbon atoms
tetrahedrally by using sp3 - hydbrid orbitals giving rise to a rigid there dimensional network of
carbon atomfor this reason, diamond is very hard.Graphite, has hexagonal layer structure in which
each carbon atomis linked to three other carbon atoms by using sp2 hybrid orbitals. The hexagonal
layer in graphite are held together by weak Van-der waal's forces. So graphite is soft.
(42) Supercritical CO
2
is used as a solvent for the extraction of organic compound from their natural
sources.
(43) 2Pb(NO
3
)
2
2PbO + 4NO
2
+ O
2
(46) Pb reacts with dilute HNO
3
to produce NO gas
3Pb + 8HNO
3
3Pb(NO
3
)
2
+ 2NO + 4H
2
O
(47)
O
O
O
Si
O
O
O
Si O
(49) Pb
11.34 g/ml heaviest.

(50) Pb
3
O
4
is a mixed oxide of 2PbO +PbO
2
(52) Boron (B),Si,Ge,As,Sb & At are metalloid elements. Bismuth (Bi) & tin (Sn) are metal while
carbon (C) is non - metal.
(53) Al
4
C
3
+12H
2
O3CH
4
+4 Al(OH)
3
(54) Glass being a mixture of sodium& calcium silicates react with hydro fluoric acid forming sodium
& calcium flurosillicates respectively.
Na
2
SiO
3
+ 3H
2
F
2
Na
2
SiF
6
+ 3H
2
O
CaSiO
3
+3H
2
F
2
CaSiF
6
+3H
2
O
The etching of glass is based on these reactions
19
(55) Solid CO
2
is called dry ice because it changes to vapour state directly without changing to liquid
state.
(57) HNO
3
is best solvent for lead
Pb +4HNO
3
A
Pb (NO
3
)
2
+ 2NO
2
+2H
2
O
(59) SiO
2
+3CSiC +2CO
(60) It reacts with alkali as well as acid.
(61) R
3
SiCl on hydrolysis form only a dimer
R
3
SiOH +HOSiR
3
R
3
Si - O - SiR
3
.
(62) CCl
4
+H
2
O No reaction d - orbital absent in carbon atom
(63) excess of one valence electron in P atom over Si will form n type conductor.
(64) Calbogen is mixture of 90% O
2
& 10% CO
2
(65) C + 2H
2
SO
4
CO
2
+ 2H
2
O + 2SO
2
Here carbon is oxidized to CO
2
& H
2
SO
4
is reduced to SO
2
(66) Silica on heating with carbon at elevated temp gives carborandum (Silicon Carbide)
SiO
2
+3C
A
SiC +2CO
2
Carborandum is very hard substance
(67) Organic acids dissolve lead in presence of oxygen
Pb +2CH
3
COOH +
1
2
O
2
Pb (CH
3
COO)
2
+H
2
O.
20
NITROGEN FAMILY : 15
(1) Which of the following elements does not form stable diatomic molecules
(A) Iodine (B) Phosphorous (C)Nitrogen (D) Oxygen
(2) HNO
3
+P
2
O
5
A +B, A is an Oxyacid of phosphorous and B is an oxide of N. A and
B respectively are
(A) H
3
PO
4
, N
2
O
3
(B) HPO
3
, N
2
O
3
(C) HPO
3
, N
2
O
5
(D) H
3
PO
3
, N
2
O
5
(3) When heated NH
3
is passed over CuO gas evolved is
(A) N
2
(B) N
2
O (C) HNO
3
(d) NO
2
(4) When concentrated nitric acid is heated it decomposes to give
(A) O
2
and N
2
(B) NO (C) N
2
O
5
(D) NO
2
and O
2
(5) Which of the following metal produces nitrous oxide with dil HNO
3
(A) Fe (B) Zn (C) Cu (D) Ag
(6) Which Nitrogen trihalides is least basic
(A) NF
3
(B) NCl
3
(C)NBr
3
(D) NI
3
(7) P
4
O
6
reacts with water to give
(A) H
3
PO
3
(B) H
4
P
2
O
7
(C)HPO
3
(D) H
3
PO
4
(8) Which does not form complex
(A) N (B) P (C) As (D) Bi
(9) Nitrogen is relatively inactive element because
(A) it atom has a stable Electronic Configuration
(B) it has low atomic radius
(C) Its electro negativity is fairly high
(D) Dissociation energy of 15 molecule is fairly high
(10) Nitrogen dioxide is released by heating
(A) Pb(NO
3
)
2
(B) KNO
3
(C) NaNO
2
(D) NaNO
3
(11) Concentrated nitric acid oxidizes cane sugar to
(A) CO
2
and H
2
O (B) CO and H
2
O
(C) CO, CO
2
and H
2
O (D) Oxalicacid and water
(12) Red P can be obtained from white P by
(A) Heating it with a catalyst in an inest atmosphere
(B) Distilling it in an inert atmosphere
(C) Dissolving it in carbon disulphide and crystalising
(D) Melting it an pouring the liquid into water
21
(13) When aluminium phosphide is reacted with dil H
2
SO
4
(A) SO
2
is liberated (B) PH
3
is evolved
(C) H
2
S is evolved (D) H
2
is evolved
(14) Cyanamide process is used in the formation of
(A) N
2
(B) HNO
3
(C) NH
3
(D) PH
3
(15) Which statement is wrong for NO
(A) It is anhydride of nitrous acid (B) It dipole moment in 0.22D
(C) It forms dimer (D) It is paramagnetic
(16) Solid PCl
5
exists as
(A) PCl
5
(B) PCl
4
+
(C) PCl
6
-
(D) PCl
4
+
and PCl
6
-
(17) How can you synthesise nitric oxide in the lab
(A) Zinc with cold and dilute HNO
3
(B) Zinc with Conc. HNO
3
(C) Cu with cold and dil HNO
3
(D) Heating NH
4
NO
3
(18) Which of the following is a cyclic phosphate
(A) H
5
P
3
O
10
(B) H
6
P
4
O
13
(C) H
5
P
5
O
15
(D) H
7
P
5
O
16
(19) Which catalyst is used in the haber process for the manufacture of NH
3
(A) Pt (B) Fe+Mo (C) CuO (D) Al
2
O
3
(20) Which of the following has the highest dipole moment
(A) NH
3
(B) PH
3
(C) SbH
3
(D) ASH
3
(21) Which salt can be classified as an acid salt
(A) Na
2
SO
4
(B) BiOCl (C) Pb(OH)Cl (D) Na
2
HPO
4
(22) Which of the following is manufactured from the molecular nitrogen by bacteria
(A) NO
3
(B) NO
2
(C) Amino acids (D) Ammonia
(23) Which of the following Tendencies remains unchanged on going down in the nitrogen family
(A) Highest Oxi. State (B) Non - metallic character
(C) Stability of hydrides (D) Physical state
(24) (NH
4
)
2
Cr
2
O
7
on heating liberates a gas. The same gas will be obtained by
(A) heating NH
4
NO
2
(B) Heating NH
4
NO
3
(C) Treating H
2
O
2
and NaNO
2
(D) Treating MF
3
N
2
with H
2
O
(25) When plants and animals decay, the organic N is converted in to inorganic N. The inorganic
N is in the form is
(A) NH
3
(B) Elements of N (C) Nitrates (D) Nitrides
22
(26) In an organic compound , phosphorous in estimated as
(A) Mg
2
P
2
O
7
(B) Mg
3
(PO
4
)
2
(C) H
3
PO
4
(D) P
2
O
5
(27) Producer gas is a mixture of
(A) CO and N
2
(B) CO
2
amd H
2
(C) CO and H
2
(D) CO
2
and N
2
(28) Ammonium nitrate decomposes on heating in to
(A) NH
3
and HNO
3
(B) Nitrous oxide and H
2
O
(C) N, H, O
3
(D) Nitric Oxide, NO
2,
H
2
(29) Non - Combustible hydride is
(A) NH
3
(B) PH
3
(C) ASH
3
(D) SbH
3
(30) The element which catches fire in air at 30
o
C and is stored under water is
(A) Calcium (B) Sodium (C) Phosphorous (D) Zinc
(31) Which of the following acid exist in polymeric form
(A) HPO
3
(B) H
4
P
2
O
7
(C) H
3
PO
4
(D) None
(32) Dehydrated phosphorous trichloride in H
2
O gives
(A) HPO
3
(B) H
3
PO
4
(C) H
3
PO
2
(D) NF
3
(33) Which of the following is not hydrolysed
(A) AsCl
3
(B) PF
3
(C) SbCl
3
(D) NF
3
(34) The strongest base is
(A) NH
3
(B) PH
3
(C) AsH
3
(D) SbH
3
(35) The cyaide ion, CN
, N
2
are iso electronic. But in contrast to CN
, N
2
is chemically inert because
of
(A) Low bond energy (B) Absence of bond polarity
(C) Unsymmetrical electron distribution
(D) Presence of more number of electron in bonding orbilats
(36) When lighting flash is produced, which gas may form
(A) Nitrous Oxide (B) Nitric Oxide
(C) Dinitrogen in oxide (D) Nitrogen pentoxide
(37) A mixture of ammonia and air at about 800
o
C in the presence of Pt gauze forms
(A) N
2
O (B) NO (C) NH
2
OH (D) N
2
O
3
(38) Which of the following is the most basic oxide
(A) Bi
2
O
2
(B) SeO
2
(C) Al
2
O
3
(D) Sb
2
O
3
(39) Ammonia gas can be collected by the displacemet of
(A) Conc. H
2
SO
4
(B) Brine (C) Water (D) Mercury
23
(40) The chemical used for cooling in refrigeration is
(A) CO
2
(B) NH
4
OH (C) NH
4
Cl (D) Liquid NH
3
(41) Reaction of PCl
3
and PhMgBr. Would give
(A) Bromobanzene (B) Chlorobenzene
(C) Triphenyl phosphine (D) Dichlorobenzene
(42) Which of the following P is most stable
(A) Red (B) White (C) Black (D) All stable
(43) The least stable hydride of 75
th
group elements in
(A) NH
3
(B) PH
3
(C) AsH
3
(D) BiH
3
(44) The chemical formula of Tear gas is
(A) COCl
2
(B) CO
2
(C) Cl
2
(D) CCl
3
NO
2
(45) PH
4
I +NaOH forms
(A) PH
3
(B) NH
3
(C) P
4
O
6
(D) P
4
O
10
(46) Which is not an acid salt
(A) NaH
2
PO
3
(B) NaH
2
PO
2
(C) Na
3
HP
2
O
6
(D) Na
4
P
2
O
7
(47) The number of hydroxyl group in pyrophosphoric acid is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7
(48) Which of the following has the highest proton affinity
(A) Stilbine (B) Arsine (C) Phosphine (D) Ammonia
(49) Which of the following has highest B.P
(A) NH
3
(B) PH
3
(C) AsH
3
(D) SbH
3
(50) Which of the following exihibits highest solubility in H
2
O
(A) NH
3
(B) PH
3
(C) AsH
3
(D) SbH
3
(51) HNO
3
in aqueous solution yields
(A)
3
NO

and H
+
(B)
3
NO

and H
3
O+
(C)
2
NO
and OH
(D) N
2
O
5
and H
2
O
(52) The three important oxidation state of P are
(A) -3, +3, +5 (B) -3, +3, -5 (C) -3, +4, -4 (D) -3,+3,+4
(53) Which show maximum valency
(A) P (B) Tin (C) Sb (D) Bi
24
(54) Which oxide of N is obtained on heating ammonium nitrate at 250
o
C
(A) Nitric oxide (B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Nitrogen dioxide (D) Dinitrogen oxide
(55) The number of P-O-P bonds in cyclic metaphos phoric acid is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(56) The product oblained by heating (NH
4
)
2
SO
4
and KCNO is
(A) Hydrocyanic acid (B) Ammonia
(C) Ammonium cyanide (D) Urea
(57) Which compound is related to habers process
(A) CO
2
(B) H
2
(C)NO
2
(D) NH
3
(58) The carbonate which does not leave a residue on heating is
(A) Na
2
CO
3
(B) PH
3
(C) SbH
3
(D) AsH
3
(59) Aquaregia is
(A) 1:3 conc. HNO
3
and conc. HCl (B) 1:2 conc. HNO
3
and conc. HCl
(C) 3:1 conc. HNO
3
and conc. HCl (D) 2:1 conc. HNO
3
and conc. HCl
(60) Which of the following hydrides is least stable
(A) AsH
3
(B) SbH
3
(C) NH
3
(D) PH
3
(61) The most stable hydride is
(A) NH
3
(B) PH
3
(C) AsH
3
(D) SbH
3
(62) Which has the lowest boiling point
(A) NH
3
(B) PH
3
(C) AsH
3
(D) SbH
3
(63) Which is the most explosive
(A) NCl
3
(B) PCl
3
(C) AsCl
3
(D) All
(64) The most acidic is
(A) AS
2
O
3
(B) P
2
O
3
(C) Sb
2
O
3
(D) Bi
2
O
3
(65) Non-existing compound is
(A) PH
4
I (B) As
2
O
3
(C) SbCl
2
(D) As
2
H
3
(66) Pure N
2
gas is obtained from
(A) NH
3
+ NaNO
2
(B) NH
4
Cl +NaNO
2
(C) N
2
O + Ca (D) (NH
4
)
2
Cr
2
O
7
(67) Pure nitrogen can be prepared from
(A) NH
4
OH (B) Ca
3
N
2
(C) NH
4
NO
2
(D) Ba(NO
3
)
2
(68) NO
2
is released by heating
(A) Pb(NO
3
)
2
(B) KNO
3
(C) NaNO
2
(D) NaNO
3
25
(69) Which of the following is neutral
(A) N
2
O
5
(B) N
2
O
3
(C) N
2
O
4
(D) N
2
O
(70) Which of the following is acidic
(A) NH
3
(B) N
2
H
4
(C)N
2
H
2
(D) N
3
H
(71) Laughing gas is prepared by heating
(A) NH
4
Cl (B) (NH
4
)
2
SO
4
(C) NH
4
Cl + NaNO
3
(D) NH
4
NO
3
(72) P
4
O
6
reacts with water to give
(A) H
3
PO
3
(B) H
4
P
2
O
7
(C) HPO
3
(D) H
3
PO
4
(73) Electrolysis temperature is maximum
(A) AsH
3
(B) NH
3
(C) PH
3
(D) SbH
3
(74) Which of the following is not hydrolysed
(A) AsCl
3
(B) PF
3
(C) SbCl
3
(D) NF
3
(75) On adding H
2
O to BiCl
3
solution in HCl, the compound produced is
(A) Bi
2
O
3
(B) Bi(OH)
3
(C) BiOCl (D) BiOCl
2
(76) N, P , As, Sb , Bi elements belong to
(A) VA Group (B) IV A Group (C) VII A Group (D) Hg(OH)
2
(77) Which of the following elements occur free in nature
(A) Nitrogen (B) Phosphorus (C) Arsenic (D) Antimony
(78) Which of the following elements of group VA does not show allotropy
(A) N (B) Bi (C) P (D) As
1 B 16 D 31 A 46 D 61 A 76 A
2 C 17 C 32 D 47 B 62 B 77 A
3 A 18 C 33 D 48 D 63 A 78 B
4 D 19 B 34 A 49 D 64 B
5 B 20 A 35 D 50 A 65 C
6 A 21 D 36 D 51 B 66 B
7 A 22 A 37 B 52 A 67 C
8 A 23 A 38 A 53 A 68 A
9 D 24 A 39 D 54 B 69 D
10 A 25 A 40 D 55 C 70 D
11 D 26 A 41 C 56 D 71 D
12 A 27 A 42 A 57 D 72 A
13 B 28 B 43 D 58 D 73 B
14 C 29 A 44 D 59 A 74 D
15 A 30 C 45 A 60 B 75 C
ANSWER KEY
26
HINTS
(4) 4HNO
3
4NO
2
+ O
2
+ 2H
2
O
(5) 4Zn +10HNO
3
4Zn(NO
3
)
2
+5H
2
O +3N
2
O
(6) NF
3
It is least basic bacause of high electronegativity of 3F atoms. The lone pair present on
nitrogen atom is not easily available for donation.
(7) P
4
O
6
+ 6H
2
O 4H
3
PO
3
(8) Nitrogen does not form complex because of the absence of d - orbitals.
(9) N
N bond energy is very high 945KJ mole

1
(10) 2Pb(NO
3
)
2
2PbO + 4NO
2
+ O
2
(11) C
12
H
22
O
11
3
CONC
HNO
COOH
COOH
|
+ H
2
O
(14) CaCN
2
+ 3H
2
O CaCO
3
+ 2NH
3
(15) Anhydride of Nitrous acid is N
2
O
3
.
(16) Solid PCl
5
, exists as
4
PtCl
+
&
6
PtCl
(17) 3Ca + 8NHO

3
3Ca(NO
3
)
2
+ 4H
2
O + 2NO
(21) Na
2
HPO
4
Na
2
PO
4
-
+H
+
it can give H
+
ion in solution.
(23) Highest oxidation state is +5 which remains unchanged.
(24) (NH
4
)
2
Cr
2
O
7

A
N
2
| + Cr
2
O
3
+4H
2
O
NH
4
NO
2

A
N
2
+2H
2
O
(28) NH
4
NO
3

A
2H
2
O + N
2
O
|
(30) because of its very low ignition temp (303K) it is always kept under water.
(32) 3H
2
O +PCl
3
H
3
PO
3
+3HCl
(33) Due to absence of d - orbital in N - atom, it can't accept e
from H
2
O for hydrolysis of NF
3
(37) 4NH
3
+ 5O
2

Pt
800 C
4NO + 6H
2
O
(41) Reaction between PCl
3
& Ph MgBr gives triphenyl phosphine.
3C
6
H
5
MgBr + PCl
3
(C
6
H
5
)
3
P + 3 Mg Cl Br
(42) Due to less reactivity
(46) Na
4
P
2
O
7
salt of strong acid & strong base.
(49) NH
3
PH
3
. AsH
3
SbH
3
BP 238.5 185.5 210.6 254.6
(53) P Shows +5 valancy.
(56) (NH
4
)
2
SO
4
+ KCNO NH
4
CNO + K
2
SO
4
NH
2
CONH
2
urea
(57) Ammonia generally prepared by Haber's process
(59) One part conc. HNO
3
& 3parts conc. HCl forms aquaregia.
27
OXYGEN FAMILY
(1) Which is not easily soluble in water
(A) H
2
(B) O
2
(C) SO
2
(D) CO
2
(2) The molecular formula of sulphur is
(A) S (B) S
2
(C)S
4
(D) S
8
(3) All the elements of oxygen family are
(A) Non - metal (B) Matalloids (C) Radioactive (D) Plymorphic
(4) The triatomic species of element oxygen is known as
(A) Azone (B) Polyzone (C) Trizone (D) Ozone
(5) Which of the following acts as pickling agent
(A) HNO
3
(B) HCl (C) H
2
SO
4
(D) HNO
2
(6) Which of the following is no suitable for use in dasiccator to dry substance
(A) conc H
2
SO
4
(B) Na
2
SO
4
(C) CaCl
2
(D) P
4
O
10
(7) The catalyst used in manufacture of by contact process
(A) Al
2
O
3
(B) Cr
2
O
3
(C) V
2
O
3
(D) MnO
2
(8) Which of the following is the best scientific method to test presence of water in a liquid
(A)Taste (B) Smell
(C) use of litmus paper (D) use of onhydrous CaSO
4
(9) Which of the following sulphate is insoluble in water
(A) CaSO
4
(B) CdSO
4
(C) PbSO
4
(D) Bi
2
(SO
4
)
3
(10) When sulphur is boiled with Na
2
SO
3
solution, the compound formed is
(A) Sodium Sulphide (B) Sodium Sulphate
(C) Sodium persulphate (D) Sodium thiosulphate
(11) Number of unpaired electrons in sulphur is
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 1
(12) H
2
S reacts with O
2
in restricted supply of O
2
to form
(A) H
2
O +S (B) H
2
O +SO
2
(C) H
2
O + SO
3
(D) H
2
SO
4
+S
(13) Which of the following mixlure is chromic acid
(A) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
and Con. H
2
SO
4
(B) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
and HCl
(C) K
2
SO
4
and Con. H
2
SO
4
(D) H
2
SO
4
and HCl
(14) Among KO
2
,
2
NO
, BaO
2
and
2
NO
+
unpaired electron is present in
(A)
2
NO
+
and BaO
2
(B) KO
2
and BaO
2
(C) KO
2
(D) BaO
2
(15) Which of the element of the oxygen family is most poisonous to human race
(A) O (B) S (C) Se (D) None
28
(16) Super phosphate is the mixture of
(A) Calcium phosphate and H
2
SO
4
(B) Sodium phosphate and H
2
SO
4
(C) Potassium phosphate and H
2
SO
4
(D) None
(17) Which of the following dissociates to give H
+
easily
(A) H
2
O (B) H
2
S (C)H
2
Te (D) H
2
Se
(18) H
2
SO
4
reacts with PCl
5
to give
(A) Thoinyl chloride (B) Sulphur monochloride
(C) Sulphur chloride (D) Sulphur utrachloride
(19) Among H
2
O, H
2
S, H
2
Se and H
2
Te the one with highest boiling point
(A) H
2
O (B) H
2
Te (C) H
2
S (D)H
2
Se
(20) Which of the following is used in artificial respiration
(A) O
2
+ CO
2
(B) O
2
+CO (C) O
2
+H
2
(D) All of these
(21) Carbogen is
(A) Pureform of C (B) COCl
2
(C) Mixture of CO and CO
2
(D) O
2
& CO
2
(22) The products of the chemical reaction between Na
2
S
2
O
3
, Cl
2
and H
2
O are
(A) S+HCl +Na
2
S (B) S +HCl +Na
2
SO
4
(C) S +HCl +Na
2
SO
3
(D) S +NaCCO
3
+H
2
O
(23) The incorrect statement among the following is
(A) C
60
is an allotropic form of carbon
(B) O
3
is an allotropic form of oxygen
(C) S
8
is only allotropic form of sulphur
(D) Red phosphorous is more stable in air than while phosphorous
(24) Hypo is used in photography because of its
(A) Reducing behavior (B) Oxidising behavior
(C)Complex forming behavior (D) Reaction with light
(25) Aqueous solutions of H
2
S and SO
2
when mixed together yield
(A) Sulphur and water (B) Sulphur trioxide and water
(C)Hydrogen peroxide and sulphur (D) Hydrogen and sulphurous acid
(26) An example of a neutral oxide is
(A) No (B) CO
2
(C)CaO (D) ZnO
(27) Which of the following is used to absorb sulphur dioxide
(A) conc H
2
SO
4
(B) KOH Solution (C)Water (D) Anhydrous CaCl
2
(28) When SO
2
is passed through acidified K
2
Cr
2
O
7
solution
(A) Solution turns blue (B) Solution decolourizes
(C) SO
2
is reduced (D) Green Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
is formed
29
(29) Which of the following is oxidized by SO
2
(A) Mg (B) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(C)KMnO
4
(D) All
(30) A salt of sulphurous acid is called
(A) Sulphate (B) Sulphurate (C) Sulphite (D) Sulphid
(31) The final acid obtained during the manufacture of H
2
SO
4
by contact process
(A) H
2
SO
4
(conc.) (B) H
2
SO
4
(dil) (C) H
2
SO
4
(D) H
2
S
2
O
7
(32) Which compound acts as an oxidizing as well as reducing agent
(A) SO
2
(B) MnO
2
(C) Al
2
O
3
(D) CrO
3
(33) Bleaching action of SO
2
is due to
(A) Reduction (B) Oxidisation(oxide) (C) Hydrolysis (D) Acidic nature
(34) About H
2
SO
4
which is incorrect
(A) Reducing agent (B) Dehydrating agent (C) sulphonating agent(D) Highly Viscous
2Ag +2H
2
SO
4
Ag
2
SO
4
+2H
2
O +SO
2
, H
2
SO
4
acts as
(A) Reducing agent (B) Oxidising agent (C) Catalytic agent (D) Dehydrating agent
HCOOH
2 4
H SO
CO +H
2
O, H
2
SO
4
acts as
(A) Dehydrating agent (B) Oxidising agent (C) Reducing agent (D) All of these
(37) When conc.H
2
SO
4
comes in contact with sugar it becomes black due to
(A) Hydrolysis (B) Hydration (C) Decolourisation (D) Dehydration
(38) Which one is known as oil of vitriol
(A) H
2
SO
3
(B) H
2
SO
4
(C) H
2
S
2
O
7
(D) H
2
S
2
O
8
(39) Ozone deplete due to the formation of following compound in Antartica
(A) Acrolien (B) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate
(C) SO
2
& SO
3
(D) chlorine nitrate
(40) The acid used in lead storage cells is
(A) Phosphoric acid (B) Nitric acid (C) Sulphuric acid (D) Hydrochloric acid
(41) Which one of the gas dissolves in H
2
SO
4
to give oleum
(A) SO
2
(B) H
2
S (C) S
2
O (D) SO
3
(42) Oleum is
(A) Castor oil (B) Oil of Vitriol (C) Fuming H
2
SO
4
(D) None
(43) There is no S - S bond in
(A)
2
2 4
S O

(B)
2
2 5
S O

(C)
2
2 3
S O

(D)
2
2 7
S O

(44) Which element is found in free state
(A) I (B) S (C) Ur (D) Ag
30
(45) Which of the following hydrides ha s the lowest boiling point
(A) H
2
O (B) H
2
S (C) H
2
Se (D) H
2
Te
(46) In the preparation of sulphuric acid, V
2
O
5
is used is the reaction, which is
(A) S +O
2
SO
2
(B) 2SO
2
+O
2
2SO
3
(C) SO
2
+H
2
O H
2
SO
4
(D) N
2
+3H
2
2NH
3
(47) Point out of in which of the following properties of oxygen differs from the rest of the members
of its family (Group - VIA)
(A) High value of ionization energy (B) Oxydation state (2,4,6)
(C) Polymorphism (D) Formation of hydrides
(48) Ozone turns trimethyl paper
(A) Green (B) Violet (C) Red (D) Black
(49) No of atoms in one molecules of sulphur is
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) None of these
(50) Bond angle is minimum for
(A) H
2
O (B) H
2
S (C) H
2
Se (D) H
2
Te
(51) A solution of SO
2
in water reacts with H
2
S precipating sulphur. Here SO
2
acts as
(A) Oxidising agent (B) Reducing agent (C) Acid (D) Catalyst
(52) Whe SO
2
is passed through cupric chloride solution
(A) White precipitate is obtained (B) Solution becomes colouless
(C) Solution becomes colourless & White ppt is obtained of Cu
2
Cl
2
(D) No Change
(53) Which of the following is acidic
(A) SO
3
(B) N
2
O (C) BeO (D) HgO
(54) Which of the elements listed below occurs in allotropic forms
(A) Iodine (B) Copper (C) Sulphur (D) Silver
(55) Oxygen was discovered by
(A) Priestly (B) Scheele (C) Boyle (D) Cavendish
(56) Shape of O
2
F
2
is similar to that of
(A) C
2
F
2
(B) H
2
O
2
(C) H
2
F
2
(D) C
2
H
2
(57) Which of the following is not a chalcogen
(A) O (B) S (C) Se (D) Na
(58) Which of the following is a suboxide
(A) Ba
2
O (B) Pb
2
O (C) C
3
O
2
(D) ZnO
(59) KO
2
+CO
2
? (gas)
(A) H
2
(B) N
2
(C) O
2
(D) CO
(60) H
2
SO
4
acts as dehydrating agent in its reaction with
(A) H
2
C
2
O
4
(B) Ba(OH)
2
(C) KOH (D) Zn
31
(61) A gas that can not be collected over water is
(A) N
2
(B) O
2
(C) SO
2
(D) PH
3
(62) The molecular formula of dithionic acid is
(A) H
2
S
2
O
4
(B) H
2
S
2
O
6
(C) H
2
S
2
O
5
(D) H
2
S
2
O
7
(63) Oxygen is not evolved on reaction of ozone with
(A) H
2
O
2
(B) SO
2
(C) Hg (D) KI
(64) o and | form of sulphur both are stable at
(A) 369
o
C (B) 369K (C) 4
o
C (D) 0
o
C
(65) SO
2
+H
2
S X The final product is
(A) H
2
O +S (B) H
2
SO
4
(C) H
2
SO
3
(D) H
2
S
2
O
3
(66) Sulphur in +3 oxidation state is present in
(A) Sulphurous acid (B) Pyrosulphuric acid
(C) Dithionous acid (D) Thiosulphuric acid
(67) H
2
S is not a/an
(A) Reducing agent (B) Acidic (C) Oxidising agent (D) None
(68) Which one of the following is non-reducing
(A) H
2
S (B) H
2
Te (C) H
2
Se (D) H
2
O
(69) When PbO
2
reacts with conc. HNO
3
the gas evolved is
(A) NO
2
(B) O
2
(C) N
2
(D) N
2
O
(70) The most efficient agent for the absorption of SO
3
is
(A) 80% H
2
SO
4
(B) 98% H
2
SO
4
(C) 50% H
2
SO
4
(D)20% H
2
S
2
O
7
(71) In presence of moisture , SO
2
can
(A) Act as oxidant (B) Lose electron (C) Gain electron (D) Not act as reductant
1 C 16 A 31 D 46 B 61 C
2 D 17 C 32 A 47 B 62 B
3 D 18 C 33 A 48 B 63 B
4 D 19 A 34 A 49 A 64 B
5 C 20 A 35 B 50 D 65 A
6 A 21 D 36 A 51 A 66 C
7 C 22 B 37 D 52 C 67 C
8 D 23 C 38 B 53 A 68 D
9 C 24 C 39 D 54 C 69 B
10 D 25 A 40 C 55 A 70 B
11 A 26 A 41 D 56 B 71 B
12 A 27 B 42 C 57 D
13 A 28 D 43 D 58 C
14 C 29 A 44 B 59 C
15 C 30 C 45 B 60 A
ANSWER KEY
32
Hints
(7) V
2
O
5
catalyst are used for manufacture of H
2
SO
4
by contanct process.
(10) Na
2
SO
3
+ S Na
2
S
2
O
3
(11) The electronic configuration of sulphure is
S(Z=16) =1S
2
2S
2
2P
6
3S
2
3P
4
3P
+| | |
Hence it has two unpaired electrons
(12) 2H
2
S +O
2
2H
2
O + 2S
If the O
2
is not restricted
2H
2
S+3O
2
2H
2
O+2SO
2
(13) Mixture of K
2
Cr
2
O
7
and conc. H
2
SO
4
known as chromic acid
(14) KO
2
because in
2
O
(superoxide ion)
One unpaired electron is present in the antibonding orbital.
(17) The bond between (H
2
Te) is weakest hence it gives H+ion easily.
(18) HO - SO
2
- OH +PCl
5
Cl - SO
2
- OH +POCl
3
+HCl
HO - SO
2
- OH +2PCl
5
Cl - SO
2
- Cl +2POCl
3
+2HCl
(19) H
2
O containing hydrogen bond,
(21) Mixture of O
2
and CO
2
(22) Na
2
S
2
O
3
+Cl
2
+ H
2
O Na
2
SO
4
+ 2HCl + S
(25) SO
2
+2H
2
S 3S +2H
2
O
(28) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
+ H
2
SO
4
+ 3SO
2
K
2
SO
4
+ Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
+ 3H
2
O
(29) SO
2
+2Mg 2MgO +S
(31) H
2
SO
4
+ SO
3
H
2
S
2
O
7
(39) Fromation of chlorine nitrate is the main cause of ozone depletion
(41) H
2
SO
4
+SO
3
H
2
S
2
O
7
oleum.
(43) S
2
O
7
2-
(54) Sulphur -
(1) monoclinic (2) Rhombic (3) Plastic
(56) O
2
F
2
is similar to that of H
2
O
2

O
F
O
F
97
o
1.48A
o
O
F
O
F
O O
|| ||
O S O S O
|| ||
O O

33
HALOGENS FAMILY
(1) The correct order of thermal stability of hydrogen halide.
(A) HI >HBr >HCl >HI (B) HF >HCl >HBr >HI
(C) HCI <HF <HBr <HI (D) HI >HCl >HF >HBr
(2) Phosgene is common name of
(A) Carbonyl chloride (B) Phosphine
(C) Phosphorus Oxychloride (D) Phosphorus trichloried
(3) The solubility of iodine in water increases in presence of
(A) Alcohol (B) Chloroform
(C) Sodium hydroxide (D) Potassium trichloride
(4) On boiling an aqueous solution of KClO
3
with iodine the following is obtained
(A) KClO
3
(B) KClO
4
(C) KClO
2
(D) KIO
3
(5) Colour of iodine is disappeared by shaking it with aqueous solution of
(A) H
2
SO
4
(B) Na
2
S
2
O
3
(C) Na
2
S (D) Na
2
SO
4
(6) The stability of interhalogen compound is in order
(A) IF
3
>UF
3
>BrF
3
(B) BrF
3
>IF
3
>ClF
3
(C) IF
3
>BrF
3
>ClF
3
(D) ClF
3
>IF
3
>BrF
3
(7) Bromine is obtained on commercial scale from
(A) Caliche (B) Carnellite (C) Common Salt (D) Cryolite
(8) Chlorine was discovered by
(A) Davy (B) Priestley (C) Ratherlford (D) Sheele
(9) Bromine is liberated when aqueous solution of potassium bromide is treated with
(A) Cl (B) I
2
(C) Dilute H
2
SO
4
(D) SO
2
(10) Chlorine reacts under various conditions with sodium hydroxide to give
(A) Sodium Chloride (B) Sodiumhypochlorite
(C) Sodium chlorate (D) All of these
(11) Br
2
gas turns starch iodide paper
(A) Blue (B) Red (C) Colourless (D) Yellow
(12) Which of following is weakest acid?
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI
(13) Deacons process is used in manufacture of
(A) Bleaching powder (B) Sulphonic acid (C) Nitric acid (D) Chlorine
(15) Which of following is correct?
(A) Iodine is solid (B) Chlorine is insoluble in water
(C) Iodine is more reactive than bromine (D) Bromine is more reactive than chlorine
34
(16) Sea water is employed as a source of manufacture of
(A) F (B) I (C) Br (D) Cl
(17) Which is most reactive halogen
(A) Cl
2
(B) Br
2
(C) I
2
(D) F
2
(18) Which of following represents clear electro positive properties
(A) F (B) Cl (C) Br (D) I
(19) Which of following represents outermost shell of halogens
(A) S
2
P
3
(B) S
2
P
6
(C) S
2
P
4
(D) S
2
P
5
(20) Most activeness of fluorine is due to
(A) F-F bond has less energy (B) F
2
is gas at normal temp
(C) Its e - affinity is max (D) None of above
(21) Which of following after reacting with KI do not remove Iodine
(A) CaSO
4
(B) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(C) HNO
3
(D) HCl
(22) Aqueous solution of which of following acid can not be kept in bottle of glass
(23) Which of following pair is not correctly matched
(A) Halogen which is liquid at room temp. - Bromine
(B) Most electronegative element - Fluorine
(C) Most reactive halogen - Flouorine
(D) The Strorgest oxidizing halogen - Iodine
(24) Mark element that shows oxidation state only one
(25) Which of following has lowest boiling point
(26) Fluorine is stronger oxidizing agent than chlorine in aqueous solution. This is attributed to
many factors except.
(A) Heat of dissociation (B) e-affinity
(C) Heat of Hydration (D) Ionisation Potential
(27) Mark the element that displaces 3 halogens from their compound
(28) Mark smallest atom
(29) Which of following arrangement for 3 halogens Cl, Br, I when placed in order of
increasing e-affinity
(A) Cl, Br, I (B) I, Br, Cl (C) Br, Cl , I (D) I , Cl , Br
35
(30) Fluorine is better oxidizing agent than Br
2
, It is due to
(A) small size of F. (B) More e - repulsion in F.
(C) More e
neg. in F. (D) Non - Metallic nature of F.

(31) Which statement is correct about halogens?
(A) They are all diatomic(B) They are forming universal solvents
(C) They can mutually displace each other from solution of their compound with metals.
(D) None of above
(32) Which of following is most basic?
(A) I (B) Br (C) Cl (D) F
(33) Which of following is not a green house gas?
(A) CO
2
(B) CH
4
(C) O
3
(D) N
2
X
(34) Inisolation of F., a number of difficulties were encounted. Which statement is correct?
(A) Potential required for discharge of F. ions is the lowest.
(B) F. reacts with most glass vessel
(C) F has great affinity for H.
(D) Electrolysis of aqueous HF gives ozonised O2
(35) Chlorin gas is dried over
(A) CaO (B) NaOH (C) KOH (D) Conc. H
2
SO
4
(36) Chlorine is used in water for
(A) Killing germs (B) Prevention of pollution
(C) Cleansing (D) Removing dirt.
(37) Chlorine can not be used
(A) as bleaching agent (B) Sterilisation
(C) Preparation of antiseptic (D) Extraction of silver & copper
(38) Euchlorine is mixture of
(A) Cl
2
& SO
2
(B) Cl
2
& ClO
2
(C) Cl
2
& CO (D) None of these
(39) Which two salts are used in preparing iodised salt.
(A) KIO
3
& I
2
(B) KI & I
2
(C) KIO
3
& HI (D) HI & KI
(40) Which of following halogen oxides is ionic?
(A) ClO
2
(B) BrO
2
(C) I
2
O
5
(D) I
4
O
9
(41) Type of bonding in HCl is
(A) Pure Covalent (B) Polar Covalent (C) Highly Covalent (D) H - bonding
(42) Tincture of iodine is
(A) Aq. Sol. of I
2
(B) Solution of I
2
in Aq. KI
(C) alc. Sol. in I
2
(D) Aq. Sol. of KI
36
(43) HBr & HI reduce Sulphuric acid, HCl can reduce KMnO4 & HI can reduce
(A) H
2
SO
4
(B) KMnO
4
(C) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(D) None
(44) Hydrogen bonding is present in
(45) Which one of following orders is not proper
(A) F
2
>Cl
2
>Br
2
>I
2
: Electronegativity
(B) ) F
2
>Cl
2
>Br
2
>I
2
: Bond dissociation energy
(C) F
2
>Cl
2
>Br
2
>I
2
: Oxidising power
(D) HI >HBr >HCl >HF : Acidic property in water.
(46) Which of following chemicals contains chlorine?
(A) Fisc her salt (B) Epsom salt (C) Fremy's salt (D) Spirit of salt
(47) The halide NaF has high melting point than NaCl , NaBr, & NaI because
(A) Minimum ionic character (B) Maximum ionic character
(C) Highest oxidizing power (D) Lowest polarity
(48) Effective component of bleaching powder is -
(A) Cl (B) Br (C) Al (D) Ca
(49) Which of following is prepared by electrolytic method?
(A) Ca (B) Sn (C) S (D) F
2
(50) Chlorine dioxide is best prepared by passing dry
(A) Cl . gas over hot HgO (B) Cl & O
2
gas overhot pt . catalyst
(C) Chlorine over hot silver chromate (D) None of above
(51) Which one of following in aqueous solution gives a white precipitate with per chloric acid
(A) NaCl (B) KCl (C) MgCl
2
(D) FeCl
3
(52) NOCl is used as a bleaching agent & storilisng agent It can be synthesized by action of
(A) NaCl with H
2
O (B) NH
4
Cl with NaOH
(C) Cl
2
with cold & dilute NaOH (D) Cl
2
with hot & Conc. NaOH
(53) A one litre flask is full of brown bromine vapour intensity of brown colour of vapour will not
decrease a appriciable on adding to flask some of
(A) Pieces of marble (B) Carbon disulphide
(C) Carbon tetrachloride (D) Animal Charcoal Powder
(54) Which of following statement is correct?
(A) Only Cl & Br forms Oxyacids (B) all halogen form oxyacid
(C) All halogen except F. form oxyacid (D) Only iodine form oxyacid
(55) A mixture of ZnCl
2
& PbCl
2
can be separated by
(A) Distillation (B) Crystallization (C) Sublimation (D) adding aceticacid
37
(56) Hydrogen has a tendency to gain one e
to acquire helium configuration. In this respect

it resembles.
(A) Halogens (B) Actinides (C) Transition metals (D) Alkali metals
(57) The compound added to table salt for maintaining proper health is
(A) KCl (B) KBr (C) NaI (D) MgBr
2
(58) Which of following halogen can be purified by sublimation?
(A) F
2
(B) Cl
2
(C) Br
2
(D) I
2
(59) Which statement is not true ?
(A) Ni(CO)
4
is diamagnetic
(B) BI
3
is strong Lewis acid than BF
3
(C) Graphite conducts electricity where as diamond does not
(D) CCl
4
is hydrolysed where as BCl
3
is inert
(60) Bleaching Powder loser its power On keeping for long time because
(A) It changes to calcium hypochlorate
(B) It changes to calcium chloride & calicium hydroxide
(C) It absorbs moisture
(D) It changes to CaCl
2
& calcium chlorate.
(61) Compound that forms dative bond with ammonia
(A) CCl
4
(B) BCl
3
(C)MgCl
2
(D) NaCl
(62) Concentrated H
2
SO
4
can not be used to prepare HBr from NaBr because it
(A) reduces HBr (B) Oxidises HBr (C) Reacts slowly (D) None of above
(63) When Fluoride is heated with conc. H
2
SO
4
& MnO
2
the gas evolved is
(A) F
2
(B) SF (C) HF (D) None
(64) Unlike other halogens Fluorine does not show higher oxidation states because
(A) It is highly electionegative (B) It has no d - orbital
(C) atomic radius is very small (D) None of Above
(65) Which of following molecule is theoratically not possible
(A) OF
4
(B) OF
2
(C) SF
4
(D) O
2
F
2
(66) I is released when potassium iodie reacts with
(A) ZnSO
4
(B) CaSO
4
(C) FeSO
4
(D) NH
4
SO
4
(67) Among
Cl , Br , I

correct order for being oxidized to dihalogen is
(A)
I Cl Br

> >
(B)
CI Br I

> >
(C)
I Br CI

> >
(D)
Br I CI

> >
(68) Correct order of increasing bond angles in following species is
(A)
2 2
ClO Cl O ClO
< < (B)

2 2
Cl O ClO ClO < <

(C)
2 2
ClO Cl O ClO
< < (D) None of above

38
(69) When thiosulphate ion is oxidized by iodine , which one of following ion is produced?
(A)
2
3
SO

(B)
2
4
SO

(C)
2
4 6
S O

(D)
2
2 6
S O

(70) Which one of halogen acids is liquid ?
(71) When Cl
2
is passed through hot & Conc. Solution of KOH following compound is formed.
(A) KCl (B) KClO
3
(C) KClO
2
(D) KClO
4
(72) Chlorine can remove
(A) Br from NaBr Sol. (B) F from NaF Sol.
(C) Cl from NaCl Sol. (D) F from CaF
2
Sol.
(73) Which one of following acid is weakest?
(A) HClO (B) HBr (C) HClO
3
(D) HCl
(74) Which of following will displace halogen from solution of halide?
(A) Br
2
added to NaCl (B) Cl
2
added to KCl
(C) KCl added to NaF (D) Br
2
added to KI
(75) Chlorine can be manufactured from
(A) Electrolysis of NaCl (B) Electrolysis of brine
(C) Electrolysis of bleaching powder (D) All above
(76) Nitric acid converts iodine to
(A) Iodic acid (B) Hydro iodic acid
(C) Iodine Nitrate (D) Iodine pentoxide
(77) In preparation of chlorine from HCl, MnO
2
acts as
(A) Oxidising agent (B) Reducing agent
(C) Catalytic agent (D) Dehydration agent
(78) In KI solution I
2
readily dissolves & forms
(A) I
(B) KI
2
(C) KI
2
(D) KI
3
(79) When Cl is passed over dry slaked lime at room temperature, main reaction product is,
(A) Ca(ClO
2
)
2
(B) CaCl
2
(C) CaOCl
2
(D) Ca(OCl
2
)
2
(80) Br
is converted to Br
2
by,
(A) Cl
2
(B) Conc. HCl (C) HBr (D) H
2
S
(81) Which reaction can't be used for production of halogen acid.
(A) 2KBr +H
2
SO
4
K
2
SO
4
+2 HBr (B) NaHSO
4
+NaCl Na
2
SO
4
+HCl
(C) NaCl +H
2
SO
4
NaHSO
4
+HCl (D) CaF
2
+H
2
SO
4
CaSO
4
+2HF..
(82) When cold NaOH reacts with Cl
2
it forms
(A) NaClO (B) NaClO
2
(C) NaClO
3
(D) None
39
(83) Which one is anhydride of HClO
4
(A) Cl
2
O (B) ClO
2
(C) Cl
2
O
6
(D) Cl
2
O
7
(84) In dark, which of following reacts with Hydrogen?
(A) Br
2
(B) F
2
(C) I
2
(D) Cl
2
(85) Electrolysis of a liquid resulted in formation of Hydrogen at cathode & Cl2 at anode.
Liquidis
(A) Pure water (B) H
2
SO
4
Solution (C) NaCl Solution (D) CaCl
2
Solution
(86) Concentrated HNO
3
reacts with I
2
to give
(A) HI (B) HOI (C) HOIO
2
(D) HOIO
3
(87) Manufacture of Bromine from sea water, the mother liquor containing bromides is treated
with
(A) CO
2
(B) Cl
2
(C) I
2
(D) SO
2
(88) Formula of some fluorides are given. Which of them will combine with fluorine?
(A) IF
5
(B) NaF (C) CaF
2
(D) SF
5
(89) Which of following oxidizes H
2
O to oxygen.
(A) Cl (B) F (C) Br (D) I
(90) A solution of HCl in water is good conductor while gaseous Hydrogen chloride is not .
This is because
(A) Water is good conductor of electricity (B) HCl in water ionises
(C) Gas can not conduct electricity but water can (D) None of these
(91) Bleaching action of bleaching powder is due to liberation of
(A) Chlorine (B) Molecular oxygen
(C) Nascent oxygen (D) Calcium carbonate
(92) What products are expected from disproportion reaction of hypochlorous acid.
(A) HClO
3
& Cl
2
O (B) HClO
2
& HClO
4
(C) HCl & Cl
2
O (D) HCl & HClO
3
(93) Mixture of conc. HCl & HNO
3
made in 3:1 ratio contains
(A) ClO
2
(B) NOCl (C) NCl
3
(D) N
2
O
4
(94) I|3| is used for treatment of
(A) Thyroid disorders (B) Skin disorders (C) Brain tumours (D) Kidney stones
(95) Least reactive halogen with hydrogen is
(A) Cl (B) I (C) Br (D) F
(96) Bleaching action of chlorine is due to
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction (C) Hydrolysis (D) Its acidic nature
(97) Which among following non metals is liq at 25
o
C
(A) Br (B) C (C) P (D) S.
40
(98) Element that librates oxygen gas from water is
(A) P (B) Na (C) F (D) I.
(99) On exciting Cl
2
molecule by UV Light , we get
(A) Cl (B) Cl
+
(C) Cl
(D) All
(100) Which of following sequence is correct with refrence to oxidation number of iodine
(A) I
2
<ICl <HI <HIO
4
(B) HIO
4
<ICl <I
2
<HI
(C) I
2
<HI <ICl <HIO
4
. (D) HI <I
2
<IC <HIO
4
(101) What is obtained on reacting HgCl
2
& Hg(CN)
2
.
(A) (CN)
2
. (B) addition compound HgCl
2
. Hg(CN)
2
(C) Hg(CN) Cl (D) Hg [Hg(CN)
2
Cl
2
]
(102) Chlorine is liberated when we heat
(A) KMnO
4
+NaCl (B) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
+ MnO
2
(C) ) Pb
2
(NO
3
)
4
+MnO
2
(D) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
+HCl
(103) Metal halide, insoluble in water is
(A) AgI (B) KBr (C) CaCl
2
(D) AgF
(104) Which of following oxides is expected exhibit paramagnetic behaviour
(A) CO
2
(B) SO
2
(C) ClO
2
(D) SiO
2
(105) Iodine dissolver readily in
(A) Water (B) Potassium iodide (C) CCl
4
(D) Alcohol
(106) Cl
2
reacts with CS
2
in presence of I
2
to form
(A) CHCl
3
(B) CCl
4
(C) C
2
H
5
Cl (D) C
2
H
6
(107) Bleaching powder is
(A) CaOCl
2
(B) CaO (C) CaO(Cl). (D) CaCl(OCl)
(108) Bleaching powder is obtained by treating chlorine with
(A) CaO (B) CaCO
3
(C) CaSO
4
(D) Ca(OH)
2
(109) Which is formed when F reacts with hot & conc. Sodium Hydroxide.
(A) O
2
(B) O
3
(C) NaO (D) HF.
(110) Bromine water reacts with SO
2
to form
(A) H
2
O & HBr (B) H
2
SO
4
& HBr (C) HBr & S (D) S & H
2
O
(111) On heating NaCl +K
2
Cr
2
O
7
+Conc. H
2
SO
4
, we get
(A) O
2
(B) Cl
2
(C) CrOCl
2
(D) CrO
2
Cl
2
(112) Amongst LiCl , RbCl , BeCl
2
& MgCl
2
, max. & min. ionic character will be shown by
(A) LiCl , MgCl
2
. (B) RbCl , BeCl
2
(C) RbCl , MgCl
2
(D) MgCl
2
,
BeCl
2
(113) Which of following chloride is water insoluble
(A) HCl (B) AgCl (C) both 'a' & b (D) None
41
(114) The alkali metal halide are soluble in water but LiF is insoluble because
(A) It's Amphoteric (B) Li -F is highly ionic
(C) It's Lattice energy is high (D) Li
+
ion is least hydrated.
(115) Which of following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action
(A) CaCl
2
(B) CaOCl
2
(C) Ca(OCl)
2
(D) CaO
2
Cl
(116) ClO
2
reacts with O
3
to give
(A) Cl
2
O
4
(B) Cl
2
O (C) Cl
2
O
6
(D) ClO
4
(117) Bad conductor Of electricity is
(A) H
2
F
2
(B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI
(118) When KBr is treated with concentrated H
2
SO
4
redish brown gas evolved, gas is
(A) Mixture of Br & HBr (B) Bromine & HNO
3
(C) Bromine (D) None of these.
1 B 21 D 41 B 61 B 81 A 101 B
2 A 22 A 42 C 62 B 82 A 102 D
3 D 23 D 43 D 63 C 83 D 103 A
4 A 24 A 44 A 64 B 84 B 104 C
5 C 25 B 45 B 65 A 85 C 105 B
6 B 26 B 46 D 66 B 86 C 106 B
7 B 27 A 47 B 67 C 87 B 107 D
8 A 28 A 48 A 68 A 88 A 108 D
9 A 29 B 49 D 69 C 89 B 109 A
10 D 30 C 50 C 70 A 90 B 110 B
11 A 31 C 51 B 71 B 91 C 111 D
12 A 32 A 52 C 72 A 92 D 112 B
13 D 33 D 53 A 73 A 93 B 113 B
14 C 34 A 54 C 74 D 94 A 114 C
15 A 35 D 55 B 75 B 95 B 115 C
16 B 36 A 56 A 76 A 96 A 116 C
17 D 37 D 57 C 77 A 97 A 117 A
18 D 38 B 58 D 78 D 98 C 118 C
19 D 39 B 59 D 79 C 99 A
20 A 40 D 60 D 80 A 100 D
Answer Key
42
HINTS
(1) HF >HCl >HBr >HI thermal stability
(2) CHCl
3
+O
2
COCl
2
+HCl
Phosgene or carbonyl chloride
(3) Iodine has the least affinity for water and is only slightly soluble in it . However it is dissolved
in 10% aq. Solution of KI due to formation of complex ion ie .
3
I
I
2
+KI KI
3
or I
2
+
I

3
I
(Complex)
(4) 2KClO
3
+I
2
2KIO
3
+Cl
2
(5) 2Na
2
S
2
O
3
+ I
2
2NaI + Na
2
S
4
O
6
(6) The acidic strength of oxy acids decreases down wards in a group. The correct order of acidic
C strength of oxy - acids of Halogens is HClO
4
>HBrO
4
>HIO
4
(7) Carnellite is KCl. Mg Cl
2
.6H
2
O. The mother liquor remain after crystallisation of KCl from carnellite
contains about 0.25% of Bromine as MgBr
2
or KBr.
(9) Cl
2
+2KBr 2KCl +Br
2
A more electronegative halogen can displace less acid because of lowest bond dissociation Energy.
(10) 2NaOH(dil) +Cl
2

Cold
NaCl +NaClO +H
2
O. Sod. Hypochlorite.
6NaOH(conc) +3Cl
2

heat
5NaCl +NaClO
3
+3H
2
O Sodium chlorate.
(12) HF is weakest acid. Since it is on able to give H +ions which are trapped in H - Bonding.
(69) 2Na
2
S
2
O
3
+ I
2
2NaI + Na
2
S
4
O
6
(70) HF is liq. Because of int . molec. H - Bond
(71) 6KOH +3Cl
2
5KCl +KClO
3
+ 3H
2
O
(72) Cl
2
+2NaBr 2NaCl +Br
2
(73) HClO H
+
+ClO
-
(74) Br
2
+2KI I
2
+2KBr
(75) 2NaCl +2H
2
O
2(g) 2(g)
(aq)
2NaOH +Cl +H
(76) I
2
+10HNO
3
2HIO
3
+10NO
2
+ 4H
2
O
(77) 2 2 2 2
(4 ) (2 )
MnO +4HCl MnCl +2H O +Cl
|_____ Reduction ___|
+ +
43
(78) KI +I
2
KI
3
(79) Ca(OH)
2
+Cl
2
CaOCl
2
+H
2
O
(80) Cl
2
+
2Br

2Cl
+Br
2
.
(81) 2KBr +H
2
SO
4
K
2
SO
4
+2HBr
(82) 2NaOH +Cl
2
NaClO +NaCl +H
2
O
(83) 2HClO
4
H
2
O +Cl
2
O
7
(84) H
2
+F
2
2HF (anode)
(85) 2NaCl +2H
2
O 2NaOH +Cl
2
+H
2
(cathode)
(86) I
2
+10HNO
3
2HIO
3
+10NO
2
+ 4H
2
O
(87) Mg Br
2
+Cl
2
MgCl
2
+Br
2
(88) IF
5
+F
2
IF
7
(89) 2F
2
+2H
2
O 4HF +O
2
(90) HCl
2
H O

(ag)
H Cl
+
+
(91) CaOCl
2
CaCl
2
+[O]
(92) 3HOCl
(+1)
2HCl
(-1)
+HCl
(+5)
O
3
(93) 3HCl +HNO
3
NOCl +2H
2
O +Cl
2
(94) I - 131 is used for treatment of thyroid disorders.
(95) As electronegativity decreases reactivity also decreases
(96) Cl
2
+H
2
O 2HCl +[O]
(97) Br. Is a liquid at room temp.
(98) 2H
2
O +2F
2
4HF +O
2
(99) Cl-Cl
UV
Cl +Cl (Free fadical)

(100)
2 4
( 1) ( 1)
(0) ( 7)
HI <I <ICl <HIO
+
+
(101) HgCl
2
+Hg(CN)
2
HgCl
2
.Hg(CN)
2
.
(102) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
+14HCl 2KCl +2 CrCl
3
+7H
2
O +3Cl
2
.
(103) AgI is covalent compound.
(104) Due to unpaired e
- ClO
2
is paramagnetic.
(105) KI +I
2
KI
3
(106) CS
2
+3Cl
2
CCl
4
+ S
2
Cl
2
44
(107) CaCl(OCl)

O
Ca
Cl
Cl
(108) Ca(OH)
2
+Cl
2
CaOCl
2
+H
2
O
(109) 2F
2
+ 4NaOH
A
4NaF +2H
2
O + O
2
(110) Br
2
+2H
2
O +SO
2
H
2
SO
4
+2HBr
(111) CrO
2
Cl
2
is a orange red gas
(112) Acc to Fajan's rule , largest cation & smallest an ion
(113) AgCl is water insoluble chloride.
(114) Small atomic size of Li & F , lattice energy highest
(115) Fact.
(116) Cl
2
O
6
is formed by reaction of ClO
2
& O
3
.
(117) due to H - bonding free ions are not present in aq sol. Hence bad condc.
(118) 2KBr +3H
2
SO
4
+MnO
2

A
2KHSO
4
+MnSO
4
+2H
2
O +Br
2
45
NOBLE GASES FAMILY
(1) Which of following outter electronic configuration represents Ar?
(A) ns
2
(B) ns
2
np
6
(C) ns
2
np
5
(D) ns
2
np
4
(2) Which mineral was used in isolation of radium?
(A) Lime stone (B) Pitch blende (C) Rectile (D) Haematite
(3) Molecules of noble gas do not posses vibrational energy bec. Noble gas is
(A) Monoatomic (B) Chemically inert
(C) Complete filled shells (D) Is diatomic
(4) Argon was discovered by
(A) Rayleigh (B) Frankland & Lockyer (C) Jansen (D) Ramsay
(5) The colour discharge tubes for advertisement mainly contain
(A) Argon. (B) Neon (C) Helium (D) Xenon
(6) Least chemical activity is shown by
(A) Nitrogen. (B) Argon (C) Methane (D) Xenon
(7) Noble gases do not react with other elements because
(A) They have completely paired up & stable e - configuration
(B) Their size is very small
(C) Are monoatomic
(D) None of these
(8) Monazite is source of
(A) He (B) Kr (C) Ar (D) Ne.
(9) He is added to oxygen supply used by deep sea divers because
(A) It's less soluble in blood than Nitrogen at high pressure
(B) It is Lighter than Nitrogen
(C) It is readily miscible in oxygen
(D) It is less poisionous than Nitrogen
(10) Which of following is not correct for noblegas?
(A) Ar is used in electric bulbs
(B) Kr is obtained during radioactive disintegration
(C) Half life of Rn is 3.8 days
(D) He is used to produce Low temp.
(11) Which of following represents noble gas configuration.
(A) 1S
2
, 2S
2
2P
6
, 3S
2
3P
5
(B) 1S
2
, 2S
2
2P
6
, 3S
2
3P
6
(C) 1S
2
, 2S
2
2P
6
(D) 1S
2
, 2S
2
(12) Which of following has zero valency
(A) Sodium (B) Beryllium (C) Aluminium . (D) Krypton.
46
(13) The forces acting between noble gas atoms are
(A) Vander waals forces (B) Ion - dipole forces
(C) London - dispersion forces (D) Magnatic forces
(14) Which of following is correct sequence of noble gas in their group ?
(A) Ar, He, Kr , Ne , Xe, Rn (B) He, Ar, Ne, Kr, Xe, Rn
(C) He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn (D) He, Ne, Kr, Ar, Xe, Rn
(15) Which of following is noble gas configuration?
(A) 1s
2
(B) 1S
2
, 2S
2
(C) 1S
2
, 2S
2
2P
6
, 3S
1
(D) 1S
2
, 2S
2
2P
6
, 3S
2
, 3P
6
, 4S
2
(16) Which of following noble gas does not have octate of e - in outer most shell.
(A) Ne (B) Rn (C) Ar (D) He
(17) Low chemical reactivity of rate gases can be attributed to their
(A) Being nonmetal (B) Having High ioni cation energies
(C) Being gases (D) Found in nature in small quantities.
(18) % of Ar in air is;
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4%
(19) F. forms chemical compound with
(A) He (B) Ne (C) Ar . (D) Xe.
(20) Per Xenate ion is
(A)
4
6
XeO
(B)
4
HXeO
(C)
2
4
XeO
(D) Xe.
(21) Last member of inert gas element is
(A) Ne (B) He (C) Ar. (D) Rn
(22) Which of following is inert gas
(A) H
2
(B) O
2
(C) N
2
. (D) Argon.
(23) Which inert gas show abnormal behavior on liquefaction
(A) Xe (B) He (C) Ar (D) Kr
(24) Inert gas producing max. number of compounds
(A) He & Ne (B) Ar & Ne (C) Kr & Ne (D) Ar & Xe
(25) Helium was discovered by
(A) Crooks (B) Rutherford
(C) Frankland & Lockyer (D) Dorn
(26) XeF
4
& XeF
6
are expected to be
(A) Oxidising (B) Reducing (C) Un reactive (D) Strongly basic
(27) Noble gas forms max. No. of compounds is
(A) Ar (B) He (C) Xe (D) Ne
47
(28) Nuclear Fusion Produces
(A) Ar (B) Duterium . (C) He (D) Krypton
(29) Among fluorides, one that does not exists is
(A) XeF
4
. (B) HeF
4
(C) SF
4
(D) CF
4
(30) Last orbit of argon would have ___ e-
(A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 18 (D) 8
(31) Electronic configuration of neon is
(A) 1S
2
, 2S
2
2P
2
(B) 1S
2
, 2S
2
2P
6
(C) 1S
2
, 2S
2
(D) 1S
2
(32) Which of following noble gas s is least polarizable
(A) Xe (B) Ar (C) Ne (D) He
(33) XeF
6
on hydrolysis gives
(A) XeO
3
(B) XeO (C) XeO
2
(D) Xe
Hints
(26) all the xenon fluorides are strongly oxidizing
(27) XeF
2
, XeOF
2
, XeF
4
, XeOF
4
, XeF
6
, XeO
3
(28)
2 2 4
H H He
1 1 2 +
(29) HeF
4
does not exists
(30) Ar
18
2, 8, 8
(31) Ne
10
1S
2
, 2S
2
2P
6
(32) He is least polarizable bec. Of small size.
(33) XeF
6
+3H
2
O XeO
3
+6HF..
1 B 11 B 21 D 31 B
2 B 12 D 22 D 32 D
3 A 13 A 23 B 33 A
4 D 14 C 24 D
5 C 15 A 25 C
6 B 16 A 26 A
7 A 17 B 27 C
8 A 18 A 28 C
9 A 19 D 29 B
10 B 20 A 30 D
Answer Key
48
UNIT-16 d & f BLOCK ELEMENTS
Important Points
Position in Block
periodic table
Groups 1 to 2 s-Block
Groups 13 to 18 p-Block
Groups 3 to 12 d-Block
Two horizontal rows at the f-Block
bottom of the periodic table
d-block elements are in periods 4 to 7.
f-block elements are in periods 6 and 7.
Elements of d-block (Transition metal elements)
The elements which in their ground state or any one of their oxidation states, d-orbital is
incompletely filled are called transition elements.
Amongst the d-block elements Zn, Cd and Hg do not act as transition elements.
All the transition elements are metallic elements.
In the first transition series, atomic radii decrease from Sc to V, while atomic radius remains
same in elements Cr to Cu and the atomic radius of Zn is found increasing instead of
decreasing.
Not much difference is observed in first and second ionization enthalpies of two neighbouring
transition elements but the value of second ionization enthalpy of Cr and Cu are more than
those of their neighbouring elements.
Most of the ionic and covalent compounds of transition elements are coloured.
Compounds of transition elements act as catalysts in certain chemical reactions.
The magnetic moment of transition element compounds,
m =
n (n+2)
where m = magnetic moment. n = number of unpaired element
The unit of magnetic moment is BM (Bohr Magneton)
The capacity to form complex compounds is much more than other elements because of
definite characteristics of transition elements.
In the formation of crystals of transition metals, the voids are there in which non-metal
elements (H, C, N, B) arrange and form interstitial compounds.
Scientists Hume and Rothery suggested the rules for the alloys and accordingly alloys having
useful properties are obtained from transition metal elements.
49
The compounds of transition element- KMnO
4
and K
2
Cr
2
O
7
are very useful in laboratory and
in synthesis of organic compounds.
f-Block elements (Innertransition elements)
f-Block elements are divided in to (1) Lanthanide series and (2) Actinide series.
Lanthanide series
Lanthanide series : In period-6 Ce (Z = 58) to Lu (Z = 71)
Elements of lanthanide series are called lanthanoids which are shown by symbol Ln.
All the lanthanoids possess stable oxidation state (+3).
The general electronic configuration of lanthanoids : [Xe]4f
114
5d
01
6s
2
Amongst lanthanoids, promethium (Pm) is radioactive.
Actinide series
Actinide series : In perod-7 Th (Z = 90) to Lr (Z = 103).
Elements of actinide series are called actinoids.
The stable oxidation state in actioids is found to be from (+2) to (+6).
The general electronic configuration of actinoids is : [Rn]5f
014
6d
02
7s
2
All the actinoids are radioactive.
50
MCQ
1. Whieh groups of elements are called d-block elements in modern periodic table ?
(A) 1 to 2 (B) 3 to 10 (C) 3 to 12 (D) 13 to 18
2. Which block elements are more electropositive in modern periodic table ?
(A) s (B) p (C) d (D) f
3. Which block elements are less electropositive in modern periodic table ?
(A) s (B) p (C) d (D) f
4. Which elements transist between more electropositive and less electropositive elements ?
(A) s (B) p (C) d (D) f
5. In modern periodic table, by which name d-block elements are known ?
(A) More electropositive elements (C) Transition elements
(B) Less electropositive elements (D) Inner transition elements
6. Which of the following is an electronic configuration at Th ?
(A)
[ ]
o 2 2
Rn 5f 6d 7s (C)
[ ]
2 2 o
Rn 5f 6d 7s
(B)
[ ]
2 2 2
Rn 5f 6d 7s (D)
[ ]
2 o
Rn 5f 6d 7s
7. By which reason, element -Th is introduce in f-block ?
(A) According to electronic configuration (B) According to physical properties
(C) According to chemical properties (D) According to practical properties
8. When d-block elements are consider as d-block elements ?
(A) d-orbital is fully filled in ground state.
(B) d-orbital is half filled in ground state.
(C) d-orbital is fully filled in all oxidation states.
(D) d-orbital is fully filled in only anyone oxidation state.
9. Which of the following elements are first transition element ?
(A) Ac, Rt (B) Ac, Re (C) Rf, La (D) Y, Rf
10. Which of the following is general electron configuration of transition elements ?
(A) ( )
1 9 1 2
n 1 d ns
- -
- (B) (n 1)d 1-10 ns
1-2
(C) (n 1)d
1-10
ns
1
(D) (n-1)d
1-9
ns
2
11. Which of the following is an electron configuration of Cr ?
(A) [ ]
2 4
s 4 d 3 Ar (B) [ ]
2 5
s 4 d 3 Ar
(C)
[ ]
1 5
s 4 d 3 Ar
(D)
[ ]
1 5
s 3 d 3 Ar
12. Which of the following is an electron configuration of Cu ?
(A)
[ ]
2 9
s 4 d 3 Ar
(C)
[ ]
1 10
s 3 d 3 Ar
(B)
[ ]
2 9
s 3 d 3 Ar
(D)
[ ]
1 10
s 4 d 3 Ar
51
13. Which of the following does not considered as transition element ?
(A) Cd (B) Pd (C) Ag (D) Ru
14. Which of the following does not considered as transition element ?
(A) Au (B) Hg (C) La (D) Pt
15. Which of the following does not relevant with transition elements ?
(A) Melting points of transition elements are high.
(B) Some ions of transition elements possesses paramagetic properties.
(C) All transition elements dissolves in acid.
(D) Transition elements processes various oxidation state.
16. Mention correct order of atomic radii.
(A)
i n 0 u n
T M C C Z > > > > (C)
Ti > Mn > Co = Cu < Zn
(B)
Ti < Mn < Co < Ca < Zn
(D)
Ti > Mn = Ca > Co < Zn
17. Which of the following elements have some atomic radii ?
(A) Mn, Fe, Co, Cu (B) Cr, Mn, Fe, Cu
(C) Cr, Mn, Fe, Co (D) Mn, Fe, Cu, Ni
18. Atomic radii of Zn increases in 3d transition series because
(A) Positive charge of nucleus increases (B) 3d orbital is fully filled
(C) Shielding effect
(D) Due to repulsion between
e
-
e
of 3-otbital and attraeti on between
e
-
e
deueases
19. In 3d series of transition element atomic radii remains same from Cr to Cu because
(A) Positive charge of nucleus increases.
(B) Sheilding effect increase for electron of 4s orbital.
(C) 3d orbital is fully filled
(D) Expansion of orbit does not occur.
20. Which elements have low ionisation enthalpy as compare to their neighbour element in first transition
element ?
(A) Cr, Cu (B) Cr, Zn (C) Cr, Mn (D) Cu, Zu
21. Thermal stability of transition metal elements depends upon which of the following ?
(A) Atomic radii (B) Magnitude of ionisation enthalpy
(C) On electrode potential (D) Shielding effect
22. What is colour of aqueous solution of ( )
2t
2
6
Ni H o

(A) yellow (B) violet (C) pink (D) green
23. What is colour of aqueous solution of [Co(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
(A) violet (B) yellowish orange (C) red (D) green
52
24. Which of the following metal ions have pink colour ?
(A)
+ + 2 3
Mn , Cr
(B)
+ + 3 2
Mn , Co
(C)
+ + 2 2
Mn , Co (D)
+ + 2 3
Mn , Co
25. Which of the following metal ion is purple ?
(A) V
4+
(B) Ti
3+
(C)
+ 3
Fe
(D)
+
Cu
26. Which of the following metal ions is colourless ?
(A) Ti
4+
Cu
2 +
(B) Ti
4+
Cu
+1
(C)
2+ +
Cr , Cu
(D)
+4 +3
i n
T , M
27. Match column-A and B
Column-A Column-B
1. V
4+
a. colourless
2. Ti
3+
b. pink
3. Ti
4+
c. purple
4. Mn
2+
d. blue
e. vilot
(A)
e 4 a 3 c 2 d 1
(B)
b 4 a 3 c 2 d 1
(C)
b 4 a 3 e 2 d 1
(D)
a 4 b 3 c 2 e 1
28. Match column-A and B.
Column-A Column-B
1. NiCl
2
. 6H
2
O a. pink
2. Co (NO
3
)
2
. 6H
2
O b. colourless
3. FeCl
3
c. blue
4. CuSO
4
. 5H
2
O d. green
e. yellow
(A)
a 4 b 3 c 2 e 1
(B)
e 4 b 3 c 2 d 1
(C)
b 4 c 3 a 2 d 1
(D)
c 4 e 3 a 2 d 1
29. Which catalyst is used to prepare SO
3
from SO
2
in contact process of production of H
2
SO
4
?
(A) NO (B) V
2
O
5
(C) Fe (D) Ni
30. Which of the following trantion metal ion has magnetic moment 3.87 BM ?
(A) Co
2+
(B) Co
3+
(C) Fe
2+
(D) Fe
3+
53
31. In which of the following compound of trantion metal ion has 4.90 BM magnetic momentum?
(A) KM
n
O
4
(B) NiCl
2
(C) CoCl
2
(D) FeSO
4
32. Which of the following sentence is not suitable for the capacity of transition metal to form complex
compounds ?
(A) Transition metal ions are small in size.
(B) Nuclear charge of trantion metal ion in comparatively more.
(C) Co-ordination covalent bond is not directional.
(D) Transition metal ions possesses different oxidation states.
33. Which of the following rules to prepare alloys should be obey ?
(A) Difference in atomic radii should be less than 15%.
(B) Valence electron configuration should not be equal.
(C) Atomic volume should not same.
(D) Crystal lattice structure are different.
34. What is the difference in atomic radii of two metallic elements to prepare alloys ?
(A) 15% (B) more than 15%
(C) less than 15% (D) 24.5 %
35. What is the difference of atomic radii of Au and Cu in 22 carate gold ?
(A) 15% (B) more than 15%
(C) less than 15% (D) 24.5%
36. Mn, Co, Cu metals are generally useful to prepare alloys because
(A) the difference in their atomic volume is more than 15%.
(B) the difference in their atomic volume is less than 2%.
(C) the difference in their atomic volume is 15%.
(D) the difference in their atomic volume is 2%.
37. Which alloy is used in preparation of coins ?
(A) Brass (B) Bronze
(C) German-Silver (D) Nichrome
38. Which alloy is used in preparation of antic - piece ?
(A) Nitinol (B) Bronze
(C) Cupronickle (D) German-Silver
39. Which alloy possesses facinating property of memory ?
(A) Brass (B) Nitinol
(C) Nichrom (D) Cupronicle
40. Match column-A and column-B properly.
Column-A Column-B
1. Brass a. Ni (60%) Cr (40%)
2. Bronze b. Cu (80%) Sn (20%)
3. Cupronicle c. Cu (90%) Sn (10%)
4. Nicnrom d. Cu (70%) Zn (30%)
e. Cu (75-85%) NI (25-15%)
54
(A)
a 4 e 3 c 2 d 1
(B)
b 4 e 3 c 2 d 1
(C)
b 4 a 3 e 2 d 1
(D)
d 4 a 3 c 2 e 1
41. Where amalgum alloy is used ?
(A) In electric heater (B) In space reaserch
(C) To make surgical appliaces (D) In filling tooth cavity
42. Match Column-A and Column-B properly.
Column-A Column-B
1. Stainless steel a. In reveting
2. Bronze b. In antic piece
3. Nitinol c. To make coins
4. German silver d. To make surgical appliances
e. Cu (75-85%) NI (25-15%)
(A)
c 4 b 3 d 2 e 1
(B)
d 4 b 3 c 2 e 1
(C)
b 4 a 3 c 2 e 1
(D)
d 4 a 3 c 2 e 1
43. Which of the following proportion of constituent is present in amalgam alloys ?
(A) Hg (50%) Ag (35%) Sn (12%) Cu (3%)
(B) Hg (50%) Ag (35%) Sn (12%) Cu (3%) Zn (0.2%)
(C) Hg (50%) Ag (12%) Sn (35%) Cu (3%) Zn (0.2%)
(D) Hg (50%) Ag (35%) Sn (3%) Cu (12%)
44. + +
2 3 2 4 2
O CO Na O Cr Fe mention which product is obtained ts ?
(A)
2 4 3 4 2
CO O Fe CrO Na + + (B)
2 4 2 3 2
Na CrO + Fe O + CO
(C)
2 3 2 7 2 2
CO O Fe O Cr Na + + (D) CO O Fe O Cr Na
3 2 7 2 2
+ +
45. What will be the mole ratio of reactants in the given reation ?
2 3 2 4 2 2 3 2 4 2
CO O Fe CrO Na O CO Na O Cr Fe + + + +
(A) 2:4:7 (B) 4:6:6 (C) 4:8:7 (D) 4:8:4
46. What will be mole ratio of product in the following equation ?
2 3 2 4 2 2 3 2 4 2
CO O Fe CrO Na O CO Na O Cr Fe + + + +
(A) 8:2:8 (B) 8:4:8 (C) 4:4:8 (D) 8:2:6
55
47. O H Na Y H X
2
+ + +
+ +
NaCl O Cr K KCl Y
7 2 2
+ +
Mention X and Y
(A)
4 2 7 2 2
O Cr Na Y O Cr Na X = =
(B)
7 2 2 7 2 2
(C)
7 2 2 4 2 2
(D)
4 2 4 2 2
48.
2 2 3 2 4 2
CO Y X O CO Na O Cr Fe + + + + Mention X and YY
(A)
4 3 7 2 2
O Fe Y O Cr Na X = =
(B)
4 3 4 2
(C)
3 2 4 2
(D)
3 2 7 2 2
49. Where potasium dicromate is used ?
(A) In leather industry (B) In textile industry
(C) As germiside (D) As bleaching agent in cotton cloths.
50. What is atomic volume of Au and Cu in 22 carrate gold ornaments ?
(A) 134 pm 118 pm (B) 133 pm 118 pm
(C) 134 pm 117 pm (D) 135 pm 117 pm
51. O H Y O KOH X
2 2
+ + +
O H MnO SO K Z SO H Y
2 2 4 2 4 2
+ + + + +
What are X, Y and Z in above reactions ?
(A)
4 2 4 2
KMnO Z , MnO Y , MnO K X = = =
(B)
4 4 4 2
KMnO Z , MnO Y , MnO K X = = =
(C)
2 2 4 4
X = MnO , Y = K MnO , Z = KMnO
(D)
2 4 4 2 4
X MnO , Y KMnO MnO , Z K MnO = = =
52. O H MnO SO K KMnO SO H MnO K
2 2 4 2 4 4 2 4 2
+ + + +
What will be mole ratio of products in above reaction ?
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:2 (D) 2:2
53. O H MnO SO K KMnO SO H MnO K
2 2 4 2 4 4 2 4 2
+ + + +
What will be mole ratio of products in above reaction ?
(A) 1:1:1:1 (B) 1:2:2:1 (C) 1:1:2:2 (D) 2:2:1:1
56
54. Potassium permangnate is used as ...............
(A) As reducing agent (B) As corrosion inhibitors
(C) As decolouring agent in textile industry (D) In preparation of azo compound
55. Which of following is used in dry cell ?
(A)
4
KMnO (B)
2
MnO (C)
7 2 2
O Cr K (D)
2 2
MnO K
56. Which of alloy is used to fill dental cavities ?
(A) Sodium amalgam (B) Zinc chloride
(C) Mercury (D) Mercury Amalgam
57. Which of following is used as gernlicide
(A)
2 2 7
K Cr O (B)
4
KMnO (C)
4
FeSO (D)
4 2
MnO K
58. Which of following elements are include in Lanthanoide series ?
(A) La to Lu (B) Ce to Lu (C) La to yb (D) Ce to yb
59. Which of general symbol is used to represent Lanthanoides ?
(A) Ln (B) La (C) Le (D) Li
60. Which of following elements are include in actinide ?
(A) Th to Lr (B) Ac to Lr
(C) Ac to No (D) Th to No
61. What is general electronic configuration of outer shell of f-block elements ?
(A) ( ) ( )
0 14 0 1 2
n 2 f n 1 d ns
- -
- - (B) ( ) ( )
0 14 1 2 2
n 2 f n 1 d ns
- -
- -
(C) ( ) ( )
0 14 1 2 2
n 1 f n 1 d ns
- -
- - (D) ( ) ( )
1 14 0 1 1
n 1 f n 1 d ns
- -
- -
62. Which of following element has very close similarity with Lanthanoides ?
(A) Lr (B) Ce (C) Lu (D) La
63. What is electronic configuration of Ce ( ) 58 Z =
(A)
[ ]
2 o 2
Xe 4f 5d 6s (B) [ ]
1 1 2
Xe 4f 5d 6s
(C) [ ]
2 2
Xe 5d 6s (D) [ ]
2 1 1
Xe 4f 5d 6s
64. Which of following is general electronic configuration of Lanthanoides ?
(A)
[ ]
0-14 0-1 2
Xe 4f 5d 6s (B)
[ ]
2 2 1 14 1
s 6 d 5 f 4 Xe
- -
(C) [ ]
2 1 0 14 1
s 6 d 5 f 4 Xe
- -
(D)
[ ]
1-14 0-1 1-2
Xe 4f 5d 6s
65. Which of following is general electronic configuration of actinides ?
(A) [ ]
2 1 0 14 0
s 7 d 6 f 5 Ra
- -
(B) [ ]
2 2 0 14 1
s 7 d 6 f 5 Rn
- -
(C)
[ ]
2 2 1 14 0
s 7 d 6 f 5 Rn
- -
(D)
[ ]
2 2 0 14 0
s 7 d 6 f 5 Rn
- -
57
66. Basic properties of hydroxides of lanthanoides is
(A) greater than Al(OH)
3
but less than Ca(OH)
2
.
(B) greater than Ca(OH)
2
but less than Al (OH)
3
.
(C) greater than Ca(OH)
2
and Al(OH)
3
(D) less than Ca(OH)
2
and Al(OH)
3
67. Lanthanoides elements are separated on the basis of their
(A) chemical properties (B) difference in basicity
(C) physical properties (D) difference in acidity
68.
2
Combusting in O
Ln X
What is x
(A)
3
O Ln (B) O Ln
2
(C)
3 2
O Ln (D)
3 2
O Ln
69. Which of following radioactive elements in Lanthanodies.
(A) Promethium (Pm) (B) Lutetium (Lu)
(C) Yetterbium (Yb (D) Samarium (Sm)
70. Which of following is used in gas lighters ?
(A) CeO
2
(B) Pyrophoric Misch metal
(C) Gadolinium sulphate (D) Ceric compounds
71. Which of following is used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis ?
(A) Ceric compounds (B) CeO
2
(C) Oxides of lanthanoids (D) Gadolinium sulphate
72. Which of following is used in preparation of optical glass of camera having high refractive index ?
(A) ceric compounds (B) CeO
2
(C) Oxides of lanthanoids (D) Gadolinium sulphate
73. Which of following is used to produce very low temperature by magnetic field ?
(A) Pyrophoric misch metal (B) Uranium
(C) Thorium (D) Gadolinium sulphate
74. What is the constitution of metals in pyrophoric misch metal ?
(A) ce-50%, ca-40%, Fe-10% (B) Ce-50%, La-40%, Fe-7%, other-5%
(C) Ce-40%, La-50%, Fe-5%, other-5% (D) Ce-40%, La-50%, Fe-10%
75. What would be emergy order of d-orbitals of tetra hedral complexes when they undergo splitting ?
(A) 2 2 2
z y x
xz
2
y xy
d d d d d @ < @ @
-
(B)
xy yz xy
z y x
d d d d d
2 2 2
@ @ < @
-
(C) 2 2 2
y x
xz yz
z
xy
d d d d d
-
@ @ < @
(D) 2 2 2
z
yz xy xz
y x
d d d d d @ @ < @
-
76. Which of following statement is wrong ?
(A) Atoms of all transition elements are paramagnetic.
(B) All transition elements are metals.
(C) All elements of d-block are transition elements.
(D) d-block elements are present in between s & p block elements in periodic table.
58
77. Why do theoritical value of magnetic moment differ from their practical value ?
(A) Due to decrease in volume of metal ion.
(B) Due to unsymmetrical arrangement of dipoles in orbital.
(C) Due to rotation-orbital combination.
(D) Both are different methods to calculate magnetic moment.
78. What is the value of magnetic moment of central metal ion in K
2
MnO
4
?
(A) 0.0 BM (B) 1.73 BM
(C) 2.83 BB (D) 3.87 BM
79. Which of group of ions has coloured ions ? [PMT-2001]
(1)
2
Cu
+
(2)
+ 4
Ti
(3)
+ 2
Co
(4)
+ 2
Fe
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 3, 4
(C) 2, 3 (D) 1, 2
80. Which of following pair of elements has (n-1)d
10
ns
2
electronic configuration ? [Pb CET-1996]
(A) Fe, Co, Ni (B) Cu, Ag, Au
(C) Zn, Cd, Hg (D) Sc, Y, La
81. Which is correct increasing order of ionic radii of Ce
3+
, La
3+
, Pm
3+
, Yb
3+
? [AIEEE-2002]
(A)
+ + + +
< < <
3 3 3 3
Yb Pm Ce La (B)
+ + + +
< < <
3 3 3 3
La Ce PM Yb
(C)
+ + + +
< < =
3 3 3 3
Yb Pm Ce La (D)
+ + + +
< < <
3 3 3 3
Ce La PM Yb
82. The atomic no. of V, Cr, Mn and Fe are 23, 24, 25 & 26 respectively. Which of following has
highest value of their second ionization enthalpy ? [AIEEE-2003]
(A) V (B) Cr (C) Mn (D) Fe
83. If the radius of La
3+
is
o
A 06 . 1 , than what will be the approximate value of radius of Lu
3+
from the
following ? [AIEEE-2003]
(A)
o
1.40A
(B)
o
1.40A
(C)
o
A 85 . 0
(D)
o
A 60 . 1
84. How many d-electrons are their in Fe
2+
(Z = 26) [AIEEE-2003]
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 3
85. What will be obtained when managanese dioxide is fused with KOH in presence of oxidizing agent
like KNO
3
? What will be the colour of product ? (AIEEE-2003)
(A) K
2
MnO
4
Dark green (B) KMnO
4
, Violet
(C) Mn
2
O
3
, Grey (D) Mn
2
O
4
, Black
86. Which of following group of transition metal is used to prepare currency coins ?
(A) Cu, Ag, Au (B) Ru, Rh, Pd
(C) Fe, Co, Ni (D) Os, Ir, Pt
59
87. Ce is an important member of Lanthenoid series which of following is wrong statement for Ce ?
[AIEEE-2004]
(A) The general oxidation state of Ce is +3 and +4.
(B) +3 oxidation state of Ce is more stable than +4.
(C) +4 oxidation state of Ce is not available in its aqueous solution.
(D) Ce (IV) behave as oxidizing agent.
88. Correct order of theoritical value of magnetic moment [AIEEE-2004]
(A) [ ] [ ] ( )

4-
2- 2-
4 4
6
MnCl > CoCl > Fe CN
(B)
[ ] ( ) [ ]
4-
2- 2-
4 4
6
MnCl > Fe CN > CoCl

(C) ( ) [ ] [ ] [ ]
- - -
> >
2
4
2
4
4
6
Cl Co Cl Mn CN Fe
(D) ( ) [ ] [ ] [ ]
- - -
> >
2
4
2
4
4
6
Cl Mn Cl Co CN Fe
89. The canthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that ................. [AIEEE-2005]
(A) Zn and Zr have the same oxidation state.
(B) Zr and Hf have same covalent and ionic radius.
(C) Zr and Nb have same oxidation state.
(D) Zr and Yb have same covalent and ionic radius.
90. In which of following group, all ions have 3d
2
configuration ? [PMT-2004]
[Atomic No. Ti = 22,V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25]
(A)
+ + + + 4 3 2 3
Mn Cr , V , Ti
(B)
+ + + + 7 6 4
Mn Cr , V , Ti
(C)
+ + + + 3 2 3 4
Mn Cr , V , Ti
(D)
+ + + + 5 4 3 2
Mn Cr , V , Ti
91. Lanthanide contraction is caused due to............ [AIEEE-2006]
(A) The appreciable shilding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge.
(B) The appreciable shilding on outer electrons by 5d electrons from the nuclear charge.
(C) The same effective nuclear charge from Ce to Lu.
(D) The poor shilding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nucluear charge.
92. The actinides exhibit more number of oxidation states in general than the lanthanide, because..........
[AIEEE-2007, 2008, PMT-2005, 2006]
(A) The 5f-orbitals are more spread in place than the 4f orbitals.
(B) Energy differnce between 5f and 6d orbitals is less than that of 4f and 5d orbitals.
(C) Energy difference between 5f and 6d orbital is more than that of 4f and 5d orbitals.
(D) Actinides are more reactive than that of lanthanides.
60
93. The general oxidation state of Lanthanide elements is +3. Which of following is incorrect statement
for them ? [AIEEE-2009]
(A) Ln (III) hydroxides are mainly basic in character.
(B) Because of the large size of the Ln (III) ions, the bonding in its compounds is ionic in character.
(C) Ln (III) Compounds are generally colourless.
(D) The ionic sizes of Ln (III) decreases with increase in atomic number.
94. Which of following statement is wrong for transition element ? [AIEEE-2009]
(A) Once the d
5
configuration nis exceeded the tendency to involve all the 3d electrons in bonding
decreases.
(B) In addition to the normal oxidation states, the zero oxidation state is also shown by these
elements in complexes.
(C) In the highest oxidation states, the transition metals show basic.
(D) In the highest oxidation states of the first five (transition elements (Sc to Mn) all the 4s & 3d
electrons are used for bonding ?
95. Which of following is wrong statement ?
(A) La (OH)
3
is less basic than Lu(OH)
3
.
(B) In lanthanide series, ionic radius decreases while moving Ce
3+
to Lu
3+
ion.
(C) La is actually tranusition element.
(D) Due to Lanthanide contraction atomic radius of Zn and Hf are same.
96. In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution ? [PMT-2006]
[Atomic No. SC=21, Ti=22, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu=29]
(A) Ni
2+
, Cu
+
(B) Ni
2+
, Ti
3+
(C) SC
3+
, Ti
3+
(D) SC
3+
, CO
2+
97. Which of the following ion is most stable in aqueous solution ? [PMT-2007]
(A)
+ 3
22
V
(B)
+ 3
22
Ti
(C)
+ 3
25
Mn (D)
+ 3
24
Cr
98. In which of the following outer most orbit will show maximum number of oxidation states ?
[PMT-2009]
(A) 3d
5
4s
2
(B) 3d
2
4s
2
(C) 3d
3
4s
2
(D) 3d
5
4s
1
99. Mention the colourless pair from
[ ] [ ] [ ]
2- 3- 2-
6 6 2 2 4
Ti F , Co F , Cu Cl & NiCl [PMT-2009]
(A)
[ ]
2-
6 2 2
Ti F , and Ca Cl
(B)
[ ] [ ]
3- 2-
6 4
Co F , and Ni Cl
(C)
[ ] [ ]
2- 3-
e 6
Ti F , and Co F
(D)
[ ]
2-
2 2 4
Ca Cl and Ni Cl
100. German silver is alloy of [AIIMS-2000]
(A) Fe, Cr, Ni (B) Aq, Cu, Au
(C) Cu, Zn, Ni (D) Cu, Zn, Sn
61
101. What is oxidation no. of Cr in K
2
Cr
2
O
7
[AIIMS-2001]
(A) +2 (B) +4 (C) +6 (D) +7
102. Which of following Lanthanide element has +2 and +3 general oxidation state. [AIIMS-2003]
(A) La (B) Nd (C) Ce (D) Eu
103. Which of following compound is coloured ? [AIIMS-2008]
(A) TiCl
3
(B) FeCl
3
(C) CoCl
2
(D) All above
104. Which of following statement is correct for transition elements ? [AFMC - 2002]
(A) They are very active.
(B) They show variable valencies.
(C) They show lower melting point.
(D) They are stong electropositive elements.
105. A element having atomic no. 56 is included in [AFMC-2003]
(A) Lanthanides (B) Actindies
(C) Alkaline earth metals (D) None of above
106. What is percentage proportion of silver in german silver ? [AFMC-2004]
(A) 0% (B) 1%
(C) 5% (D) None of above
107. Which of similarity is seen in Lanthanoids & actinides ?
(A) Electronic configuration (B) Oxidation states
(C) Ionisation energy (D) Formation of complexes
108. Which of following is correct order of magnetic moment (In BM) for Mn
2+
, Cr
2+
& V
2+
(A)
+ + +
> >
2 2 2
Cr V Mn
(B)
+ + +
> >
2 2 2
Mn Cr V
(C)
+ + +
> >
2 2 2
V Cr Mn (D)
+ + +
> >
2 2 2
Mn V Cr
109. Which of following is proper reason for stability of Gd
3+
ion. (Tamilnadu-CET-2002)
(A) 4f orbital is completely filled
(B) 4f orbital is half filled
(C) show electronic configuration similar to inert gas.
(D) 4f orbital is completely vacant
110. Which of ion can not show d-d transition ? (Gujarat-2007)
(A) Ti
4+
(B) Cr
3+
(C) Mn
2+
(D) Cu
2+
111. Which of following electronic configuration can show highest oxidation state ? (Gujarat-2007)
(A)
( )
2 5
ns d 1 n -
(B)
( )
2 8
ns d 1 n -
(C)
( )
1 5
ns d 1 n -
(D)
( )
2 3
ns d 1 n -
112. Which of following is use of potassium dichromate ? [Gujarat-2008]
(A) To oxidise ferrous ions into ferric ions in acidic medium as an oxidizing agent.
(B) As an insecticide (C) In electroplating
(D) As a reducing agent
62
113. Which of Lanthanide compound is used in pigment ? (Gujarat-2009)
(A) Tb (OH)
3
(B) Lu (OH)
3
(C) Ce (OH)
3
(D) CeO
2
114. On which factor, does the stability of an oxidation state in lanthanide elements depend ? [Gujarat-2008]
(A) Combined effect of hyadration energy and ionization energy.
(B) Electronic configuration (C) Enthalpy (D) Internal energy
115. What is the atomic number of the element with M
2+
ion having electronic configuration [Ar] 3d
8
[Gujarat-2009]
(A) 26 (B) 27 (C) 28 (D) 25
116. Which of canthanide element show +2 and +3 oxidation state ? [AIIMS-2003]
(A) La (B) Nd (C) Ce (D) Eu
117. Which of following is correct order of ionic radii of Y
+3
, La
3+
, Eu
3+
, Lu
3+
? [CBSE-PMT-2003]
(A)
+ + + +
> < <
3 3 3 3
Lu , Eu , La , Y
(B)
3 3 3 3
Y , Lu , Eu , La
+ + + +
< < <
(C)
3 3 3 3
Lu , Eu , La , Y
+ + + +
< < < (D)
3 3 3 3
La , Eu , Lu , Y
+ + + +
< < <
118. Lanthanide contraction is observed due to increase in.............. [Kerala MEE 2003]
(A) Atomic radii (B) Volume of 4f orbital
(C) Effective nuclear charge (D) Atomic number
119. In................. elements, atomic volume decrease with increase in atomic number. [AIEEE-2003]
(A) p-Block (B) f-Block
(C) Radioactive series (D) Super heavy elements
120. Which of aqueous solution is coloured ? [IIT-1990]
(A) Zn (NO
3
)
2
(B) LiNO
3
(C) Co (NO
3
)
2
(D) Potash Alum
1 C 21 B 41 D 61 A 81 D 101 C
2 A 22 D 42 A 62 D 82 B 102 D
3 B 23 B 43 B 63 B 83 C 103 D
4 C 24 C 44 B 64 C 84 C 104 B
5 C 25 B 45 C 65 D 85 A 105 C
6 A 26 B 46 A 66 A 86 A 106 A
7 D 27 B 47 C 67 B 87 A 107 B
8 B 28 D 48 C 68 C 88 A 108 C
9 A 29 B 49 A 69 A 89 B 109 B
10 B 30 A 50 C 70 B 90 D 110 A
11 C 31 D 51 C 71 A 91 D 111 A
12 D 32 C 52 A 72 C 92 B 112 A
13 A 33 A 53 D 73 D 93 B 113 D
14 B 34 A 54 C 74 B 94 C 114 A
15 C 35 D 55 B 75 D 95 A 115 C
16 D 36 B 56 D 76 A 96 B 116 D
17 B 37 B 57 B 77 C 97 D 117 C
18 D 38 D 58 B 78 B 98 A 118 C
19 C 39 B 59 A 79 B 99 A 119 B
20 A 40 A 60 A 80 C 100 C 120 C
KEY NOTE
63
The salt that is obtained when two or more salts having independent existence combine according to
the laws of combination and which maintain the properties of original salts is called double salt e.g.
Alum is a double salt.
Similarly, the compound that is obtained when two or more salts having independent existence combine
according to laws of chemical combination and compound having new properties, formed is called
complex compound. e.g. K
3
[Fe(CN)
6
] is a complex salt.
Most of the complex compounds are formed by elements of d-block (transition elements). In the
electronic configuration of these elements, there is successive arrangement of electrons in d-orbitals.
when the atom or ion of transition elements has vacant (n1)d, ns and np or ns, np and nd orbitals,
these transition elements accept negative ions or neutral molecules and they form the compounds
which are called complex compounds. In this type of compounds, the bond that is formed between
metal ions of elements and the negative ion or neutral molecules is called co-ordinate covalent bond.
Around the centre of the metal ions of the molecules of these compounds, the negative ions or neutral
molecules are combined with co-ordinate covalent bond.
Alfred Werner, first of all gave the theory for complex compounds which is known as Werner's co-
ordination theory. Some metals have the secondary valency in addition to their primary valence. By
this the ions of that metal combine strongly with the negative ion or neutral molecules in first attraction
sphere [ ].
According to Werner's theory, the metal ion possesses two types of valencies : Primary valency and
secondary valency.
The primary valency of the metal is equal to its oxidation number or equal to the positive electric
charge of the positive ion, which forms ionic bond, so that it gets ionized. The negative ion combines
with primary valency.
The secondary valency depends on the vacant orbitals in metal ion. The secondary valency is satisfied
by negative ions or neutral molecules. It does not get ionized. The secondary valency mentions its co-
ordination number. The secondary valency is fixed for the metal ion but now, it has been proved that
the transition metal ions possess more than one co-ordination number. As the secondary valence being
directional determines the geometrical shape of complex compound. From the magnetic properties
also the shape of complex can be determined. e.g. In [Cr(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
, Cr is metal ion and six molecules
of neutral molecule ammonia (NH
3
) are combined with it by secondary valency which do not get
ionized. Hence, the co-ordination number is six. Three Cl
are combined by primary valency which

gets ionized. Hence the primary valency of Cr is three.
UNIT-17 CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS
Important Points
64
Ligand is an ion having negative electric charge or neutral molecule. The classification of ligand is
made on the basis of the number of electron pair donating atoms.
If the negative ion or neutral molecule in the ligand forms one co-ordinate covalent bond by giving one
electron pair to metal ion, then it is called unidentate ligand. Neutral molecules like H
2
O, NH
3
, CO,
NO and negative ions like Cl
, Br
, CN
act as unidentate ligands.

The ligand which donates two electron pairs to metal ion, and form two co-ordinate covalent bonds
is called didentate ligand. e.g. ethane 1,2-diamine (en), neutral and
2 2
4 3
SO , CO
- -
negative ions act as
didentate ligands.
The ligand in which three co-ordinate sites are indicated then it is called tridentate. In this type of
ligand the atoms donate three pairs of electrons to metal ion and form three co-ordinate covalent
bonds. e.g. Propane-1, 2, 3-triamine (ptn) neutral and
3 3
4 4
PO , AsO
- -
act as negative tridentate ligand.
Six atoms in EDTA, (ethylene diaminetetracetate) ion, the six atoms donate six electron pairs and form
six co-ordinate covalent bonds, which act as hexadentate ligand.
Generally, the ligand in which two or more than two co-ordination sites are indicated, or the ligand in
which two or more than two atoms form co-ordinate covalent bonds by donating electron pairs to
metal ion is called polydenate ligand, which combines with metal ion and form complex compounds.
They are called chelate compounds which are cyclic and possess higher stablity.
The basic requirements for formation of complex compounds are ligand which can easily donate
electron pairs, there must be vacant d-orbitals in the metal ion to accept electron pairs and the metal
ion should have the symmetry same as that of the ligand.
The ion satisfying these basic requirements can easily form complex compounds.
The strength of formation of co-ordinate covalent bonds of different ligands being different, the
stronger ligand possesses more attraction towards metal ion and form strong coordinate covalent bond.
As a result, the stability of complex having strong ligand is more and the weak ligand containing
complex compounds have less stability e.g. The strength of [Ni(CN)
4
]
2
is more than that of [NiCl
4
]
2
.
A complex compound, in which different types of ligands combine with metal ion and form complex
compound, is called mixed ligand complex. If in any of the complex compounds only one metal ion
is present, then it is called unicentred complex compound. If in any complex compound, more than one
metal ions are present then it is called polycentred complex compound. In such unicentred or polycentred
complex compounds, the three dimensional arrangement of ligand, the different geometrical structures
are produced in co-ordination compounds, it is called polyhedra. Mostly the geometrical structures are
of shapes-tetrahedral square planar, octahedral square pyramidal, trigonal bipyramidal. To understand
these geometrical structures, the hybridization of orbitals of metal ion and magnetic properties are very
useful. sp
3
hybridisation, dsp
2
hybridisation, d
3
s hybridization in metal ions of co-ordination number four
is seen. In sp
3
d
2
hybridization and d
2
sp
3
hybridization, the metal ions of transition elements is seen in
65
metal ions having co-ordination number six. The metal ions of transition elements, magnetic moments of
complex compounds of ions, their geometrical structures, types of ligands etc. are described.
The nomenclature of complex compounds keeping in mind the rules of IUPAC is carried out. In
complex compounds the rules are applicable.
In nomenclature in co-ordination sphere, the name of the ligand according to English alphabets are
first mentioned. Then the name of metal is written. The suffix "O" is attached after the name of
negatively charged ligand. The name of the neutral ligand is mentioned as its original name. If the
number of same ligand is more than the one the prefixes di, tri, tetraetc. are applied. In the prefix
of organic ligand, the prefix is a mumber then the ligand is placed in bracket and the prefix bis, tris,
are attached. If the complex is negative ion then the name of ligand is written first and, in the end
the suffix 'ate' is applied to the metal ion. Its oxidation state is shown in Roman number in bracket.
If the complex is positive ion or neutral molecule, then successively writing the name of ligand, the
name of metal is added at the end and oxidation state is shown in the Roman number.
The geometry of complex compounds and magnetic properties of the complex depends on the hybrid-
ization in it. In complexes having co-ordination number 6 if strong ligand is attached with metal ion
in complex, the oxidation state is shown in Roman numbers.
In complex compounds, the geometrical structures are dependent on hybridization in it. In complex
having co-ordination number 4, if the strong ligand is combined with metal ion then dsp
2
hybridization
takes place in the complex and the structure is square planar. The example of this are [Ni(CN)
4
]
2
, [Ni(NH
3
)
4
]
2+
etc. If the co-ordination number is 4 in the complex, and the weak ligand combines
with the metal ion then sp
3
hybridization takes place e.g. [NiF
4
]
2
, [Ni(H
2
O)
4
]
2+
, etc. If the co-
ordination number in complex ion is six, and the strong ligand is combined with metal ion, then d
2
sp
3
hybridization and if weak ligand is combined with metal ion, then sp
3
d
2
hybridization takes place, e.g.
In [Cr(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
, [Fe(CN)
6
]
4
, [Co(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
d
2
sp
3
hybridization is there, while in [FeF
6
]
4
, [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
sp
3
d
2
hybridization is there. In
4
MnO
-
and
2
4
CrO
-
there is d
3
s hybridization, there are no unpaired
electrons in d-orbital due to Mn
7+
and Cr
6+
oxidation states; but d-d transition takes place by electrons
of ligand, and so it becomes coloured.
Three types of isomerism are observed in complex compounds-geometrical isomerism, optical isomer-
ism and structural isomerism.
In geometrical isomerism, complex compounds having co-ordination number four- ML
2
A
2
type, cis and
trans isomerism is observed. In complex compounds having co-ordination number six - ML
4
A
2
type, cis and trans while in ML
3
A
3
facial and meridional isomerism are observed. In optical isomerism,
leavo and dextro isomers are observed.
In structural isomerism, ionic isomerism, hydration isomerism, co-ordination number isomerism and
linkage isomerism are observed.
66
In formation of co-ordination compounds the magnetic nature and structural formation with the help
of valence bond theory; it has limitations. It does not produce more hindrance in magnetic property
and can not explain about the colour in co-ordination compounds. It can not give the magnitude of
hindrance in thermodynamical stability of co-ordination compounds, also it is not able to detect the
difference between weak and strong ligand. To overcome these limitations the crystal field theory
(CFT) was presented.
Crystal field theory is known as electrostatic model in which it is believed that there is ionic bond
between metal ion and ligand. According to this theory negatively charged ligand or neutral molecule
forms ionic bond. In free metal atom in gaseous state, all the five types of d-orbitals are of equal
energy (degenerate) but when ligands are arranged around the metal atom or ion in the complex, the
d-orbitals do not remain of equal energy but get splitted. The splitting of orbitals depends on the nature
of the crystal field.
The crystal field splitting (D
0
) depends on the field produced by electric charge of metal ion and the
ligand. Some ligands produce strong field and so splitting is in more proportion. Some ligands produce
weak field, so that the splitting is in less proportion. The series of ligands on the basis of the strength
of the field produced by ligand can be shown as below :
I
< Br
< SCN
< Cl
< S
2
< F
< OH
<
2
2 4
C O
-
< H
2
O < NCS
< EDTAA < NH

3
< en <
2
NO
-
< CN
< CO : Spectrochemical series.

Metal complexes have large magnitude of colours. When the white light passes through the sample,
then it forms a specific visible spectrum and the remaining colours of white light are removed. The
absorption of colour by complex compounds is dependent on wavelength. If green colour is absorbed
then it appears of red colour.
The colour of co-ordination compounds can be explained on the basis of crystal field theory e.g.
[Ti(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
violet colour, [Ni(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
green colour, and [Ni(en)
3
]
2+
violet colour,
Co-ordination compounds have great importance. They have immense utility value in nutrition of
minerals in plants and animals, analytical chemistry, metallurgy, biological systems and industries. They
are also used in various drugs.
67
M.C.Q.
1. The complex [Co(NH
3
)
5
Br]SO
4
will give white ppt with :
(A) PbCl
2
(B) AgNO
3
(C) KI (D) None.
2. Exchange of co-ordination group by a water molecule in complex molecule results in :
(A) Ionization isomerism (B) Ligand isomerism
(C) Hydration isomerism (D) Geometrical isomerism.
3. [Co(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
ion is :
(A) Paramagentic (B) Diamagnetic (C) Square planar (D) None.
4. Which of the following is most likely structure of CrCl
3
,6H
2
O if 1/3 of total chlorine of the com
pound is precipitated by adding AgNO
3
to its aqueous solution :
(A) CrCl
3
.6H
2
O (B) [Cr(H
2
O)
3
Cl
3
](H
2
O)
3
(C) [CrCl
2
(H
2
O)
4
]Cl.2H
2
O (D) [CrCl
2
(H
2
O)
5
]Cl
2
.H
2
O.
5. Which one of the following will be able to show cis-trans isomerism:
(A) MA
3
B (B) M(AA)
2
(C) MAB
3
(D) MA
4
6. K
3
CoF
6
is high spin complex.What is the hybrid state of Co atom in this complex:
(A) sp
3
d (B) sp
3
d
2
(C) d
2
sp
3
(D) dsp
2
.
7. The type of isomerism shown by [Co(en)
2
(NCS)
2
]Cl and [Co(en)
2
(NCS)Cl]NCS is:
(A) Coordination (B) Ionization (C) Linkage (D) all above.
8. The co-ordination number and oxidation number of X in [X(SO
4
)(NH
3
)
4
]Cl is :
(A) 10 and 3 (B) 2 and 6 (C) 6 and 3 (D) 6 and 4
9. The IUPAC name of the compound [Cu (NH
3
)
4
](NO
3
)
2
is :
(A) Cuprammonium nitrate (B) Tetraammine copper (II) dinitrate
(C) Tetraammine copper (II) nitrate (D) Tetraammine copper (III) dinitrate
10. Hexafluoroferrate (III) ion is an outer orbital complex.The number of unpaired electrons present in
it is :
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) Unpredictable.
11. Which of the following complex species involves d
2
sp
3
hybridisation :
(A) [CoF
6
]
3-
(B) [Co(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
(C) [Fe(CN)
6
]
3-
(D) [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
.
12. How many ions are produced from [Co(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
2
insolution :
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2.
13. In the complex Fe(CO)
X
, the value of x is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6.
14. Which is the central ion in [Cu(H
2
O)
4
]
2+
ion :
(A) Cu
2+
(B) H
3
O
+
(C) Cu
+
(D) None.
15. In K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] the number of unpaired electrons in iron are :
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5.
16. All ligands are :
(A) Lewis acid (B) Lewis base (C) Neutral (D) None.
68
17. The hybridization in Ni(CO)
4
is :
(A) sp (B) sp
2
(C) sp
3
(D) dsp
2
.
18. A group of atoms can function as a ligand only when
(A) It is a small molecule (B) It has an unshared electon pair
(C) It is a negatively chrged ion (D) It is a positively chrged ion.
19. A complex compound in which the oxidation number of a metal is zero,is
(A) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (B) K
3
[Fe(CN)
6
] (C) [Ni(CO)
4
] (D) [Pt(NH
3
)
4
]Cl
2
.
20. A ligand can also be regarded as
(A) Lewis acid (B) Bronsted base (C) Lewis base (D) Bronsted acid.
21. The primary and secondary valencies of chromium in the complex ion,dichlorodioxalatochromium
(III), are
(A) 4,4 (B) 4,3 (C) 3,6 (D) 6,3
22. The number of unidentate ligands in the complex ion is called
(A) Oxidation number (C) Primary valency
(C) Coordination number (D) EAN.
23. The tetrahedral complexes have coordination number
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 8
24. The number of moles of ions gives on complete ionization of one mole of [Co(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
is/are
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
25. The compound having lowest oxdation state of iron is.
(A) K
4
Fe(CN)
6
(B) K
2
FeO
4
(C) [FeCO)
5
] (D) K
3
[Fe(CN)
6
].
26. Ethylene diamine is an example of
(A) Monodentate ligand (C) Bidentate ligand
(C) Tridentate ligand (D) Hexadentate ligand.dinitrate.
27. Which of the following does not have optical isomer ?
(A) [Co(NH
3
)
3
Cl]
+
(B) [Co(en)(NH
3
)
2
Cl
2
]
+
(C) [Co(en)
2
(NH
3
)
2
Cl]
3+
(D) [Co(H
2
O)
4
(en)]
3+
28. The IUPAC name of [Ni(NH
3
)
4
] [NiCl
4
] is
(A) Tetrachlorido nickel (II) - Tetrraammine nickel (II)
(B) Tetrraammine nickel (II) - Tetrachlorido nickel (II)
(C) Tetrraammine nickel (II) - Tetrachlorido nickelate (II)
(D) Tetrachlorido nickel (II) - Tetrraammine nickelate (II)
29. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside is named as
(A) Sodium pentacyanonitrosonium ferrate (II) (B) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)
(C) Sodium nitroferricyanide (D) Sodium nitroferrocyanide
30. IUPAC name of Na
3
[Co(NO
2
)
6
] is
(A) Sodium hexanitrito cobaltate (II) (B) Sodium hexanitro cobaltate (III)
(C) Sodium hexanitrito cobaltate (III) (D) Sodium cobaltinitrite (II).
69
31. Which of the following compound shows optical isomerism ?
(A) [Co(CN)
6
]
3-
(B) [Cr(C
2
O
4
)
3
]
3-
(C) [ZnCl
4
]
2-
(D) [Cu(NH
3
)
4
]
2+
32. The coordination compounds,[Co(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
, [Cr(CN)
6
]
3-
and [Cr(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
[Co(CN)
6
]
3-
are ex-
amples of...
(A) Linkage isomerism (B) coordination isomerism
(C) ionization isomerism (D) geometrical isomerism
33. Number of possible optical isomers in [Co(en)
2
Cl
2
]
+
is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
34. According to postulates of Werners theory for coordination compouds,which of the following is
true ?
(A) Primary valencies are ionizable (B) Secondary valencies ionizable
(C) Only primary valencies are non-ionizable
(D) Primary and secondary valencies are non-ionizable
35. Geometrical shapes of the complexes formed by the reaction of Ni
2+
with CI
-
,CN
-
and H
2
O
respectively are
(A) Octahedral, tetrahedral and square planer (B) Tetrahedral, square planer and octahedral
(C) Square planer, tetrahedral and Octahedral (D) Octahedral, square planer and tetrahedral
36. Which of the followin facts about the complex [Cr(NH
3
)
6
]CI is wrong ?
(A) The complex involves d
2
sp
3
hybrdization and is octahedral in shape ?
(B) The complex is paramagnetic
(C) The complex is an outer orbital complex
(D) The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution
37. The magnetic moment (spin only) of [NiCI
4
]
2-
is
(A) 1.82 BM (B) 5.46 BM (C) 2.82 BM (D) 1.41 BM
38. Among the ligands NH
3
,en,CN
-
and CO the correct order of their increasing field strength, is
(A) CO< NH
3
<en < CN
(B) NH
3
< en< CN
< CO
(C) CN
< NH
3
< CO< en (D) en< CN
<NH
3
< CO
39. The complex showing a spin-only magnetic moment of 2.82 BM is
(A) Ni(CO)
4
(B) [NiCI
4
]
2-
(C) [Ni(NH
3
)
4
]
2+
(D) [Ni(CN)
4
]
2-
40. The spin only magnetic moment value (in Bohr magneton units) of Cr(CO)
6
is
(A) 0 (B) 2.84 (C) 4.90 (D) 5.92
41. Potassium ferrocyanide is an example of
(A) Tetrahedral (B) Octahedral (C) Square Planar (D) Linear
42. In an octahedral,structure, the pair of d-orbitals involved in d
2
sp
3
hybridisation is
(A) d
x
2
-
y
2
,d
z
2 (B) d
xz
, d
x
2
-
y
2
(C) d
z
2
,d
xz
(D) d
yz
, d
xy
43. Which of the following species will be diamagnetic ?
(A) [Fe(CN)
6
]
4-
(B) [FeF
6
]
3+
(C) [Co(C
2
O
4
)
3
]
3-
(D) [CoF
6
]
3-
70
44. In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (at. no.27) will be magnitude of
D
0
be the
highest ?
(A) [Co(CN)
6
]
3-
(B) [Co(C
2
O
4
)
3
]
3-
(C) [Co(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
(D) [Co(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
45. The number of unpaired electrons calculated in [Co(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
and [Co(F
6
)]
3-
are
(A) 4 and 4 (B) 0 and 2 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 0 and 4
46. In the grignard reaction, which metal forms an organometallic bond ?
(A) Sodium (B) Titanium (C) Magnesium (D) Palladium
47. The p - bonded organometallic compound which has ethane as one of its component is
(A) Zeises salt (B) Ferrocene
(C) Dibenzene chromium(D) Tetraethyl tin
48. Which one of the following complex is an outer orbital complex ?
(At. no. Mn=25, Fe=24, Co=27, Ni=28)
(A) [Fe(CN)
6
]
4-
(B) [Mn(CN)
6
]
4-
(C) [Co(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
(D) [Ni(NH
3
)
6
]
2+
49. The magnetic moment of [Co(NH
3
)
6
]CI
3
is
(A) 1.73 (B) 2.83 (C) 6.6 (D) Zero
50. In Fe(CO)
5
the Fe - C bond possesses
(A) p - character only (B)both s and p - character
(C) ionic character (D) s - character only
51. According to werners theory :
(A) Primary Valeccy can be ionized
(B) Secondary valency can be ionized
(C) Primary and secondary valencies cannot be ionized
(D) Only primary valency cannot be ionized
52. Ligand in a complex salt are :
(A) Anions linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion
(B) Cation linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion
(C) Moleculer linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion
(D) Ions or molecules linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion
53. According to Lewis the ligand are :
(A) Acidic in nature (B) Basic in nature
(C) Neither acidic nore basic (D) some are acidic and other are basic
54. Which of the following acts as a bidentate ligand in complex formation ?
(A) Acetate (B) oxalate (C) Thiocyanate (D) EDTA
55. The coordination number of cobalt in the complex [Co(en)
2
Br
2
]cl
2 ?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4
56. Which is the example of hexadentate ligand ?
(A) 2,2-dipyridyl (B) Dimethyl glyoxime
(C) Aminodiacetate ion (D) Ethylene diammine tetra actate ion
71
57. Which of the following is tridentate neutral Ligand ?
(A) Pn (B) Ptn (C) PO
4
3
(D) A and B both
58. The primary valency of the metal ion in the coordinateion compound K
2
[Ni(CN)
4
] is..
(A) Four (B) Zero (C) Two (D) Six
59. The metal which forms polynuclear carbonyl is ?
(A) Mn (B) Co (C) Cr (D) Fe
60. Potasssium ferrocyanide is a.... .
(A) Normal salt (B) Mixed salt (C) Double salt (D) Complex salt
61. Given the molecular formula of the hexa coordinated complexes.
(A) Co Cl
3
6NH
3
(B) Co Cl
3
5NH
3
(C) Co Cl
3
4NH
3
If the number of coordinated NH
3
molecudes in A,B and C respectively are 6,5 and 4 the primary
valency (A), (B) and (C) are:
(A) 6,5,4 (B) 3,2,1 (C) 0,1,2 (D) 3,3,3
62. In the compound lithium tetrahydroaluminate the ligand is:
(A) H+ (B) H
(C) H (D) None of these

63. Which of the folloiwing is the odd one out.
(A) Potassium ferrocyanide (B) Ferrous ammonium sulphate
(C) Potassium ferricyanide (D) Tetrammine copper (II) sulphate
64. Ligand in complex compounds
(A) Accept e

- pair (B) Donate e

- pair
(C) Neither accept e

- pair nor donate (D) All of these.
65. Which of the following is a common donor atom in ligands ?
(A) Arsenic (B) Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Both B and C
66. Finely divided iron combines with CO to give
(A) Fe(CO)
5
(B) Fe
2
(CO)
9
(C) Fe
2
CO
12
(D) Fe(CO)
6
67. Zeigler-Natta catalyst is used for which type of reaction.
(A) Hydrogenation (B) Polymerisation (C) Oxidation (D) Reduction
68. An aqueous solution of potash Alum gives.
(A) Two types of ions (B) Only one type of ion
(C) Four type of ions (D) Three types of ions.
69. Carnalite in solution in H
2
O shows the properties of.
(A) K
+
,Mg
+2
,Cl
-
(B) K
+
,Cl
-
,SO
4
2
Br-
(C) K
+
,Mg
+2
,CO
3
2
(D) K
+
,Mg
+2
,Cl
, Br
70. In a complex, the highest possible coordination number is :

(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 4 (D) 8
71. Number of ions present in aqueous solution of Fe
4
[Fe(CN)
6
]
3
is
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 7 (D) 6
72. How many ions are produced in aqueous solution of [CoH
2
O)
6
] Cl
2
?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
72
73. Oxidation state of nitrogen is incorrectly given for ?
Compound Oxidation state
(A) [Co(NH
3
)
5
Cl]Cl
2
0
(B) NH
2
OH -1
(C) (N
2
H
5
)
2
SO
4
+2
(D) Mg
3
N
2
-3
74. The formula of dichlorido bis (urea) copper (II) is ?
(A) [Cu (O=C(NH
2
)
2
)Cl
2
] (B) [CuCl
2
(O=C(NH
2
)
2
)
2
]
(C) [Cu (O=C(NH
2
)
2
)Cl ]Cl (D) [CuCl
2
(O=C(NH
2
)
2
H
2
]
75. Correct formula of diammine silver (I) chloride is ?
(A) Ag(NH
3
)Cl (B) Ag(NH
2
)Cl (C) [Ag(NH
3
)
2
]Cl (D) [Ag(NH
2
)
2
]Cl
76. The formula of sodium nitroprusside ?
(A) Na
4
[Fe(CN)
5
NOS] (B) Na
2
[Fe(CN)
5
NO]
(C) NaFe[Fe(CN)
6
] (D) Na
2
[Fe(CN)
6
NO
2
]
77. The IUPAC name of [Co (NH
3
)
3
(NO
2
)
3
] is ?
(A) Trinitrotriammine cobalt (III) (B) Trinitrotriammine cobalt (II)
(C) Trinitrotriammine cobalt (III) ion (D) Trinitrotriammine cobaltate (III)
78. The oxidation numbers of chromium in Na
2
[CrF
4
O] complex is ?
(A) II (B) IV (C) VI (D) III
79. The correct IUPAC name of Fe
4
[Fe(CN)
6
]
3
is ?
(A) Ferroso - Ferric cyanide (B) Ferric - Ferrous hexacyanide
(C) Iron (III) hexacyano ferrate (II) (D) Hexacyano ferrate (III-II)
80. In which of the following complex the oxidation number of method is zero ?
(A) [ Pt(NH
3
)
2
Cl
2
] (B) [ Cr (CO)
6
] (C) [Cr(NH
3
)
2
Cl
3
(D) [ Cr(en)
2
Cl
2
]
81. In the complex compound K
4
[Ni(CN)
4
] oxidation state of nickel is ?
(A) -1 (B) 0 (C) +1 (D) +2
82. The pair of the compounds in which both the metals are in the highest possible oxidation state is ?
(A) [Fe(CN)
6
]
3-
, [Co(CN)
6
]
3-
(B) CrO
2
Cl
2
, MnO
4
(C) TiO
3,
MnO
2
(D) [Co(CN)
6
]
3-
, MnO
3
83. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex ion [CoF
6
]
-3
is (Atomic no of Co=27)
(A) zero (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
84. Which one of the following will not show geometrical isomerism ?
(A) [ Cr(NH
3
)
4
Cl
2
]Cl (B) [Co(en)
2
Cl
2
]Cl
(C) [Co(NH
3
)
5
NO
2
]Cl
2
(D) [Pt(NH
3
)
2
Cl
2
]
85. Which would exhibit co-ordination isomerism.
(A) [ Cr(NH
3
)
6
][Co(CN)
6]
] (B) [Co(en)
2
Cl
2
]
(C) [Cr (NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
(D) [Cr(en)
2
Cl
2
]
73
]
86. [Co(NH
3
)
5
NO
2
]Cl
2
and [Co(NH
3
)
5
(ONO)]Cl
2
are releted to each other as ?
(A) Geometrical isomer (B) Optical isomer
(C) Linkage isomer (D) Co-ordination isomer
87. [Co(NH
3
)
5
Br] SO
4
and [Co(NH
3
)
5
SO
4
]Br ase examples of which type of isomerism ?
(A) Linkage (B) Geometrical (C) Ionisation (D) Optical
88. Which would exhibit ionisation isomerism. ?
(A) [ Cr (NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
(B) [Co(NH
3
)
5
Br]SO
4
(C) [Cr(en)
2
Cl
2
] (D) [Cr(en)
3
Cl
3
]
89. Among the following ions which one has the highest paramagnetism ?
(A) [ Cr (H
2
O)
6
]
+3
(B) [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
+2
(C) [ Cu (H
2
O)
6
]
2+
(D) [Zn (H
2
O)
6
]
2+
90. The type of isomerism present in nitro pentamine chromium (III) Chloride is ?
(A) Optical (B) Linkage (C) Ionisation (D) Polymerisation
91. Pick out from the following complex compounds,a poor electrolytic conductor in solution ?
(A) K
2
[PtCl
6
] (B) [Co(NH
3
)
3
(NO
2
)
3
]
(C) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (D) [Cu(NH
3
)
4
] SO
4
92. The oritical Magnetic moment of [Cu(NH
3
)
4
]
2+
ion is ?
(A) 1.414 (B) 1.73 (C) 2.23 (D) 2.38
93. Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
(A) [Ni (CO)
4
]
2
(B) [Co(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
(C) [Ni (CN)
4
]
2-
(D) [NiCl
4
]
2
94. The numbers of unpair electrone in Ni(CO)
4
is ?
(A) zero (B) One (C) Three (D) Five
95. Which of the following has highest paramagnetism ?
(A) Ni(CO)
4
(B) [Ni (NH
3
)
4
]Cl
2
(C) [Ni (NH
3
)
6
]Cl
2
(D) [Cu (NH
3
)
4
]Cl
2
96. Which of the following does not have optical isomer ?
(A) [Co(NH
3
)
3
Cl
3
] (B) [Co (en)
3
]Cl
3
(C) [Co (en)
2
Cl
2
]Cl (D) [Co (en)(NH
3
)
2
Cl
2
]Cl
97. The colour of tetrammine copper (II) sulphate is ?
(A) Blue (B) Red (C)Violet (D) Green
98. Cuprammonium ion [Cu(NH
3
)
4
]
2+
is ?
(A) Tetrahedral (B) Square planar
(C) Triangularbipyramidal (D) Octrahydra
99. The type of hybridisation involved in the metal ion of [Ni(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
complex is ?
(A) d
3
sp
2
(B) sp
3
d
2
(C) sp
3
(D) dsp
2
74
100. One mole of the complex compound Co(NH
3
)
5
Cl
3
gives 3 moles of ions on dissolution in
water.one mole of the same complex react with two moles of AgNO
3
solution to yeild two moles
of AgCl
(s)
the structure of the complex is...
(A) [Co(NH
3
)
5
Cl]Cl
2
(B) [Co(NH
3
)
3
Cl
3
]Z NH
3
(C) [Co(NH
3
)
4
Cl
2
]Cl.NH
3
(D) [Co(NH
3
)
4
Cl]Cl
2
.NH
3
101. Which one of the following has squar planar geometry?
(A) [Ag(NH
3
)
2
]
+
(B) [Cu(en)
2
]
2+
(C) [Mn CL
4
]
-2
(D) [Ni(CO)
4
]
102. The complex ion which has no d electrons in the central metal atom is
(A) [Mn O
4
]- (B) [Co(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
(C) [Fe(CN)
6
]
3-
(D) [Cr(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
103. The strongest ligand in the following is
(A)CN
(B)Br
(C)HO
(D)F
104. The most stable ion is

(A) [Fe(OX)
3
]
3-
(B) [Fe(Cl)
6
]
3-
(C) [Fe(CN)
6
]
3-
(D) [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
105. Wilkinsons catalyst is used in
(A) Polymerisation (B) Condensation (C) Halogenation (D) Dehydrogenation
106. Mixture X=0.02 mole of [Co(NH
3
)
5
SO
4
]Br and 0.02 mole of [Co(NH
3
)
5
Br]SO
4
was prepared
in 2 litre of solution.
1 Litre of mixture X + excess AgNO
3
Y
1 Liter of mixture X+ excess BaCl
2
Z
Number of moles of Y and Z are respectivly
(A) 0.01, 0.01 (B) 0.02, 0.01 (C) 0.01, 0.02 (D) 0.02, 0.02
107. In [Ni(NH
3
)
4
]SO
4
the valency and coordinate number of Ni will be respectivly ?
(A) 3 and 6 (B) 2 nad 4 (C) 4 and 2 (D) 4 and 4
108. Which of the following compunds shows optical isomerism?
(A) [Cu(NH
3
)
4
]
2+
(B) [ZnCl
4
]
2-
(C) [Cr(C
2
O
4
)
3
]
3-
(D) [Co(CN)
6
]
3-
109. In the process of extraction of gold, Roasted gold ore +CN
+ H
2
O
O
2
X +OH
[X] +Zn Y + Au Identify the complexes [X] and [Y]

(A) X = [Au(CN)
2
]
-
Y = [Zn(CN)
4
]
2-
(B) X = [Au(CN)
4
]
3-
Y = [Zn(CN)
4
]
-2
(C) X = [Au(CN)
2
]
-
Y = [Zn(CN)
6
]
-4
(D) X = [Au(CN)
4
]
-
Y = [Zn(CN)
4
]
-2
110. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(A) In K
3
[Fe(CN)
6
], the ligand has satisfied both primary and secondary valencies of ferric ion
(B) In K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
], the ligand has satisfied both primary and secondary valencies of ferrous ion
(C) In K
3
[Fe(CN)
6
], the ligand has satisfied only secondary valencies of ferric ion
(D) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] is diamegenetic while K
3
[Fe(CN)
6
] is paramagnetic
Assertion and Reason
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the option given below :
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
75
(B) If both a ssertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(E) If the assertion is false but reason is true.
(111) Assertion : Potassium ferrocyanide and potassium ferricyanide both are diamagnetic.
Reason : Both have unpaired election.
(112) Assertion : The [Ni(en)
3
]Cl
2
has lower stability than (Ni(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
2
Reason : In [Ni(en)
3
]Cl
2
the geometry of Ni is trigonal bipyramidal.
(113) Assertion : Geometrical isomerism is also called cis - trans isomerism.
Reason : tetrahedral complexes show geometrical isomerism.
(114) Assertion : H
2
N - NH
2
is a chelating ligand.
Reason : A chelating ligand must possess two or more lone pair at such distance that it may form
suitable strain free ring at the metal ion.
(115) Assertion : [Ti(H
2
O)
6
]
+3
is coloured while [Sc(H
2
O)
6
]
+3
is Colourless
Reason : d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H
2
O)
6
]
+3
(116) Asserion : All the octahedral complexes of Ni
+2
must be outer orbital complexes.
Reason : Outer orbital octahedral complexes are given by weak ligand.
ANSWER KEY
1 a 26 b 51 a 76 b 101 b
2 c 27 b 52 d 77 a 102 a
3 b 28 c 53 b 78 b 103 a
4 c 29 a 54 b 79 c 104 c
5 b 30 b 55 b 80 b 105 d
6 b 31 b 56 b 81 b 106 a
7 b 32 b 57 b 82 b 107 b
8 c 33 a 58 c 83 d 108 c
9 c 34 a 59 a 84 c 109 a
10 b 35 b 60 d 85 a 110 c
11 c 36 c 61 d 86 c 111 d
12 c 37 c 62 b 87 c 112 c
13 c 38 b 63 b 88 b 113 c
14 a 39 b 64 b 89 b 114 e
15 a 40 a 65 d 90 b 115 a
16 b 41 b 66 a 91 b 116 b
17 c 42 a 67 b 92 b
18 b 43 a 68 d 93 d
19 c 44 a 69 a 94 a
20 c 45 d 70 d 95 d
21 c 46 c 71 c 96 a
22 c 47 a 72 b 97 a
23 c 48 d 73 a 98 b
24 a 49 d 74 b 99 b
25 c 50 b 75 c 100 a
76
Environmental chemistry means scientific study of chemical and biochemical processes
occurring in environment. Through it we can know the reasons for changes and processes occurring
in environment. Solid, liquid and gaseous pollutants, polluting environment can be generally classified
as rapidly degradable, slowly degradable and non-biodegradable pollutants. Pollutants which degrade
rapidly are known as rapidly degradable pollutants. e.g. discarded vegetables. Pollutants which
degrade slowly are known as slowly degradable pollutants. e.g. agricultural waste. Some pollutants
remain for decades in their original form without degradation. They are known as non-degradable
pollutants. e.g. dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT), plastic materials, heavy metals, radioactive
wastes. Troposphere and stratosphere greatly affect the biosphere of earth due to which study of
pollution in these two regions is most important for study of pollution in enviornment. Gaseous
pollutants - SO
x
, NO
x
, CO, CO
2
, H
2
S, O
3
, hydrocarbons and particulate pollutants - dust,
mist, fumes, smoke, smog etc cause pollution in troposphere. The process of warming of the earth
is known as 'Green house effect' or 'Global warming' and the gases actively involved in it are called
'Green house gases'. Carbon dioxide, methane, ozone, chlorofluorocarbon (CFC), nitrous oxide and
water vapour present in atmosphere act as green house gases. Heat retaining capacity of greenhouse
gases are called Global Warming Potential (GWP). The GWP based sequence of green house
gases is as CFC > N
2
O > CH
4
> CO
2
. When the pH of rain water becomes lower than 5.6 then
it is called acid rain. Gaseous pollutants present in troposphere are responsible for it. The acid rain
in water reservoirs like rivers, ponds adversely affect fishes, microorganisms and plants, in aquatic
world. Ozone layer present in stratosphere protect the living being against harmful ultraviolet radiations
from space. But ODS (Ozone Depletion Substances) used by human beings deplete ozone layer.
To create awareness in the whole world about the depletion of ozone layer and the remedies to
protect depletion, United Nations has decided to celebrate 16th September of every year as 'Ozone
Layer Protection Day' at the international level. Today, a person hesitates to use natural water
directly for drinking, because soluble, insoluble, biological, physical or chemical impurities fromdifferent
sources mixing with surface water or ground water which pollute the water. Due to this, institutions
like WHO (World Health Organization) at world level and BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards) and
ICMR (Indian Council of Medical Research) India level have prescribed standards for quality of
drinking water. Chemical, physical and biological methods are known for purification of drinking
water. For soil pollution, indiscriminate use of fertilizers and pesticides, dumping of solid wastes in
soil and deforestation are observed as main causes. Removal of wastes, produced from different
industries in air, water or soil are ultimately harmful for living beings. To determine the amount of
organic waste in liquid effluents of industries, measurements of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
and Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) are important. By BOD measurement, the amount of organic
materials present in liquid waste, which can be degraded by bacteria can be measured. By COD
measurement, the amount of all the organic materials present in liquid waste can be determined.
BOD measurement requires 5 days and COD measurement requires 2-3 hours. By controlling,
managing or treating the waste from households, exhausts from vehicles, industrial wastes and
biomedical wastes we can control the environmental pollution. Efforts to control environmental
pollution resulted in delvelopment of science for synthesis of chemicals favourable to environment,
which is called green chemistry. Gujarat State Government has established the Pollution Control
Board for control of environmental pollution in Gujarat.
UNIT - 18 : ENVIROMENTAL CHEMISTRY
Important Points
77
M.C.Q.
1. Which order for green house gases is truly based on GWP ?
(a) CFC > N
2
O > CO
2
> CH
4
(b) CFC > CO
2
> N
2
O > CH
4
(c) CFC > N
2
O > CH
4
> CO
2
(d) CFC > CH
4
> N
2
O > CO
2
2. Which of the following pollutant cannot be degraded by natural process ?
(a) DDT (b) Nuclear waste (c) Heavy metals (d) all of the above
3. Which of the following bacteria are responsible for the Gastrointestinal Disease ?
(a) Ecoli (b) S Faecalis (c) Both a and b (d) S aurous
4. The prescribed upper limit concentration of lead in drinking water is about
(a) 30 ppb (b) 70 ppb (c) 50 ppb (d) 60 ppb
5. What is the range of pH of acid rain?
(a) More than 5.6 (b) In between 5.6 to 6.6
(c) Less than 5.6 (d) In between 6.00 to 6.66
6. Which of the following statement is inocorrect ?
(a) Taj Mahal is affected by hydrocarbon.
(b) Building are adversely affected by acid rain.
(c) Due to acid rain, micro organisms are affected.
(d) Large amount of acid rain decreases soil fertility.
7. Which of the following disease increase due to Green house Gases effect ?
(a) Malaria (b) Dengue (c) Yellow fever (d) All of the above.
8. Which of the following chemist associate with Green house Gas effect ?
(a) Jean fowier (b) Chamberlin (c) Swante Arrhenius (d) Both b and c
9. Which of the following is used in aerosols ?
(a) NOx (b) SOx (c) CFC (d) COx
10. The Diameter of solid dust particle is
(a) 10
-2
meter (b) 10
-6
meter (c) 10
-4
meter (d) 10
-1
meter
11. Which of the following size of particulate will cause diseases related to lungs ?
(a) 10
-2
meter (b) 10
-6
meter (c) 10
-4
meter (d) 10
-1
meter
12. Classical Smog Occurs in
(a) warm humid climate (b) Natural humid climate
(c) Cool humid climate (d) Both a and b
13. Which of the following metal will pollute water ?
(a) Cd (b) Na (c) K (d) None of the above
14. Which of the following ion is encouraging for the formation of algae in water ?
(a) SO
4
2-
(b) PO
4
3-
(c) ASO
4
3-
(d) CO
3
2-
78
15. Which of the following techniques is/are used to control water pollution ?
(a) Adsorption process (b) Ion exchange process
(c) Reverse Osmosis (d) All of the above
16. The lowest region that extends upto the height of 10 to 15 km from sea level is called ?
(a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere
(c) Smoke (d) None of the above.
17. Which of the following pollutants are present in troposphere ?
(a) Smog (b) Oxides of Sulphur (c) Both a and b (d) Metal oxides
18. Which one is not a Green house Gas ?
(a) H
2
O (b) O
2
(c) CO
2
(d) O
3
19. Which of the following industries will be the best source of producing CO in the atmosphere ?
(a) Dyes (b) petrochemical (c) paper & pulp (d) Both b and c
20. Which of the following is responsible for photochemical Smog ?
(a) SOx (b) NOx (c) COx (d) none of the above
21. London Smog is built-up of
(a) Sulphur Oxide and particulate matter of fuel combustion.
(b) Corbon Oxide and particulate matter of fuel combustion.
(c) Nitrogen Oxide and particulate matter of fuel combustion.
(d) Water Vapour and particulate matter of fuel combustion.
22. The region closest to the earths surface is
(a) Stratosphere (b) Mesoshpere (C) Troposhpere (d) Thermoshpere
23. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is not a common air polutant ?
(a) NO
2
(b) N
2
O (c) NO (d) N
2
O
5
24. Depletion of ozone layer causes ?
(a) Blood Cancer (b) Bone Cancer (c) Lung Cancer (d) Skin Cancer
25. Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen are important pollutants of :
(a) water (b) Air (c) Soil (d) Both c and d
26. Tajmahal is threatened by pollutant from
(a) Nitric oxide (b) Carbon oxide (c) Sulphur oxide (d) Chlorine
27. Most dangerous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is ...
(a) lead (b) Arsenic (c) Mercury (d) Cadmium
28. DDT is _______________
(a) An antibiotic (b) Biodegradable pollutant
(c) Non-Biodegradable pollutant (d) Nitrogen containing insecticide
79
29. COD stands for ______________
(a) Chemical oxygen demand (b) Controlled oxygen demand
(c) clouds causing ozone depletion (d) Chlorinated oxygen demand
30. Which of the following will be affected by Smog ?
(a) Rubber (b) Building (c) Carving (d) All of the above
31. The pollutants like SOx, CO and NOx caused for the damage of :
(a) Throat (b) Kidney (c) Nervous system (d) Hair loss
32. The main components of acid rain in the atmosphere are :
(a) Oxide of sulphur and nitrogen (b) Oxide of carbon and nitrogen
(c) Oxide of phosphorous and nitrogen (d) Oxide of Carbon
33. One free radial of chlorine can destroy molecules of ozone
(a) 100 (b) 500 (c) 250 (d) 1000
34. Which of the following is responsible for Green house effect ?
(a) Glass roof (b) Aluminium sheet (c) Metallic roof (d) Jute roof
35. Which of the following industry produces the waste of phenolic compounds and suspended solids ?
(a) petroleum (b) paper & pulp (c) sugar (d) Detergent
36. Which of the following industry produces the waste of animal protein ?
(a) petroleum (b) paper & pulp (c) sugar (d) leather
37. The source of chlrofluoro carbons pollution is
(a) Jet air craftss (b) Refrigerators
(c) fire extinguishers (d) all of the above
38. In the coming years, skin realated disorders will be more common due to
(a) water pollution (b) organic waste material
(c) pollutants of atnosphere (d) depletion of ozone layer
39. Which of the following is/are gaseous pollutants ?
(a) Carbon (b) Aerosols (c) Dust particles (d) Carbon monoxide
40. Which of the following component causes water pollution ?
(a) Smog (b) Sodium chloride (c) algle (d) Industrial waste
41. The major cause of air pollution in big cities is ...
(a) Burning of coal (b) Domestic exhaust
(c) Burning of cooking gas (d) Vehicular exhaust
42. Depletion of ozone layer in stratosphere may cause ...
(a) lung damage (b) global warming (c) global cooling (d) skin cancer
43. Green house effect was first described by ...
(a) Yues Chauvin (b) Einstein (c) Fourier (d) Newton
80
44. A substance which may alter environmental constituents or cause pollution is called ...
(a) Radiator (b) Pollutant (c) Reducer (d) Decomposer
45. The percentage of total amount of CO present in atmosphere, due to forest fires is ...
(a) 63% (b) 17% (c) 9.5% (d) 7.4%
46. The homosphere constituents how much percent of the total atmosphere
(a) 80% (b) 86% (c) 90% (d) 99.99%
47. Acid rain is due to the increase in the concentration of which of the following in the atmoshpere ?
(a) O
3
+ NO
2
(b) CO
2
and CO (c) SO
3
and CO (d) SO
2
and NO
2
48. Which of the following is a solid pollutant ...
(a) Carbon (b) Nitric oxide (c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide
49. The Green house effect is caused by ...
(a) Methane only (b) CO
2
and SO
2
(C) CO
2
,SO
2
and NO
2
(d) CO
2
, CFC CH
4
and NO
2
gases
50. The brown haze of photochemical Smog is largely attributable to ...
(1) NO (2) NO
2
(3) CH
3
COOONO
2
(4) CH
2
=CH-CH=O
51. Smog is essentialy caused by the presence of ...
(a) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen (b) O
2
and N
2
(c) O
2
and O
3
(d) O
3
and N
3
52. Ozone in the stratosphere is depleted by
(a) CF
2
Cl
2
(b) C
6
F
16
(c) C
6
H
6
CL
6
(d) C
6
F
6
53. The basic component of Smog is
(a) PAN (b) PBN (c) Ozone (d) all of these
54. Spraying of DDT on crops causes pollution of
(a) Air and Water (b) Soil and air (c) Soil and water (d) Crops and air
55. Regular use of which of the following fertilizers increases the acidity of soil ?
(a) potassium nitrate (b) Urea
(c) Superphosphate of lime (d) Ammonium Sulpate
56. In Antartica, ozone depletion is due to the formation of the following compound ...
(a) Acrolein (b) peroxy acetyl nitrate
(c) SO
2
and SO
3
(d) Chlorine nitrate
81
5
1 C 16 A 31 C 46 D
2 D 17 C 32 A 47 D
3 C 18 B 33 D 48 A
4 C 19 D 34 A 49 D
5 C 20 B 35 A 50 B
6 A 21 A 36 D 51 A
7 D 22 C 37 D 52 A
8 D 23 D 38 D 53 D
9 C 24 D 39 D 54 C
10 B 25 B 40 D 55 D
11 B 26 C 41 D 56 D
12 C 27 A 42 D
13 A 28 C 43 C
14 B 29 A 44 B
15 D 30 D 45 B
ANSWER KEY
82
UNIT : 19 PURIFICATION AND CHARACTERISATION OF
ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
Important Points
1. Common techiques of purification of organic compunds : Sublimation, Crystallisation,
Distillation, Differential extraction and Chromatography.
2. Chromatography : It is an important techique used to seprate mixtures into their components,
purify compunds and aslo to test the purity of compunds.
3. Lassaigne test : It is a test used to detect the presence of N, S, P and X in organic compund.
1. L.S + FeSO
4
+ con H
2
SO
4
Prussian blue colour N - present
2. L.S + CH
3
COOH + (CH
3
COO)
2
Pb Black ppt S - present
3. L.S + Sodium nitrogen prusside violet colour S - present
4. L.S + HNO
3
+ AgNO
3
White ppt Solube in Cl - present
NH
4
OH
yellowish ppt. Br - present
Sparingly soluble
in NH
4
OH
yellow ppt I - present
Insoluable in
NH
4
OH
5. L. S + con HNO
3
+ yellow ppt P - present
ammonium molybdate
L.S = Lassagine solution. It is also called sodium fusion extract.
4. Precentage of C (Leibigs method) =
2 12mass of CO 100
44mass of O.C.
5. Precentage of H (Leibigs method) =
2 2mass of H O100
18mass of O.C.
6. Precentage of N (Dumas method) =
2 28vol of N at S.T.P.
224mass of O.C.
7. Precentage of N (Kjeldahls method) =
1.4NV
mass of O.C.
Where, N = Normality of acid. V= Vol. of acid used.
83
8. Precentage of X (Carius method) =
100
.

At mass of X mass of Ag X
moral mass of Ag X mass of OC
9. Precentage of S (Carius method) =
4 32 100
233 .

mass of BaSO
mass of OC
10. Precentage of P (Carius method) =
2 2 7
62 100
222 .

mass of Mg PO
mass of OC
11. Molecular weight of carboxylic acid =
108
107

-

mass of silver salt of acid
n
mass of silver
Where, n = Basicity of the acid
12. Molecular weight of organic base =
n 195 mass of platinic chloride
410
2 mass of platinum

-

Where, n = Acidity of the base
M.C.Q.
1. Which of the following is a techique of purification of orgainc compound ?
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction (c) Distillation (d) Hydrolysis
2. Which of the following is/are method (s) of checking the purity of organic compound ?
(a) Chromatography (b) Spectroscopy (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
3. The formula representing a simple ratio of atoms of different elements present in a molecule of
the substance is called
(a) Empirical formula (b) Molecular formula (c) Structural formula (d) Condensed formula
4. What is called the purification technique based on difference in the solubilities of the
compound and the impurities in a given solvent ?
(a) Sublimation (b) Crystallization (c) Distillation (d) Fractional distillation
5 A compound contains C = 90% and H = 10 %. Find empirical formula of the compound.
(a) C
3
H
10
(b) CH
2
(c) C
3
H
2
(d) C
3
H
4
6. Empirical formula of a compound is CH
2
O and its vapour density is 30. What is the
molecular formula of compound ?
(a) C
3
H
6
O
3
(b) C
2
H
4
O
2
(c) C
2
H
4
O (d) CH
2
O
7. An organic compound contains C = 36%, H = 6%. What is the empirical formula of
compound ?
(a) C
3
H
6
(b) CH
3
(c) CH
2
O (d) C
2
H
2
O
2
84
8. What should be the property of solvent used in crystallisation ?
(a) Impure compound should be sparingly soluble in it at room temperature.
(b) Impure compound should be appreciably soluble in it at higher temperture.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
9. Which method of purification of organic compound is useful to separate volatile liquids from
non volatile impurities ?
(a) sublimation (b) Distillation
(c) crystallisation (d) Fractional crystallisation
10. Which method of purification of organic compound is useful to separate liquids having
sufficient difference in their boiling point ?
(a) Sublimation (b) Distillation (c) Filtration (d) Crystallisation
11. An organic compound on analysis gave C = 48gm, H = 8gm and N = 56gm. Volume of 1.0
gm of the compound was found to be 200 ml at STP. What is the
molecular formula of the compound ?
(a) C
4
H
8
N
4
(b) C
2
H
4
N
2
(c) C
12
H
24
N
12
(d) C
16
H
32
N
16
12. Which of the following method can be empolyed to separate a mixture of Chloroform
(b.p334k) and aniline (b.p 457k) ?
(a) Distillation (b) Crystallisation (c) Sublimation (d) All of these
13. Insulin contains 3.4% Sulphur. The minimum molecular weight of insulin is
(a) 350 (b) 470 (c) 560 (d) 940
14. Which element is estimated by Carius method ?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Carbon (c) Hydrogen (d) Halogen
15. Fractional distillation is used when,
(a) Difference in melting points of two solids is less.
(b) Difference in boiling points of two liquids is large.
(c) Difference in boiling points of two liquids is small.
(d) Difference in melting points of two liquids is large.
16. Distillation under reduced pressure is used when ...
(a) liquid has very high boiling point and decompose at or below its boiling point.
(b) liquid has very low boiling point.
(c) liquid is insoluble in water.
(d) liquid is insoluble in organic solvent.
17. In Carius method, 0.099 g compound gave 0.287 gm AgCl. What is the % of Cl ?
(a) 35.4 (b) 71.7 (c) 46.2 (d) 80.5
18. In which compound, sulphur of organic compound is converted when organic compound is
reacted with con. HNO
3
for estimation of Sulphur ?
(a) H
2
SO
4
(b) SO
2
(c) H
2
S (d) SO
3
85
19. Which of the following techniques is used to separate glycerol from spent-lye in soap
industry ?
(a) Simple distillation (b) Fractional distillation
(c) Distillation under reduced pressure (d) None of these
20. Which method is used to separate aniline water mixture ?
(a) steam distillation (b) distillation under reduced pressure
(c) sublimation (d) None of these
21. Chromatography is used
(a) to separate mixtures (b) to purify compounds
(c) to test the purity of compounds (d) All of these
22. In chromatography R
f
means
(a) Retardation factor (b) Reduced formula
(c) Reduction factor (d) Retardation frequency
23. Statements regarding Chromatography are given below. Identify True or False statements and
give your answer.
(1) Silica - gel is used as adsorbent in TLC. (2) R
f
= Retardation factor.
(3) Adsorbent is a mobile phase. (4) Chromaplate is not a part of TLC.
(a) TTFF (b) TTTT (c) TFFT (d) TFTF
24. In Chromatography, ninhydrin solution is used to detect
(a) amino acids (b) ethers (c) hydrocarbons (d) glucose
25. In a method of detecting C and H, organic compound is heated with ...
a) CuO (b) Ca(OH)
2
(c) CuSO
4
(d) All of these
26. In a detection of C and H, the water produced is tested by
(a) CuO (b) Ca(OH)
2
(c) CuSO
4
(d) All of these
27. Lassaigne test is used for detection of
(a) N (b) S (c) P (d) All of these
28. Lassaigne test is used for detection of
(a) S (b) P (c) X (d) All of these
29. The basic principle of Lassaigne test is
(a) to convert elements present in compound from covalent form to ionic form.
(b) to convert elements present in compound from ionic form to covalent form.
(c) to convert elements present in compound into their complexes
(d) None of the above.
30. The prussian blue colour obtained in Lassaigne test is due to
(a) Na
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (b) Fe
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (c) CuSO
4
(d) FeSO
4
86
31 In the Lassaigne test of detection of Sulphur, black precipitates are obtained. These are due
to the formation of
(a) Na
2
S (b) (CH
3
COO)
2
Pb (c) PbS (d) CH
3
COOH
32 What colour is observed when Lassaigne solution of Suplhur containing compound is
treated with Sodium Nitroprusside ?
(a) Red (b) Violet (c) Blue (d) Brown
33 In a Lassaigne test of Sluphur containing compound the violet colour is due to the
(a) [Fe(CN)
5
NO]
2-
(b) [Fe(CN)
5
NOS]
4-
(c) Na
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (d) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
]
34 During the estimation of C and H, the CO
2
produced id absorbed in
(a) KOH (b) An.CaCl
2
(c) CuO (d) O
2
35 During the estimation of C and H, the H
2
O produced id absorbed in
(a) KOH (b) An.CaCl
2
(c) CuO (d) O
2
36 In Kjeldahls method for the estimation of nitrogen, the formula used is
(a)
1.4
% =
NV
N
W
(b)
%
1.8
=
NV
N
(c)
1.4
% =
VW
N
N
(d)
1.4
% =
NW
N
V
37. An organic compound on analysis give the following result : C = 54.5%, O = 36.4%, H =
9.1%. The empirical formula of the compound is
(a) CH
3
O (b) C
2
H
4
O (c) C
3
H
4
O (d) C
4
H
8
O
38. An organic compound gave the following results on analysis. C = 53.3%, H = 15.6%, N =
31.1%. Find molecular formula of compound. (Molecular Weight = 45)
(a) C
2
H
5
N
2
(b) C
2
H
7
N (c) C
2
H
5
N (d) C
2
H
6
N
39. An organic compound contains C, H and O in the proportion of 6 : 1 : 8 by weight,
respectively. Find its molecular formula (V.D = 30)
(a) CH
2
O (b) C
3
HO (c) C
2
H
4
O
2
(d) CH
4
O
40. 64 gm of organic compound contains 24 gm C, 8 gm H and the rest oxygen. What is the
empirical formula of the compound ?
(a) CH
2
O (b) CH
4
O (c) C
2
H
4
O (d) C
2
H
8
O
2
41. 0.2595 gm of organic substance gave 0.35 gm BaSO
4
. Find % S in the substance.
(a) 18.5 (b) 182 (c) 17.5 (d) 175
42. Find the incorrect formula
(a)
12 100
%
44

=
m
C
V
(b)
2
1
12 100
%
44

=
m
C
m
(c)
2
1
2 100
%
18

=
m
H
m
(d)
28 100
%
22400

=
V
N
m
87
43. On complete combustion, 0.246g organic substance gave 0.198 g CO
2
and 0.1014 g H
2
O.
Find % of C and H in compound ?
(a) 4.58, 21.95 (b) 21.95, 4.58 (c) 19, 21 (d) 21, 19
44. Which of the following is the method of estimating nitrogen in organic Compound ?
(a) Dumas method (b) Kjeldahlis method (c) Both (A) & (B) (d) Neither(a) nor (b).
45. In the Dumas method nitrogen containing organic compound is first heated with
(a) O
2
(b)CuO (c) CO
2
(d) CuO and CO
2
46. In Dumas method the gaseous mixture produced is passed through KOH
(aq)
. As a result of
this _______ is absorbed in KOH
(aq)
.
(a) CO
2
(b) O
2
(c) NO
x
(d) All of these
47. A device called nitrometer is used in
(a) Dumas method (b) Kjeldahls method (c) Carius method (d) Leibigs method
48. In Dumas method the formula of % N is
(a)
28 100
22400

m
v
(b)
28 V 100
22400 m

(c)
14 V 100
22400 m

(d)
14 100
22400

m
v
49. In Dumas method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.3g of an organic compound gave 50 ml of
nitrogen collected at 300K temperature and 715 mm pres sure. Calculate the % of N in the
compound. ( Aqueous tension at 300K = 15mm)
(a) 20.8 % (b) 17.46 % (c) 34.5% (d) 25 %
50. In Kjeldahls method, when nitrogenous organic compound is heated with con. sulphuric acid,
the nitrogen is converted into
(a) (NH
4
)
2
SO
4
(b) NH
4
OH (c) NH
3
(d) None
51. Kjeldahls method cannot be applied to
(a)
N
(b) N: N: (c)
No
2
(d) None of these
52. Kjeldahls method, can be applied to
(a) CH
3
CH
2
NH
2
(b) CH
3
CH
2
NO
2
(c)
N = N - Cl
(d) None of these
53. During estimation of nitrogen present in organic compound by Kjeldahls method, the ammonia
cvolved from 0.5 gm of the compound neutralized 10 ml of 1 M H
2
SO
4
Calculate the %N in
the compound.
(a) 65 (b) 28 (c) 56 (d) 30
54. In the estimation of halogen by Carius method, the halogen of the organic compound is
converted into
(a) Silver nitrate (b) Silver halide (c) Silver Sulphate (d) Silver oxide
88
55. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.15 gm of an organic compound gave 0.12gm of
AgBr. Calculate % of bromine in the compound.
(a) 34.04% (b) 17.02% (c) 53.19% (d) 18.8%
56. In estimation of Sulpur in organic compound, the amount of sulphur is determined in terms of
(a) H
2
SO
4
(b) BaSO
4
(c) SO
2
(d) SO
3
57. In estimation sulphur, 0.157gm of an organic compound gave 0.4813 gm of barium Sulphate.
Calculate % S in compound.
(a) 24.10 % (b) 14.20% (c) 42.10% (d) 38%
58. In estimation of phosphorous present in organic compound, the amount of phosphorous is
determined in terms of
(a) Phosphoric acid (b) Ammonium molybdate
(c) Ammonium phospho molybdate (d) Magnesium pyrophosphate
59. Suggest a method to purify camphor containing impurity of comman salt.
(a) Crystallisation (b) Fractional crytallisation
(c) Sublimation (d) Distillation
60. Suggest a method to separate a mixture of ortho and para nitro aniline.
(a) Distillation (b) Chromotography
(c) Differential extraction (d) All of these
61. Suggest a method to separate a mixture of methanol and acetone.
(a) Simple distillation (b) Fractional distillation
(c) Fractional Crystallisation (d) Differential extraction
62. Suggest a method to purify napthalene.
(a) Sublimation (b) Crystallisation
(c) Differential extraction (d) Distillation
63. Suggest a method to separate a mixture containing acetone and ethanol
(a) Sublimation (b) Crystallisation
(c) Differential extraction (d) Distillation
64. Which of the following compound will not give positive Lassaigne test for nitrogen ?
(a) Hydrazine (b) urea (c) ethylamine (d) nitroethane.
65. Name a suitable technique of separation of a mixture of calcium sulphate and camphor.
(a) Crystallisation (b) Sublimation (c) Distillation (d) None
66. The fragrance of flower is due to the presence of some steam volatile organic compounds
called essential oils. These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are
miscible with water vapour. A suitable method for the extraction of these oils from the flower
is,
(a) Distillation (c) Crystallisation
(c) Distillation under reduced pressure (d) Steam distillation
89
67. Kjeldahls method can not be used for estimation of nitrogen in ...
(a) DNA (b) RNA (c) a and B (d) Neither a and b
68. Name the method used to separate a mixture of iodine and sodium chloride ?
(a) Crystallisation (b) Fractional Crystallisation
(c) Sublimation (d) Steam distillation
69. What conclusion can be drawn if red colour is obtained during Lassaigne test ?
(a) Pressure of S (b) Pressure of N
(c) both a and b (d) Neither a and b
70. What is the formula of iron (III) hexacyanoferrate (II) ?
(a) Fe
4
[Fe(CN)
6
]
3
(b) Fe
3
[Fe(CN)
6
]
4
(c) Fe
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (d) Fe
3
[Fe(CN)
6
]
71. Two volatile liquids A and B differint their boiling points by 15K. Which process can be used
for their sepration ?
(a) Fractional distillation (b) Steam distillation
(c) Distillation under reduced pressure (d) Simple distillation
72. An organic compound from its aqueons solution can be seprated by
(a) Distillation (b) Solvent extraction
(c) Fractional distillation (d) Steam distillation
73. The ammonia evolved from the treatment of 0.3gm of organic compound for estimation of
nitrogen was passed in 100ml of 0.1m H
2
SO
4
. The excess acid required 20ml 0.5 M NaOH
for complete neutralisation The organic compound is...
(a) acetamide (b) benzamide (c) urea (d) thiourea
74. Which of the following compound gives blood red colouration when its Lassaigne extract is
treated with alkali and ferric chloride ?
(a) Thiourea (b) Diphenyl Sulphide
(c) Phenyl hydrazine (d) Benzomide
75. Which of the following compounds will give Lassaigne test for nitrogen ?
(a) NH
2
NH
2
(b) NaNO
3
(c) NH
4
Cl (d) NaCN
76. Which of the folowing will give bloodred colour while doing Lassaigne test for nitrogen
(a) urea (b) Benzene sulphonic acid
(c) Hydrazine (d) p-aminobenzene sulphonic acid
77. Name the method used to determine the molecular weight of organic compound.
(a) Silver salt method (b) Chloroplatinate salt method
(c) Mass spectrometery (d) All of these
78. While detecting phosphorous in organic compound yellow colour is obtained due to the
formation of
(a) (NH
4
)
2
MoO
4
(b) (NH
4
)
3
PO
4
(c) (NH
4
)
3
PO
4
. 12MoO
3
(d) MgNH
4
PO
4
90
79. 0.306 gm of the silver salt of a monobasic organic acid yeilds 0.216gm of Silver on ignition.
Find molecular weight of the acid.
(a) 46 (b) 23 (c) 122 (d) 20
80. 1.026gm of the silver salt of a tribasic organic acid gave an ignition 0.648gm silver. Find
molecular weight of the acid.
(a) 148 (b) 192 (c) 208 (d) 234
81. 0.3557gm of the Platinum salt of monoacidic organic base yeilds 0.117gm of platinum. Find
molecular weight of base
(a) 95 (b) 91.45 (c) 98 (d) 410
82. Chromatography is used for the purification of
(a) solids (b) liquids (c) gases (d) All of these
83. Which of the following reagents is used for detection of unsaturation in alkenes.
(a) NaOH + CaO (b) cold dil, alkaline kMnO4
(c) Cl
2
/hv (d) KOH / EtOH
84. The presence of halogen in an organic compound is detected by
(a) Iodo form test (b) Silver mirror test
(b) Beilsteins test (d) Millons test
85. Which of the following pairs has the same percentage of carbon ?
(a) CH
3
COOH & C
2
H
5
OH (b) C
6
H
12
O
6
& C
12
H
22
O
11
(c) HCOOCH
3
& C
12
H
22
O
11
(d) CH
3
COOH & C
6
H
12
O
6
86. An organic compound having molecular mass 60 is found to contain C=20%, H=6.67% and
N=46.67% while rest is oxygen. On heating it gives NH
3
along with a solid residue. The solid
residue give violet colour with alkaline CuSO
4
, the compound is
(a) CH
3
NCO (b) CH
3
CONH
2
(c) (NH
2
)
2
CO (d) CH
3
CH
2
CONH
2
87. How will you separate a solution of benzene and chloroform ?
(a) Sublimation (b) Filtration (c) Distillation (d) Crystallisation
88. When 32.25 gm ehtyl chloride dehydrohalogenated it gives 50% alkene. What is the mass of
product ?
(a) 7 gm (b) 14 gm (c) 21 gm (d) 28gm
89. How much sulphur is present in organic compound if on analysis 0.53gm of this compound
gives 1.158gm of BaSO
4
?
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40%
90. Which method can be used to separate a mixture of KCl and KClO
3
?
(a) Crystallisation (b) Fractional Crystallisation
(c) Sublimation (d) Distillation
91. Middle tons test is used to detect
(a) N (b) P (c) X (d) S
91
92. An organic compound weighing 4.337mg yielded 10.35mg of CO
2
and 3.42mg of H
2
O on
oxidation with CuO. Calculate the empirical formula of the compound.
(a) C
3
H
5
(b) C
3
H
5
O (c) C
4
H
6
O (d) C
10
H
16
O
3
93. An organic compound contains 69% C and 4.8% H, the remainder being oxygen. Calculate
the masses of CO
2
and H
2
O produced when 0.2gm of this substance is completely
combusted.
(a) 0.506g & 0.864g (b) 0.0864g & 0.0506g
(c) 0.506g & 0.0684g (d) 0.506g & 0.0864g
94. 0.3780 gm of chlorine containing organic compound gave 0.5740gm of silver chloride in
Carius estimation. Calculate the % of Cl.
(a) 37.56% (b) 40.5% (c) 35.7% (d) 31.23%
95. In the estimation of sulphur by Carius method, 0.468gm of organic compound gave 0.668gm
BaSO
4
. Calculate % of S.
(a) 19.6 (b) 21.7 (c) 17.9 (d) 16.9
In each of the following questions, a statement (A) is given followed by Reason (R).
Give your answers as
(A) If both A and R are true, and reason is the true explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both A and R are true, but R is not the true explanation of the A.
(C) If A is true but R isfalse.
(D) If both A and R are false.
96. A: Vapour density and density both are same
R: Molecular weight is twice the density
97. A: Lassaignes extract is boiled with dil.HNO
3
before testing for halogens by AgNO
3
.
R: CN
-
and S
2-
present in Lassaigne extract interfere with the test of halide ions by silver
nitrate.
98. A: Lassaignes test is shown by diazonium salts.
R: Diazonium salts are volatile.
99. A: Essential oils are purified by steam distillation.
R: Essential oils are volatile and are insoluble in water.
100. A: Sulphur present in organic compound can be estimated quantitavelyby Carius method.
R: Sulphur is separated easily from other atoms in the molecules and gets precipitated as light
yellow solid.
92
1 C 26 C 51 D 76 D
2 C 27 D 52 A 77 D
3 A 28 D 53 C 78 C
4 B 29 A 54 B 79 A
5 D 30 B 55 A 80 B
6 B 31 C 56 B 81 B
7 C 32 B 57 C 82 D
8 C 33 B 58 D 83 B
9 B 34 A 59 C 84 C
10 B 35 B 60 B 85 D
11 A 36 A 61 B 86 C
12 A 37 B 62 A 87 C
13 D 38 B 63 D 88 A
14 D 39 C 64 A 89 C
15 C 40 B 65 B 90 B
16 A 41 A 66 D 91 D
17 B 42 A 67 C 92 D
18 A 43 B 68 C 93 D
19 C 44 C 69 C 94 A
20 A 45 D 70 A 95 A
21 D 46 A 71 A 96 D
22 A 47 A 72 B 97 A
23 A 48 B 73 C 98 D
24 A 49 B 74 A 99 A
25 A 50 A 75 D 100 C
Answer Key
93
HINTS
11. 200ml of compound = 1 gm \ 22400 ml of compound = 112 gm
17.
35.5 0.287
% 100
143.5 0.099
= Cl
39. Elements No. of moles Simple ratio
C 6/12 = 0.5 1
H 1/1 = 1 2
O 8/16 = 0.5 1
\
E.F = CH
2
O
M.W = 2VD =60
\
n = 2
\
M.F = C
2
H
4
O
2
41.
32 0.35
% 100 18.52
233 0.2595
= = S
49. P = 715 - 15 = 700 mm
2
273 700 50
41.9
300 760

= =
Vol of N at STP ml
\
28 41.9 100
% 17.46%
22400 0.3

= =
N
53. 1M of 10 ml H
2
SO
4
= 1 M of 20ml NH
3
1000ml of 1M NH
3
= 14 g nitrogen
3
4
20 ml of 1M NH g nitrogen
1 20
=
1000
14 20 100
% 56.0%
1000 0.5

= =
N
73. let the vol of acid left unused = V ml of 0.1 MH
2
SO
4
0.1 2 20 0.5 1 \ = V
50 \ = V ml = 50 ml of .01 m H
2
SO
4
100 50 \ = - Vol of acid used
1.4 2 50 0.1
% 46.6
0.3
28
% 100 46.6
60

= =
= =
N
N in urea
79.
108 0.306
107 46
0.216
MW

= - =
81.
1 195 0.3557
410
2 0.117
MW

= -

94
E:\JEE NEET\Bhaveshbhai\07012013\ Unit 20 summary eng 1 to 11 pg
The basic constituent of organic compound is carbon.
The basic organic copounds in organic chemistry are Hydrocarbon,
Hydrocarbon compounds comprise of carbon and Hydrogen.
Variety of organic compound are obtained by subtitution of one or more hydrogen atom of
hydrocarbon by element like nitrogen, oxygen, sulpher and halogen OR by functional group.
So, organic chemistry consists of hydrocarbon and large variety of compounds obtained from the
subsitution of their hydrogens.
Tetravalency of Carbon :
The atomic number of carbon is 6 and hence, the number of electron in carbon is 6, so the
electronic configuration is 1s
2
2s
2
2p
x
1
, 2p
y
1
2p
z
0
. Here the number of electrons in its outermost orbit
are four. In order to attain a stable electronic configuration like inert gs carbon atom should either
lose four electrons or gain four electrons. To achive this, a very large amount of energy is required.
Consequently it cannot form C
4+
or C
4-
ion. However, the carbon atom shares four electrons with
some elements and forms four covelentbonds.
Thus a carbon atom forms four covalent bonds in its compounds. For example, a molecule of
methane (CH
4
) is formed when four electrons of carbon are shared with four hydrogen atoms as
shwon below :
C + 4H
x
C H H
H
H
Methane
x
x
x
x
or
H H
H
H
C
Eour C-H bonds are
formed by sharing of
electrons
In a similar manar carbon can complete its octet by sharing its valence electrons with the
electrons of atoms as well. This charactersitc of carbon atom by virtue of which it forms four covalent
bonds is generally referred to as tetracovalency of carbon.
Catenation : a unique property of carbon :
One of the remarkable property of carbon atom is its unique capacity to form bonds with
other carbon atoms. This property of forming bonds with atoms of the same element is called
catenation. Carbon shows maximum catenation in its group (group 14) in the periodic table. This is
because of the larger strength of carbon to carbon bond as compared to that of other atoms. For
example, C-C bond is very strong (335 kJ mol
-1
) in comparison to Si-Si bond (220 kJ mol-1) or
Ge-Ge bond (167 kJ mol-1). As a result, carbon atoms can link with each other to form either linear
UNIT : 20 BASIC PRINCILPLES OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
Important Points
95
chains of various lengths of branched chains and even rings of different sizes as shown below :
12.3. HYBRIDISATION AND SHAPES OF MOLECULES :
We have studied in unit 4 that carbon atom forms four equivalent tetrahedral bonds because
of hybridisation of its valence orbitals. This can explain the shapes of organic molecules. Let us recall
the shapes of simple organic molecules on the basis of concept of hybridisation.
1. sp
3
Hybridisation and shapes of alkanes
The carbon atoms in alkanes involve sp
3
hybridisation. As a result, the four bonds formed by
each carbon atom are directed towards the corners of a regular tetrahedron. For example, in case
of methane (CH
4
), the carbon atom involves sp
3
hybridisation and forms four sp
3
hybrid orbitals.
Each of these forms sigma bond by overlapping with 1s - orbitals of hydrogen. The four bonds are
directed towards the corners of a regular tetrahedron as shown in Fig. The H-C-H bond angle in
this molecule is 109
0
28 (or 109.5
0
)
C
C
(Ground state)
(Excited state)
sp hybridisation
form four hybrid orbitals
3
2s
2p
U
U
U
U
U
UU

(a) (b) (c)
i
96
The structure of methane molecule is also shown in Fig.____
In ethane (H3C-CH3) molecule, each carbon atom undergoes sp3 hybridisation. One of the
four sp3 hybridorbitals of one carbon atom overlaps axially with simillar orbital of the other carbon
atom to form C-C sigma bond. The remaining three hybrid orbitals belonging to both the carbon
atoms overlap axially with the half filled orbitals of Hydrogen atoms to form C-H sigma bonds as
shown in Fig.___

Fig. 12.2 Shape of ethane.
Thus, in ethene, C-C bond length is 154 pm and each C-H bond length is 109 pm.
2. sp2 Hybridisation and shapes of alkenes
Alkenes are planar molecules and the carbon atoms of the C=C bond involve sp2-hybridisation.
Carbon atom has four unpaired electrons in the excited state. The three orbitals (one 2s and two 2p)
get hybridised to form three sp2 hybrid orbitals leaving one 2pz unhybridised orbital.
C
C
(Ground state)
(Excited state)
sp hybridisation
3
2s
2p
U
U
U
U
U
UU
Unhybridised
orbiral
U
U
For example in the case of ethylene one sp2 hybrid orbital of one carbon atom overlaps with
sp2 hybrid orbital of the other carbon atom to form C-C sigma bond. The remaining two sp2 -
hybrid orbitals of both the carbon atoms overlap with 1 s-orbitals of two hydrogen atoms to form
C-H sigma bonds.
The unhybridised orbital (shown dotted) participates in the formation of pi bond. The orbital
structure of ethylene has been shown in fig.______
Fig. 12.3. Orbital structure of ethylene.
97
3. sp Hybridisation and shape of alkynes :
The two carbon atoms constituting the triple bond are sp-hybridised. In this, carbon undergoes
sp-hybridisation forming two sp-hybrid orbitals. The two 2p-orbitals (2p, and 2pz) remain
unhybridised.

C
C
(Ground state)
(Excited state)
sp hybridisation
3
2s
2p
U
U
U
U
U
UU
two unhybridised orbitals
U
U
For example, in the case of acetylene, one sp-hybrid orbital of one carbon atom overlaps with
sp-hybridorbital of the second carbon atom and forms C-C sigma bond. The remaining sp-
hybridorbital of each C-atom forms sigma bond with H-atom. Each of the unhybridised orbitals of
one carbon atom forms bond with the second carbon atom so that there are two bonds in acetylene
molecule. The structure of acetylene (ethyne) is shown in Fig. 12.4
Fig. 12.4 Structure of acetylene.
Sigma and pi bonds
We have seen that ethylene molecule contains two bonds between carbon atoms, one is sigma
bond and the other is pi bond. Similarly, in acetylene, there is one sigma, and two pi bonds between
carbon atoms. We have already learnt about these types of bonds in Unit 6.
Sigma bond is formed by the end to end overlapping of bonding orbitals along the internuclear
axis. This overlapping is known as head on overlap or axial overlap. For example, the overlapping
of sp2 hybrid orbitals of two carbon atoms in ethylene or sp hybrid orbitals of two carbon atoms in
acetylene.
Pi bond is formed by the sidewise overlapping and the half filled atomic orbitals of bonding
atoms. This overlap is known as sidewise overlap or lateral overlap. In this case the atomic orbitals
overlap in such a way that their axes remain parallel to each other and perpendicular to the internuclear
and below the plane of the participating atoms.
98
Sigma bonds are stronger bonds than bonds because during the formation of bond, the
overlapping of orbitals takes place to a larger extent.
Important features of Bonds : As already discussed, the double bond in ethylene molecule consists
of a bond and a bond. The bond has some important features as listed below :
1. In ethylene, as discussed earlier, the two 2p (unhybridised) orbitals participating in the bond
are parallel to each other. For the proper sidewise overlap of these 2p-orbitals, all the atoms in
C2H4 molecule must be in same plane. Thus, the formation of bond restricts the molecule into a
plannar shape. Therefore, ethylene is a flat or planar molecule.
2. Due to the bond formed by sidewise overlap of 2p-orbitals, the rotation of one CH2 fragment
with respect to other will be hindered. The rotation of one carbon atom throug h 900 will break the
bond because in that case, the unhybridised 2p-orbitals become perpendicular to each other and no
sidewise overlap is possible. Hence, to rotation about the double bond is restricted or hindered. As
a result, there are two distinct forms of molecules such as C
2
H
2
Cl
2
as shown ahead :
7.5 Functional Groups :
An atom or group of atoms that determines the characteristic reaction of an organic compound
is known as functional group. In alkane hydrocarbons due to their saturation they do not contain
functional group for their characteristic reaction. The different compounds have the same functional
group under similar reactions.
Class of Functional IUPAC Examples TUPAC Name
compound group group
prefix/suffix
Alkane R-H -/ ane CH
3
-CH
3
Ethane
CH
3
-CH
2
-CH
3
Propane
CH
3
-CH
2
-CH
2
-CH
3
Butane
Alkane C=C -/ ene CH
2
=CH
2
Eshene
CH
3
CH=CH
2
Propane
CH
3
CH
2
CH=CH
2
But-1-yne
CH
3
CH=CH-CH
3
But-2-yne
Alkyne -C = C- -/ yne HC = CH Ethyne
CH
3
-C=CH Propyne
CH
3
CH
2
C=CH But-1-ene
CH
3
C=C CH
3
But-2-ene
Halide -X halo/- CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CI 1-Chloropropane
(-F,-CI,-Br,-I) CH
3
CH CH
3
2-Chloropropane
CI
CH
3
CHCH
2
CH
2
CH
3
1-Chloropentane
CI
Ether -OH alkoxy/- CH
3
OH Methanol
CH
3
CH
2
OH Ethanol
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH Propan-1-ol
CH
3
CHCH
2
OH Propan-2-ol
99
Class of Functional IUPAC Examples TUPAC Name
compound group group
prefix/suffix
Ether -O- alkoxy/- CH
3
-O-CH
3
Methoxy methane
CH
3
-O-CH
2
CH
3
Methoxy ethane
CH
3
-CH
2
-O-CH
2
-CH
3
Ethoxy ethane
Aldehyde -CHO -/ al HCHO Methanal
CH
3
CHO Ethanal
CH
3
CH
2
CHO Propanal
Ketone -CO- -/one CH
3
COCH
3
Propanone
CH
3
COCH
2
CH
3
Butan-1-one
CH
3
CH
2
COCH
2
CH
3
Pentan-3-one
Carboxylic -COOH -/oic Acid HCOOH Methanoic acid
Acid CH
3
COOH Ethanoic acid
CH
3
CH
2
COOH Propanoic acid
Estar -COOR -/oate HCOOCH
3
Methyl methanoate
CH
3
COOCH
3
Methyl ethanoate
CH
3
COOCH
2
CH
3
Ethyl ethanoate
Amide -CONH
2
-/ amide CH
3
CONH
2
Ethanamide
CH
3
CH
2
CONH
2
Propanamide
Amine -NH
2
(1
0
)-/ amine CH
3
NH
2
Methanamine
(Primary) CH
3
CH
2
NH
2
Ethanamine
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
NH
2
1-Propanamine OR
Propan-1-amine
CH
3
CH CH
3
NH
2
Propan-2-amine
-NH- (2
0
)-/ amine CH
3
NHCH
3
N-methyl methanamine
(Primary) CH
3
CH
2
NHCH
3
N-methyl ethanamine
CH
3
-N- (3
0
)-/amine CH
3
NCH
2
CH
3
N-N dimethyl ethamine
(Tertiary) CH
3
CH
3
N CH
3
N-N dimethyl
methamine
Nitro -NO
2
nitro/- CH
3
CH
2
NO
2
Nitroethane
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
NO
2
1-Nitropropane
CH
3
CHCH
3
NO
2
2-Nitropropane
Cynide -C=N -/ nitrile CH
3
CN Ethane nitrile
OR CH
3
CH
2
CN Propane nitrile
Nitrile CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CN Butane nitrile
100
7.6 Homologus Series
A series of organic compounds having same functional group in which two successive members
differ from each other by fixed number of carbon and hydrogen (CH
2
). Such series of organic
compounds is known as homologus series. Almost all types of organic compounds form homologus
series and they have similar chemical characteristics e.g. CH
4
, C
2
H
6
, C
3
H
6
, C
3
H
8
etc.
7.6.1. Characteristics of Homologus series :
(1) The elements and functional group present in compound of a homologus series are same.
(2) Each member of the series can be expressed by common molecular formula. For example, each
member of alkane series can be indicated by a common formula C
n
H
2n+2
.
(3) The difference between the molecular formula of two successive members of the series will be of
CH
2
.
(4) The difference between the molecular weights of two successive members of a series will be of 14
amu (u).
(5) The name of each member of a series begins either with a common prefix orsuffix.
(6) The chemical reactions of each member of series are same are same if the functional group present
in them is same and their methods of preparation are also the same.
(7) As the number of carbon and hydrogen atoms increase with member of a given series the molecular
mass of the members increases. Hence there will be gradual change in the properties of the members
which depend upon their molecular mass which include boliling point, melting point, density, solubility
etc. The characteristics homologous series of alkane compounds are given in table 7.2.
Characteristics of homologous series of alkanes.
Name of Molecular Molecular Melting Bolling State
Alkane formula mass poing
0
K polint
0
K
gram/mole
Methane CH
4
16 91 109 gas
Ethane C
2
H
6
30 87 184 gas
Propane C
3
H
8
44 83 231 gas
Butane C
4
H
10
58 135 272.5 gas
Pentane C5H12 72 143 309 gas, liquid
7.7 Isomerism
The organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are called
isomers. This phemenon is called isomerism. The isomers have been classified mainly in two types
depending upon their differences in structural aspects :
(1) Structural isomerism
(2) stereo isomerism
7.7.1. Structural Isomerism : Structural isomerism is a result of different arrangements of atoms or groups
of atoms in molecules or organic compounds having same molecular formula. Hence, the organic
compounds having same molecular formula but different structures are called structural isomers and
and phenomenon as structural isomerism. There are five different types of structural isomerism :
101
(1) Skeletal or chain isomerism (2) Position isomerism (3) Functional group isomerism (4) Metamerism
(5) Tautomerism.
(1) Skeletal or chain isomerism : The organic compounds having same molecular formula but
arrangement of carbon atoms in a linear or branch are different ; such type of isomerism is called
chain isomerism. Methane, ethane and propane do not exhibit chain isomeism but butane has two
isomers. Pentane has three isomers, hexane has give isomers. For example three isomers of pentane
are given below.
(i) n-pentane CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
3
(ii) 2-methyl butane CH
3
CHCH
2
CH
3
CH
3
(iii) 2,2 dimethyl propane
CH
3
C CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
(2) Position isomerism : Organic compounds have same molecular formula and similar carbon
chain but differ in the position of functional group. This type of isomerism is called position isomerism.
For example,
(i) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
NH
2
1-Propanamine
CH
3
CHCH
3

NH
2
2-Propanamine
(ii) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
OH Pentan-1-ol
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CHCH
3
Pentan-2-ol

OH
2
CH
3
CH
2
CHCH
2
CH
3

OH
2
Pentan-3-ol
(3) Functional group isomerism : The organic compounds having the same molecular formula but
different functional groups are called functional isomers and this phenomenon is called functional
group isomerism ; for example,
(i) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH CH
3
-O-CH
2
CH
3
propan-1-ol methoxy ethane
(ii) CH
3
CH
2
CHO CH
3
-CO-CH
3
propanal propanone
(iii) CH
3
CH
2
COOH CH
3
-COO-CH
3
propanoic acid methyl ethanoate
110
mirror\Desktop\\CHEMISTRY\Unit - 9 Chemistry Apurav (2nd Proof)
M.C.Q.
1. Which type of bond can carbon form?
(a) ionic (b) covalent (c) metallic (d) vanderwals
2. Why carbon cannot form C
+4
or C
-4
ion ?
(a) require high ionization enthalpy (b) require high electron gain enthalpy
(c) both a and b (d) High electron negativity
3. In which state C can show tetra valency ?
(a) ground state (b) transition state (c) excited state (d) all the above
4. How many unpaired electrons are present in ground state?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
5. How many unpaired electrons are present in excited state?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Shape of molecules
6. Which molecule has longest carbon chain ?
(a) Neopentane (b) Isopentane (c) Neohexane (d) n- pentane
7. Which molecule all the least C-C distance ?
(a) C
2
H
6
(b) C
2
H
4
(c) C
2
H
2
(d) C
4
H
8
8. What is the value of C C bond length in ethyne ?
(a) 154 pm (b) 139 pm (c) 134 pm (d) 120 pm
9. p - bonding can occur by the overlapping of _________ .
(a) s - orbitals (b) p-orbitals (c) sp
2
orbitals (d) sp orbitals
10. Look at the figure given below and select the right option.
(a) a and b are sp
3
orbitals and their side wise overlapping forms two p - bonds.
(b) c and d are two p - bonds concentrated around bond axis.
(c) c and d are two electron clouds of one p - bond and it is formed by the side wise overlap
between two p
z
orbitals.
(d) c and d are two s - bonds formed by the lateral overlap of two p
z
orbitals.
11. In C
6
H
6
and C
2
H
4
, the
H C H - -
and are respectively __________ .
(a) 120
o
, 120
o
(b) 120
o
, 90
o
(c) 120
o
, 109
o
28' (d) 180
o
, 190
o
28'
111
12. Which of the following is incorrect for the following structure
(1) C having CH
3
bond in the molecule is in sp
3
hybridisation and so all the sp
3
hybride orbital
and used in s - bonds.
(2) That 4C H and 2C C type bonds are present in the molecule.
(3) The molecule becomes planar triangular because of two s bonds having sp hybridization two
bonds in which bond angle is 120
o
.
(4) The H-C-C angle is 109
o
28 because of sp
3
hybridization of CH
3
group in C in the whole
molecule but the other two C with it are in sp hybridation and so linear and joined by triple
bond.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Hybridization
13. The compound in which carbon uses only its sp
3
hybrid orbitals for bond formation is
(a) HCOOH (b) (NH
2
)
2
CO (c) (CH
3
)
3
COH (d) (CH
3
)
3
CHO
14. The bond between carbon atom (1) and carbon atom (2) in compound N = C CH = CH
2
involves the hybridised carbon as
(a) sp
2
and sp
2
(b) sp
3
and sp (c) sp and sp
2
(d) sp and sp
15. Number of electrons in cyclobutadienyl anion (C
4
H
4
)
2
is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
16. Homolytic fission of C - C bond in ethane gives an intermediate in which carbon is
(a) sp
3
hybridized (b) sp
2
hybridized (c) sp hybridized (d) sp
2
d hybridized
17. A straight chain hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C
8
H
10
. The hybridisation for the carbon
atoms from one end of the chain to the other are respectively sp
3
, sp
2
, sp
2
, sp
3
, sp
2
, sp
2
, sp
and sp. The structural formula of the hydrocarbon would be
(a)
3 2 2
CH C C CH CH CH CH CH - - - = - =
(b)
3 2 2 2
CH CH CH CH CH C C CH CH - - = - - - =
(c)
3 2 2
CH CH CH CH C C CH CH - = - - - =
(d)
3 2
CH CH CH CH CH CH C CH - = - - = -
18. The enolic form of acetone contains
(a) 8sbonds, 2p-bonds and 1 lone pairs (b) 9sbonds, 1p bond and 2 lone pairs
(c) 9s-bonds, 2p-bonds and 1 lone pairs (d) 10s-bonds, 1p-bonds and 1 lone pairs
19. During the addition reaction of ethane, whichtype of change in hybridization of carbon atom takes
place ?
(a) sp
2
to sp
3
(b) sp
3
to sp
2
(c) sp to sp
2
(d) sp
3
to sp
112
20. When the hybridization state of carbon changes from sp
3
to sp
2
and finally to sp, the angle
between the hybridized orbitals
(a) decreases (b) increases and decreases
(c) is not affected (d) increases progressively
21. Match the following : (More than one option in column - II may match with single option in
column-I). Match the hybridization state of below listed carbon atoms.
CH
2
= C = CH CH
2
C ? C CH
2
NH
2
Column - I Column - II
Carbon atoms Hybridization state
(A) C
1
(P) sp
(B) C
2
(Q) sp
2
(C) C
5
(R) sp
3
(D) C
6
(S) dsp
2
(a) A = R B = P C = Q D = P
(b) A = P B = P C = Q D = R
(c) A = R B = P C = S D = P
(d) A = S B = R C = Q D = P
Homologous series
22. What is the responsible for the chemical reaction?
(a) electrons (b) atom
(c) proton (d) reactive functional groups
23. What is the general formula of Homologus series
(a) C
n
H
2n+1
H (b) C
n
H
2n-1
H (c) C
n
H
2n
H (d) C
n
H
2n+2
H
24. In homologus series what is the difference in amu?
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 18
25. As number of C atom in homologus series increases Then which of the following will increases?
(a) B.P/M.P (b) solubility (c) density (d) all
26. Which of the following exist in gas and liquid State?
(a) ethane (b) propane (c) butane (d) pentane
27. Among the following, which isnot an example of a homologous series ?
(a)
3 3 2 3 3 3
CH OH, CH CH OH, CH CH CH OH
(b)
4 2 6 3 8 4 10
CH , C H , C H , C H
(c)
3 3 2 3 2 2
CH CHO, CH CH CHO, CH CH CH CHO
(d)
3 3 3 3 2 3
CH COOH, CH COOCH , CH COOCH CH
28. In homologous series :
(a) Molecular formula is same (b) Structural formula is same
(c) Physical properties are same (d) General formula is same
113
29. Which of the following is the first member of ester homologous series ?
(a) Ethyl ethanoate (b) Methyl ethanoate
(c) Methyl methanoate (d) Ethyl methanoate
30. Which of the following is the triad of a homologous series -
(a) CH
3
NH
2
, (CH
3
)
2
NH, (CH
3
)
3
N (b) C
2
H
5
OH, (CH
3
)
2
CHOH, (CH
3
)
3
COH
(c) Both the above (d) CH
2
= CH
2
, CH
3
CH = CH
2
, C
2
H
5
CH = CH
2
31. What is not true about homologous series ?
(A) All the members have similar chemical properties
(B) They have identical physical properties
(C) They can be represented by a general formula
(D) Adjacent members differ in molecular mass by 1
Isomerism Structural and sterioisomers
32. The total possible number of chain isomers for the molecular formula C5H12 would be
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
33. 2-chlorobutane & 3-chlorobutane are-
(A) Positional isomers (B) Chain isomers (C) Geometrical (D) None
34. Which one of the following pairs are called position isomers
(a) CH
2
(OH) CH
2
COOH & CH
3
- CH (OH) COOH
(B) C
2
H
5
OH & CH
3
OH (c) (C
2
H
5
)
2
CO & CH
3
COCH
2
CH
2
CH
3
(D) All the above
35. Which of the following are isomers -
(A) Ethanol and ethoxy ethane (B) Methanol and methoxy methane
(C) Propanoic acid and ethyl acetate (D) Propionaldehyde and acetone
36. How many aliphatic carbonyl compounds are possible having the molecular formula C
5
H
10
O
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
37. The formula C
4
H
8
O
2
represents
(A) Only an acid (B) Only an ether
(C) Only an alcohol (D) Both ether and alcohol
38. The number of ether metamers represented by the formula C
4
H
10
O is -
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
39. The phenomenon involving the migration of a proton to give two structural isomers in equilibrium
with each other is known is
(A) Matamerism (B) Tautomerism (C) Cis trans isomerism(D) Stereo isomerism
40. In keto-enol tautomerism of dicarbonyl compounds, the enol form is preferred in contrast to the
keto-form, this is due to
(A) Presence of carbonyl group on each side of CH
2
(B) Resonance stabilization of enol form

(C) Presence of methylene group
(D) Rapid chemical exchange.
114
41. The maximum number of structural isomers (acyclic and cyclic) possible for C
4
H
6
are
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
42. The structures (CH
3
)
3
CBr and CH
3
(CH
2
)
3
Br present
(a) chain isomerism (b) position isomerism (c) functional isomerism (d) both (a) and (b)
43. The maximum number of isomers of an alkene with molecular formula C
4
H
8
is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
44. A compound which is not isomeric with diethyl ether is
(a) n-propyl methyl ether (b) 1-butanol
(c) 2 methyl-2-propanol (d) butanone
45. The compound will show
(a) geometrical isomerism (b) optical isomerism
(c) geometrical and optical isomerism (d) neither geometrical nor optical isomerism
46. Which of the following will exhibit optical isomerism?
(a) CH
3
CH
2
COOH (b) CH
3
CH OH COOH
(c) CH
3
CHOH CH
3
(d) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH
47. The compound C
4
H
10
O can show
(a) metamerism (b) functional isomerism
(c) position isomerism (d) all types
48. How many cyclic isomers of C
5
H
10
are possible?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5
50. The pair of structures given below represent
(a) enantiomers (b) diastereomers (c) structural isomers (d) none of the above
51. Which of the following compounds can be optically active?
(a) propionic acid (b) 2-chloropropionic acid
(c) 3-chloropropionic acid (d) chloropropionic anhydride
52. Which one of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism?
(a) CH
3
CHClCOOH (b) HC CCl
(c) ClCH = CHCl (d) ClCH
2
CH
2
Cl
53. Compound having open chain is -
(A) Pentane (B) Isopentane (C) Neopentane (D) All the above
54. In unsaturated compound have
(A) Carbon - carbon double bond (B) Carbon - carbon tripel bond
(C) Carbon - carbon double and triple bond (D) Carbon - oxygen double bond
115
55. Which is an acyclic compound :
(A) Methane (B) Benzene (C) Pyrrole (D) Cyclobutane
56. Match the following :
(A) A p, s, B p C r, s D q
(B) A p, s, B p, q, C r, D s
(C) A p, q, B p, s, C r, s, D p
(D) A p, s, B p, q, C r, s, D p
57. The compound which has one isopropyl group is :
(A) 2,2,3,3-tetramethyl pentane (B) 2,2-dimethyl pentane
(C) 2,2,3-trimethyl pentane (D) 2-methyl pentane
58. How many secondary carbon atoms does methyl cyclopropane have ?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
59. C
5
H
12
gives ... types of alkyl groups.
(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 4
60. The total number of secondary H-atoms in the structure given below are : (CH
3
)
2
CHCH
2
C
2
H
5
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
61. iso-octane contains
(A) 5 primary. one secondary. & two tertiary. C atoms.
(B) 4 prim. 2 sec. & one ter. C atoms.
(C) 5 (1
o
C). one (2
o
C), one (3
o
C) & one (4
o
C) atoms.
(D) 4 (1
o
C). two (2
o
C), one (3
o
C) & one (4
o
C) atoms.
62. Which of the following radicals are bivalent ?
(a) Ethylidene (b) Vinylidene (c) Benzyl (d) Methylidyne
(A) a , d (B) a , b , d (C) a , b (D) a, b, c
119
87. The correct IUPAC name of 2-ethyl-3-pentyne is :
(A) 3-methyl hexyne-4 (B) 4-ethyl pentyne-2
(C) 4-methyl hexyne-2 (D) None of these
88. The name of the compound is -
(A) bicyclo [2.2.1] octane
(B) bicyclo [1.1.1] octane
(C) 1, 4-bismethylenecyclohexane
(D) bicyclo [2.2.2] octane
89. Which of the following structures represents bicyclo [3.2.0] heptane -
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90. The IUPAC name of is -
(A) bicyclo [3.2.0] hexan-2-ol (B) spiro [3.2] hexan-1-ol
(C) spiro [3.2] hexan-4-ol (D) spiro [2.3] hexan-4-ol
91. The IUPAC name of camphor is -
(A) 6-oxo-1,2,2- trimethyl bicyclo [2,2,1] heptane
(B) 1,7,7-trimethyl bicyclo [2,2,1] heptan-2-one
(C) 1,5,5-trimethyl bicyclo [2,1,1] hexan-2-one
(D) 1,7,7-trimethyl bicyclo [2,1,2] heptan-2-one
92. The IUPAC name of compound is -
(A) Bicyclo [2.2.1] hept-2-ene (B) Bicyclo [2.2.1] hept-5-ene
(C) Bicyclo [2.1.2] hept-2-ene (D) Bicyclo [1.2.2] hept-2-ene
93. The IUPAC name of compound is -
(A) Spiro [5.3] nonane (B) Spiro [3.5] nonane
(C) Spiro [5.4] nonane (D) Spiro [4.5] nonane
120
94. Write the correct IUPAC name of the following bond line formula :
(A) N-Methyl N-Ethyl propanamine (B) N-Ethyl N-methyl propane 1-amine
(C) N-Methyl N-propyl ethan 1-amine (D) N-Ethyl N-propyl N-methyl amine
95. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is
(A) 4-methylisopropyl ketone (B) 3-methyl-2-butanone
(C) Isopropylmethyl ketone (D) 2-methyl-3-butanone
96. The IUPAC name of the compound
(A) 3,3 -dimethyl-1-hydroxy cyclohexane (B) 1, 1 dimethyl3 hydroxy cyclohexane
(C) 3,3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol (D) 1,1 - dimethyl - 3- cyclohexanol
97. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is -
(A) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene (B) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene
(C) 1-bromo-3-chlorocylohexene (D) 2-bromo-6-chlorocycohex-1-ene
98. IUPAC name of the compound is
(A) 3-dimethyl amino-3-methyl pentane (B) 3(N,N-trimethyl) 3 - amino pentane
(C) 3, N, N -trimethyl pentane (D) 3, N, N-(dimethyl amino)-3-methyl pentane
99. Choose the correct IUPAC name for
(A) Butan-2-aldehyde (B) 2-Methylbutanal
(C) 3-Methylisobutyraldehyde (D) 2-Ethylpropanal
100. The IUPAC name of the compound is :
(A) 2- chloro-4- N-ethylpentanoic acid
(B) 2- chloro-3- (N, N-diethyl amino)-propanoic acid
(C) 2- chloro-2- oxo diethylamine (D) 2- chloro-2-carboxy-N-ethyl ethane
121
101. The IUPAC name of the compound is :
(A) 4- cyano-4-methyl -2- oxo pentane (B) 2-cyano-2-methyl-4-oxo pentane
(C) 2, 2-dimethyl -4- oxo pentanenitrile (D) 4- cyano-4-methyl-2-pentanone
102. IUPAC name of is :
(A) 4-butyl-2,5-hexadien-1-al (B) 5-vinyloct-3-en-1-al
(C) 5-vinyloct-5-en-8-al (D) 3-butyl-1,4-hexadien-6-al
103. The IUPAC name of is :
(A) 2-methyl-2,4-dihydroxy propane (B) 2,2-dimethyl-4-hydroxy butanol
(C) 2-methyl-2,4-pentane diol (D) 2-hydroxy-4,4-dimethyl butanol-4
104. The IUPAC name of the given compound is -
(A) 2-Bromo-4-carbamoyl-5-chloroformyl-3-formylhexanoic acid
(B) 5-Bromo-3-carbamoyl-2-chloroformyl-4-formylhexanoic acid
(C) 4-Formyl-2-chloroformyl-5-carbamoyl-5-bromohexanoic acid
(D) 2-Chloroformyl-3-carbamoyl-4-formyl-5- bromohexanoic acid
105. The structure of 4-methylpentene-2 is
(a) (CH
3
)
2
CHCH
2
CH = CH
2
(b) (CH
3
)
2
CHCH = CHCH
3
(c) (CH
3
)
2
CHCH
2
CH = CH
2
(d) (CH
3
)
2
C = CHCH
2
CH
3
(a) 1, 2 - epoxy - 3 propanol (b) 1, 2 - oxa - 3 - propanol
(c) 2, 3 - epoxy - 1 - propanol (d) 2, 3 - epoxy allyl alcohol
122
107. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
(a) 5 - carboxy - 3 - oxocyclohexane carboxaldehyde
(b) 2 - carboxy - 5 - formylcyclohexane
(c) 4 - formyl - 2 - oxocyclohexane carboxylic acid
(d) 4- carboxy - 3 oxocyclohexanal
108. Which of the following pair/s have same IUPAC naming
(A) & (B) &
(C) & (D) &
109. The general molecular formula of nitroalkanes is :
(a) CnH
2
nNO
2
(b) Cn + 1 H
2
n + 3 NO
2
(c) Cn + 1 H
2
n NO
2
(d) Cn + 1 H
2
n + 2 NO
2
110. Formula of vinyl methanoate is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(a) 4 - methyl cyclopent - 1 - en - 2 - ol (b) 5 - methyl cyclopent - 2 - en - 1 - ol
(c) 2 - methyl cyclopent - 4 - en - 1 - ol (d) 3 - methyl cyclopent - 1 - en - 2 ol
Reasoning
(A) If both Statement- I and Statement- II are true, and Statement - II is the correct explanation
of Statement I.
(B) If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true but Statement - II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I.
(C) If Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
(D) If Statement - I is false but Statement - II is true.
123
112. Statement I : Ethane and propane are homologues.
Statement II: Ethane and propane belongs to same general formula.
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
113. Statement I : The general IUPAC name of esters is alkyl alkanoate.
Statement II: The simplest ester is HCOOCH3
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
114. Statement I : is called cyclohexancarbonitrile.
Statement II : It is an aromatic compound.
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
115. Statement I : The IUPAC name of CH
3
CH=CHCCH is pent-3-en-1-yne and not pent-
2-en-4-yne.
Statement II : Lowest locant rule for multiple bond is preferred.
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
116. Statement I : The IUPAC name for the compound C
6
H
5
COOCH
2
CH
2
COOH is 3-benzoyloxy
propanoic acid.
Statement II : C
6
H
5
CH
2
O is called benzoyloxy group.
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
117. STATEMENT -1 4-Methylphenol and phenylmethanol are functional isomers.
STATEMENT -2 Isomeric alcohols and phenols have different chemical properties and therefore
they are functional isomers
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
Fission Freeradical Carbocation and anion Electrolf\philic ion and nucleophilic ion
118. Which of the following statements is wrong ?
(A) a tertiary free radical is more stable than a secondary free radical
(B) a secondary free radical is more stable than a primary free radical
(C) atertiary carbonium ion is more stable than a secondary carbonium ion
(D) a primary carbonium ion is more stable than a secondary carbonium ion
119. Carbon free radicals are -
(A) Diamagnetic (B) Paramagnetic (C) Ferromagnetic (D) Non magnetic
120. Arrange the following nucleophiles in the order of their nucleophilic strength
(A) OH > CH
3
COO > OCH > C
6
H
5
O
(B) CH
3
COO < C
6
H
5
O < OCH < OH
(C) C
6
H
5
O < CH
3
COO < CH
3
O < OH
(D) CH
3
COO < C
6
H
5
O < OH< CH
3
O
121. The nucleophilicities of CH3, NH2, OH and F decrease in the order -
(A) CH
3
> NH
2
> OH > F
(B) OH > NH
2
> CH
3
> F
(C) NH
2
> OH > CH
3
> F
(D) CH
3
> OH > F > NH
2
124
122. Which of the following is the strongest nucleophile -
(A) OH (B) CH
3
OH (C) CH
3
S (D) CH
3
O
123. Which of the following contains three pairs of electrons in the valence shell?
(a) carbocations (b) carbanions (c) free radicals (d) none of these
124. Heterolysis of carbon-chlorine bond produces
(a) two free radicals (b) two carbonium ions
(c) two carbanions (d) one cation and one anion
125. The reaction (CH
3
)
3
C Br (CH
3
)C+ + Br is an example of
(a) homolytic fission (b) heterolytic fission
(c) cracking (d) none of the above
126. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity?
(a) F (b) OH (c) CH
3
(d) NH
2
127. Which species represents the electrophile in aromatic nitration?

(a) NO
2
(b) NO
2
+ (c) NO
2
(d) NO
3
128. The most stable carbonium ion among the following is

(a) C
6
H
5
C+ HC
6
H
5
(b) C
6
H
5
C+ H
2
(c) CH
3
+CH
2
(d) C
6
H
5
CH
2
C+H
2
129. Which of the following is the least stable carbanion?
(a) HC C
(b) (C
6
H
5
)
3
C
(c) (CH
3
)
3
C
(d) CH
3
130. Which of the following is the most stable free radical?

(A)
6 5 2 2
C H CH CH
(B)
6 5 3
C H CHCH
(C)
3 2
CH CH
(D)
3 3
CH CHCH
131. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation (carbonium ion)?
(a) CH
3
CH
2
+
(b) (CH
3
)
2
C+H (c) (CH
3
)
3
C+ (d) C
6
H
5
C+ H
2
132. What is the decreasing order of stability of the following ions?
(i) CH
3
C+HCH
3
(ii) CH
3
C+HOCH
3
and (ii) CH
3
C+HCOCH
3
(a) i > ii > iii (b) ii > iii > i (c) iii > i > ii (d) ii > i > iii
133. Find the no. of functional groups and no. of chiral centres respectively
(A) 5, 4 (B) 8, 3 (C) 6, 3 (D) 6, 2
Inductive effect Electromeric effect Resonance and hyperconjugation
134. Decreasing I power of given groups is -
(a) CN (b) NO
2
(c) NH
2
(d) F
(A) b > a > d > c (B) b > c > d > a (C) c > b > d > a (D) c > b > a > d
135. The reaction C
2
H
5
Br + KOH ? C
2
H
5
OH + KBr is an example of
(a) free radical substitution (b) electrophilic substitution
(c) nucleophilic substitution (d) rearrangement reaction
125
136. Which of the following reactions is an example of elimination reaction?
(a) nitration of benzene (b) chlorination of methane
(c) dehydration of ethanol (d) none of these
137. Which of the following will react most readily with bromine?
(a) CH CH (b) CH
2
= CH
2
(c) CH
3
CH = CH
2
(d) CH
3
CH
2
CH
3
138. Propyne and propene can be distinguished by
(a) conc.H
2
SO
4
(b) Br
2
in CCl
4
(c) dil. KMnO
4
(d) AgNO
3
in ammonia
139. Which of the following has the smallest heat of hydrogenation per mole?
(a) 1 - butene (b) trans - 2 - butene (c) cis - 2 - butene (d) 1, 3, butadiene
140. The type of delocalisation involving sigma bond orbitals is called
(a) inductive effect (b) hyperconjugation (c) electromeric effect (d) mesomeric effect
141. Arrangement of (CH
3
)
3
C, (CH
3
)
2
CH , CH
3
CH
2
when attached to benzyl or an unsaturated
group in increasing order of inductive effect is
(a) (CH
3
)
3
C < (CH
3
)
2
CH < CH
3
CH
2
(b) CH
3
CH
2
< (CH
3
)
2
CH < (CH
3
)
3
C
(c) (CH
3
)
2
CH < (CH
3
)
3
C < CH
3
CH
2
(d) (CH
3
)
3
C < CH
3
CH
2
< (CH
3
)
2
CH
142. The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH is:
(a) CH
3
NH
2
< NH
3
< (CH
3
)
2
NH (b) (CH
3
)
2
NH < NH
3
< CH
3
NH
2
(c) NH
3
< CH
3
NH
2
< (CH
3
)
2
NH (d) CH
3
NH
2
< (CH
3
)
2
NH < NH
3
143. The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among the nucleophiles
(1) (2)
3
CH O
-
(3) CN
(4)
(a) (1), (2), (3), (4) (b) (4), (3), (2), (1) (c) (2), (3), (1), (4) (d) (3), (2), (1), (4)
144. Which one of the following represents eclipsed form of ethane
(A)
H H
H
H H
H
(B)
H H
H
H H
H
(C)
H H
H
H H
H
(D) None of these
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
145. Which are the staggered forms of ethane
(1)
HH
H
H
H
H
(2)
H H
H
C
H H
H
C
(3)
H H
H
C
H
H
H
C
(4)
H
H
H
H H
H
146. Among the following the aromatic compound is
(A)
+
(B)
+
(C) (D)
126
147. Which of the following gives most stable carbocation by dehydration
(A) ( ) CHOH CH
2 3
(B) ( ) OH C CH
3 3

(C) OH CH CH
2 3
- (D)
3 2 2 3
CH CH O CH CH - - - -
148. How many carbon atoms in the molecule are asymmetric
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None of these
149. Which of the following compounds will show metamerism
(a)
3 2 5
CH COOC H (b)
2 5 2 5
C H S C H - - (c)
3 3
CH O CH - - (d)
3 2 5
CH O C H - -
150. The C - C bond length of the following molecules is in the order
(a)
2 6 2 4 6 6 2 2
C H C H C H C H > > > (b)
2 2 2 4 6 6 2 6
C H C H C H C H < < <
(c)
2 6 2 2 6 6 2 4
C H C H C H C H > > > (d)
2 4 2 6 2 2 6 6
C H C H C H C H > > >
151. In the reaction a chiral centre is produced. This product would be
(a) Laevorotatory (b) Meso compound (c) Dextrorotatory (d) Racemic mixture
152. Cyclic hydrocarbon molecule A has all the carbon and hydrogen in a single plane. All the
carbon-carbon bonds are of same length less than 1.54, but more than 1.34. The bond angle
will be
(a) 109
o
28' (b) 100
o
(c) 180
o
(d) 120
o
1 b 26 d 51 b 76 b 101 c 126 c 151 d
2 c 27 d 52 c 77 b 102 a 127 b 152 d
3 c 28 d 53 d 78 c 103 c 128 a
4 b 29 c 54 c 79 b 104 b 129 c
5 d 30 d 55 a 80 a 105 b 130 b
6 d 31 b 56 d 81 b 106 c 131 c
7 c 32 a 57 d 82 d 107 c 132 d
8 d 33 a 58 c 83 b 108 d 133 c
9 b 34 c 59 b 84 d 109 b 134 a
10 c 35 d 60 b 85 b 110 c 135 c
11 a 36 d 61 c 86 b 111 b 136 c
12 c 37 a 62 c 87 c 112 b 137 c
13 c 38 b 63 c 88 d 113 b 138 d
14 c 39 b 64 b 89 c 114 c 139 b
15 d 40 b 65 a 90 d 115 a 140 b
16 b 41 d 66 c 91 a 116 c 141 b
17 d 42 d 67 b 92 a 117 c 142 c
18 c 43 c 68 b 93 b 118 d 143 c
19 c 44 d 69 b 94 b 119 b 144 b
20 d 45 c 70 d 95 b 120 b 145 c
21 a 46 c 71 c 96 c 121 a 146 a
22 d 47 d 72 c 97 b 122 c 147 b
23 a 48 d 73 c 98 d 123 a 148 b
24 b 49 a 74 b 99 b 124 d 149 b
25 d 50 c 75 d 100 b 125 b 150 c
ANSWER KEY
127
UNIT : 21 HYDROCARBONS
Important Points
Organic Compounds Containing Only Carbon and hydrogen are Called hydrocarbons. These are
Classified as follows
Hydrocarbons
Alkane Alkene Alkane Arene
C H
n n 2
2 + C H
n n 2
C H
n n 2
2 - C H
n n 2
6 -
C C - C C = C C =
Alternate
SaturatedUnsaturated Unsaturated
C C -
and
C C =
specific unsaturated
Missing Points :-
In this Hydrocabon unit following points are in the syllabus of JEE but not discussed is GSEB Text
Book. So prepare following points.
-: Alkyne :-
(1) Bireh Reduction R CH = CH
2
3
3
Na / NH
CH OH
R CH
2
CH
3
(2) Corey-House Reaction
2
' ' R CuLi R X R R R Cu LiX + - - + - +
Lithium dialkyl Copper (Rand R` maybe same or different)
(3) Franklands Reaction:- 2R X + Zn R R + ZnX
2
(4) Kolbes Electrolysis:-
R COONa R COO Na - - +
+
At anode :-
2
2R COO R R CO 2e - - + +
(5) Pyrolysis or Cracking :- C H CH CH CH
3 8 2 2 4
D
= +
-: Alkenes :-
(1) 2R CHX
2
+ 2Zn R CH = CH R + ZnX
2
(2) CH
2
= CH
2
+ H
2
O
2 4 4
3 2
H SO / HgSO
CH CH OH
Hydration
(3) Baeyer`s Test :- CH

2
= CH
2
4
Cold Alk.
KMnO
CH
2
CH
2
| |
OH OH
128
(4) CH
2
= CH
2
4
Hot Alk.
KMnO
2H COOH
-: Alkyne :-
(1)
HC CH HC C Na R C CH Nax
Na liq NH a R X
- +
- /
3
(2) CH
3
C CH
4
Cold Alk.
Kmno
CH
3
COOH + CO
2
(3) CH
3
C CH
4
Hot Alk.
Kmno
CH
3
COOH + CO
2
(4) HC CH R Mg X R H HC C MgX + - - - + -
-:Arene:-
(1) Wurtz-Fitting Reaction :-
Br
+ 2Na + CH
3
CH
2
Br
ether
CH CH 2 3
+ 2NaBr
(2) CH
3
(CH
2
)
4
CH
3
2 3 2 3
Cr O / Al O
770K
Benzene
+ 3H2
(3)
3 2 5 3
CH ( CH ) CH
n heptone
- -
-
2 3 2 3
Cr O / Al O
770 K
CH3
Toluene
(4)
CH3
2
3
( i ) O
( ii ) Zn / H O
CH C C H CHO
|| || + 2 |
O O CHO
3
Methye Glyoxal Glyoxal
(5)
CH CH 2 3
4
Alk KMnO
373 383K
-
COOH
129
M.C.Q.
(1) Chloroethane reacts with Na in Presence of dry ether. The Product is
(a) Ethane (b) Propane (c) Butane (d) Ethene
(2) Which represents an alkyne ?
(a) C H
5 10
(b) C H
5 12
(c) C H
3 8
(d) C H
4 6
(3) If Sodium Propionate is heated with sodium propionate then what will be the product ?
(a) Ethane (b) Propane (c) Propionic acid (d) Propene
(4) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodalime then what will be the product ?
(a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Propane (d) Butane
(5) The preparation of ethane by electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium acetate is known as ?
(a) Grignard reaction (b) Wurtz reaction (c) Kolbe`s synthesis (d) Frankland reaction
(6) The highest boiling point is expected for
(a) n-butane (b) n- pentane (c) iso-Pentane (d) neo - pentane
(7) Which one of the following has the lowest boiling point
(a) n-butane (b) 2-methyl butane (c) 2-methyl propane (d) n- pentane
(8) Which of the following reactions will not give propane
(a) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
Cl
2
Mg / Ether
H O
(b) CH COCI
3

2
3
CH Mg X
H O
(c) CH CH CH
3 2
- =

3
2 6
B H
CH COOH
(d)
CH CH CH
3 3
- -
OH
2HI
Re d P
(9) Halogenation of alkane is an example of ?

(a) Electrophilic Substitution (b) Nucleophilic substitution
(c) Free redical substitution (d) Addition reaction
(10) When ethyl iodide and propyliodide react with Sodium in presence of ether they form ?
(a) Only One alkane (b) Mix ture of two alkane
(c) Mix ture of three alkane (d) Mix ture of four alkane
(11) CH CH OH CH MgBr oduct
3 2 3
+ Pr .
Product in above reaction is
(a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Propane (d) Butane
(12) LPG is a mixture of ?
(a) CH C H
4 2 6
+ (b) C H C H
3 8 4 10
+ (c)C H C H
2 4 2 2
+ (d) C H C H
6 6 6 12
+
(13) Aqueous solution of the which of following compound on electrolysis gives ethane ?
(a) Sodium formate (b) Sodium acetate (c) Ethanoicacid (d) Ethylacetate
(14) As the number of branches in a chain increases the boiling point of alkane.....
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains same (d) May increases or decreases
130
(15) Give IUPAC name of ( ) ( ) CH C C H
3 2 2 5 2
- -
(a) 2- methy 2-ethylbutane (b) Dimethyl Diethyl methane
(c) 3, 3- dimethyl pentane (d) 2, 2- diethyl propane
(16) Which conformational isomer of ethane is more stable ?
(a) Skew (b) Staggered(Anti) (c) Partially eclipseds (d) Fully eclipsed
(17) Which Conformational isomer of Cyclohexane is more stable ?
(a) Chair (b) Twist boat (c) boat (d) half chair
(18) The number of possible structural isomer of heptane is.
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d)12
(19) Formation of alkane by the action of Zn on alkyl halide is called ?
(a) Frankland`s reaction (b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Cannizzaro reactions (d) Kolbe`s reactions
(20)
C H Cl H
Pd c
2 5 2
+
/
Product. Name the Product
(a) Ethene (b) Ethane (c) Ethyne (d) Methane + Methane
(21)
C H C H C H
k
10 22
900
4 8 6 14
+
Name the reaction
(a) Elimination (b) Addition (c) Pyrolysis (d) Isomerisation
(22) Which alkane is known as Mars Gas
(a) CH
4
(b) C H
2 6
(c) C H
3 8
(d)C H
4 10
(23) n- butane on reacting with bromine in presence of sun light given mainly -----
(a) CH CH2 CH CH Br
3 2 2
- - - (b) CH CH CH Br CH
3 2 3
(c)
CH CH CH Br
|
CH
3 2
3
(d)
CH
|
3
CH C Br
|
CH
3
3
(24) Which one of the following contain iso-propyl group ?
(a) 2,2,3,3-tetramethyl pentane (b) 2- methyl pentane
(c) 2,2,3-trimethyl pentane (d) 3,3-dimethyl pentane
(25) How many Chiral Compounds are possible on monochlorination of 2methyl butane
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
(26) How many moles of
2
O are required for complete combustion of one mole of propane
(a) 3 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 6
(27)
3 3
( )
HCl
CH CH OH CH A
-
2 5
Zn Cu
B
C H OH
In this reaction end product (B) will be
(a) CH
3
CH Cl CH
3
(b) CH CH CH
3 2
= (c) CH CH CH
3 2 3
(d)CH CH OC H CH
3 2 5 3
( )
131
(28) Methyl chloride react with Lithium diethyl Copper to give----
(a) Ethane (b) Propane (c) Butane (d) Propene
(29) Which of the following alkyl bromides may be used for the synthsis of 2,3-dimethyl butane by
Wurtz raection ?
(a) n- propyl bromide (b) iso-propyl bromide (c) n-butyl bromide (d) iso-butyl bromide
(30) The major product formed by monobromination of methyl cyclopentane is-----
(a)
CH Br 2
(b)
CH3
Br
(c)
CH3
Br
Br
(d)
CH3 Br
(31) Alkene usually show which type of reaction ?
(a) Substitution (b) Addition (c) Elimination (d) Rearrangement
(32) When ethene treated with Br
2
in presence of CCl
4
Which compound is formed
(a) 1, 2-dibromoethane (b) 1-bromo-2-chloroethane
(c) Both(A) and (B) (d)1-bromo ethaen
(33) CH CH CI
3 2
Alcoholic
KOH
A.the product is
(a) CH CH OH
3 2
(b) CH CHO
3
(c) CH CH
3 3
- (d) CH CH
2 2
=
(34) When butane 2-ol is heated with H SO
2 4
the major product is
(a) But-1-en (b) But-2-en (c) 2-methyl propene (d) Buta -1, 3-diene
(35) CH CH
2 2
=
2
KMnO4
KOH/ H O
X. In this reaction product X is
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethlene glycol (c) Ethane (d) Ethanoic Acid
(36) In following reaction what will be the major product
CH CH CH HCl
3 2
= + Product
(a) propane (b) 1-chloro propane (c) 2-chloro propane (d) Propanol
(37) = +
3 2
CH CH CH HBr

Peroxide
give major product
(a)1-bromo propane (b) 2-bromo propane (c) propyne (d) propane
(38) when 3-phenyl propene reacts with HBr in the presence of peroxide, the major product form is
(a) 2-bromo-1-phenyl propane (b) 1,2-dibromo-3-phenyl propane
(c) 3-(0-bromo phenyl )propane (d) 1-bromo-3-phenyl propane
(39) Baeyer`s Test is used in the laboratory for
(a) Detection of alcohol (b) Detection of double bonds
(c) Detection of Glucose (d) Detection of amines
(40) Aqueous H
2
SO
4
reacts with 2-methyl-but-1-ene to give predominantly
(a) 2-methyl-butane -1-ol (b) 2-methyl-butane -2ol
(c) Isobutyl Hydrogen sylphate (d) Sec. butyl hydrogen sulphate
132
(41) Dilute aqueous KM O
n 4
reacts with
R CH CH R - = -
to give
(a)
R CHO -
(b)
R COOH -
(c)
R C R
||
O
(d)
R CH CH R
| |
OH OH
(42) Alkene RCH = CH R reacts with Conc. KM O
n 4
to give
(a)
R CH CH R
| |
OH OH
(b)
R COOH -
(c)
R C R
||
O
(d)
R CHO -
(43) Ethylene reacts with Ozone gas to form the compund
(a)
HCHO
(b) C H OH
2 5
(c)
CH O
O
2
CH O 2
(d) CH CHO
3
(44) Cyclopentene on treatment with alkaline KM O
n 4
gives
(a) Cyclopentanol (b) trans Cyclopenta-1, 2-diol
(c) Cis-1, 2-Cyclopentadiol (d) (B) and (C) both
(45) Ethene with acidic KM O
n 4
solution gives
(a) Ethylene glycol (b) Ethylene oxide (c) Formaldehyde (d) Acetaldehyde
(46)
CH CH
| |
Br Br
2 2
Zn
D
+
product, The product is
(a) Ethane (b) Ethene (c) Ethyne (d) Ethyl bromide
(47) The addition of
HBr
to pent-2-ene gives
(a) 2-bromo pentane (b) 3-bromo pentane
(c) Mixture of(A) and (B) (d) 1- bromopentane
(48) Identity B in the following sequence of reactions
CH
3
CH = CHCH
3

3 2
O H O
A B
Zn
(a) 2
3
CH CHO (b) 2
3 3
CH COCH (c) 2CH
3
COOH (d) CH CH CH CH
3 2 2 3
(49) A hydrocarbon reacts with hypochlorous acid to give 1-chloro-2-hydroxy ethane, The hydrocarbon
will be
(a) Methane (b) Ethylene (c) Ethane (d) Ethyne
(50) Identify Z in the series
=
2 3
2
Na CO HBr aq.KOH
2 2 I Excess
CH CH X Y Z
(a) C H I
S 2
(b) CH
3
CH
2
OH (c) CHI
3
(d) CH
3
CHO
(51) What Would be the product when ethene is Oxidised with Baeyer`s reagent ?
(a) CH OH CH OH
2 2
- (b)
H C H
||
O
(c)
H C OH
||
O
(d)CO H O
2 2
+
133
(52)
H C CH CH = CH
|
CH
3 2
3
HBr A. + predominantly product A is
(a)
CH CH CH CH
| |
Br
3 3
CH3
(b)
CH CH CH CH
| |
CH
3 3
3 Br
(c)
CH CH CH CH
|
CH
3 2 2
3
Br
(d)
CH C CH CH
CH
Br
3 2 3
3
- - -
(53) In the reaction - = +
2 5 2
C H CH CH HX product. What is the product
(a)C H CH CH
2 5 2 3
- - (b)C H CH CH X
2 5 2 2
- - -
(c)C H CHX CH
2 5 3
- - (d) CH CHX CH CH
3 2 3
- - -
(54) Addition of HCl to propene in presence of peroxide gives
(a)1-Chloropropane (b) 2-Chloropropane
(c) 3-Chloropropane (d) Chloropropene peroxide
(55) Which unsaturated hydrocarbon on Ozono lysis gives Mixture of
CH CHO
3
, HCHO and OHC CHO -
(a) CH CH C C CH
3 2 3
- - - (b) - - -
2 2 3
CH C CH CH CH
(c)CH CH CH CH CH
3 2
- = - = (d) CH CH CH CH CH
2 2 2
= - - =
(56)
R CH CH X
B H
- =
2
2 6
2 2
H O /OH
-
Y. Final product Y is
(a) R CH CHO - -
2
(b) R CH CH OH - - -
2 2
(c)
R CH CH
| |
OH
2
OH
(d) R CH CH - -
2 3
(57) CH CH CH NOCI P
3 2
- = + . Indentify the product.
(a)
CH CH CH
| |
Cl
3 2
NO
(b)
CH CH CH
| |
NO
3 2
Cl
(c)
NO
|
CH CH CH
|
Cl
3 2 (d)
CH CH CH
| |
NO
2 2 2
Cl
(58) Which of the following sequence of reagents can be used for the Conversion of C H CH CH
6 5 2 3
- -
into C H CH CH
6 5 2
- =
(a) SO CI H O
2 2 2
; (b) SO
2
Cl
2
; alc.KOH (c) Cl
2
/ hn; H
2
O (d) SOCl
2
; alc.KOH
134
(59) The dehydrohalogenation of neopentylbromide mainy gives
(a) 2-methyl-but-1-ene (b) 2-methyl-but-2-ene
(c) But-2-ene (d) 2,2- dimethyl-but-1-ene
(60) 1,3-butadiene (Buta-1,3-diene) reacts with ethylene to form
(a) Benzene (b) Cyclohexane (c) Cyclohexene (d)2,3-dimethyl butane
(61) Which of the following represents the given mode of hybridization SP SP SP SP
2 2
- - - from
left to right
(a)
CH
(b)
CH
(c)
CH2
(d)
CH2
(62) A reagent used to test for unsataration of alkene is
(a) Conc H SO .
2 4
(b) Ammonicals Cu CI
2 2
(c) Ammonicals
3
AgNO (d) Solution Br
2
in CCl
4
(63) The product obtained when Chloroform is heated with Silver powder is
(a) Ethane (b) Ethene (c) Ethyne (d) Chloromethane
(64) What is the Chief product of reaction between Ethylidene dichloride and alc. KOH NaNH /
2
(a) CH CH CI
3 2
- - (b)
CH CH =
(c) CH CH
2 2
= (d) CH CH
3 3
-
(65)
CH CH CH
| |
Br
3 2
Br
NaNH
Liq NH
2
2
3
+
.
X
(a) CH CH CH Br
3 2
- = (b)CH CH CH
3 2
- =
(c) CH C CH
3
- = (d) CH CH CH
3 2 3
- -
(66) Ethylene dibromide on heating with alc.KOH gives mainly.
(a) Ethane (b) Ethylene (c) Acetylene (d) Ethyl bromide
(67) Which unsaturated compound is produced by electrolysis of Potassium maleate or fumalate ?
(a) Ethene (b) But-2-ene (c) Ethyne (d) But-2-yne
(68)
CH CH
3 2 3
Na / Liq.NH CH CH Br
P Q
196k

(a) CH CH C CH
3 2
- - (b) CH C C CH
3 3
- -
(c) CH CH CH CH
3 2 2
- - = (d) CH CH CH CH
3 3
- = -
(69) Propyne is formed by reaction of
(a) CH Br
3
with Acetylene (b)CH Br
3
with Sodium acetylide
(c)CH I
3
with Sodium acetate (d) methane with Ethene
135
(70) The gas which gives Benzene on passing through a red hot iron tube is
(a) C H
2 6
(b) C H
2 4
(c) C H
6 12
(d) C H
2 2
(71) In presence of nickel cyanide, acetylene gives
(a) Benzene (b) Cyclohexane (c) Cyclo octa tetraene (d) Cyclohexatriene
(72) Which reagent of the following will convert But-1-yne to Butane-2-on
(a)
H O H
2
/
+
(b)
Hg H So
+2
2 4
/
(c) Conc H So H Po . /
2 4 3 4
(d)
2 2 7 4
K Cr O / Kmn O
(73) Addition of Hydrobromic acid with Ethyne gives finaly
(a) CH CH Br
2
= - (b) Br CH CH Br - - -
2 2
(c) CH
3
CH Br
2
(d)
CH C Br -
(74) Addition of HCN to Acetylene in presence of Ba CN b g
2
gives
(a) Cyanoethane (b) propanenitrile (c) Acrylonitrile (d) Ethyl Cyanides
(75) What is the product formed when acetylene reacts with hypochlorous acid ?
(a) CH COCl
3
(b) Cl CH CHO
2
(c) Cl CHCHO
2
(d) ClCH COOH
2
(76) But-1-yne on Oxidation with hot alkeline Kmn O
4
gives
(a) CH CH CH COOH
3 2 2
(b) CH CH COOH
3 2
(c) CH CH COOH CO H O
3 2 2 2
+ + (d) +
3
CH COOH HCOOH
(77) But-2-yne on Oxidation with hot alkeline KMn O
4
gives.
(a) CH CH COOH HCOOH
3 2
+ (b) CH COOH CH COOH
3 3
+
(c) + +
3 2 2 2
CH CH COOH CO H O (d) CH COOH CO H O
3 2 2
2 + +
(78) Acetylene reacts with Ethyl magnesium bromide to give
(a) Butane (b) Ethane (c) But-1-ene (d) Ethene
(79) The Compound X C H
5 8
b g
reacts with Ammonical AgNO
3
to gives a white ppt and on oxidation
with hot alk, KMnO
4
gives acid CH CHCOOH
3
2
b g there fore X is
(a) Pent-1, 3-diene (b) pent-1-yne (c) 3-methyl but-1-yne (d) pent-2-yne
(80) HC CH O +
3

2 2 2
CH Cl Zn / H O
X Y
196k
. End product y is
(a)
H C C H
|| ||
O O
(b) CH CH CH CHO
3 2 2
(c)
CH C C CH
|| ||
O O
3 3
(d) CH CH CH COOH
3 2 2
136
(81) Reductive Ozonolysis of But-2-yne gives
(a) Glyoxal (b) 2
3
CH COOH (c) Buta-2, 3-dione (d) Butanal
(82) Give product in following reaction CH CH C CH
3 2
- - ..... ?
(a) CH CH CH CH
3 2 2
= (b) CH CH CHCH
3 3
=
(c)
CH CH C CH
OH
3 2 2
=
(d) CH C C CH
3 3
-
(83) CH C C CH
3 3
- -

2
Na NH
X
Paraffin Oil
Indentify product X
(a)
CH C = C CH
| |
Na NH
3 3
2
(b) CH CHO CH CHO
3 3
+
(c)CH CH C CH
3 2
(d) CH COOH CH COOH
3 3
+
(84) Indentify the product C in the following series of reaction

4 2
LiAlH Br alc.KOH 3 4
3
H PO
CH COOH A B C D.
D
(a) Ethene (b) Ethyne (c) Ethane (d) Vinyl alcohol
(85) CH C C CH
3 3
- -
A
B
Lindlars
Na in
Catalyst
Liq.NH3
in above reaction A and B are respectively.
(a) cis and trans but-2-ene (b) trans and cis but-2-ene
(c) Both cis but-2-ene (d) Both trans but-2-ene
(86) Reduction of acetylene in presence of Ni/Pd gives
(a) Ethane (b) Ethene (c) Ethanol (d) Ethanaime
(87) 2- hexyne gives trans-2-hexene on treatment with
(a) Pt H /
2
(b) Li NH /
3
(c) Pd BaSO /
4
(d) LiAlH
4
(88) Which carbide react with water to give propyne ?
(a) SiC (b) Be C
2
(c) Mg C
2 3
(d) Al C
4 3
(89) Namber of acidic hydrogen in 1-butyne are
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(90) Which reagent distinguish between But-1-yne and But-2-yne
(a) Alk KMnO .
4
(b) Br
2
(c) ConC H SO .
2 4
(d)
Ag NH ( )
3 2
+
137
(91) Point out the wrong statement in relation to the structure of Benzene.
(a) It forms only one monosubstitated derivative
(b) The C-C bond lenght is benzene is uniformly1.397 A
0
(c) It is a resonance hybrid of a number of canonical forms
(d) It has three delocalised p- molcular orbitals
(92) Which of the following when treated with super heated steam under pressure gives benzene?
(a) Benzene Sulphonic acid (b) Benzyl Chloride
(c) Bromo Benzene (d) Nitro benzene
(93) Which of the following is aromatic
(a) (b) (c)
+
(d)
-
(94) Which is non-aromatic compound
(a)
CH3
(b) (c) (d)
N
|
H
..
(95) Which is not aromatic hydrocarbon?
(a) Benzene (b) Toluene (c) phenol (d) Napthalene
(96) Which of the following is not aromatic ?
(a) Benzene (b) Cyclopropenyl cation
(c) Trophylium cation (d) Cyclopentadienyl cation
(97) Benzene reacts with
3
CH COCl in presence of AlCl
3
to give
(a) C H CI
6 5
(b) C H COCl
6 5
(c) C H COCH
6 5 3
(d)C H CH
6 5 3
(98) Nitration of Benzene is
(a) Electrophilic Substitution (b) Nucleophelic Substitution
(c) Electrophilic addition (d) Free radical Substitution
(99) In the nitration of benzene the attack on ring is made by
(a) NO
2
(b)
NO
2
-
(c)
NO
2
+
(d)
NO
3
-
(100) In the bromination of benzene which electrophilies attacks on ring ?
(a)
Br
+
(b)
Br
-
(c) Br
2
(d)
Br
(101) + 3H
2
[ ]
150
Ni
C
Above reaction is the example of
(a) Substitution (b) Addition (c) Elimination (d) Rearrangement
2
Cl in presence of light to give
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) Benzyl chloride (c) 1, 2-dichlorobenzene (d) Benzene hexachloride
138
2
Cl in presence of
3
FeCl to give
(a) BHC (b) Chlorobenzene (c) Hexachlorocyclohexane (d) Benzyl chloride
(104) Which is m-directing group ?
(a) -C H
2 5
(b)
-OH
(c)
-CHO
(d) -OCH
3
(105) Whis is O/P- directing group ?
(a)
-COOH
(b) -NO
2
(c)-COCH
3
(d) -OCH
3
(106)
CH3
3
2 4
.
[ ]
conc HNO
H SO
X. Product X is
(a)
CH3
NO2
(b)
CH3
NO2
(c) Mixture of (A) & (B) (d)
CH3
NO2
(107)
NO2
Cl
Fecl
2
3
[ ]
X. product X is
(a)
NO2
Cl
(b)
NO2
Cl
(c)
NO2
Cl
(d)
NO2
Cl
Cl
(108) When O-Cresol is heated with Zn it gives
(a) Phenol (b) Toluene (c) Xylene (d) Benzene
(109) When Toluene reacts with
2
Cl in presence of UV light it gives
(a)
CH3
Cl
(b)
CH3
Cl
(c)
CH3
Cl
Cl
(d)
CH Cl 2
(110) Toluene reacts with hot acidic KMnO
4
to give
(a)
CHO
(b)
COOH
(c)
CH OH 2
(d)
OH
(111) Toluene reacts with chromyl chloride to give
(a)
CHO
(b)
COOH
(c)
Cl
(d)
Cl
Cl
(112)
CH3
H SO 2 4
111 c
+ 3 HNO
(fuming)
3
X Identify product X
(a) ONT (b) PNT (c) TNT (d) DNT
(113)
CH3
3
2 4
min
min
Fu g HNO
Fu g H SO
110 C
4
/ lim KMnO HF Soda e
P Q R

What will be the final product R
(a) OTS (b) PTS (c) TNT (d) TNB
139
(114) When a mixture of O-bromotoluene and methyl bromide is treated with sodium in presence of
ether it gives
(a)
CH3
CH3
(b)
CH3
CH3
(c)
CH3
CH3
(d)
CH3
CH3
Br
(115) Upon Oxidution with KMnO4 H /
+
m-Xylene Form
(a)Phthalic acid (b) Isophthalic acid (c) Terphthalic acid (d) Salicylic acid
(116) Catalytic reduction of styrene gives
(a) Benzene (b) Toluene (c) Xylene (d) Ethylbenzene
(117) Identify product Y in following reaction
+ = CH CH
AlCl
2 2
3
X
2 3 2 3
Cr O / Al O
600 c
Y
(a) Ethyl benzene (b) methyl benzene (c) Benzene acid (d) Styrene
(118) Following reaction is known as
Br Na Br
Ether
+ 2
+
+ 2NaBr
Bi Phenyl -
(a) Wurtz (b) Fitting (c) Wurtz-Fitting (d) Grignard
(119) Benzene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with zinc and water gives
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Benzaldehyde (c) Glyoxal (d) Acetylene
(120) C H
6 6
3
2 4
HNO
H SO
X
2
3
Cl
FeCl
Y In this reaction Y is is
(a) 1- nitro chlorobenzene (b) 3- nitro chlorobenzene
(c) 4-nitro chlorobenzene (d) 1,2-dinitro chlorobenzene
(121) Which of the following will undergo metasubstitation on monochlorination
(a) Phenol (b) Ethoxy Ethane (c) Ethylbezoate (d) chlorobezene
(122) Decreasing order of C-C bond lenght in following compounds is
(I) C H
2 4
(II) C H
2 2
(III) C H
6 6
(IV) C H
2 6
(a)
IV III I II > > >
(b)
I II IV III > > >
(c)
II I IV III > > >
(d)
IV I III II > > >
(123) n- Heptane
Aromatization
[Al
2
O Cr O
3 2 3
+ ]
?
(a) Benzene (b) Toluene (c) Hept-2-ene (d) Hept-1-ene
(124) Benzene is obtained by heating phenol with X then X is
(a) Zn dust (b) Soda lime (c) Sodium hydroxide(d) My / ether
(125) Which is aromatic
(a) (b)
+
(c)
-
(d)
-
140
(126) In presence of light and heat toluene chlorinated and react with aq. NaOH to give
(a) O - Cresol (b) P - Cresol
(c) Mixture of (A) and (B) (d) Benzoic acid
(127) Sulphonation of compound A followed by fusion with NaOH gives mixture of O- cresol & p-
cresol. compound A is
(a) Benzene (b) Toluene
(c) phenol (d) Benzene sulphonic acid
(128)
CH3
3
3
[ . ]
CH COCl
Anhy Alcl
CH3
COCH3
+ HCl This reaction is known as
(a) Kolbe`s reaction (b) Sandmayer reaction
(c) Diels-(Alder) reaction (d) Fridel-craft`s Acylation
(129) In the following reaction, the product R is
CaC
H O
2
2

P
hot iron
tube
Q
3
3
CH Cl
AlCl
R
(a) Benzene (b) Toluene (c) Chorobenzene (d) Xylene
(130) Indentify the product (E) in the following sequence of reaction
CH3
NO2
Br Sn HCl
A
2

/
B
2
NaNO / HCl
0 5 C -
C
H PO
3 2

D
n 4
KM O
KOH
E
(a)
COOH
(b)
Br
COOH
(c)
Br
COOH
NO2
(d)
Br
CH3
NO2
Assertion and Reason type Questions
Direction:- In each of the following Questions Read the Assertion(A) and Reason (R)
carefully. Choose Correct option as under and darken trhe bubbles in OMR.
(A) If both A and R are true and R is the Correct explanation of A
(B) If both A and R are true but R is not the Correct explanation of A
(C) If A is true but R is false
(D) If both A and R are false
(E) If A is false but R is ture
(131) A : Pyrrole is an aromatic heterocyclic compound
R : It has a cyclic, delocalised
6p
electrons
(132) A : CH
4
does not react with Cl
2
in dark
R : Chlorination of CH
4
takes place in Sunlight
141
(133) A : Neopentane forms only one monosubstitated Compound
R : Neopentane has high bond energy
(134) A : Addition of HBr to propene in presence of peroxide gives 1- bromo propane.
R : The reaction occurs by Free radical mechanism
(135) A : Styrene on reaction with HBr gives 2-bromo-2-phenylethane
R :Benzyl radical is more stable than alkyl radicals
(136) A : Butane-1-ol on dehydration Conc H SO .
2 4
gives mainly But-1-en
R :Dehydration occurs through Carbocation intermediate
(137) A :Melting point of neopentane is higher than that of iso-pentane
R : Neopentane Contains a quaternary carbon
(138) A : Acetylene react with
2
NaNH to give Sodium acetylide and ammonia
R : SP-hybridized carbon of acetylene are considerably electronegative
(139) A : Addition of
2
H O to acetylene occurs in presence of dil.
H SO
2 4
and HgSO
4
to give acetaldehyde
R : It is an example of electrophilic addition reaction
(140) A : Addition of HI to vinyl chloride produces 1-chloro1-iodoethane
R :HI adds to vinyl chloride againt markownikov`s Rule
Matrix Match type Questions
Direction :- Match the entries of column I with entries of column II. Each entry of column
I may have one or more correct matching from column II. if the correct matches are
, A P S ,
B r
, C p q ,
D s then the correctly bubbled
4 4
matrix should be
as below.
A
B
C
D
p q r s
142
(141) Match the reactions in column I with approp type of reaction as given in column II
column I column II
(A)
Cl2
[Fe Cl ] 3
CH3
Cl
Cl
CH3 CH3
+
(p) Substitation Reaction
(B) 3 2 3 3
2
( )
( ) /

-
i Alc KOH
CH CH Cl CH CH
ii H Ni
(q) Addition Reaction
(C)
2 4 4
3
3
( ) /
( ) [ ]
HC CH CHO
i H SO HgSO
CH
ii AlCl
= (r) Elimination Reaction
(D)
2 5 3
( ) / [ ]
( ) / 903
Cl i C H AlCl
ii ZnO K
CH = CH2
(s) Rearrangement
(142) column I column II
(A)-CHO (P) O/P Director
(B)-OH (Q) Activating Benzene Ring
(C)-NH
2
(R) m-Director
(D)-CI (S) Deactivating Benzene Ring
(143) column I column II
(A) Benzene (p) Wurtz reaction of C H Cl
2 5
(B) Ethene (q) Evolves H
2
when heated with sodium metal
(C) Ethyne (r) Dehydration of ethanol
(D) Butane (s) Electrophilic substitation
Comprehension type Questions
Direction :- Question numbers 144 and 145 are based on the following paragraph. Each question
has 4 options (A),(B),(C) , (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. choose the correct option.
Paragraph :- Cyclohexene on ozonolysis following by reaction with Zinc dust and water
gives aldehyde(P). Compound (p) on further treatment with aqueous KOH yields
compound(Q).
(144) The structure of compound (P) is
(a)
CHO
CHO
(b)
C = O
C = O
H
H
(c)
CHO
CHO
(d)
O
O
(145) The structure of compound (Q) is
(a)
CHO
(b) CHO (c)
COOH
(d)
OH
143
1 C 32 A 63 C 94 B 125 C
2 D 33 D 64 B 95 C 126 D
3 A 34 B 65 C 96 D 127 B
4 D 35 B 66 C 97 C 128 D
5 C 36 C 67 C 98 A 129 B
6 B 37 A 68 A 99 C 130 B
7 C 38 D 69 B 100 A 131 A
8 B 39 B 70 D 101B 132 B
9 C 40 B 71 C 102 D 133 C
10 C 41 D 72 B 103 B 134 A
11 A 42 B 73 C 104 C 135 D
12 B 43 C 74 C 105 D 136 E
13 B 44 C 75 C 106 C 137 B
14 B 45 C 76 C 107 A 138 A
15 C 46 B 77 B 108 B 139 B
16 B 47 C 78 B 109 D 140 C
17 A 48 A 79 C 110 B 141 A. (p), B. (r ), C. (q), D. (p)
18 B 49 B 80 A 111 A 142 A. (r ), B. (p), C. (p, q), D. (p)
19 A 50 C 81 C 112 C 143 A. (s), B. (r ), C. (q), D. (p)
20 B 51 A 82 D 113 D 144 B
21 C 52 D 83 C 114 A 145 A
22 A 53 C 84 B 115 B
23 B 54 B 85 A 116 D
24 B 55 C 86 A 117 D
25 B 56 B 87 B 118 B
26 C 57 A 88 C 119 C
27 C 58 B 89 A 120 B
28 B 59 B 90 D 121 C
29 B 60 C 91 C 122 A
30 D 61 A 92 A 123 B
31 B 62 D 93 C 124 A
Answer key
144
Hints
(1) Wurtz Reaction :-
2 2 2
3 2 3 2 2 3
CH CH Cl Na CH CH CH CH NaCl
Ether
+ - - - +
(2) AlkyneC H C H
n n 2 2 4 6 -

(3) CH CH COONa NaOH
3 2
+
lim
cao
soda e -
CH CH Na CO
3 3 2 3
- +
Sodalime Decarboxylation of Sodium Salt of Carboxylic acid gives alkane containig
one carbon less than the carboxylic acid
(4)
2 2
3 2 2
CH CH COONa H O
+
+
Electrolysis
CH CH CH CH CO H Naot
3 2 2 3 2 2
2 2 + + +
Electrolysis of aqueous solution of Sodium Salt of Carboxylic acid gives Alkane
Containing even number of carbon (Kolbe`s synthesis)
(5) This preparation is known as Kolbe`s synthesis
(6) BoilingaMolecular mass a
1
number of branches
(7) According to Que-6
(8)
CH COCl CH MgCl CH COCH MgCl
H O
3 3 3 3 2
2
+ +
(This reaction gives Ketone)
(9) This reaction is carried out by Free Radical intermidiate.
(10)
R X Na R X R R R R R R
Ether
- + + - - + - + - 2
(11) C H O H CH Mg Br CH Mg
Oc H
Br
2 5 3 4
2 5
+ +
(12) LPG is a mixture of mainly propane and butane
(13)
2 + 2 2 2
3 2 3 3 2 2
CH COONa H O CH CH CO NaoH H
+
- + + +
electrolysis
(14) Que-6
(15)
CH CH C CH CH
CH
CH
1
3
2
3
2
4
2
5
3
3
3
- -
3, 3 dimethyl pentane
(16) The relative stability of conformation isomers of Alkane like Ethane, propane staggered
(Anti) > Skew or Gauche > partial eclipsed > Full eclipsed
(17) The relative stability of conformation isomer of cyclohexane is
Chair > twist boat >boat >half Chair
(18)
Alkane Butane pentane Hexane Heptane
structural
2 3 5 9
isomers
(19)
2
2R X Zn R R ZnX - + - + (Frankland`s Reaction)
(20)
2 5 2 2 6
Pd/ c
C H Cl H C H HCl + +
(21) when Higher hydrocabon is heated it decomposes to Lower hydrocarbon (alkane,
alkene). This reaction is known as Cracking or Pyrolysis
145
(22) Methane is known as mars gas
(23) because
2
carbonium ion is more stsble than

1
(24)
CH CH CH CH CH
CH
3 2 2 3
3
- - -
isopropyl group
(25)
*
3
3
2 3 2 2 2 3 3 3
*
- - - + - - + - - -
hv
C
C
H
H
CH CH CH Cl CH CH CH CH CH CH CH CH
Cl
3
CH
3
CH
(R + S)
Cl
(R + S)
Star (*) indicate chiral (assymetric) carbon. Here in both product R and S configurations
are possible so that total 4 chiral compound are possible.
(26) C H CO H O
3 8 2 2 2
50 3 4 + +
(27)
CH
OH
CHCH CH CH CH
HCl
3 3 3 3
- -
Cl
2 5
2[ ]
-
Zn Cu
C H OH
H
CH CH CH HCl
3 2 3
+
(28) ( )
3 2 3 3 2 3 3 2
2
CH CH LiCu CH CI CH CH CH CH CH Cu LiCl + + +
Lithium diethyl copper
This is known as Core-House reaction. It is suitable method for preparation of odd
carbonAlkyne
(29) 2 2
3 3
CH
Br
CHCH Na
ether
+
CH CH CH
1
3
3
2
4
3
- -
CH CH CH
+ 2NaBr
3 3
- -
iso-propyl bromide 2,3- dimethyl butane
(30)
CH3
+ Br
2
CH3 Br
+HBr
Methyl cyclo pentane 1- bromo-1-methyl cyclopentane
(31) Alkene shows mainly electrophilic addition reactions.
(32)
CH CH Br Br CH CH Br
CCl
2 2 2
4
2 2
= + - - -
(33)
CH C H CI CH CH KCI H O
Alc KoH
b
3 2 2 2 2
= + +
.
(b - Elimination reaction)
(34) CH CH CH C
OH
H
3 2 3
b b
-
2 4
.
160
Conc H SO
c
CH CH CH CH CH CH CH CH
3 3 3 2 2
- = - + - - =
Dehydration of butane-1-ol or 2-ol gives trans-but-2-en as the major product. According
to Saytzeff rule But-2-ene is more Substituted alkene and therefore it will be major.
(35)
-
OH OH
CH CH CH CH
KMnO4 KOH
2 2 2 2
= -
/
(Baeyer`s test for unsaturations)
146
(36)
Cl
CH CH CH HCI CH CH CH
3 2 3 3
- = + - - (Markownikoffs Rule)
(37) CH CH CH HBr CH CH CH Br
3 2 3 2 2
= + - - -
Peroxide
(Antimarkownikoff `s Rule)
(38)
C H CH CH CH HBr C H CH CH Br
6 5 2 2 6 5 2 2
- = + -
Peroxide
(Anti Markownikoff)
(39) The disappearace of the purple colour of KMnO
4
in its reaction with an alkene is the test
for unsaturation (double bond). is known as Baeyer`s Test.
(40)
CH
CH
C CH CH H O
2
3
2 3 2
= - +
2 4
2
Hg
dil H SO
+
CH
CH
OH
C CH CH
3
3
2 3 (Markownikoff)
(41) R CH CH R - = -
4
.
.
Room temp
dil aq KMnO
O
O H H
R CH CH R - -
glycol
(42) R CH CH R - = -
4
.
Heat
Conc KMnO
R COOH R COOH + -
(43) Ozonolysis
CH CH O
2 2 3
= +
CH
2
CH
2
2
H O
Zn
2HCHO
(44)
4
.
Alk KmnO
OH
OH
(45) CH CH
2 2
2 0 = + [ ]
4
KMnO
Acidic
HCHO HCHO +
(46)
CH CH Zn
Br Br
2 2
- +
CH CH ZnBr
2 2 2
= +
D
(47) CH CH CH CH CH HBr
3 2 3
- = - - +
- - - + - CH CH
Br Br
CH CH CH CH CH CH CH
3 2 2 3 3 2 3
CH
2
(49)
OH Cl
CH CH HOCI CH CH
2 2 2 2
= + -
(50) CH CH CH CH Br CH CH OH
HBr aq KOH
2 2 3 2 3 2
=
.
CHI
3
Iodoform
(52)
CH
CH
CH CH CH CH CH CH CH
H
3
3
2 3 3
- - = - - -
+
+
CH
(2 )
3
-
1, 2
Hydride shift
CH CH CH CH
3 3
2
-
+
CH
(3 )
3
Br
-
CH C CH CH
3 3
2
CH
Br
3
product will be major because 3
- Carbonium is more stable than 2
147
(53) According to Markownikoffs Rules
(54)
Cl
CH CH CH HCl CH CH CH
3 2 3 3
= + - -
Peroxide
This reaction follows markownikoff`s rule. Because peroxide effect or Anti markownikoff`s
rule is applicable only to HBr. It is not for HCl and HI.
(55) Ozonolysis of alkene gives two carbonyl group (C=0) for cleavage of each
> = < C C
s
CH CH CH CH CH
3 2
- = - =
3
2
( ) /
( )
ii Zn H O
i O
CHO
CH CHO CHO HCHO
3
+ +
(56) 3
2 2 6 2 2 3
R CH CH B H R CH CH B - = + - - ( )
1
2
2 2
-
OH
H O
3
2 2
R CH CH OH - - -
(57)
Cl NO
CH CH CH N OCI CH CH CH
3 2 3 2
- = + - -
+
According to markownikoff addition of NOCl
(58)
CH CH
SO CI
2 3
2 2
CH CH CI
Alc koh
2 2
.
CH CH KCl H O = + +
2 2
(59)
CH
CH
CH
C CH Br
alc KOH
3
3
3
2
-
.
CH
CH
CH
C CH
3
3
3
2
+
Shifting
Methyl
1
carbonium (less stable)

CH3 - CH
CH
C CH
3
3
2
+
lim
b-
Hydrogen
E ination of
CH3 - CH
CH
C = CH
3
3
3
carbonium (morestable)
(60)
|
CH
CH
CH2
CH
2
CH
+ ||
CH
2
2
200
c
(Diels-Alder Reaction)
(61)
CH CH C CH
SP SP SP SP
2
2 2
= - Hybridization is considered by no. of s - bonds.
(62) CH CH Br BrCH CH Br
2 2 2 2 2
= + - -
(Brown) (Colour less)
Disappearance of brown colour is the test for unsaturation
(63)
3
2 6 6 + + CHCI Ag HC CH AgCl
(64) CH
CH Cl HC CH KCl H O
3 2
2
2 2 + 2 alc. KOH
+ +
(65)
CH
Br
CH Cl Br NaNH CH C 3 CH NaBr H O
Liq NH
3 2 2 2
2 2 2
3
+ + +
.
N
2
, HCl
148
(66)
CH CH
Br Br
KOH alc HC CH KBr H O
2 2 2
2 2 2 - + + + ( )
D
(Vicinal) Acetylene
(67) H C COOK H C COOK CH
|| OR||
2 2
2 +
H O ||| + 2CO
2
+2NaOH + H
2
H C COOK KOOC C H CH
Potasium Maleate Potasium Fumrate
(cis) (trans) At anode At Cathode
(68)
HC CH
3
/ .
196
Na liq NH
K
HC CNa CH CH C CH NaBr
CH CH Br
- - +
+
3 2
3 2
Sodium Acetylide
(70)
3CH CH

Fe
C H
2 6
OR Benzene
(71)
2
( )
4 ( ) =
Nil N
CH CH HC CH
4
OR Cyclooctutetruene
(72) CH C CH
2
CH
3
+ H
2
O
2
2 4
/ H SO Hg
+
CH3 - CH
OH
O CH2
2
=
Taxtomerise
CH
3
- CH
O
C CH
2
3
(73)
CH CH CH CH Br CH CHBr
HBr HBr
= - -
2 3 2
Ethylidene bromide
(74)
CH CH CH CH CN
HCN
= -
2
(75) CH CH CI CH CH OH
HOCI HOCI
- = -
Cl
Cl OH CH = O
CH CH OH CHCI
H O
- - -
-
2
2
(76) CH CH C CH CH CH COOH CO H O
KMnO / KOH 4
3 2 3 2 2 2
- - + +
(terminal alkyne)
Oxidation of terminal alkyne gives acid and
2
CO
(77) CH C C CH
3 3
- -
4
KMnO
KOH
CH COOH CH COOH
3 3
+
(nonterminal alkyne)
Oxidation of nonterminal alkyne gives mixture of two acids
(78) CH CH CH CH MgBr CH CH CH CMgBr + +
3 2 3 3
149
(80) HC CH O +
3
CH CH
Zn H O /
2

H C C H
|| ||
O O
Glyoxal
(81) CH C C CH O CH
3 3 3 3
- - + CH CH C C 3
Zn H O /
2
CH C C
|| ||
O O
3 CH3
Buta -2-3-dione (Dimethyl Glyoxal)
(82) CH CH C CH CH C C CH
Alc KOH
3 2 3 3
- -
.
Terminal alkyne undergo iso merisation to give non-terminal alkyne
(83) CH C C CH CH CH C CH
3 3 3 2
- - - -
Non-terminal alkyne undergo iso merisation to give terminal alkyne
(84)
CH COOH CH CH OH
LiAlH
3 3 2
4

H PO 3 4

.
CH CH
Br
2 2
2
=
Br CH CH Br CH CH KBr H O
alc KOH
- - - + +
2 2 2
2 2
.
(85) Alkyne with Lindlar`s Catalysist ( / ) Pd BaSO
4
gives Cis- alkene while with Na Liq NH / .
3
(Birch Redaction) gives trans-alkene
(86)
CH CH H CH CH
Ni pd
+ - 2
2 3 3
/
(88) Mg C H O CH C CH Mg OH
2 3 2 3 2
4 2 + - + ( )
(89) Hydrogen attached to triplebonded carbon is acidic
(90) with
Ag NH ( )
3 2
+
1- Alkyne will give reaction while 2- Alkyne will not give reaction
(92)
SO H 3
+ H O
2
g ( )
D
+ H SO
2 4
(93) 6
p
electrons
(94) According to Hukels Rule Compound to be aromatic it should have ( ) 4 2 n e + p s i.e It
should have 2,6,10,14 p e electrons. But cyclo octa tetraene has 8 p e so it is non-aromatics
(95) phenol
OH
is aromatic but not aromatic Hydrocarbon
(96)
+
It has 4 p e there for not aromatic
(97)
3
3
[ ]
CH COCl
Al Cl
COCH3
Acetophenon.
(98) Nitration, Sulphonation, Halogenation, Alkylation and Acylation of Benzene are Electro
philic Substitation Reactions.
(99)
NO
2
+
is electrophile
150
(100) Br
+
is electrophile
(101) Beacause double bonds of Benzene breaks on addition of H
2
(102) + 3
2
Cl
hv
Cl
Cl
Cl Cl
Cl
Cl
Benzenehexachloride(BHC)
(103)
+ CI
FeCI
2
3
[ ]
Cl
+HCI
(104) m - Directors
2 3
, , , , , NO SO H COOH CN CHO COR - - - - -
(105) OP Directors
- - - - - CH OH OR NH X
3 2
, , , , (Halogen)
(106)
CH3
3
2 4
.
[ ]
conc HNO
H SO
NO2
CH3
+
CH3
NO2
Because CH
3
is O/P Director
(107)
CH3
2
3
[ ]
Cl
FeCl
Cl
CH3
Because - NO
2
m - Directors
(108)
OH
CH3
Zn
CH3
+ Zno
O-Cresol Toluene
(109)
CH3
2
Cl
uv
CH Cl 2
Benzylchloride
(110)
CH3
4
/
3[ ]
KMnO H
O
+
COOH
+ H O
2
(111)
CH3
2 2
2[ ]
CrO Cl
O
CHO
+ H O
2
(112)
CH3
+3
3
HNO
2 4
111
H SO
c
CH3
NO2
NO2
O N 2
2,4,6-Trinitrotoluene(TNT)
(113)
CH3
CH3
NO2
NO2
O N 2
4
H
KMnO
+
COOH
NO2
NO2
NO2
lim Soda e
NO2
NO2
NO2
1,3,5-Trinitrbenzene(TNB)
(114)
Br
CH3
+ + CH Br Na
ether
3
2
CH3
CH3
+ 2NaBr
O-Xylene
This is known as wurtz- Fitting Reaction
151
(115) Upon Oxidation of o, m, p-Xylenes forms corresponding dicarboxylic
COOH
COOH
COOH
COOH
COOH
COOH
Phthalic acid Isophthalic acid Terthalic acid
(116)
CH = CH2
Ni H +

2
CH = CH 2 3
Styrene Ethylbenzene
(117)
+ = CH CH
AlCl
2 2
3
[ ]
,
CH = CH 2 3
[ ]
600
O
C
CH = CH2
+H
2
(120)
2
NO - is m- Director
(121)
2 5
COOC H - m - Director
(122) Bond length
1/ Bondorder there for bond length in

(123)
|
CH2
CH2
CH2
CH3
CH2
CH
|
CH
3
2
2 3 2 3
[ ]
[ ]
Al O Cr O
o
+
n-Heptane
Toluene
CH
3
+ 4H2
(124)
OH
Zn
+ Zno
(125)
e p
s in , , , are 4,4,6,4 there for according to Hukelis Rule (c) is Aromatic
(126)
CH3
2
3 / Cl hv
Heat
CCl3
3NaOH
COOH
2
3NaCl H O + +
(127)
CH3
Sulphonation
CH3
SO3H
+
CH3
So3H
NaOH
fusion
CH3
OH
+
CH3
OH
Compound A
(Toluene)
152
(129)
CaC HC CH Ca OH
H O
2
2
2
2
= + ( )
3CH CH =
hot iron
tube
3
3
[ ]
CH Cl
AlCl
CH3
+ HCI
(130)
CH3
NO2
Br
2

Br
CH3
NO2
Sn HCI /

Br
CH3
NO2
2
/
0.5
NaNO HCl
c
CH3
N = N Cl
Br
3 2
2[ ]
H PO
H
CH3
Br
4
[ ]
KMnO
KOH
O
COOH
Br
(131)
N
|
H
..
Pyrole is aromatic beacuse it is cyclic, and contains
6 p e s (2 2 p-bonds + lonepair of N)
(132) Correct explanation :- Chlorination of
4
CH is free radical reaction and free radicals are
obtained in sunlight.
(133)
CH
|
3
CH C
|
CH
3
3
CH3
Correct R:- In neopentane four identical CH
3
groups are attached to
4
- carbon there for only one monosubstitated product is possible

(134) R is Correct explanation of A
(135) Correct A:- gives -1- bromo-1- phenyl ethane
Correct R:- Benzyl cation is more stable than alkyl cation
(136) Correct A:- Gives But-2-ene as a major product
(137) Correct explanation :- Neopentane being symmetrical packs more closely in the crystal
lattice than isopentane
(138) R is the correct explanation of A
(139) Correct explanation :-
Hg
+2
ion being an electrophile attacks on p e of triplebond and
then nucleophilic attack of
2
H O occurs.
(140) HI adds to vinyl chloride according to markownikoffis Rule.
(142) O P directors except halogen activates benzene ring while m-director deactivates.
(144)
3
2
/
O
Zn H O
CHO
CHO
. aq KOH
CHO
153
MCQ
1. Haloarenes contain halogen atom(s) with carbon atom(s) possessing hybridization.
(A) SP
3
(B) SP (C) SP
2
(D) B & C
2. Who is very effective for typhoid ?
(A) chloroquine (B) chloroform (C) chloramphenicol (D) chlorapetite
3. A B
(i) Goiter (p) Anaesthetic
(ii) Malaria (q) Potential blood substitutes
(iii) Typhoid fever (r) chloroquine
(iv) haloethane (s) chlor amphenical
(v) fluori nated compounds (t) Thyroxine
(A) i-t, ii-q, iii- p, iv-r, v-s (B) i-t, ii-s, iii- p, iv-q, v-r
(C) i-t, ii-q, iii- s, iv-r, v-p (D) i-t, ii-r, iii- s, iv-p, v-q
4. Which of the following is vinylic halides.
(A)
X
(B)
X
(C)
X
(D) A & C
5. A B
(i)
CI
CH
3
(p) 2, chloro toluene
(ii)
CH
2
Cl
(q) 1, Benzyl chloride
(r) 1, chloro toluene
(s) chlorophenyl methane
(t) ortho chloro toluene
(A) i - t, ii - s (B) i - p, ii - s
(C) i - r, ii - q (D) i - r, ii - q
Unit-22 - Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
154
6. How many structural isomers are formed from C
5
H
11
Br.
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) 8
7. Correct structural formula for 3-Bromo 2-methyl But-l-ene
(A)
H
H
CH
3
H
Br
H
(B)
H
H
H
BR
H
CH
3
(C)
H
H
CH
3
H
BR
CH
3
(D)
H
CH
3
H
Br
H
H C
3
8. Which is sandmeyer's reaction from the following.
(A)
N
+
X
3
+ + HCl + N
2
OH OH
(B)
N
+
X
2
+ KI + N
2
I
(C)
N
+
X
2
+ H O N=N OH + HCl
2
273278K
(D) Above all
9.
H
H
H
+ HBr
X ; X = .............
?
(A)
H
H
H
Br
H
(B)
H
H
Br
H
(C)
H
H
H
H
H
(D) None of these
10.
CH C = CH
2 2
H
+ HBr Peroxide Y. For Y = ?
(A)
CHCH CH
2 3
Br
(B)
CH CH CH Br
2 2 2
(C)
CH C CH
2 3
Br
(D)
CH CH CH
2 3
Br
155
11. A B
(i)
( )
NaBr I CH NaI Br CH
3
CO CH
3
2 3
+ +
(ii)
3 2 2 3 2 2
2CH Br+Hg F 2CH F+Hg Br
x : Finkel stein
(iii)
( ) CH O
3
2
3 2 2 5
CH CH Cl+NaI C H I+NaCl y : Swart reaction
(iv)
2 5 2 2 5 2
COBr F H C 2 COF Br H C 2 + +
(v)
2 3 3 2
COBr F CH 2 Br CH 2 COF + +
(A) 1-y, 2-x, 3-x, 4-y, 5-x (B) 1-x, 2-y, 3-y, 4-x, 5-y
(C) 1-x, 2-y, 3-x, 4-y, 5-y (D) 1-x, 2-y, 3-y, 4-x, 5-x
12. . Z X R PX OH R
3
+ - + - For Z = ..................?
(A)
4 2
PO X (B)
3 2
HPO X (C)
2 3
H PO X (D)
3 3
PO H
13. Aniline
x + HCl
= Y
N
+
X
2
For x and y Respectively as
(A) K 300 298 , NH
3
- (B) K 278 273 , NaNO
3
-
(C) K 278 273 , NaNO
2
- (D) K 298 , NaNO
14. Arrange each set of compounds in order of increasing boiling points.
(A) 1-chloropropane < Isopropyl chloride < 1-chlorobutane
(B) 1-chlorobutane < 1-chloropropane < isopropyl chloride
(C) 1-chlorobutane > 1-chloropropane > isopropyl chloride
(D) iso propyl chloride > 1-chlorobutane > 1-chloro propane
15. For nucleophilic substitution bimolecure SN
2
reaction give the correct order of reactivity.
(A) 2
0
halide < 3
0
halide < 1
0
halide (B) 3
0
halide < 2
0
halide < 1
0
halide
(C) 3
0
halide < 2
0
halide > 1
0
halide (D) 1
0
halide <3
0
halide < 2
0
halide
16. In the following pairs of halogen compounds which would undergo SN
2
reaction faster ?
(A)
CH Cl
2 (B)
Cl
(C)
Cl
Cl
(D) None of these
156
17. Which would undergo SN
2
reaction slow.
(A)
I
(B)
CI
(C)
Br
(D) a & b
18. In suibstitution nucleophilic unimolecular SN
1
reaction give the order of reactivitly.
(A) 1
0
halide < 3
0
halide < 2
0
halide (B) 3
0
halide < 2
0
halide < 1
0
halide
(C) 3
0
halide > 2
0
halide > 1
0
halide (D) 2
0
halide 3
0
halide < 1
0
halide
19. Predict the order of reactivity of the following compounds in SN
1
reaction.
(A)
Br
(B)
Br
(C)
Br
(D) None of these
20. Give the major & minor part for x and y
CH CH CH CH CH
3 2 2 3
CH CH CH CH = CH
3 2 2 2
x - pent 1 - ene
CH CH CH = CH CH
3 2 3
y - pent 2 - ene
OH
OH
Br
(A) x = 81% ; y = 19% (B) x = 19% ; y = 81%
(C) x = 50% ; y = 50% (D) x = 80% ; y = 20%
21. Predict the order of reactivity of the following compounds in SN
2
reactions.
(A) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
6 5 2 6 5 3 6 5 3 6 5 6 5 6 5
. . C H CH Br C H CH CH Br C H C CH C H Br C H CH C H Br > > >
(B) ( ) ( ) ( )
6 5 2 6 5 3 6 5 6 5 6 5 3 6 5
. . . C H CH Br C H CH CH Br C H CH C H Br C H C CH C H Br > > >
(C) ( ) ( ) ( )( )Br H C CH C H C Br H C CH H C Br CH CH H C Br CH H C
5 6 3 5 6 5 6 5 6 3 5 6 2 5 6
< < <
(D) b & C
22. Predict the true R or S for the following structres
(i)
s
p
q
r
(ii)
s
r
p
q
(iii)
q
s
r
p
P = I; Q = Br, S = Cl; r = H
(A) i - S ii - R, iii - R (B) i - R ii - R, iii - S
(C) i - S ii - R, iii - S (D) i - S ii - S, iii - R
157
23. C
2
H
4
Cl
2
contains how many isomers.
(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 2
24. Reactivity order for HX in Lucas test.
(A) HBr > HCl < HI (B) HCl < HBr < HI
(C) HBr > HCl > HI (D) HCl > HBr > HI
25. .......... X for , HCl X light O Chloroform
2
= + + ?
(A) OCl CH
2
(B)
2 2
Cl CH
(C)
COCl
(D)
2
COCl
26.
2
2
3 2 2
3
; ? =
-
-
NaNH
o Alkoh lic Br
CH CH CH I A B C For C
KOH Alkoholic KOH
NH
NaBr
(A) Alkenol (B) Alkene
(C) Alkaiene (D) Alkele amine
27. For given compounds gives proper reactivity order for SN
1
reaction.
(x)
Me
Br
(y)
Me
Br
Me
(z)
Br
Me
(A) Z > X > Y (B) X > Y > Z
(C) Y > Z > X (D) X > Z > Y
28. Which compound gives inversion isomer during SN
2
reaction.
(A) ( ) CHCl H C
2 5 2
(B) ( ) CCl CH
3 3
(C) Cl CH
3
(D) ( ) Cl . C CH
3 3
29.
3 2
CH CH Cl Ag CN Ethenol x Agcl + +
for x = ................?
(A) CN CH CH
2 3
(B) C N CH CH
2 3
=
(C) C N CH CH
2 3
= (D) b & a
30. Give the monomar of PVC.
(A) Propine (B) I-chloro ethene
(C) ethene (D) 1-chloro propane
31. Predict non chiral compound.
(A) 2, chloropanten (B) 1-chloropanten
(C) 1-chloro 2-methyl panten (D) 3, chloro 2-methyl panten
158
32. 1
0
amine react with ethenolic KOH in presence of CHCl
3
gives......
(A) iso saynide (B) Aldehide
(C) cynide (D) Alcohol
33.
Cl
Cl Cl
H
Cl Cl Give IUPAC Name
(A) Diphenyl dichlorop propare (B) P-Pdichloro diphenyl Trichloro ethane
(C) 1, 1, dichloro diphenyl ethyl chloride (D) none of these
34. Predict the true R/S for the following structures
(A) i - S, ii - R, iii- R, iv - S (B) i - R, ii - S, iii- R, iv - R
(C) i - R, ii - R, iii- R, iv - S (D) i - R, ii - S, iii- S, iv - S
35.
COOH
H
CH OH
2
H N
2
CH
3
D
Br
H
(A) R and R (B) R and S
(C) S and S (D) S and R
36. Predict the order of reactivity in R-X for SN
2
reaction.
(A) R-F >>R-Cl > R-Br > R-I (B) R-I > R-F > R-Cl > R-Br
(C) R-F < R-Br < R-F < R-Cl (D) R-F << R-Cl < R-Br < R-I
37. Freons which is use in industry
(A) ( )
2 2
6 CCl F - (B)
2 3
4 CCl F -
(C)
2 2
F CCl , 10 - (D)
2 2
F CCl , 12 -
38. A B
(i) D.D.T (a) Dry cleaning
(ii) Iodo form (b) Freon refrigerant R-22
(iii) Carbon tetra chloride (c) For air conditioning
(iv) Freon (d) antiseptic
(v) CHCl
3
(e) an insecticide
(A) i-e, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c, v-b (B) i-b, ii-a, iii-e, iv-c, v-d
(C) i-d, ii-e, iii-a, iv-c, v-b (D) i-b, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a, v-c
39. Give the increassing order or reactivity for SN
2
reaction.
(A) RCH
2
X < R
2
CHX < R
3
CX (B) R
3
CX < R
2
CHX < RCH
2
X
(C) RCH
2
X > R
3
CX > R
2
CHX (D) R
2
CH2X < RH
2
X > R
3
CX
159
40. CH
3
Br + Nu
CH
3
Nu + Br
for this reaction arrange given Nu
in increasing order of reactivities.

(1)
-
Pho
(2)
-
OH
(3)
-
O CH
3
(4)
AcO
-
(A) 2 > 4 > 3 > 1 (B) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2 (C) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 (D) 1 > 2 >3 > 4
41. Predict the decreasing order for neucleo philicity.
(A)
I Cl Br
- - -
< <
(B)
Cl Bi I
- - -
< <
(C) I Br Cl
- - -
< < (D) Br Cl F
- - -
> >
42. Which is the D configration of alanine
(A)
H CH
3
NH
2
COOH
(B) H
CH
3
NH
2
COOH
(C) COOH
H
H
2
N CH
3
(D)
CH
3
H
COOH
NH
2
43. A B
1. ( )Cl OH Mg Ethane O H MgCl CH CH
2 2 3
+ + p. elimination reaction
2. ( ) Nax 2 CH CH CH Na 2 Br CH CH 2
3 2 2 3 2 3
+ - + q. substitution reaction
3.
3 2
|
KOH Ethanol
CH CH Ethene
Cl
+
D
r. courtz reaction
4. +
+ OH
Tertiary but ylalcohol s. grignard reaction

(A) 1-r, 2-q, 3-s, 4-p (B) 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p
(C) 1-s, 2-p, 3-r, 4-q (D) 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q
44.
A B
(1)
2
Cl
+ 2Na Ether + 2NaCl
(p) Fridal craft reaction
(2)
Br
+ 2Na + CH Br Ether
3 + 2NaCl
CH
3
(q) Fitting reaction
(3) C H Cl + HC C Anhyd.AlCl
6 5 3 3
+ 2NaCl
Cl
O
O
(r) wurtz fitting reaction
(s) Alkylation reaction.
(A) 1-r, 2-q, 3-s (B) 1-r, 2-q, 3-s (C) 1-a, 2-s, 3-r (D) 1-q, 2-r, 3-a
160
45. R' X
/ Na Ether
. Identify R
1
(A)
3
3 3
|
|
CH
CH C CH - -
(B)
3 3
3 2
3 3
| |
|
|
- - -
CH CH
CH C C CH
CH CH
-
(C)
3
3
2
3
|
|
CH
CH C CH
CH
-
- - (D)
3 3
3
3 3
| |
|
|
CH CH
CH C C
CH CH
- - -
46. Identify A & B respectively
Br + Mg dry.Ether A. B.
H O
2
(A)
Mg Mg Br
(B)
Mg Br
(C)
Br
Mg Br
(D)
Mg Br
47. For recemisation.
(A) 50 : 50 mixture & opticall active. (B) 75 : 25 mixture & optically inactive
(C) 50 : 50 mixture & optically inactive (D) 25 : 75 mixture & optically active
48. Classify the configuration of product of a symmetric carbon atom. Consider the replacement of a
group X by Y in the following reaction.
C H
2 5
H C
3
Y
H
C H
2 5
x
H
CH
3
A + B
C H
2 5
y
H
CH
3
A
Process for A, B and A+B as under
(A) A-retention of configuration A+B racemisation, B-Invention of configuration
(B) A-Inversion of configuration, A+B retention of configuration, B-recemisation.
(C) A+B - Inversion of configuration, B-retention of config n; A-recemisation.
(D) None of them
161
49. Predict the conect order for following reaction the approaching nucleophilies.
P = Nu : C X
H
H
q Nu : H X ;
H
H
C R Nu : C X H ; S Nu : C X
(A) Q < P < R < S (B) Q > P > R > S
(C) P > Q > R > S (D) Q < P < R < S
50. Predict the decreasing order of density for same Alkyl or cryle group.
(A) R / Ar - Br > Ar / R Cl > R / Ar - I > R /Ar > F
(B) R / Ar I > R / Ar Br > R / Ar Cl > R / Ar F
(C) R / Ar - I < R / Ar Cl < R / Ar Br > R / Ar F
(D) R / Ar F > R / Ar Cl < R / Ar Br < R / Ar I
51. Predict the improper chemical reaction
(A)
2
6 5 2 6 5 2 2
2
273 278
NaNO HCl
C H NH C H N Cl NaCl H O
K
+
+ +
-
(B)
6 5 2 6 5 2
2
Send Mayur reaction
C H N Cl C H Cl N
CuCl HCl
+
D +
(C)
6 5 2 6 5 2
2
Send Mayur
C H N Cl C H Br N HCl
CuCl HBr
+ +
D +
(D)
2 5 6
KI
2 5 6
N KCl I H C Cl N H C + +
D
52. Phenol + X

Chlorobenzne + ; SO HCl
2
+ where X = .......?
(A)
3
PCl (B)
3
SOCl (C)
5
PCl (D)
2
SOCl
53. Predict the no. of isomers for possible genimal dihalide in
(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 9
54. for vinyl halide compound which is true ?
(A) chloro ethen (B) 1-chloro 3-phenyl propene
(C) 1Bromo cyclohexa-1enc (D) All of above
55. Which is correct for aelaillic halide compounds.
(A) 3, Bromo, 2-Methy, Buyt 1-ene (B) 4-Bromo, 3-Methyl Buyt-2-ene
(C) 3, Bromo 2-Methyl Propene (D) 1-Bromo Buyt -2-ene.
162
56. A B
1. Benzail Bromaid M.
Br
2. Ethilidin bromaid N. CH
3
CH
2
Br
2
3. Finail Bromaid O. H
2
C = CHCH
2
Br
4. Alail Bromaid P. CH Br
2
(A) 1-M, 2-N, 3-O, 4-P (B) 1-P, 2-N, 3-M, 4-O
(C) 1-P, 2-N, 3-O, 4-M (D) 1-N, 2-O, 3-M, 4-P
57. Give IUPAC Name
Cl
(A) 2-Phenyl 2-chloropropane (B) 1-chloro, 1-Methyl ethyl Benzene
(C) isopropyl chlorobenzene (D) 1 dimethyl, 1, chlorobenzene
58. Which alkylhalide known as Neopentyl chloride ?
(A)
H
Cl
(B)
H H
Cl
H H
(C)
H
Cl H
H
(D)
H
Cl H
59. R H PX R X B HX
5
- + - + + B menas = ...................?
(A)
3 3
PO H (B)
3
HPOX
(C)
3
POX (D)
4 3
PO H
60. . X I H C
2
AgNO
5 2
..............?
(A) O N O H C
5 2
= - - (B) O N H C
5 2
= -
(C) C H N
2 5
O
Ag
O
(D) C H O N
2 5
O
O
61. Which compound known as kiral molecule & giving optical isomers ?
(A) 2 chloropropane (B) 2 Methyl butane
(C) 2 Bromo butane (D) 2, 2 dichloro butane
163
62. O H NaHSO A SO H NaCl OH H C
2 4 4 2 5 2
+ + + +
A + 2Na B + 2NaCl ?
dry Ether
For A & B respectively
(A) Ethyl Bromide, ethane (B) Methyl chloride ; ethane
(C) Ethyl Bromide butane (D) Ethyl chloride butane
63. Benzene

X
Chlorobezene

Y
For X & Y respectively..
(A) [ ] [ ]
3 2 3 2
FeCl Cl ; FeCl , Cl (B) [ ] [ ]
3 3 2
AlCl dry ; AlCl dry , Cl
(C) [ ] [ ] Cl H C AlCl dry ; FeCl , Cl
5 2 3 3 2
(D) [ ] [ ] Cl CH AlCl dry ; FeCl , Cl
3 3 3 2
64. Silver nitrate not giving the Precipates with chloro form because of .............
(A) Chloroform is organic compound. (B) Chloroform is non ionised in water
(C) AgNO
3
indouble in chloroform (D) Chloroiform is insoluble in water
65. Which compound on oxidation gives Banzoic Acid ?
(A) Chlorobenzene (B) ChloroTolune
(C) Benzyl Chloride (D) Chloro phenol.
66. Which is Gemexine compond ?
(A) DDT (B) BHC (C) a & b (D) None of these
67. Chloroform on slow oxydation with air gives
(A) Formile Chloride (B) Formic Acid
(C) COOH C Cl
3
- (D)
2
COCl
68. For which compound iodoform test not possible ?
(A) OH H C
5 2
(B) CHO CH
3
(C)
COCH
3
(D) Benzophenone
69. Reaction of CCl
4
with AgNO
3
soultion gives...
(A) White PPT of Agcl (B) No reaction take place
(C) NO
2
gas produce (D) CCl
4
dissolved in AgNO
3
Solution
70. What is DDT ?
(A) Insecti side (B) Bleaching agent
(C) Weedkiller (D) Oxydiging agent
71. Predict the condition for conversion of Benzyl bromide form Tolluene.
(A) Bl
2
/ FeBr
3
(B) HBr
(C) Bl
2
/ Light (D) Br
2
164
72. Which compound having stranger C-X ?
(A) , F CH
3
- (B) Cl CH
3
(C) I CH
3
(D) Br . CH
3
73. For CCl of chlorobenzene campair with C-Cl of ethyl chloride
(A) Larger bond length & weak bond.
(B) Shorter bond lenth & weak bond
(C) Larger bond length & strenger bond
(D) Shorter bond length & strenger bond
74. Predict the correct order of bond energy for C-X (where x = cl, Br, I)
(A) CI > CBr > C Cl (B) CCl > C Br > C I
(C) CI > C Cl > C Br (D) C Br > C I > C Cl
75.
3
[ ]
2
FeBr
Ethylbenzene Br + ............ ?
(A)
CH CH
2 3
Br
(B)
CH CH Br
2 2
(C)
CH CH
2 3
Br
(D)
CH CH
2 3
Br
76. Which compound having zero dipolmoment.
(A) cis 1-2, dichloro ethelene (B) 1, 1, dichloro ethelene
(C) trans 1-2, dischroethelen (D) none of these
77. Which compound formed when ethenolic KOH react with normal propile bromide ?
(A) Propane (B) Propanol
(C) Propene (D) Propine
78. Benzen + npropail chloride

3
AlCl any
.......... ?
(A) propile benzene (B) n-propile benzene
(C) 3-propile 1-chloro benzne (D) none of these
79. For Lucast test............
(A) conc HCl +dry Zncl
2
(B) conc
2 3
Zncl dry HNO +
(C) conc
( ) 3 2 aq
HNO ZnCl +
(D)
( ) 2 aq
HCl ZnCl +
80. Geonetrical isomerssm is not shown in by
(A) 1, 2 dichlorobutane (B) 1,1 dichlorobutane
(C) 1, 3 dichlorobutane (D) none of these
165
81. Which type of product produce.
Circal Centre in the reaction
( ) CN OH CH CH CH HCN CHO CH
3 3 3
- - - +
(A) Dextro rotatory (B) Mesoisomer
(C) Levo-rotatory (D) Recemic mixture
82. On the base of inductive effect predict the increasing stability order
(1)
CH
2
+
(2)
+
(3)
CH
3
C
+
CH
3
(A) I > II > III (B) I < II < III
(C) III > I > II (D) II = III < I
83. According to -I effect predict in creasing order of stability.
(1)
CH
2
X
+
(2)
CH
2
X
+
(3)
CH
2
X
+
(A) III > I > II (B) II < I < III
(C) I < II < III (D) III < II > I
84. Which among the following compunds will be most recetive for SN
1
reaction ?
(A) Cl (B) Cl (C)
Cl
CH
3
(D)
Cl
CH
3
85. Phosgene react with excess of benzene in presence of anhyd Alcl
3
to give.
(A) benzoylchlorde (B) benzophenone
(C) benzoicacid (D) benzbinacol
86. The correct order of reactivity of the following compound ith O H
2
is .........
(i)
Br
(ii)
Br
(iii)
Br
(iv)
Br
(A) IV > III > I > II (B) I > II > IV > III
(C) I > IV > III > II (D) I > IV > II > III
87. The reactivity of the compounds............
(I) MeBr (II) PhCH
2
Br
(III) MeCl (IV) P - Meo C
6
H
4
Br decreases as
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > II > I > III
(C) IV > III > I > II (D) II > I > III > IV
166
88.
Br / Fe
2
Br / Water
2
x
y
CH CH = CH
2 2
; x & y respectively
(A) CH CH = CH ,
2 2
Br CH CH Br
2
CH
2
|
Br
(B)
CH CH ,
2 2
Br
Br
CH CH
2
CH
2
|
Br
|
Br
(C) CH CH = CH ,
2 2
Br CH CH
2 2
Br
Br
(D) None of these
89. Geometrical isometrism is not shown by ?
(A) 1, 4 dichloro, 2-pentene (B) 1,1 dichloro 1-pentene
(C) 1,2 dichloro, 1-pentene (D) 1,3 dichloro 2-pentene
90. The no. of structural & configurational isomers of a bromo compound Br H C
9 5
obtained by the
addition of HBr on 2-pentyne respectively are............
(A) 2, 4 (B) 4, 2
(C) 1, 2 (D) 2, 1
Hint :
HBr
3 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 3
CH CH C CH CH CH C C CH ; CH CH C C CH - - - = - - = -
|
Br
|
H
|
H
|
Br
Thus, each one of the these will existas (I) as a pair of geometrical isomer. Structural isomers = 2 &
stereosomers = 4.
91. How many enantiomer pairs are obtained by monochlorination of 2, 3-dimethyl butane ?
(A) two (B) three
(C) four (D) one
92. Which intermidiat increase the SN
2
reaction ?
(A) carboniyan ion (B) activated complex ion
(C) Freeredical (D) carbenion ion
93.
= +

+ A ; SbCl 2 A
essure Pr high
SbF 2 CCl 3
3
SbCls
3 4
.....................
(A)
2 2
Cl CH (B) F CCl
3
(C)
2 2
F CCl (D)
3
CClF
167
94. Which compounds are used as a Antiseptic ?
(A)
4
CCl (B)
3
CHI
(C)
3
CHCl (D)
2 2
F CCl
95. H C D
|
Br
CH
3
|
Which is the configuration of this compound.
(A) S- (B) R -
(C) L - (D) D -
96. Reaction of chlorobenzene with Mg in presence of dry other will gives compound A. Compound A
reacts with aqueous halogen acid give which product.
(A) Phenol (B) Phenyl Ether
(C) Phenyl ketone (D) Benzene
97. In sulfonation of chlorobenzene gives ................
(A) Benzen sulfonic acid (B) m-chloro benzene sulfonic acid
(C) O & P Chlorobenzen sulfonic acid (D) O-chlorobenzen sulfonic acid
98. ; B A
KOH
I H C
2
Br
Ethenol
5 2

Where B = ................
(A)
2 3
CHBr CH - (B) CH
2
Br CH
2
Br
(C) Br . CH Br . CH = (D) Br CH CH
2 3
99. Which is the true drecreasing order for
(A) F CH , Br CH ; Cl CH
3 3 3
- - (B) Cl CH , F CH , Br CH
3 3 3
- -
(C) Br CH , F CH ; CI CH
3 3 3
- - - (D) F . CH , Cl CH , Br CH
3 3 3
- -
100. Which is not a sendmayer reactant ?
(A) ( ) KCN CN Cu
2 2
+ (B) HCl Cl Cu
2 2
+
(C) KI I Cu
2 2
+ (D) HBr Br Cu
2 2
+
101. H C CH
3 2
CH
3
CH
3
OH gives which observation in Lucas test ?
(A) reaction not take place (B) give colour layer
(C) Oilly point on layer (D) milky solution
168
102. Which compound having zero dipole moment ?
(A) Cis 2-Butene (B) Tras 2-Butene
(C) 2-Methyl 1-Propene (D) 1-Butene
103. In which compound ciral centre is absent ?
(A) DCH
2
CH
2
CH
2
Cl (B) Cl CH . D . CH CH
2 3
(C) D CH . Cl . CH CH
2 3
(D) Cl . D . CH CH CH
2 3
104. Which compound is optically active ?
(A) 2,2 dimethyl pentene (B) 3-Methyl pentene
(C) Butene (D) 2-Methyl Penten
105. How d and l isomer are differ from eachother ?
(A) On the basis of reactivity with unoptical reactant
(B) On the basis of melting point
(C) On the basis of solubility of unoptical reactant
(D) On the basis of optical rotation of polarised right.
106. Main product of reaction between tertiary butyle chloride and sodium ethoxide
(A) 1-Butene (B) 2-butene
(C) 2-Methyl Prop. 1-ene (D) 2 Etoxy 2-Methyl propane
107. Which compound gives only one monochloro product ?
(A) 2-Methyl penten (B) 3-Methyl pentene
(C) Neopentene (D) 2, 3 dimethyl pentene
108. ( ) COCl CH
3 3
having IUPAC name ?
(A) 3-chlorobutene (B) 2-chloro, 2-Methyl propane
(C) tertiary butile chloride (D) n-bytyl chloride
109. HCl Cl H C Cl H C
7 3
light
2 8 3
+ + is which type of rx
n
.
(A) Addition (B) Substitution
(C) elimination (D) Re-arrangement
110. 1, Chloro butane react with Alcoholic KOH produce............
(A) 1-Butenol (B) 1-Butene
(C) 2-Butene (D) 2-butenol
111. Which compound contains Antiseptic property ?
(A) Trifloro methane (B) Triiodo methane
(C) Tetra chloromethane (D) dichloro methane
112. In presence of which compd. Benzene react with I
2
to form Iodobenzene ?
(A) HI (B) SO
2
(C) H
2
O (D) HNO
3
169
113. Give correct reaction for methyl floride
(A) + HF CH
4
(B) + HF OH CH
3
(C)
4 2
CH F + (D) + AgF Br CH
3
114. Which compound on liquification SN
1
reaction is not possible ?
(A) Cl CHCH CH
2 2
= (B) C
6
H
5
Cl
(C) C
6
H
5
CH(CH
3
)Cl (D) Cl CH H C
2 5 6
115. Which compound show optical isomerism ?
(A) HO CO H
2
H
H
(B)
CO H
2
OH
H
(C) CO H
2
H
(D) CO H
2
Cl
116. Onheating Chloroform with silver powder gives ...........
(A) Ethane (B) Ethyne
(C) Methane (D) Eethene
117. Which compound gives more reactivities in SN
1
reaction of
(A) Br CH H C
2 5 6
(B) ( ) ( ) Br H C CH C H C
5 6 3 5 6
(C) CH H C
5 6
( ) Br H C
5 6
(D) ( ) Br CH CH H C
3 5 6
118.
NaCl Y NaI X HCl CH CH
Acetone
2 2
+ + + =
x and y Respectively
(A) Iodo ethane, chloroethane (B) 1, 2 dichloro ethane, Iodo form.
(C) Chloro ethane, iodo ethane (D) Broimoethane, iodoethane
119.
CH Br
2
H
Me
+
Anhy.AlCL
3
C ; C = ?
(A) Br
H
CH
3
(B)
CH
3
(C)
CH
3
(D) None of these
170
120. The number of isomers for the compound with colecular formula C
2
BrClFI is ...
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 5
121. In the presence of peroxide, hydrogen chloride and hydrogen iodide do not give anti Markovnikov
addition to alke nes because.
(A) both are hightly tonic
(B) one is oxidising and other is reducing
(C) one of the steps is exothermic in both cases
(D) all the steps are exothermic in both the cases
122. An SN
2
reaction at an a symmetric carbon of a compound always gives.
(A) a product with the optical rotation (B) a single stereomer
(C) a mixture of diastereomers (D) a product with opposite optical rotation
123. A solution of (+) 2-chloro-2 phenyl ethane in toluene recemises slowly in the presence of small
amount of SbCl
5
due to the formation of
(A) carbanion (B) carbenec
(C) carbocation (D) Free redical
124. The final product formed by distilling ethyl alcohol with excess of Cl
2
and Ca(OH)
2
is
(A) CHO CH
3
(B) CCl
3
CHO
(C)
3
CHCl (D) ( ) O CH
2 3
125. The reaction of CH
3
CH = CH OH with HBr gives.
(A) CH
3
CH.Br.CH
2
OH (B) CH
3
CH
2
CH.Br Br
(C) CH
3
CH
2
CH.Br OH (D) CH
3
CH.Br.CH
2
Br
126. A new C-C bond formation is possible in
(A) Cannizzaro reaction (B) Hydrohelognation reaction
(C) Clemmensen reduction (D) Reimer tiemann reaction
127. The product of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrate with ethyl bromide is
(A) Ethylene (B) Ethyl nitrite (C) Nitro ethane (D) Ethyl Alcohol
128. Which of the following will have zero dipolemoment ?
(A) 1,1 dichloro ethelene (B) cis-1-2 dichloro ethylene
(C) trans. 1,2-dichloro ethelene (D) none of these
129. Chlorination of Tolnene in the presence of light and heat followed by treatment with aqueous NaOH
gives.
(A) O-cresol (B) P-cresol
(C) Ben zoic Acid (D) 2, 4 dihydroxy toluene
171
130. 2-Phenyl 2-chloro propane on treat ment with alcok gives mainly.
(A) 2-phenyl propene (B) 3-phenylpropane
(C) 1-phenyl propan 2-ol (D) 1-phenyl propane 3-ol
131. Only two isomeric monochloro derivaties are possible for
(A) n-hexane (B) 2, 4 dimethyl pentane
(C) benzene (D) 2, methyl propane
132. The C-H bond distance is longest in
(A)
2 2
H C (B)
4 2
H C
(C) Br H C
2 2
(D)
6 2
H C
133. Chloroform on treatment with alcoholic KOH + aniline gives
(A) phenyl isocyanide (B) Phenol
(C) Cyanobenzene (D) None of these
134. The molecular formula of a saturated compound is C
2
H
4
Br. The formula permits the existance of
two.
(A) Functional isomers (B) Position isomers
(C) optical isomers (D) Cis trans isomers
1. c 18. c 35. c 52. d 69. b 86. c 103. a 120. c
2. c 19. a 36. d 53. c 70. a 87. d 104. b 121. c
3. d 20. b 37. d 54. d 71. a 88. a 105. d 122. b
4. c 21. b 38. a 55. a 72. a 89. b 106. c 123. c
5. b 22. b 39. b 56. b 73. d 90. a 107. c 124. c
6. d 23. d 40. c 57. b 74. b 91. d 108. b 125. c
7. c 24. b 41. b 58. a 75. d 92. b 109. c 126. d
8. b 25. d 42. c 59. c 76. b 93. c 110. b 127. c
9. c 26. c 43. d 60. d 77. c 94. b 111. b 128. c
10. c 27. b 44. d 61. c 78. a 95. a 112. d 129. c
11. c 28. c 45. a 62. d 79. a 96. d 113. d 130. a
12. d 29. c 46. d 63. d 80. b 97. c 114. b 131. d
13. c 30. b 47. c 64. b 81. d 98. b 115. b 132. d
14. c 31. c 48. a 65. c 82. b 99. c 116. b 133. a
15. b 32. a 49. b 66. b 83. c 100. c 117. b 134. b
16. a 33. b 50. b 67. d 84. c 101. a 118. c
17. b 34. c 51. b 68. d 85. b 102. b 119. b
Answer Key
172
Unit-23 - Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
Important Points
A Organic compounds containing oxygen - I
1. Preparation of alcohols:
Monohydric alcohols are prepared by the hydrolysis of alkyl halides with aqueous
alkali, hydration of alkenes, hydrolysis of ester, reduction of (alde hydes, ketones,
acids and acid derivatives). Grignard reagents is also used to prepare monohydric
alcohols.
2. Physical properties of alcohols:
The boiling points of alcohols are much higher than comperatively same molecular
masses of alkanes, ethers and alkyl halides. This is due to intermo lecular H-
bond. For isomeric alcohols, the boiling points are in the order
0 0 0
1 2 3 . > >
Due to the formation of H-bond between alcohol and H
2
O modecules,
alcohol with lower number of carbons are soluble in water.
3. Chemical properties of alcohols:
Alcohols exhibit three types of reactions,
(i) Reaction in which O-H bond cleaves
(ii)Reaction in which C-O bond cleaves
(iii)Reaction in which whole molecule of alcohol participate.
Victor-Meyers test and Lucas reagent are used to distinduish 1
0
, 2
0
and 3
0
alcohols.Oxidation reactions are also used to distiguished between 1
0
, 2
0
and
3
0
alcohols.
4. Preparation of phenol:
Phenol is prepare from cumene, diazonium salt, benzene and coal tar.
5. Physical properties of phonol:
Phenols have higher boiling point than the corresponding hydrocarbon and
aryl halides. This is due to the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
Phenols are more acidic than alcohols because phenoxide ion is stabilised by
resonance. The presence of electon withdrawing group like NO
2
, increases the
acidic strength of phenol and electron donating group like R, decreases the
acidic strength of phenol.
173
6. Chemical properties of phenol:
Reaction of phenols are mainly of two types,
(i) Reaction involving OH group
(ii) Reaction involving phenyl group
7. Preparation of ethers:
Ethers are mainly prepared by Williamsons synthesis which involces the
heating of alkyl halides with sodium or potassium alkoxides or phenoxides.
Dehydration of alcohol at
0
140 c also gives ether..
8. Chemical properties of ethers:
(i) Reaction involving cleavage of C-O bond with dilute acid or with HX
(ii) Electrophillic substitution reactions occuring in aromatic ring
B: Organic compounds containing oxygen - II
1. Carbonyl compounds:
Organic compounds containing carbon-oxygen double bond ( O = C C C = O
+
= O) are called carbonyl
group or carboxy group compounds. In aldehydes, the carbonyl group is attached to one hydrogen
atom and one alkyl (or aryl or hydrogen atom) group, while in ketones it is attached to one alkyl
and one arly group or to two alkyl (or aryl) groups, which may be same or diffrent. If carbonyl
group is attached to one hydroxyl group, the compounds are know as carboxylic acids. In carboxylic
acid compounds, if the hydrogen of hydroxyl group is substituted by alkyl or aryl group the
compounds are known as esters, but if it is substitued by acyl group, the compounds are known as
acid anhydrides. If the carbonyl group is attached to chlorine and to amino group the compounds
are known as acid chlorides and amides respectively. The general formula of these compounds are
expressed as
Aldehyde Ketone Carboxylic acid Anhydride Acid Chloride Amide
2. Structure and nature of carbonyl group:
Carbonyl carbon atom is
2
sp
hybridised and form three s -bonds and one p bond. All the three
s-bond lie in same plane having angle 120
0
. The p- bond lies both above and below the C-O
s bond. Thus the carbonyl carbon, oxygen atom and two atoms which are directly bonded to the
carbonyl carbon lie in one plane, and is confirmed by electron diffraction and spectroscopic studies.
Due to higher electronegativity of oxygen atom relative to carbon atom the carbonyl group is
polarized and carbonyl carbon becomes electrophile (Lewis acid) and oxygen becomes nucleophile
(Lewis base). Carbonyl group is polar in nature and has dipole moments.Aldehydes and ketones
174
have dipole moments 2.3-2.8 D. The resonance structures are as shown below :
O = C C C = O
+
3. Physical properties of aldehydes and ketones:
The polar carbonyl groups have dipole-dipole interaction between opposite ends of the O = C C C = O
+
= O
group dipoles and hence due to weak intermolecular attraction the melting points and boiling points
of aldehydes and ketones are higher than corresponding non-polar compounds.
The order of boiling points is carboxylic acid > alcohol > isomeric ketone > isomeric aldehyde
> ether > hydrocarbon.
Due to hydrogen bonding with water molecules the aldehydes and ketones upto three carbon are
soluble in water.
The aromatic aldehydes and ketones due to presence of larger hydrocarbon parts (like benzene
ring etc.), are insoluble in water.
All adehydes and ketones are fairly soluble in organic solvents like benzene, ether, alcohols,
chloroform etc.
4. Chemical properties of aldehydes and ketones:
Due to presence of hydrogen atom, the carbonyl group of aldehyde is much more reactive
than ketone.
Aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic addition reaction because the carbonyl carbon atom
is slightly positively charged.
In nucleophilic addition the first step is reversible and also slow, so it is a rate determining step.
The second step is reversible.
Due to steric effect and inductive effect the aldehydes are more reactive than ketones.
Most of the aldehydes and aliphatic methyl ketones, due to less steric hindrance are more reactive.
Aldehydes and ketones react with
3
NaHSO and give bisulphite addition product which are usu
ally crystalline solids. On hydrolysis they give original aldehydes and ketones, so this reaction is
useful for separation and purification of aldehydes and ketones.
Addition of HCN and Grignard reagent to the aldehyde and ketone which give a -hydroxy carboxylic
acid and
0 0 0
1 , 2 , 3 alcohols respectively..
Addition of alcohol to aldehyde give hemiacetal and further acetal, while ketone give the same
product.
Nucleophilic addition reaction of aldehydes and ketones with
3
NH and its derivatives
2
( ) H N Z -
are catalysed by acids.
Aldehydes and ketones on reduction give
0
1
and
0
2
alcohols respectively..
Aldehydes and ketones can be reduced to hydrocarbon by using different reagent like Wolff-
Kishner reduction, Clemmenses reduction, red phosphorus with HI. Ketones on reduction with
magnesium amalgam and water give the product pinacol. Oxidation of aldehydes : Tollens test,
Fehlings test and Benedicts test give the product carboxylic acid. Fehlings test and Benedicts
test are not given by aromatic aldehydes.
Oxidation of ketones by strong oxidizing agents like con. HNO
3
, KMnO
4
/ H
2
SO
4
,
K
2
Cr
2
O
7
/H
2
SO
4
give mixture of carboxylic acids.
175
Oxidation of aldehydes and ketones containing
3
CH CO-group give iodoform test.
Aldol condensation and cross aldol condensation are the reactions given by aldehydes and ketones
having a -hydrogen atom or atoms using dilute alkali as catalyst.
Cannizzaro reaction is given by aldehydes and ketones which do not have an a -hydrogen atom
by using con. NaOH or 50 % NaOH.
Electrophilic substitution reactions of aromatic aldehydes and ketones are nitration, sulphonation
and halogenation.
5. Preparation of caroxylic acids :
Carboxylic acids are prepared from :
Primary alcohol and aldehyde
Alkyl benzene and alkenes
Nitriles and amides.
Grignard reagents
Acid halide (chloride) and anhydrides
Esters
6. Acidic nature of carboxylic acids :
Carboxylic acids are stronger acids than phenol and alcohols.
For convenience the strength of an acid is generally indicated by its
a
pK value rather than its
a
K
value.
pKa = log Ka
Factors affecting strength of acids are
effect of electron-donating group
effect of electron withdrawing group
attachment of phenyl or vinyl group directly to carbonyl group.
7. Physical and chemical properties of carboxylic acids :
Carboxylic acid in aqueous solution form intermolecular hydrogen bonding with water mol-
ecules.
Carboxylic acids are cyclic dimer in vapour phase or in aprotic solvents.
The reactions of carboxylic acid are
Reactions involving cleavage of O-H bond.
Reactions involving cleavage of C-OH bond
Reaction involving -COOH group
Substitution reaction in hydrocarbon part of carboxylic acid are halogenation and ring substitution
as bromination, nitration and sulphonation.
Carboxylic acids are used in different fields.
176
MCQ
1. Numbers of isomeric alcohols of molecular formula
5 12
C H O are
(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 9
2. Which of the following will produce only one product on reduction with LiAlH
4
?
(A) CH
3
COOCH
2
CH
3
(B) CH
3
CH
2
OCOCH
2
CH
3
(C) CH
3
COOCH
3
(D) CH
3
CH
2
OCOCH
2
CH
2
CH
3
3.
3 2 2
CH CH CH OH Can be converted to
3 2 2
CH CH CH COOH by the following sequence of steps:
(A) PBr
3
, KCN, H
2
/{Ni} (B) HCN, PBr
3
, H
3
O
+
(C) PBr
3
, AgCN, H
3
O
+
(D) PBr
3
, KCN, H
3
O
+
4.
4
LiAlH
2
H C CH COOH X = -
. What is "X" ?
(A)
3 2
CH CH COOH (B)
3 2 2
CH CH CH OH
(C)
2 2
H C CH CH OH = - (D)
3 2
CH CH CHO|
5. In the following Sequence of reactions,
2 2
P I H O Mg HCHO
3 2
ether
CH CH OH A B C D
+
,
the compound Dis:
(A) propanal (B) n-butyl alcohol
(C) butanal (D) n-propyl alcoho
6. Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads to the formation of
(A) primary alcohal
(B) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols
(C) secondary or tertiary alcohol
(D) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
7. During dehydration of alcohol to alkenes by heating with Conc H
2
SO
4
, the initiation step is:
(A) elimination of water (B) formation of an ester
(C) formaton of carbocation (D) protonation of alcohol molecule
8. which of the following compounds will give positive iodoformtest ?
(I) 3- methyl propan-2-ol (III) I - methyl cyclopentanal
(II) I - phenyl propan-1-ol (Iv) 3- phenyl propan-2-ol.
(A) I and III (B) I and IV (C) II and III (D) II and IV
177
9. Which of the following alcohal on heating with conc H
2
SO
4
gives product, which showgeometrical
isomerism?
(A) 2,4- dimethyl pentan-3-ol B) 2- methyl butan -2-ol
(C) butan-2-ol (D) all of the above
10. Propan -l-ol and propan-2-ol can be distingaished by
(A) oxidation with alkaline KMnO
4
followed by reation with Fehing Solution
(B) oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reation with Fehling Solution
(C) oxidation by heating with copper followed by reation with Fehling Solution
(D) oxidation with conc
2 4
H SO followed by reaction with Fehling Solution
11. Which one of the follwing will most readily be dehydrated in acidic condition ?
(A)
O OH
(B)
O
(C)
O
OH
(D)
O
OH
12. The best reagent to convert pent - 3 - en-2-ol into pent-3en-2-one is
(A) acidic permanganate (B) acidic dichromate
(C) chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid (D) pyridiniumchlorochromate
13.
3 2
CH CH OH can not be prepare by which of the following reaction ?
(A) Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate
(B) Hydroboration of ethene followed by oxidation in basic medium
(C) Reaction of ethyl chloride with alcoholic potassiumhydroxide
(D) Reaction of ethylacetate
14. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of primary alcohol into aldehyde with the same number of
carban is
(A) acidified K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(B) alkaline KMnO
4
(C) acidified KMnO
4
(D) pyridiniumchlorochromate
15. OH
2
P Br +
x
Na
y What is y ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. An organic compound "X" on treatment with PDCin
2 2
CH Cl gives compound "Y". Compound "Y",
reacts with
2
I and alkali to formyellowprecipitate. The compound "X" is
(A) acetone (B) ethanal (C) ethanol (D) acetic acid.
178
17. Howmany optically active stereoisomers are possidle for butan -2,3 -diol ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
18. The correct order of boiling points is for
n- Butyl alcohol tert - Butyl alcohol
(I) (III)
iso - Butyl alcohol Sec- Butyl alcohol
(II) (IV)
(A) I >II >IV>III (B) III >IV>II >I
(C) II >III >I >IV (D) IV>III >II >I
19. The boiling point of glycerol is more than propanol because of
(A) hydrogen bonding (B) hybridization
(C) arrangment of molecules (D) size of molecule
20. An organic compound Xis oxidised by using acidified
2 2 7
K Cr O . The product obtained reacts with
phenyl hydrazine but does not give silver mirror test. The possible structure of Xis
(A)
3 2
CH CH OH (B)
3 3
CH CO CH
(C) ( )
3
2
CH CH OH (D)
3
CH CHO
21. ( )
3
3
CH CMgCl on reaction with D
2
Oproduces
(A) ( )
3
CD CD (B) ( )
3
3
CD CH (C) ( )
3
3
CH COD (D) ( )
3
3
CH CD
22. Lucas test is associated with
(A) alcohols (B) phenols (C) aldehydes (D) carboxylic acids
23. ______________alcohol reacts immediately with anhydrous ZnCl
2
+ HCl and gives insoluble chloride
(A) Methanol (B) Ethanol
(C) Isopropyl alcohol (D) 2 - Methyl propan - 2-ol,
24. Glycerol is more viscous than ethanol due to
(A) many hydrogen bonds per molecule (B) high boiling point
(C) high molecular weight (D) Fajan' s rule
25. 4.6 gramethanol when reacts with sodiummetal___________is formed.
(A)
2
11.2 litre H at STP (B)
2
1.12 litre H at STP
(C)
2
1.12 litre O at STP (D)
2
11.2 litre H at STP
179
26. P
2 6
2 2
( )
( ) /
i B H
ii H O OH
-
CH
2
........
3
H O
Q
+
P and Qrespecctively are

(A) Both CH
2
OH
ku
(B)
CH
3
OH
ku
(C)
and
CH
2
OH
CH
2
OH
and
CH
2
OH
C
3
H
OH
(D)
and
CH
2
OH
C
3
H
OH
27.
2 5
C H OH and
6 5
C H OH can be distinguished by
(A)
2 2
Br H O + (B) I
2
+NaOH (C) FeCl
3
(D) Both (B) and (C)
28. In the Lucas test of alcohols, appearnce of cloudiness is due to the formation of
(A) aldehyde (B) alkyl chloride (C) acid chloride (D) ketone
29. When ethyl alcohol is treated with cl
2
we get
(A)
3 2
CH CH Cl (B)
2 2
CH Cl CH OH
(C)
2 2
CH Cl CH OH (D)
3
CCl CHO
30. When a compound (Molecular formula
3 8
C H O) is treated with acidic sodiumdichromate we get
compound "X". When"X" is treated with methyl magnesiumbromide followed by hydrolysis compound
"y" is formed. The compound y is
(A) isopropyl alcohol (B) tertiary butyl alcohol
(C) iso butyl alcohol (D) methyl ethyl ketone
31. Idenfify P,Qand Rin the following reactions,
(i)
COOH
OH
P
D
OH
(ii)
OH
Zn
D
Q
(iii) R 2 5
C H I
OC H
2 5
(A) Sodiumoxide benzene, Sodiumphenoxide
(B) Sodalime, benzene, potassiumphenoxide
(C) Zn, cyclohexanone, Sodiumethoxide
(D) Sodium, cyclohexanone, potassiumbenzoate
32. Salicyladehyde and o-nitrophenol are less soluble in water because,
(A) - CHOand
2
NO - groups are not polar.
(B) they are aromatic compounds.
(C) intra molecular H-bond is present
(D) their molecular weights are high.
180
33. The final product of the following reaction is / are
OH
3
CHCl
KOH

50%KOH
(A)
OH
CH
OH
(B)
OH
C
O
COOK
(C)
OH
CH OH +
2
COOK
OH
(D)
CH OH +
2
COOK
34. Given I =
OM
e
OH
, II =
NO
2
OH
, III =
OH
The decreasing order of the acidic character is
(A) I >II >III (B) III >II >I (C) II >III >I (D) II >I >III
35. An organic compound `X' With molecular formula,
7 8
C H O is insoluble in aqueous
3
NaHCO but
dissolves in NaOH . When treated with bromine water, `X' rapidly gives `Y' (
7 5 3
C H OBr ) The
compounds `X' and `Y' respectively, are
(A) benzyl alcohol and 2,4,6 - tribromo-3-methoxy benzene
(B) benzyl alcohol and 2,4,6 - tribromo-3-methyl phenol
(C) o-cresol and 3,4,5 -tribromo-2- methyl phenol
(D) m-cresol and 2,4,6 -tribromo -3- methyl phenol
36. Willamson' s Synthesis is used for the preparation of
(A) acid (B) ester (C) ether (D) alcohol
37. P - cresol reacts with chloroformin alkaline mediumto give the compound A, which adds hydrogen
cyanide to formthe compound B. The latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral carboxylic acid. The
structure of the carboxylic acid is
(A)
CH
3
OH
CH
2
COOH
(B)
CH
3
OH
CH
2
COOH
(C)
CH
3
OH
CH(OH)COOH
(D)
CH
3
OH
CH(OH)COOH
181
38. Which of the following has maximumacidic strength ?
(A)
OH
N
2
O
(B)
OH
N
2
O
(C)
OH
(D)
OH
CH
3
39. The Structure of the compound that gives a tribromo derivative on treatment with bromive water is
(A)
CH
3
OH
(B)
CH
2
OH
(C)
CH
3
OH
(D)
CH
3
OH
40. (I) Benzene 1,2 - diol (II) Benzene 1,3 -diol (III) Benzene 1,4 -diol (IV) Phenol
The incresing order of boiling points of above mentioned compounds is
(A) I <II <III <IV (B) I <II <IV<III
(C) IV<I <II <III (D) IV<II <I <III
41. Phenols are more acidic than alcohols because
(A) phenols are more soluble in polar solvents
(B) phenoxide ion is stabilised by resonance
(C) phonoxide ion do not exhibit resonace
(D) alcohols do not lose Hatoms at all
42. The products obtained when benzyl phenyl ether is heated with HI in the mole ratio 1:1 are
1. phenol, 2 benzyl alcohol, 3. benzyl iodide, 4. iodobenzenc
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 3 and 4 only (C) 1 and 4 only (D) 2 and 4 only
43. The product obtained by the reaction of HBr with phenol is
(A)
B
r
(B)
OH
B
r
(C)
OH
B
r B
r
B
r
(D) There is no reaction
44.
H O + N
2
Cl
+
Base
(A) N = N OH (B)
(C) O (D) OH
182
45. Which one of the following is reduced with zinc and hydrochloric to give the corresponding hydrocarbon?
(A) Ethyl acetate (B) Acetic acid (C) Acetamide (D) Butan -2-one
46. An organic compound x with molecular formula C
5
H
10
O yields phenyl hydrazone and gives a negative
response to the iodoformtest and Tollen' s test. It produces n-pentane on reduction. The compound could be.
(A) petanal (B) pentan-2-one (C) pentan-3-one (D) amyl alcohol
47. Which of the following on heating with aqueous KOH, produces acetaldehyde ?
(A)
3
CH CO Cl (B)
3 2
CH CH Cl (C)
2 2
CH Cl CH Cl (D)
3 2
CH CHCl
48. The formation of cyanohydrin froma ketone is an example of
(A) electrophilic addition (B) nucleophilic addition
(C) nucleophilic substitution (D) electrophilic substifution
49. Which of the following is the best method for making iso-propylmethyl ether ?
(A) ( )
3 3
2
CH I CH CHO
-
+ (B) ( )
3 3
2
CH I CH CHOH +
(C) ( )
3 3
2
CH CHI CH O
-
+ (D) ( )
3 3
2
CH CHCl CH OH +
50. C-O-Cangle would be maximumin
(A)
3 3
CH O CH - - (B)
3 2 5
CH O C H - -
(C)
2 5 2 5
C H O C H - - (D) ( ) ( )
3 3
2 2
CH CH O CH CH - -
51. Which of the following reactions does not yield an ether ?
(A) Sodiummethoxide reacts with dimethyl sulphate
(B) Sodiumethoxide reacts with ethyl bromide
(C) Sodiumethoxide reacts with bromocyclopropane
(D) Ethanol reacts with
2 2
CH N in presence of
4
HBF
52. Which of the following reagent is used to convert Butan-2-one into propnroic acid
(A) NaOH, I
2
/H
+
(B) Fehling Solution
(C) Tollen' s reagent (D) NaOH, NaI/H
+
53. By which of the following proceducres can ethyl n-propyl ether be obtained ?
(A)
2
2 5
H O HBr Mg Na
2 5 ether C H Br
C H OH I II III
(B)
2
2 5 3
1.CH O HBr Mg Na
2 5 ether C H Br 2.H O
C H OH I II III
+

(C)
0
140 C
2 5 2 4
C H OH H SO +
(D)
0
3 2 2
180 C
2 5 2 4 CH CH CH Br
C H OH Conc H SO I +
183
54. Oxidation of is isopropyl benzene by oxygen in the presence of dilute acid gives___________.
(A) C
6
H
5
COOH (B) C
6
H
5
COCH
3
(C) C
6
H
5
CHO (D) C
6
H
5
OH
55. Cross aldol condensation occurs between
(A) two same aldehydes (B) two same ketones
(C) two different aldehydes and ketones (D) two same acids
56. Pentan - 3 - one is not obtainel from
(A) 2,2- dichloro pentane (B) 3,3- dichloro pentane
(C) pentan -3- ol (D) pent -2- yne
57.
2 5
C H CHO and ( )
3
2
CH CObe distiguished by testing with
(A) phenyl hydrazine (B) hydroxyl amine
(C) Fehilng Solution (D) sodiumbisulphide
58. Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen ?
(A) hexan-3-one (B) hexan 2,4- dione
(C) hexan 2,5-dione (D) hexan 2,3-dione
59. The appropriate reagent for the transformation
O
CH
3
HO HO
CH
2
CH
3
(A) Zn Hg, HCl - (B) H
2
/Ni (C)
2 2
NH NH , OH
-
(D)
4
NaBH
60.
3
CH CHO HCN A, - + compound Aon hydrolysis gives
(A)
3 2
CH CH COOH - - (B)
3 2 2 2
CH CH CH NH - - -
(C)
3 2 2
CH CH CH COOH - (D) ( )
3
CH CH OH COOH -
61. What will be the final product "Z" of the following reaction ?
3 2 4 2 4
2
(i) NH (i) Br / KOH KMnO / H SO
3 2
(ii) (ii) HNO
CH CH COOH X Y Z
D

(A) propan-1-ol (B) propan-1-amine
(C) ethanoic acid (D) propanal
62. Acompound, containing only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, has a molecular weight of 44. On complete
oxidation it is converted in to a compound of molecular weight 60. The original compound is
(A) an aldehyde (B) an acid (C) an alcohol (D) an ether
63. The major organic product formed fromthe following reaction
O
(i)
3 2
CH NH
..... is
(ii) LiAlH
4
(iii) H
2
O
184
(A)
OH
H CH
3
N
(B)
O NHCH
3
(C)
N CH
3
H
(D)
OH
H
N
CH
3
64. Which one does not give Cannizaro' s reaction ?
(A) benzaldehyde (B) 2- methyl propanal
(C) p - methoxy benzaldehy de (D) 2,2- dimethyl propanal
65. ACompound containing molecular formula
5 10 2
C H Cl on hydrolysis gives compound cotaining molecular
formula
5 10
C H O, Which reacts with
2
NH OH and also forms iodoformbut does not give fehling test
Original compound is
(A)
3 2 2 3
|
|
Cl
CH C CH CH CH
Cl
- - - - (B)
3 2 2 3
|
|
Cl
CH CH C CH CH
Cl
- - - -
(C)
3 2 2 2
|
|
- - - -
Cl
CH CH CH CH CH
Cl
(D)
3 2 3
| |
- - - - CH CH CH CH CH
Cl Cl
66. Silver mirror test can be used to distinguish between
(A) ketone and acid (B) phenol and acid
(C) aldeyhyde and acid (D) alcohol and phenol
67. The pair of compounds in which both the compounds give positive test with Tollen' s reagent is
(A) glucose and sucrose (B) fructose and sucrose
(C) acetophenone and hexanal (D) glucose and fructose
68. Wolf Kishner reduction reduces
(A) - COOHgroup (B) -CC- - group (C) -O- group (D) - CHOgroup
185
69.
OH
2
OCH CHO HOH C COOH
-

- -
The reaction given is
(A) Aldol condensation (B) Cannizzaro reaction
(C) Fehling reaction (D) Tollen' s reaction
70. Cyanohydrin of which of the following, forms lactic acid
(A)
3 2
CH CH CHO (B)
3
CH CHO (C)
HCHO
(D)
3 3
CH COCH
71. The correct order of reactivity of phMgBr with
||
( )
O
ph C ph
I
- -
, 3
||
( )
O
CH C H
II
- -
, 3 3
O
||
CH - C - CH
(III)
(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) II > III > I (D) I > III > II
72. Carboxcylic acids are more acidic than phenol and alcohol because of
(A) intermolecular hydrogen bonding (B) formation of dimers
(C) highly acidic hydrogen (D) resonance stabilization of their conjugate base
73. When
2
CH CH COOH = - is reduced with LiAlH
4
, the compound obtained will be
(A)
3 2 2
CH CH CH OH - - (B)
2 2
CH CH CH OH = -
(C)
3 6 5
CH COC H (D)
3 2
CH CH CHO - -
74. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a product C
6 6 2 5
3
C H C H MgBr
3 5
anhy Alcl ether
CH COOH PCl A B C +
Product CWould be
(A) CH
3
-C(OH)-C
6
H
5
(B) CH
3
-CH(OH)-C
2
H
5
(D) CH
3
COC
6
H
5
(D) CH
3
CH(OH)C
6
H
5
75. Among the following acids which has the lowest p
ka
vulue
(A)
3
CH COOH (B) HCOOH
(C) ( )
3
2
CH CH COOH - (D)
3 2
CH CH COOH
76. One of the following named reaction is an example of disproportionation reaction.
Identify it.
(A)Brich reduction (B)Aldol condensation
(C)Reimer-Tiemann reaction (D)Cannizzaro reaction
77. Acetone and acetaldehyde are differentiated by
(A) NaOH +I
2
(B) Ag(NH
3
)
2
+
(C) HNO
2
(D) I
2
186
78. Which is not true about acetophenone?
(A) Reacts to form 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
(B) Reacts with Tollens reagent to form silver mirror
(C) Reacts with
2
I /NaOH to form iodoform
(D) Reacts with alkaline
4
KMnO
79. Which of the following pairs can be distinguidhed by sodium hypoiodite
(A) CH
3
CHO and CH
3
COCH
3
(B) CH
3
CH
2
CHO and CH
3
COCH
3
(C) CH
3
CH
2
OH and CH
3
CH
2
CH(OH)CH
3
(D) CH
3
OH and CH
3
CH
2
CHO
80.
3
CH CHO and
6 5 2
C H CH CHO can be distiguished chemically by
(A)Bendict test (B)Iodoform test (C)Tollens test (D)Fehling solution test
81. Ethanal is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product is
(A) 3 2 2 3
| |
- - - -
O
CH CH CH C CH
(B)
(CH )
3 2
OH
OC H
2 5
C
(C)
3 2 2 2 2 3
| |
- - - - - -
O
CH CH CH C CH CH CH (D) CH
3
OC H
2 5
C
H
OC H
2 5
82. Predict the product in the given reaction
Cl
CHO
50% KOH
(A)
CH OH +
2
CH COO
2
Cl
Cl
(B)
CH OH +
2
OH
OH
OH
(C)
CH OH +
2
Cl
COO
Cl
(D)
CH OH +
2
OH
COO
OH
83. The number of aldol reaction(s) that occurs in the given transformation is
CH CHO + 4HCHO
3
Con. NaOH
(aq)
OH
OH
OH
HO
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
187
84. Identify the correct statement.
(A)Aldehydes on reduction give secondary alcohols.
(B)Ketones on reduction give primary alcohols.
(C)Ketones reduce Fehlings solution and give cuprous oxide.
(D)Ketones do not react with monohydric alcohol.
85. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of the reactivity in nucleophilic
addition reactions
Ethanal (I), Propanal(II), Propanone (III), Butanone (IV)
(A) III < II < I < IV (B) IV < III < II <I (C) II < I < III < IV (D) I < II < III < IV
86. Ketones reacts with Mg-Hg over water gives
(A)pinacolone (B)pinacols (C)alcohols (D) none of these
(87) In the presence of a dilute base,
6 5
C H CHO and
3
CH CHO react together to give ______
product.
(A) C
6
H
5
CH
3
(B) C
6
H
5
CH
2
CH
2
OH (C) C
6
H
5
CH
2
OH (D) C
6
H
5
-CH=CH-CHO
(88)
4
2 4
.
.
g
H SO
dilute
dil H SO NAOH
CH CH A B The compound B is ...
(A)
OH
(B)
OH
O
(C)
OH
(D)
CH
3
O
(89) Choose the weakest acid among the following.
(A) F
3
C COOH (B) (CH
3
)
2
CH COOH (C) CH
3
CH
2
COOH (D) FCH
2
COOH
(90) Among the following compounds, the most acidic is
(A) p-nitrophenol (B) p-hydroxybenzoic acid
(C) o-hydroxybenzoic acid (D) p-toluic acids
188
1 B 21 D 41 B 61 C 81 D
2 A 22 A 42 A 62 A 82 C
3 D 23 D 43 D 63 C 83 C
4 B 24 A 44 A 64 B 84 D
5 D 25 B 45 D 65 A 85 B
6 B 26 C 46 C 66 C 86 B
7 D 27 D 47 D 67 D 87 D
8 B 28 B 48 B 68 D 88 A
9 C 29 D 49 A 69 B 89 B
10 C 30 B 50 D 70 B 90 C
11 A 31 B 51 C 71 C
12 A 32 C 52 A 72 D
13 C 33 C 53 B 73 B
14 D 34 C 54 D 74 A
15 B 35 D 55 C 75 B
16 C 36 C 56 A 76 D
17 B 37 C 57 C 77 B
18 A 38 A 58 B 78 B
19 A 39 A 59 B 79 B
20 C 40 C 60 D 80 B
ANSWER KEY
189
MCQ
1. Select the IUPAC name of the folloing :
CH
3
|
H
5
C
2
N C CH
2
CH
3
| |
CH
3
C
2
H
5
(A) N - Methyl, N - Ethyl - 3 - Methyl - Pentan - 3 - amine
(B) N - Ethyl, N - Methyl - 3 - Ethyl - 3 - Methyl - propan - 1 - amine
(C) N - Ethyl, N - Methyl - 3 - Methyl - Pentan - 3 - amine
(D) N - Methyl, N - Ethyl - 3 - Methyl - 3 Ethyl - Propan - 1 - amine
2. Which of the Following reactions does not yield an amine ?
(A) + -
3
NH X R (B)
[ ]
2 5
Na
C H OH
R CH N.OH H - = +
(C)
+ -
+
H
2
O H CN R
(D)
LiAlH
4
2
R CONH -
3. Which of the following amides will not undergo Hofmann bromamide reaction ?
(A) Ethanamide (B) Propanamide (C) Benzenamide (D) Acetanilide
4. Which of the following represents the poisonous gas which caused Bhopal tragedy in 1984 ?
(A) O C N CH
3
= = - (B) S C N CH
3
= = -
(C)
3
CH CH N S - = = (D)
3
CH O N S
- - ==
5. Choose the proer option for given statement on the basis of physical properties
Statement : (i) Alkyl isocyanides have bad odours while alkylcyanides have pleasant odours.
Statement : (ii) Alkyl cynanides are poisonous compounds.
Statement : (iii) The boling points of alkyl cyanides are lower than their isomeric alkyl-isocynides.
Statement : (iv) Acetonitrile is soluble in water but methylcarbylamine is not.
(A) TTTF (B) TFTF (C) TFFF (D) TFFT
6. Phenyl isocyanide is prepared by which of the Following reaction ?
(A) Hoffmann reaction (B) Carbylamine reaction
(C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (D) Wurtz reaction
7. What is the end product (B) in the following reaction sequence ?
Butanamide
2 5
P O
D
A
4
LiAlH
B
(A) n - butylamine (B) n - propylcyanide
(C) Propyl isocyanide (D) n - Propylamine
Unit-24 Organic Compound Containing Nitrogen
190
8. Which of the following Structures represents a nitrolic acid ?
(A) OH . N C R
2
= (C)
OH . N C R
|
NO
2
= -
(B)
NO
|
NO C R
2 2
-
(D) O N N R
2
= -
9. Identify the compound "X" in the Following reactions.
[ ]
HNO Cl NaOH
CH NO CHCl
excess
2
3 2 3
3
/

(A)
2 2
NO ClCH (B) Cl CH
3
(C)
2 2
NO CH Cl (D)
2 3
CNO Cl
10. Which of the following amines can not be Prepared by Gabriel - Phthalimide reaction ?
(A) Benzylamine (B) Ethylamine
(C) Aniline (D) Methylamine
11. In ( ) N CH
3 3
the state of hybridization of N-atom and the Spatial rearrangement of methyl groups
around it are respectively.
(A) , SP
3
Pyramidal (B) , SP
3
tetrahedral
(C)
, SP
2
trigonal planar (D)
, SP
3
trigonal planar
12. Which of the following Compounds loses optical activity due to nitrogen inversion ?
(A)
3 2 3
2
CH CH CH CH
|
NH
(C)
3 2 2 2 3
|
CH CH CH N CH CH
CH
3s
(B)
3 2 2 3
|
CH CH N CH CH
OH
(D)
2 6 5
2
3 2 2
3
|
|
CH C H
I
CH CH N CH CH CH
CH
-
+

=

13. The pKa Values of same bases are given below pick out the weakest base.
(A) 4.40 (B) 4.00
(C) 2.88 (D) 10.68
191
14. The correct order of increasing basicity in aqueous solution is.
(A) ( ) ( ) N H C NH H C NH H C NH H C NH
3 5 2 2 5 2 2 5 2 2 5 6 3
< < < <
(B) ( ) ( ) NH H C NH H C N H C NH NH H C
2 5 2 2 5 2 3 5 2 3 2 5 6
< < < <
(C) ( ) ( ) NH H C N H C NH H C NH NH H C
2 5 2 3 5 2 2 5 2 3 2 5 6
< < < <
(D) None of the above
15. The order of basic strength among the Following amines in the Vapour phase (non - aqueous)
Solution is.
(A) ( ) ( ) NH CH N CH NH CH
2 3 3 3 2 3
> >
(B) ( ) ( )
2 3 2 3 3 3
NH CH NH CH N CH > >
(C) ( ) ( ) N CH NH CH NH CH
3 3 2 3 2 3
> >
(D) ( ) ( ) NH CH NH CH N CH
2 3 2 3 3 3
> >
16. Dye test can be used to distinguish between
(A) Ethylamine and acetamide (B) Ethylamine and aniline
(C) Urea and acetamide (D) Methylamine and Ethylamine
17. Identify 'Z' in the sequence.
2 2
/ /
6 5 2 273
+
+

NaNO HCl H H O CuCN KCN
K Boil
C H NH x y z
(A) CN H C
5 6
(B)
2 5 6
CONH H C
(C) COOH H C
5 6
(D)
2 2 5 6
NH CH H C
18. Which of the following arylamines is most difficult to diazotize ?
(A) O
2
N NH
2
(B) CH
3
O NH
2
(C) Cl NH
2
(D) CH
3
NH
2
19. Deamination of benzenediazonium chloride can be carried out with
(A)
3 3
PO H (B)
4 3
PO H
(C)
2 3
PO H (D)
3
HPO
20. Which prouduct will be obtained by the hydrolysis of the product obtained by reaction of butane -
nitrile with Ethyl magnesium bromide ?
(A) Ethyl - n - propyl ether (B) Ethoxy propane
(C) Ethyl propanoate (D) Hexan - 3 - One
192
21. Which of the following daizonium salts when boiled with dil.
4 2
SO H gives the corresponding phenol
most difficult ?
(A) HO
3
S N
+
N (B) CH
3
N
+
N
(C) Br N
+
N (D) CH
3
O N
+
N
22. Arrange the following amines in order of increasing basicity n - pentylamine (I), Sec-pentyl amine
(II), iso - pentylamine (III), tert - pentylamine (IV).
(A) I < II < III < IV (B) II < III < I < IV
(C) IV < III < II < I (D) III < IV < I < II
23. Match the entries of column - I with appro priate entries of column - II and choose the correct
option.
Column - I (Amine) - Cloumn - II ( ) Value K
a P
(A) Benzenamine - (P) 11.0
(B) N - Methyl aniline - (q) 5.08
(C) N, N - di Methylaniline - (r) 4.30
(D) N - Ethyleethanamine - (s) 4.62
(A) A-P, B-q, C-r, D-S (B) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
(C) A-S, B-P, C-q, D-r (D) A-S, B-r, C-q, D-P
24. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) P - nitroaniline is a stronger base than aniline.
(B) Aniline is a weaker base than O-methoxyanline
(C) P - methoxy aniline is a weaker base than aniline
(D) Aniline is a weaker base than ethylamine
25. Benzylamine may be preared by.............
(A)
LiAlH / ether
4
6 5 2
C H CONH
(B)
LiAlH / ether
4
6 5
C H CN
(C) Phthalimide
( )
( )
(i) KOH ii C H CH Br
iii Aq NaOH
6 5 2
D
(D) All of the above

26. P-toludine
( ) ( )
+

H
O H
COOH CH
Br O AC
2
3
2 2
B A
(C)
What would be (C) for the reaction.
(A)
CH
3
NH
2
COCH
3
(B)
CH
3
COCH
3
Br
(C)
CH
3
NH
2
Br
(D)
CH
3
NHCOCH
3
Br
193
27. The correct order of decreasing basic nature for the bases ( ) NH CH and NH CH , NH
3 2 3 3
is....
(A) ( )
3 2 3 2 3
NH NH CH NH CH > > (B) ( )
2 3 3 2 3
NH CH NH NH CH > >
(C) ( ) NH CH NH NH CH
2 3 3 2 3
> > (D) ( ) NH CH NH CH NH
2 3 2 3 3
> >
28. When a primary amine reacts with chloroform in ethanolic KOH, then the product is............
(A) an isocyanide (B) an aldehyde
(C) a Cyanide (D) an alcohol
29. In the following sequence of reactions, what are suitable for (A) and (B) when (D) is 1 - phenyl
propan - 1 - one.
A
+
B [
C
]
2
/
+
+
Hydrolysis
H O H
D
+ Mg(NH
2
)Br
(A)
6 5 3 2
A C H C N, B CH CH MgBr = =
(B)
6 5 2 3 2
A C H CONH , B CH CH MgBr = =
(C)
3 2 6 5
A CH CH C N, B C H MgBr = - =
(D) both (a) and (c)
30. Inter molecular hydrogen bonding is strongest in
(A) Methylamine (B) Phenol
(C) Methanal (D) Methanol
31. Among the following dissociation constant is highest for
(A) OH H C
5 6
(B)
- +
Cl NH CH
3 3
(C) CH C CH
3
- (D) OH CH H C
2 5 6
Each question given below contains statement - 1
(Assertion) and Statement - 2 (Reason). Each queastion has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d). out of
which only one is correct choose the correct option as under :
(A) Statement - 1 is True; Statement - 2 is True ;
Statement - 2 is a correct explanation for Statement - 1
(B) Statement - 1 is True; Statement - 2 is True;
Statement - 2 is Not a correct explanation for
Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True; Statement - 2 is False
(D) Statement - 1 is False; Statement - 2 is True.
32. Statement - 1
Aniline is less basic than P - toludine.
Statement - 2
P - toludine is more basic than Aniline due to electron donating group -
3
CH .
194
33. Statement - 1
Aniline on reaction with at NaNO
2
/HCl 273K following by coupling with b-naphthol gives a dark
red coloured precipitate.
Statement - 2
The colour of the compound formed in the reaction of aniline with NaNO
2
/HCl at 273K followed
by coupling with b-napthol is due to the extended conjugation.
34. Statement - 1
Primary aliphatic amine forms highly stable alkyl diazonium salt.
Statement - 2
Benzenediazonium chloride is easily soluble in water while Benzene diazonium fluoroborate is insolubel
in water.
35. Statement - 1
Aniline is a weaker base than ammonia
Statement - 2
Aniline is resonance stabilized.
36. Statement - 1
P - nitro anline is a weaker base than p-toludine
Statement - 2
The electron with drawing -
2
NO group in P-nitroaniline makes it a stronger base.
37. Statement - 1
"Benzonitrile can not be prepared by nucleophilic substitution of benzene".
Statement - 2
" Benzonitrile can be easily prepared via diazonium salt".
38. Statement - 1
" Carboxylic acids are obtained by hydrolysis of Cyanide compounds in presence of sulphyric acid
and ammonia is liberated."
Statement - 2
" Primary amine is obtained by reduction of cyanide compound in presence of . LiAlH
4
"
39. Statement - 1
"Gabriel Synthesis is used in the preparation of primary alifatic amines."
Statement - 2
"Primary aromatic amine can be prepared by Gabriel synthesis's method."
40. Statement - 1
" The boiling points of alkyl isocyanides are lower than their isomeric alkyl cyanides."
Statement - 2
"Isocyanide group is polar, so its boiling points is higher than their isomeric alkyl cyanides."
195
41. An organic compound (A) on reduction gives compound (B) on treatment with
3
CHCl and alcoholic
KOH gives (C) on Catalytic reduction gives N - Methyl aniline. The compound (A) is........
(A) Methylamine (B) Aniline (C) Nitrobenzene (D) Nitro methane
42. Which is formed when (CH
3
)
4
N OH is heated ?
(A)
2 3
NH CH (B)
2 5 2
NH H C
(C) ( ) N CH
3 3
(D) ( ) NH CH
2 3
43. Aniline first react with acetyl chloride producing "A". "A" reacts with nitric acid / sulphuric acid
mixure and produce compound "B", which hydrolyses to compound "C" what is the identity of "C"
?
(A) Acetanilide (B) P - nitro aniline
(C) P - Nitroacetanilide (D) Sulphanilic acid
44. Statement : (1) Sulphonation of aniline with conc.
4 2
SO H at 455 - 475 gives sulphanilic acid
Statement : (2) Sulphanilic acid exists as a zwitterion and is amphoteric in nature.
Statement : (3) Sulphanilic acid has high melting point and is practically insolube in water, acidic
solutions and organic solvents.
Choose the proper option for above statement. (T = True, F = False)
(A) TFT (B) TFF
(C) FTF (D) TTT
45. Which of the following reactant produced Benzanilide when it treated with aniline ?
(A) Acetic anhydride (B) Benzenamide
(C) Acetyl chloride (D) Benzoyl choride
46.
C N
OCH
3
+CH
3
MgBr
Q 3
H O
+
P
The procut "P" in the above reaction is ...........
(A)
CH
OCH
3
OH
CH
3
(B)
CHO
OCH
3
(C)
COCH
3
OCH
3
(D)
COOH
3
OCH
3
47. Which of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution ?
(A) Methylamine (B) Aniline
(C) Trimethylamine (D) Dimethylamine
48. Identify (x) for the following reaction.
Benzonitrile
2
2
( ) /
( ) /
273
( )
i Sn HCl
ii NaNO HCl
K
iii H O
x
(A) Toluene (B) Benzyl alcohol
(C) Benzaldehyde (D) Benzene diazonium chloride
196
49. In the following reaction sequence, predict the compound (x) and (y).
CH
3
NH
2
2
Exless Br
x
2
3 2
( ) /
273
( )
i NaNO HCl
K
ii H PO
Y
(A)
CH
3
NH
2
Br
and
CH
3
Br
(B)
CH
3
NH
2
Br Br and
CH
3
Br Br
(C)
Br
NH
2
Br Br
and
Br
Br Br
(D)
CH
3
NH
2
Br Br
and
CH
3
OH
Br Br
50. How many primary amines are possibile with the formula of N H C
11 4
?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
51. Which of the following is not the correct reaction of aryldiazonium salts ?
(A)
HCl
6 5 2 6 5
C H N Cl CuCl C H Cl
+ -
+
(B)
6 5 2 4 6 5
C H N Cl HBF C H F
D + -
+
(C)
6 5 2 3 2 6 5 4
C H N Cl H PO C H PO
+ -
+
(D)
6 5 2 2 6 5 2
C H N Cl SnCl / HCl C H NHNH
+ -
+
52. No. of p s and bonds contains Allyl isocyanide are ____and ____
(A) p s 3 and 9 (B) p s 9 and 9
(C) p s 4 and 3 (D) p s 7 and 5
53. Identify (A), (B), and (C) for the given reaction.
Ethane nitrile
(A) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanal, C = Ethanoic acid
(B) A = Ethylamine, B = Ethanol, C = Ethanal
(C) A = Ethanamide, B = Ethanol, C = Ethanal
(D) A = Ethanoic acid, B = Ethanol, C = Ethanal
54. Gas evolved during the reaction of Na-metal on
2 5 2
NH H C is :
(A)
2
N (B)
2
H (C)
2 2
H C (D)
2
CO
55. When primary amine is heated with
2
CS in presence of excess of
2
HgCl , it gives isocyanate The
reaction is called :
(A) Hoffmann's bromamide reaction (B) Perkin's reaction
(C) Hoffmann's mustard oil reaction (D) Carbylamine reaction
197
56. Which of the reactions will not give a primary amine ?
(A) Acetamide

KOH
Br
2
(B) Ethanenitrile

4
LiAlH
(C) Methyl isocyanide

4
LiAlH
(D) Acetamide

4
LiAlH
57. The IUPAC name for
3 2 2
2
CH CH CH CH CH CH COOH
|
NH
- = - - -
(A) 5 - amino - 2 - heptenoic acid (B) 3 - amino - hept - 5 - enoic acid
(C) 5 - amino - hex - 2 - ene - carboxylic acid (D) b - amino - 8 - heptenoic acid
58. The action of nitrous acid on an aliphatic primary amine, gives : _________
(A) alcohol (B) alkyl nitrite
(C) secondary amine (D) nitro alkane
59. How many isomeric amines with formula C
3
H
9
N are possible ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
60. Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for separation of amines ?
(A) Hinsberg method (B) Carbyl amine method
(C) Hofmann method (D) Wurtz reaction
61. Which of the following is not correct ?
(A) Ethylamine and aniline both have NH
2
group.
(B) Ethylamine and aniline both dissolve in HCl.
(C) Ethylamine and aniline both react with HNO
2
to give hydroxy compounds.
(D) Ethylamine and aniline both react with CHCl
3
and KOH to form unpleasant smell.
62. Which is most basic ?
(A) Aniline (B) O-Nitroaniline
(C) p-nitro aniline (D) m-nitro aniline
63. Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used for the preparation of
(A) 1
0
aromatic amine (B) 1
0
aliphatic amine
(C) 2
0
aliphatic amine (D) 2
0
aromatic amin
64. Which is most basic ?
(A)
NH
2
CH
3
(B)
NH
2
CH
3
(C)
NH
2
(D)
CH
3
NH
2
65. Which is most versatile compound in the synthesis of aromatic compounts ?
(A) benzene diazonium chloride (B) nitro benzene
(C) C
6
H
5
CONH
2
(D) C
6
H
5
Cl
198
66. Identify : C for the following reaction
C
6
H
5
NH
2
2
AC O
A
2
Br
B
2
/ H H O
+
C
(A)
Br
NHCONH
2
(B)
Br
NHCOCH
3
(C)
Br
OH
(D)
Br
NH
2
67. Name the amide which on reduction gives. NH
2
(A) Hexanamide (B) Pentanamide
(C) Heptanamide (D) Butanamide
68. Identify A, B, C and D in the following reactions :
Nitrobenzene
/
Sn HCl
A
2
Excess
Br
B
2
/
273
NaNO HCl
K
C
3 2 2
/
H PO H O
D
(A) A = aniline, B = 2, 4, 6 - Tribromoniline,
C = 2, 4, 6 - tribromo benzene diazonium chloride
D = 1, 3, 5 - tribromo benzene
(B) A = Benzene, B = 2, 4, 6 tribromo benzene
C = 2, 4, 6 - tri chloro benzene
D = 2, 4, 6 - tri chloro phenol
(C) A = aniline, B = P-bromoaniline, C = P-bromobenzene diazonium chloride.
D = P - bromo phenol
(D) A = aniline, B = p-bromo aniline, C = p-bromobenzene diazonium chloride.
D = Bromo benzene
69. Identify A, B and D in the following reaction :
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
NH
2
HONO
A
5
PCl
B

KCN
C
1 2 5
Na C H OH
D
(A) [ ] [ ] [ ]
2 2 3 3 3
NH CH CH D , Cl CH B , CHO CH A = = =
(B) [ ] [ ] [ ]
2 2 2 3 2 3 2 3
NH CH CH CH D , Cl CH CH B , OH CH CH A = = =
(C) [ ] [ ] [ ]
3 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 2 2
A CH CH CH OH, B CH CH CH Cl, D CH CH CH CH NH = = =
(D) [ ] [ ] [ ]
2 2 2 3 2 3 3
NH CH CH CH D , Cl CH CH B , CHO CH A = = =
70. Out of the following compounds, which is the most basic ?
(A) CH
3
NH
2
(B) (CH
3
)
2
NH
(C) (CH
3
)
3
N (D) CH
5
NH
2
71. Aniline on oxidation with Na
2
Cr
2
O
7
and H
2
SO
4
gives............
(A) benzoic acid (B) m-amino benzoic acid
(C) p-benzo quinone (D) schiff's base
199
72. Hinsberg's reagent is ..................
(A) benzene sulphonyl chloride (B) benzene sulphonic acid
(C) phenyl isocynide (D) benzene sulphonamide
73. Gabrid phthalimide reaction is used for the preparation of ................
(A)
NH
2
(B) CH
3
-NH-CH
3
(C) CH
2
.NH
2
(D)
CH N CH
3 3
|
CH
3
74. The number of possible structures of amines (C
7
H
9
N) having one benzene ring is..........
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
75. Number of primary amines of the formula C
4
H
11
N is .................
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 3
76. The reagents needed to convert is/are : Benzenamide Acetanilide
(A) KOH/Br
2
, LiAlH
4
(B) KOH/Br
2
, CH
3
COCl
(C) HONO, Cu
2
Cl
2
, (CH
3
CO)
2
O (D) KOH/Br
2
, Ni/H
2
, CH
3
COCl
77. The compound C
5
H
13
N is optically active and reacts with HNO
2
to give C
5
H
11
OH. The command
is
(A) N-methylbutanamine (B) 1-amino pentane
(C) 2-Amino pentane (D) N, N-Dimethyl propanamine
78. The amine which does not react with Acetyl chloride is
(A)
2 3
NH CH (B) ( ) NH CH
2 3
(C) ( ) N CH
3 3
(D) None of the above
79. Among the following, the strongest base is :_______
(A) Aniline (B) P-nitro aniline
(C) m-nitro aniline (D) Benzyl amine
80. Chloro ethane
NaCN
x
2
/ Ni H
y 3 2
( ) CH CO O
z
Z in the above sequence is...............
(A)
3 2 2 3
NHCOCH CH CH CH (B)
2 2 2 3
NH CH CH CH
(C)
3 2 2 3
CONHCH CH CH CH (D)
3 2 2 3
CONHCOCH CH CH CH
81. Aniline when diazotized in cold and then treated with Aniline gives a coloure product, Its structure
would be.......
(A) N = N CH
3
NH
2
(B) N = N H N
2
(C) N = N H
2
N NH
2
7 (D) N = N
82. Which of the following is the strongest base ?
(A) 0-methyl aniline (B) Aniline
(C) N-methyl aniline (D) Benzylamine
200
83. Identity the product in the following sequence :
3, 4, 5 - Tri bromo aniline
3 2
(i) Diazotisation
(ii) H PO
(A) 3, 4, 5 - Tribromo benzene (B) 3, 4, 5 - Tribromo phenol

(C) 1, 2, 3 - Tribromo benzene (D) 1, 2, 6 - Tribromo phenol
84. Aromatic nitriles (ArCN) are not prepared by the reaction :
(A) Ar X + KCN (B) ArN
+
2
Cl + CuCN
(C) ArCONH
2
+ P
2
O
5
(D) ArCONH
2
+ SOCl
2
85. The Following sequence of reactions on A gives
CH
2
CONH
2
COOCH
3
2
( ) ,
( )
i Br KOH
ii Heat
?
(A)
O
O
O
(B)
NH
O
O
(C)
NH
O
(D)
O
O
86. Presence of a nitro group in a benzene ring ______
(A) renders the ring basic
(B) deactivates the ring towards nucleophilic substitution
(C) deactiveates the ring towards electrophilic substitution
(D) activates the ring towards electrophilic substitution
87. The reaction of
3
CHCl and alcoholic KOH with p-toluidine gives.
(A) NCO H C
3
(B) CNO H C
3
(C) NC H C
3
(D) CN H C
3
88. Predict the product :
NHCH
3
+ NaNO
2
+ HCl Product
(A)
N NO
2
CH
|
3
(B)
NHCH
3
NO
NO
NHCH
3
+
(C)
N CH
3
OH
|
(D)
N N = O
CH
|
3
89. Suggst a structural formula of a compound having molecular ( ) A N H C
11 8
Which is optically active
dissolves in dil aqueous HCl and releases
2
N with Nitrous acid.
(A)
CH
2
CH
3
NH
2
(B)
NH
2
CH
3
CH
3
(C)
NH
2
CH
3 H
3
C
(D) CH CH
3
|
NH
2
90. Which is the oxidised product of when benzene diazonium chloride treated with hypo
phyosphrous acid ?
(A)
4 3
PO H (B) H
3
PO
3
(C)
7 2 4
O P H (D) None of this
201
91. Identify (F) from the following reaction :
NO
2
CH
3
2
Br
Bromination
A
Re
/
n
d
Sn HCl
B
2
/
273 278
NaNO HCl
K -
C
2 3 2
,
H O H PO
D
4
[0]
KMnO
E
lim
D
Soda e
F
(A) Benzene (C) Bromobenzene
(B) 1,2-dibromobenzene (D) 1,-2 - dibromobenzoicAcid
92. Give the IUPAC name of product (A) and (D) respectively.
3
2
2 2 2
3
4
2
( ) 6 5 2 4 /
,
C H N Cl HBF
D
-
-
+ -
D -
-
-
+

BF
N
NaNO aq Ni H AC O
Cu CH COOH
NaBF
N
A
B C D
(A) Benzene, Acetanilide (B) Fluorobenzene, Acetanilide
(C) Toluene, N - acetyl benzenamine (D) Fluoro benzene, Ethanmide
93. Which of the poroducts are same in the following reaction ?
C
6
H
5
OH
Zn
D
kkWzh
A
3
2 4
. /
.
Con HNO
Con H SO
B
2
Reduction
Ni/3H
C
2
273
NaNO HCl
K
+
D
/ CuCN KCN
E
2
/ H H O
+
F
( ) +
D
NaOH CaO
G
3
2 4
. /
.
Con HNO
Con H SO
H
(A) (A) and (G) (B) (B) and (H)
(C) (C) and (G) (D) both (a) and (b)
94. When benzenediazonium chloride react with substance of column-1 it gives coloured product given
in column-II select proper option from the following.
Column - I Column - II
(A) OH / NaOH (P) P - amino azobenzene
(B)
OH / NaOH
(Q) P - N - N - dimethylamino - azobenzene
(C) NH / HCl
2
(R) P - hydroxy azobenzene
(D)
N
CH
3
CH
3
/ HCl
(S) b - Napthyl azobenzene
(A) S D , R C , Q B , P A - - - - (C) S D , R C , P B , Q A - - - -
(B) Q D , A C , S B , R A - - - - (D) R D , P C , Q B , S A - - - -
95. Which of the following compunds is not prepared by sandmeyer's reaction ?
(A) Chloro benzene (B) Bromobenzene (C) Benzene nitrile (D) Iodobenzene
202
96. Which of the following subsance gives reaction with benzene sulphonyl chloride ?
(A) N, N - Dimethyl ethanamine (C) Methyl ethylamine
(B) Trimethylamine (D) Dimethyl ethyl amine
97. Identify, (A), (B) and (C) for the reaction given :
3 4
2
3 3 +
+ +
H PO
H O
A H PO HCl
C
6
H
5
N
2
+
Cl
2 SnCl HCl
B HCl
+
+
2 4
.
2 283
dil H SO
K
C N HCl
>
+ +
(A) A = , B =
NH-NH
2
, C =
OH
(B) A =
NO
2
, B =
NH-NH
2
, C =
OH
(C) A =
OH
, B =
Cl
, C = (D) A =
NH-NH
2
, B = , C =
OH
98. Select the IUPAC name of the following :
C H N S C H
5 2 6 5
|
C H
5 2
O
||
||
O
(A) N, N- diethyl benzene sulphonyl amine (B) N, N- deithyl -Phenyl sulphonamide
(C) N,N- diethyl benzene sulphonamide (D) N,N-diethyl benzene thionyl amine
99. Which of the following is least basic ?
(A) OCH
3
H N
2
(B) CH
3
H N
2
(C) COOH H N
2
(D) NH
2
100. Which of the following reactions is known as "Balz -Schiemann reaction"?
(A)
6 5 2 4 6 5 2 4 6 5
C H N Cl HBF C H N BF C H F
- D + - +
+
(B)
- +
D
+
- - C N H C NH H C
5 6
KOH 3 CHCl
2 5 6
3
(C)
CuCl N X H C Cl N H C
2 5 6
HX
Powder Cu
2 5 6
+ + - -
- - +
(D)
O H 2 NaBr 2 CO Na NH H C CONH H C
2 3 2 2 5 6
NaOH 4 Br
2 5 6
2
+ + + -
D
+
101. Which has highest Kb value?
3
CH R =
(A) NH R
2
(B) N R
3
(C)
2
NH R - (D)
3
NH
203
102.
COCH
3
CH = CHNO
2
/ Zn Hg
HCl
Product. Here the product is
(A)
CH CH
3 2
CH = CH.NO
2
(B)
CH CH
3 2
CH = CH.NH
2
(C)
CH CH
3 2
CH CH NH
2 2 2
(D)
CH CH
3 2
CH CH NO
2 2 2
103. Which of the following statement is true regarding the basicity of the following two primary amines ?
CH
2 2
NH
I
CH NH
2 2
II
(A) Both are equally basic because both are 1
0
amies
(B) I > II because it is an aromatic amine
(C) II > I because it is an aliphatic amine
(D) I < II because of difference in the nature of B-carbon
104. R C CH N N
O
||
.. + ..
Intermediate +
2
N
What is the nature of its intermediate in this reaction ?
(A) Carboniumion (B) Carbanion
(C) Carbene (D) Freeradical
105. Identify (D) in the given reaction.
( )
( )
[ ]
( )
( )
[ ] [ ]
i LiAlH i KCN CHCl / OH LiAlH
4 3 4
3
ii PBr ii LiAlH
3 4
CH COOH A B C
-

(A) OH CH CH
2 3
(B)
3 2 2 3
CH NH CH CH CH
(C)
2 2 2 3
NH CH CH CH (D) COOH CH CH CH
2 2 3
106. Which of the following can undergo Hofmann reaction most easily ?
(A)
SO
3
H
CONH
2
(B)
CONH
2
(C)
OCH
3
CONH
2
(D)
NO
2
CONH
2
107. Which of the following name is correct for ? CN CH CH
2
- =
(A) Acrylonitrile (B) Vinyl Cyanide
(C) Prop - 2 -ene nitnle (D) All are correct
204
108. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of ? NC CH
3
(A) Methyl isocyanide (B) ethane isonitrile
(C) Methyl carbylamine (D) both (a) and (c)
ANWER KEY
1.c 2.c 3.d 4.a
5.d 6.b 7.a 8.c
9.d 10.C 11.a 12.c
13.c 14.c 15.b 16.b
17.c 18.a 19.c 20.d
21.a 22.c 23.d 24.d
25.d 26.c 27.d 28.a
29.d 30.d 31.b 32.a
33.c 34.d 35.b 36.c
37.b 38.b 39.c 40.a
41.c 42.c 43.b 44.d
45.d 46.c 47.d 48.b
49.b 50.d 51.c 52.a
53.a 54.b 55.b 56.c
57.b 58.a 59.c 60.d
61.c 62.a 63.b 64.d
65.a 66.d 67.a 68.a
69.c 70.b 71.c 72.a
73.c 74.c 75.c 76.b
77.c 78.c 79.d 80a
81.b 82.d 83.c 84.a
85.c 86.c 87.c 88.d
89.d 90.b 91.c 92.d
93.d 94.b 95.d 96.c
97.a 98.c 99.c 100.a
101.a 102.b 103.d 104.c
105.b 106.c 107.d 108.d
205
Hints
8. R - CH
2
NO
2
2
HONO
H O -
R C NO
2
Nitro
| |
Compound
NOH
Nitrolic acid
9. C
2 3
NO Cl Known as "Chloropicrin" (X)
10. Primary aromatic amine can not be prepared by this method because nucleophile aryl halide,
does not become favouable anion for phthalimide.
12. Due to nitrogen inversion
-
o
3
amines with three different alkyl groups undergo racemization
hence lose optical activity i.e, option (C) is correct.
13. Higher value of
b
K (or lower value of
b P
K ) Shows more basicity of amine.
P P
Ka Kb 14 + =
P
Kb log Kb = -
For,
option (C) 88 . 2 K
b P
= hence, 88 . 2 14 K
b P
- =
P
Kb 11.12 =
14.
2 5 6
NH H C is weaker than
3
NH and basicity of amines in aqueous sloution is
o o
1 3 2
o
> >
15. In non aqueous solvents the base strength increases as the magnitude of + 1 - effect increases,
o o
1 2 3
o
> >
16. Only aromatic primary amines gives dye test.
18. Due to strong electron -withdrawing effect of the
2
NO - group, the nucleophilicity of the
2
NH - is reduced and hence diazotisation becomes difficult.
21. Aromatic
o
1
amines containing electron donating groups at O- and P- positions undergo
diazotisation much more readily than aniline while those containing electron with drawing
groups such as , COOH , H SO , NO
3 2
- - - etc.are difficult to diazotise.
22. As the steric hindrance increases from ( ) I + ( ) IV the basicity decreases, so, increasing order of
basicity becomes IV < III < II < I.
31.
- +
Cl NH CH
3 3
being asalt, undergoes almost complete dissociation, therefore, it has a high dissociation
constant.
41.
NO
2
(A)
Nitrobenzene
NH
2
(B)
NC
+

(C)
NH CH
3
N - methylaniline
CHCl / KOH
3
n
d Re Catalyst H
2
n
d Re
206
42. ( ) ( ) [ ] OH CH N CH OH . N . CH
3 3 3 4 3
+
D
43.
NH
2
Aniline
NHCOC H
5 6
CH COCl
3
HCl
Acetanilide
NHCOCH
3
NO
2
o - Nitroace
tanilide
Conc.
3
2 4
HNO
H SO
+
288 K
+
H
+
H O /
2
CH
3
COOH
NHCOCH
3
p - Nitroace
tanilide
NO
2
NH
2
NH
2
NO
2
NO
2
+
p - Nitro
aniline
o - Nitro
aniline
45.
NH
2
Aniline
NHCOC H
5 6
C H COCl
6 5
HCl
Benzanilide
50. Four (n - butylamine, isobutylamine, sec-butylamine, ter-butylamine)
52.
- +
- - = C N CH CH CH
2 2
(allyl isocyanide)
54.
2 5 2 2 5 2
H NHNa H C 2 Na 2 NH H C 2 + +
55.
3 2 2 2 g 2 3 2 g
CH CH NH CS H Cl CH CH NCS H S 2HCl + + + +
It is known as Hoffmann's mustard oil reaction.
56. NC CH
3
on reduction will give a secondary amine.
58. O H N OH R HNO NH R
2 2 2 2
+ + - + -
Aliphatic amine Alcohol
59.
( ) ( ) ( )
3 2 2 2 3 3 2 5 3
2
i CH CH CH NH ii CH CH CH iii C H NH CH
|
NH
- - - -
Propan -1-amine Propan - 2 - amine N-mthyl ethanamine
(iv) ( ) N CH
3 3
N, N - dimethyl Methanamine
62.
2
NO - ,group is electron with drawing group.
73. Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used for the preparation of primary aliphatic amines only.
207
74.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (v)
NH
2
CH
3
NH
2
NH
2
NHCH
3
CH NH
2 2
CH
3
CH
3
75. CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
NH
2
, CH CH CH
3 2
CH
3
|
NH
2
,
CH C
3
CH
3
|
NH
2
CH
3
|
,
CH CH NH
3 2 2
CH
2
|
CH
3
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
77.
It has chiral carbon
So, it is optically active.
78.
-
o
3
amines do not react with acetyl chloride because they do not have replaceable H atom.
79. Benzylamine is stranger base because the lone pair on N atom is not de localised over the benzene
ring.
88. Secondary aliphatic and aromatic amines react with nitrous acid to form N - nitroso amine.
102. Amalgamated Zn and HCl reduces carbonyl group to methylene group without affecting double
bond.
So, (b) option is correct
- -
- - - -
2 2
2
NH NO
CH Co
103.
CH NH
2 2
b-Carbon
SP hybridisation
2
II
CH NH
2 2
b-Carbon
SP hybridisation
3
104.
N
2
R C CH N N
O
||
.. + ..
R C CH
O
||
..
Carbene
106.
3
OCH - is more electron - releasing hence when the migrating aryl group has
3
OCH - in the para
position, its migrated is accelerated.
208
Unit-25 - POLYMER
IMPORTANT POINTS
INTRODUCTION
Polymer : Polymer (poly = many ; meros = parts) : is defined a material which is made by linking
together a large number of small recurring units called monomers. For example, polythene
(CH
2
CH
2
)n is formed by linking together a large number of ethene (C
2
H
4
) molecules.
Difference between Polymer and Macromolecule. Both polymer and macromolecules are
very big molecules. In a polymer there must be repeating units. But in a macromolecule, the
repeating unit may or may not be present. For example, polyethene containing the repeating unit
CH2 CH2 - , is regararded as both a polymer and a macromolecule. But chlorophyll having
formula C
55
H
72
O
5
N
4
Mg does not have any repeating unit and hence it is known as a macromolecule
but not a polymer.
CIASSIFICATION OF POLYMERS
(i) Cassification Based on Source
Natural and Synthetic polymers. The polymers found in nature are known as natural polymers
which control the life process in plants and animals and known as biopolymers, e.g., starch,
cellulose, proteins and nucleic acids. The polymers which are made in the laboratories are
known as synthetic polymers e.g., polythene, nylon, dacron etc.
Semi-synthetic polymers. Semi synthetic polymers are chemically modifiend naturally occurring
polymers. e.g., semi synthetic cellulose diacetate fibers are obtained by acetylation of nautural
celllose whith acetic anhydride in persence of sulphuric acid. An explosive cellulose nitrate
obtained obtained on nitration of cellulose is another example of semi-synthetic polymer Vulcanised
rubber used for making rubber tyres is also a semi-synthetic polymer.
(ii) Classification based on Polymerisation reaction
Polymerisation. I is the union of two or more of smaller molecules of similar or different type with
or without elimination of a small molecule like water, HCl etc., resulting in the formation of a new
C C bond.
The number of repeating units (n) which link together to forma molecule is known as the degree of
polymerisation.
(iii) Classification Based on Mode of Polymerisation
(a) Chain growth and step growth polymers
Chain growth polymers. These polymers are formed by successive addition of monomer units to
the growing chain having a reaction intermediate (free radical, carbocation or carbanions) at one end
of the chain. Chain growth polymers are formed by a process which involves chain reactions and
the process is called chain gorwth polymerisation.
Step growth polymers. These polymers are formed through a series of independent steps (reactions).
Each step involves the condensation (bond fromation) between two bifunctional units (monomers)
leading to the formation of a dimer, trimer, tetramer etc. Since the polymer is formed in a stepwise
manner, the process is called step growth polymerisation.
209
Some important differences between chain growht and step growth polymerisaion are given
below :
Sr. Chain growth polymerisation Step growth polymerisation
No.
(i) Addution polymerisation. Condensation polymerisation.
(ii) Monomers add to growing chain. Monomers add in steps to from dimers, timers.
(iii) Takes place through chain reactions Takes place through condensation reaction
in the presence of initiators.
(iv) Fast reaction Slow reaction.
(b) Homopolymer and copolymer
Homopolyme. If a polymer is made up of identical monomers, it is a called a homopolymer (......-
M-M-M-M.......). For example, polythene, polyvinyl chloride and neoprene.
Copolymers. If a polymer is made of monomers of different chemical structures, it is caled a
copolymer (...... M
1
M
2
M
1
M
2
.......). For example Buna-S, butyl rubber and nitrile
rubber.
Copolymerisation is the polymerisation of two or more different monomer species resulting in high
molecular mass compounds called copolymerisation.
(c) Addition and condensation polymers
Addition Polymerisation. In this process, the simple monomers are joined together without loss of
molecules like H
2
O, NH
3
, etc. Polythene is one example.
Condensation Polymerisation. In this process, the simple monomers are combined together whith
the loss of simple molecules like H
2
O, NH
3
, etc., e.g., nylon.
Some important differences between Additon and Condensation polymers are given below :
Sr. Addition polymers Condensation polymers
No.
1. Formed by addition reaction. Formed by condensation process with elimination
of small molecule like H
2
O.
2. Mol. mass is whole number multiple Mol. Mass is not whole number multiple of
of Monomer. the monomer units.
3. Generally involve one monomer Unit Involve more than one monomer unit.
4. Monomers are unsaturated molecules. Monomer units must have two active functional groups.
5. They are generally chain growth They are generally step growth polymers.
polymers.
(iv) Classification Based on Structure
Linear Polymers. In these polymers there are straight chains of polymer molecules. For example,
nylon and polyester. Linear polymers possess high melting points and high density.
Branched Chain Polymers. In these polymers there are braches along the chains of polymer
molecules. For example, amylopectin. Branched chain polymers possess low melting point and low
density.
Cross Linked polymers. In these polymers the linear chains are joinded together by a suitable
cross link and as a result a three dimentional network structure is formed. For example, polystyrene
butadiene polymer and urea formaldehyde polymer. The cross linking the mechanical strength also
increases.
210
(v) Cassification Based on Molecular Forces.
Elastomers are polymers which possess elastic properties in excess of 300 percent. The elastic
property arises from the fact that in a elastomer the monomer units are nct linked in a straight chain
but are arranged in the form of a coil and hence it can be stretched like a spring. When the
deforming stress is released, the chains go back to their original coiled state. For example, natural
rubber, styrene butadiene rubber. Elastomers are cross linked to some extent. However, extensive
cross-linking reduces the elastic property.
Fibres are polymers in which the chains are held by intermolecular forces e.g., hydrogen bonding
or dipole-dipole interactions. For example, nylon and polyacrylonitrile.
Thermosetting polymers are polymers which harden irreversibly on application of sufficient heat.
For example bakelite, urea-formaldehyde and melamine-formaldehyde.
Thermoplastic are polymers which soften on heating and harden on cooling reversibly. For example,
polyvinyl chloride, polythene, teflon and polystyrene.
Plastics possess plasticity but no elasticity but rubbers possess elasticity and no plasticity.
Plasticity is the property to get deformed on application of force and elasticity is the property to
regain the original shape when the deforming force is removed.
Some important differences between thermosetting and thermoplastic polymers are given
below :
Sr. Addition polymers Condensation polymers
No.
(1) Formed by condensation Formed by addition polymerisation
polymerisation.
(2) Once hardened, they cannot be Soften on heating and harden on cooling reversibly.
remelted.
On prolonged heating they are charred.
(3) Cannot be reshaped and reused on Can be softened, reshaped and reused.
heating (retain their structure and shape).
(4) Possess three dimensional network Possess linear structure with negligble cross links
structure containing cross links.
(5) These are strong, hard and more brittle. These polymers are weak, soft and less brittle
(6) These polymers can be reclaimed
(7) These polymers cannot be reclaimed. These polymers are soluble in certain orgnic
These are insoluble in common orgnic solvents
solvents.
PROPERTIES OF POLYMRE SUBSTANCE
The properties of polymer substances depend upon (i) the structure of the macro molecules contained
in them and (ii) Their avenger molecular mass.
Larger the number of molecules with higher molecular mass contained in it, the greater will be its
density, melting point, hardness. Smaller the number of molecules with lower molecular mass contained
in it, lower will be its density, melting point, hardness etc.
The properties with high degree of polymerisation called high degree polymers (HDP) and the
polymers with low degree of polymerisation are called low degree polymers (LDP). Hard and
211
durable materials are made from high degree polymers while lower degree polymers are used to
obtain soft and cheaper materials.
Modification in properties of polymer substances
The properties of the polymer substances can be modified to make them more useful by adding
certain substances to them. For example ;
(i) Inorganic substance like TiO2, BaSO4, CaCO3, SiO2, are added to the polymers to abrasion.
These additives are called fillers.
(ii) Organic substances like tricresyl phosphate, glyeryl phthalate, tertiary butyl phthalate, oleic acid
are added to some polymers to introduce softness. These additives are called plasticizers.
(iii) Organic substances like phenol, cresol, and quinol and carbon black are added to check the
effect of sun light on the polymers and to avoid their decomposition. There additives are called.
antiocidants.
Characteristics of polymer substances
(i) They are light in weight and many types of material can be made out of them.
(ii) They are not affected by atmosphere and moisture unlike wood, metal, leather, cotton clothes.
(iii) They are insulators and possess heat resisting property.
(iv) They are no affected by the germs and most of the chemicals.
(v) Their properties can be easily modified to meet the requirement.
(vi) Their raw materials are easily and cheaply available.
GENRAL METHODS OF POLYMERISATION
They are obtained either by addition polymerisation or by condensation polymerisation.
(i) Addition polymerisation. Addition polymerisation involves the combination of a large number
of monomers of one or two types having one or more double bonds. Through chemical bond
formation this type of polymerisation is carried out by the formation of reactive intermediates
such as free radical or carbocation/carbanion with monomers like ethene, propene, styrene, 1,
3-butadiene, isobutylene, vinyl chloride, vinyl nitrile etc.
When a large number of two types of different monomers carrying double bonds add on
alternatively with each other, the reaction is called copolymerisation. Styrene butadiene rubber
alternatively with each other, the reaction is called copolymerisation. Styrene butadiene rubber
(SBR) obtained from styrene and butadiene monomers is copolymer.
(a) Free redical addition polymerisation. Various types of unsturated compounds such as alkeness
or dienes and their derivatives undergo polymerisation via free radical reactive intermediates.
Free redical generated by primary initiator like tertiary butyl peroxide at proper temperature
and pressure. The free radical joins the double bond of monomer ethene forming a new free
radical. This new free radical joins many other molecules one by one forming everytime bigger
and bigger and bigger chain type new free radical. Finally depending upon the reaction conditions,
two bigger long chain type of free radicals join each other to form a polymer molecule.
212
M.C.Q.
(1) A high molecular weight molecule built from a large number of simple molecules is called a
(A) Monomer (B) Isomer (C) Polymer (D) Tautomer.
(2) A high molicular wieht molicule which does not contain repeating structural units is called a
(A) Polymer (B) Macromolecule (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
(3) The simple molecules from which a polymer is made are called
(A) Monomers (B) Metamers (C) Rotamers (D) Eantiomers.
(4) Which of the following is not a biopolymer ?
(A) Proteins (B) Nucleic (C) Cellulose (D) Neoprene.
(5) What is not true about polymers ?
(A) Polymers do not carry any charge (B) Polymers hgave hig viscosity
(C) Polymers scatter light (D) Polymers have low molecular weights.
(6) On the bases of the mode of their formation the polymers can be classified
(A) as addition polymers only (B) as condensation polymers only
(C) as copolymers (D) Both as addition and condensation polymers
(7) Natural rubber is a polymer of
(A) Butadiene (B) Ethyne (C) Styrene (D) Isoprene
(8) Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and
(A) Benzoic acid (B) Phthalic acid (C) Sakucylic acid (D) Terephthalic acid.
(9) Which one of the following is not an example of chain growth polymer ?
(A) Neopreme (B) Buna-S (C) PMMA (D) Glyptal.
(10) Which of the following is a synthetic polymer ?
(A) Starch (B) Silk (C) Protein (D) Polystyrene.
(11) Homopolymers are made from
(A) Only one type of monomers (B) Two different of monomers
(C) Three different types of monomers (D) Several different types of monomers.
(12) Amongst the following, a homopolymer is
(A) PMMA (B) Bakelite (C) Glyptal (D) Dacron
(13) Which of the following is a copolymer.
(A) Buna-S (B) PAN (C) Polythene (D) PTFE
(14) Which of the following is a linear polymer ?
(A) Nylon (B) Bakelite
(C) Alkyd resin (D) Melamine-formaldehyde polymer.
(15) Amongst the following, the branched chain polymer is
(A) PVC (B) Polyester (C) Low density polythene (D) Nylon-66
(16) A copolymer of acrylonitrile and 1, 3-butadine is called.
(A) Buna-N (B) Polystyrene (C) Neoprene (D) Buna-S.
(17) Which of the following is wrong ?
(A) PMMA is called plexiglass (B) PTFE is called teflon
(C) SBR is natural rubber (D) LDPE is called low density polythene.
213
(18) Which of the following statement/s is /are correct?
(A) Vinyon is a copolymer of vinyl chloride and vinyl acetae
(B) Saran is a copolymer of vinyl chloride and vinydiene chloride
(C) Butyl rubber in a copolymer of isobutylidene and isoprene
(D) All are correct
(19) Mark the correct statement about thiokol rubber
(A) It is a synthetic polysulphide rubber
(B) It is obtained by condensation of ethylene chloride with sodium tetrasulphide
(C) It is resistant to oils and abrasion
(D) All are correct
(20) Which of the following is an addition ( chain growth) polymer?
(A) Nylon-66 (B) Polyester (C) PVC (D) Glyptal
(21) Which of the following is not an addition polymer?
(A)Polystyrene (B) PVC (C) Polypropylene (D) Nylon
(21) An example of addition copolymer is
(A) Polythene (B) Butyl rubber (C) Neoprene (D) Natural rubber
(22) Which of the following is an addition homopolymer?
(A) ploythene (B) Teflon (C) PVC (D) All the three above
(23) Which of the following sets cotain only addition homopolymer?
(A) Polythenem natural rubber, cellulose (B) Starch, nylon, polyester
(C) Teflon, bakelite, orlon (D) Necoprene, PVC, polythene
(24) Which of the following is not a condensation (step growth) polymer?
(A) Melamine-formaldehyde resin (B) Bakelite
(C) Polythene (D) Polyester
(25) An example of a condensation homopolymer is
(A) Bakelite (B) Melamine-formaldehyde resin
(C) Alkyd resin (D) perlon or Nylon-6
(26) A polymer formed by coordination polymerization is
(A) Low density polythene (B) High density polythene
(C) Nylon-6 (D) Dacron
(27) Low density polythene is prepared by
(A) Free radical polymerization (B) Cationic polymerization
(C) Anionic polymerization (D) Zeigler-Natta polymerization
(28) The best eay to prepare polyisobutylene is
(A) Coordination polymerization (B) Free radical polymerization
(C) Cationic Polymerization (D) Anionic polymerization
(A) Ethylene (B) Vibyl chloride (C) Phenol (D) Isoprene
(30) Isoprene is
(A) 1,3-butadiene (B) 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene
(C) 2-mithoxy-1,3-butadiene (D) 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene
214
(31) Natural rubber is
(A) Polyvinyl chloride (B) cis-Polyisoprene (C) trans- Polyisoprene (D) Polychloropene
(32) Gutta percha is
(A) trans- Polyisoprene (B) a synthetic polymer
(C) a very hard material (D) All statement are correct
(33) Natural silk is a
(A) Polypeptide (B) polysaccharide (C) polychloropene (D) polyacrylonitrile
(34) artificial silk is a
(A) Polypeptide (B) polysaccharide (C) polythene (D) Polyvinyl Chloride
(35) Which of the followin is not a polyamide?
(A) Wool (B) Leather (C) Nylon (D) Natural rubber
(36) Among the following polymer, the strongest intermolecular forces of attraction are present in
(A) Elastomers (B) Fibres
(C) Thermoplastics (D) Thermosetting polymers
(37) Among the following the weakest interparticle forces of attraction present in
(A) Thermosetting polymers (B) Thermoplastics polymers
(C) Fibers (D) Elastomers
(38) Thermoplastics are
(A) Linear polymers
(B) Soften or melt on heating
(C) Molten polymer can be moulded in desired shape
(D) All the correct
(39) Which of the following is not a thermosetting polymer?
(A) Alkyd resin (B) Bakelite (C) Melmac (D) SBR
(40) Which of the following can be remelted time and again without producing any change
(A) Thermosetting polymers (B) Thermoplastics polymers
(C) Bakelite (D) Melamine-formaldehyde polymer
(41) The tensile strength, elasticity and resistance to abrasion can be increased by a process called
........
(A) Diazotisation (B) Vulcanization (C) Isomerization (D) Polymerization
(42) The process of vulcanization was introduced by
(A) Charles goodyear (B) Kolbe (C) Wohler (D) Zeigler
(43) Vulcanized rubber resists ........
(A) Wear and tear due to friction (B) Cryogenic temperature
(C) High temperature (D) Action of acids
(44) The polymer obtained by condensation of sevacic acid and hexamethylenediamine is called .........
(A) Nylon-66 (B) Nylon-6 (C) Nylon-610 (D) Decron
(45) The liner chains in nylon are held together by
(A) H-bonds (B) Covalent (C) Ionic bonds (D) van der waals forces
215
(46) Caprolactam needed for manufacture of nylon-6 is obtained by beckmann rearrangement of
...........
(A) Benzophenone oxime (B) Acetophenone oxime
(C) Cyclohexanone oxime (D) Cyclopentanone oxime
(47) The repeating structural unit in neoprene is
(A) Chloroprene (B) Chloropicrin
(C) Chloroethene (D) Chlorotrifluoroethylene
(48) Chloroprene is obtained by addition of HCL to
(A) Acetylene (B) Vinylacetylene (C) Divinylacetylene (D) Phenylacetylene
(49) To make PVC a flexible plastic, the additive used is called
(A) Filler (B) Antionxidant (C) Stabilizer (D) Plasticizer
(50) A polymer of prop-2-enenitrile is called
(A) Saran (B) Orlon (C) Dacron (D) Teflon
(51) Starch is the condenstion polymer of
(A) -Glucose (B) -Glucose (C) -Fructose (D) -Fructose
(52) Repeating disaccharide unit of starch is
(A) Lactose (B) Sucrose (C) Maltose (D) Cellobiose
(53) The repeating disaccharide unit of cellulose is
(A) cellobiose (B) Maltose (C) Lactose (D) Sucrose
(54) A polymer which has bette light transmission properties tha even glass is
(A) Perspex (B) Bakelite (C) Buna-S (D) Poly(ethyl acrylate)
(55) The polymer used in manufacture of electrical goods such as switches ,plugs etc. is
(A) Polythene (B) Bakelite
(C) Melamine-formaldehyde resin (D) Neoprene
(56) The polymer used for coating electrical wires, cables etc. is
(A) Natural rubber (B) Neoprene (C) Nitrile rubber (D) PVC
(57) A polymer which is commonly used as a packing material
(A) Polythene (B) Polypropylene (C) PVC (D) Bakelite
(58) A synthetic rubber which is resistant to the action of oils, gasoline and other solvents is
(A) Buna-S (B) Polyisoprene (C) Neoprene (D) Polystyrene
(59) The abbreviation Pdi refers to
(A) Name of the polumer (B) Poly dispersity index
(C) Plancks disposal index (D) Polydiagonal index
(60) PDI for natural polymers is generally close to
(A) Zero (B) 100 (C) 1 (D) 10
(61) Nylon-66 is made by using
(A) Phenol (B) Benzaldehyde (C) Adipic acid (D) Succinic acid
(62) The process involving heating of rubber with sulphur is called
(A) Galvanisation (B) Vulcanization (C) Bessemerisatiom (D) Sulphonation
216
(63) Terylene is made by polymerization of terephthalic acid with
(A) Ethylene glycol (B) Phenol (C) Ethanol (D) Catechol
(64) Teflon, styron and neoprene are all
(A) copolymers (B) Condensation polymers
(C) homopolymers (D) monomers
(65) Interparticle forces present in Nylon-66 are
(A) van der waals (B) Hydrogen bonding
(C) Dipole-dipole interactions (D) None of the above
(66) Soft drinks and baby feeding bottles are generally made up of
(A) polyester (B) polyurethane (C) Polyurea (D) Polyamide
(67) Polymer used in bullet proof glass is
(A) PMMA (B) Lexan (C) Nomex (D) Kevlar
(68) Which of the following is a constituent of nylon?
(A) Adipic acid (B) Styrene (C) Teflon (D) None of these
(69) Caprolactam polymerises to give
(A) Terylene (B) Teflon (C) Glyptal (D) Nylon-6
(70) Which of the following is a polyamide molecule?
(A) Terylene (B) Rayon (C) Nylon-6 (D) Polystrene
(71) A condensation polymer among the following is
(A) Dacron (B) PVC (C) Polystyrene (D) Teflon
(72) The catayst used for the polymerrization of olefins is
(A) Ziegler-natta catalyst (B) Wilkinsons catalyst
(C) Pd- catalyst (D) Zeises salt complex
(73) Cellulose acetate is a
(A) natural polymer (B) semisynthetic polymer
(C) synthetic polymer (D) plasticier
(74) Teflon is a polymer of
(A) tetrafluoroethylene (B) tetraiodoethylene (C) tetrabromoethylene (D) tetrachloroethylene
(75) Natural rubber is which type of polymer?
(A) condensation of polymer (B) addition polymer
(C) co-ordination polymer (D) none of these
(78) Which is a protein?
(A) Nylon (B) Rayon (C) Natural silk (D) Terylene
(A) Isoprene (B) Styrene (C) Ethylene (D) Butadiene
(80) Which of the following is not an example of addition polymer?
(A) Polystyrene (B) Polyethylene (C) Polypropylene (D) Dacron
(81) Buna-S is obtained by the copolymerisation of butadiene and
(A) chloroprene (B) styrene (C) acrylonitrile (D) adipic acid
217
(82) Melmac is a polymer of melamine and
(A) glycerol (B) formaldehyde (C) cyclohexne (D) caprolactum
(83) Which of the following is a condensarion polymer?
(A) Polystyrene (B) PAN
(C) Neprene (D) Polyethleneglycol terephthalate
(84) Which of the following is a natural polymer?
(A) Bakelite (B) Cellulose (C) PVC (D) Nylon
(85) The monomer unit of PVC is
(A) Vinyl chloride (B) ethylene (C) chloroprene (D) acrylonitrile
(86) Which one is a synthetic polymer?
(A) Starch (B) Silk (C) Protein (D) Neoprene
(87) Natural rubber is
(A) polyisoprene (B) polyvinyl chloride (C) polychloroprene (D) polyfluoroethylene
(88) Which interparticle forces between linear chains in Nylon-66 are
(A) H-bonds (B) covalent bonds (C) Dacron (D) Glyptal
(89) Which of the following is common example of fibres?
(A) Bakelite (B) Buna-S (C) Nylon-66 (D) PVC
(90) The weakest interparticle forces are present in
(A) Thermosettin polymers (B) Thermoplastic polymers
(C) Fibres (D) elastomers
(91) Which of the following is an example of co-polymer?
(A) Buna-s (B) PAN (C) Polythene (D) PTFE
(92) Which of the following represents the example of homopolymer?
(A) PMMA (B) Bakelite (C) Glyptal (D) Nylon-66
(93) Polyacrylonitrile is an example of
(A) addition polymer (B) condensation polymer
(C) natural polymer (D) none of the above
(94) Caprolactum is used to prepare which of the following polymer
(A) Nylon-66 (B) Malamine (C) Nylon-6 (D) PMMA
(95) Artificial silk is
(A) nylon-6 (B) rayon (C) nylon-66 (D) none of these
(96) Natural silk is a
(A) polypeptide (B) polyacrylate (C) polyester (D) polysaccharide
(97) The process of vulcanization of rubber was introduced by
(A) Zeigler (B) MRF (C) Charles goodyear (D) Wohler
(98) A polymer of prop-2-2enenitrile is called
(A) Saran (B) Orlon (C) Dacron (D) Tetron
(99) copolymer is
(A) Nylon-6 (B) Nylon-66 (C) PMMA (D) Dacron
218
(100) Ebonite is
(A) Natural rubber (B) Synthetic rubber
(C) Higly vulcanized rubber (D) polypropene
1 C 26 B 51 A 76 B
2 B 27 A 52 C 77 D
3 A 28 C 53 A 78 C
4 D 29 D 54 A 79 A
5 D 30 B 55 B 80 D
6 D 31 D 56 D 81 B
7 D 32 D 57 A 82 B
8 D 33 A 58 C 83 D
9 D 34 B 59 B 84 B
10 D 35 D 60 C 85 A
11 A 36 B 61 C 86 D
12 A 37 D 62 B 87 A
13 A 38 D 63 A 88 A
14 A 39 D 64 C 89 C
15 C 40 B 65 B 90 D
16 A 41 B 66 D 91 A
17 C 42 A 67 B 92 A
18 D 43 A 68 A 93 A
19 D 44 C 69 D 94 A
20 C 45 A 70 C 95 B
21 D 46 C 71 A 96 A
22 D 47 A 72 A 97 C
23 D 48 B 73 B 98 B
24 C 49 D 74 A 99 C
25 D 50 B 75 B 100 C
ANSWER KEY
219
M.C.Q.
1) is a biomolecule.
(A) protein (B) enzyme (C) lipid (D) all of above
2) is not a biomolecule.
(A) vitamin (B) nucleic acid (C) formic acid (D) carbohydrate
3) what is the proportion of hydrogen and oxygen in molecule of all member of carbohydrate ?
(A) 2:1 (B) 1:1 (C) 1:2 (D) no certain ratio
4) which carbohydrate isnt soluble in water and tasteless ?
(A) monosaccharide (B) trisaccharide (C) oligosaccharide (D) none of above
5) which carbohydrate isnt soluble in water and tasteless ?
(A) lactose (B) dextrin (C) fructose (D) melitriose
6) general formula for________ carbohydrate is
n 2n-6 n-3
C H O
(A) Disaccharide (B) Trisaccharide (C) tetrasaccharide (D) polysaccharide
7) Cyclic configuration for glucose is called Glucopyranose , because its cyclic chain contains
__________carbons & __________oxygens.
(A) 6,1 (B) 6,2 (C) 5,1 (D) 4,1
8) solubility of glucose in alcohol is
(A) not soluble (B) soluble (C) more soluble (D) soluble in more alcohol
9) When rotation of an optically active organic compound is measured as anticlockwise then if is
know as
(A) lewrotation (B) levoratatory (C) (-) (D) ail of above
10) which carbon is anomeric carbon in cyclic structure of glucose?
(A) C
l
(B) C
2
(C) C
3
(D) C
4
11) which carbon is anomeric carbon in cyclic structure of fructose ?
(A) C
l
(B) C
2
(C) C
3
(D) C
4
12) what is the specific rotation of aqueous Solution of sucrose ? [before hydrolysis]
(A) +19 (B) +52.5
0
(C) +66.5
0
(D) 112
0
13) whats the name of phenomenon when rotation of sucrose solution reversed ?
(A) conversion (B) inversion (C) diversion (D) reversion
14) which optical rotation has been obtained by aqueous solution of sucrose mixture , which is
produced before hydrolysis of and after hydrolysis of sucrose ?
(A) Dextrorotatory , levorotatory (B) levorotatory , Dextrorotatory
(C) levorotatory , levorotatory (D) Dextrorotatory , Dextrorotatory
15) two monosaccharide units of sucrose are linked by which carbon chain ?
(A) Cl-O-Cl (B) C2-O-C2 (C) C1-O-C6 (D) C1-O-C2
UNIT - 26 - BIOMOLECULE
220
16) In sucrose a-D-(+)-glucose and b-D-(-)- Glucose are linked by________ chain
(A) glycolipid (B) glycosidic (C) phospholipid (D) phosphosidic
17) which is non-reducing sugar?
(A) glucose (B) fructose (C) sucrose (D) A&B both
18) which is chosen as standard for Sweetness of sugar?
(A) sucrose (B) glucose (C) fructose (D) lactose
19) which substance is produced by heating sucrose at 486 K temperature ?
(A) sucralose (B) elitem (C) caramel (D) arneto
20) which substance is soluble in alcohol ?
(A) glucose (B) fructose (C) maltose (D) all of above
21) two monosaccharide units of maltose are linked by which carbon chain ?
(A) C
l
-O-C
l
(B) C
1
-O-C
2
(C) C
1
-O-C
3
(D) C
1
-O-C
4
22) which is reducing sugar?
(A) lactose (B) maltose (C) fructose (D) all of above
23) what are the sweetness index of fructose , glucose and lactose respectively
(A) 74,173,16 (B)16,173,74 (C) 16,74,173 (D) 173,74,16
24) which substance is produced before obtaining alcohol from the compound containing starch ?
(A) sucrose (B) maltose (C) lactose (D) A & C
25) by hydrolysis of which substance, we obtain two molecules of glucose?
(A) sucrose (B) maltose (C) lactose (D)A&B
26) by hydrolysis of which substance, we obtain one molecules of glucose ?
(A) lactose (B) sucrose (C) A&B (D) none
27) which sugar reduces fehlings solution and makes phenyl hydrazone with phenyl hygrazine ?
(A) maltose (B) lactose (C) A&B (D) none
28) which sugar doesnt reduce fehlings Solution ?
(A) sucrose (B) maltose (C) lactose (D) all of above
29) which sugar is hydrolyzed by emulsine enzyme ?
(A) sucrose (B) maltose (C) lactose (D) all of above
30) which sugar is dextrorotatory and indicates mutarotation ?
(A) sucrose (B) maltose (C)A&B (D) none
31) which sugar is dextrorotatory and doesnt indicate mutarotation ?
(A) sucrose (B) maltose (C) lactose (D) B&C
32) what is the specific rotation of aqueous solution of mixture , which is produced after hydrolysis of sucrose ?
(A) -20
0
(B) -92 (C) +52.5
0
(D) +66.5
0
33) The specific rotation in inverted sugar during hydrolysis due to specific rotation of glucose solution
is_______.(the mixture of glucose and fructose obtained at the end of hydrolysis is called inverted sugar )
(A) -20
0
(B) -92
0
(C) +52.5
0
(D) +66.5
221
34) The specific rotation in inverted sugar during hydrolysis due to specific rotation of fructose solution
is_________ .(the mixture of glucose and fructose obtained at the end of hydrolysis is called
inverted sugar)
(A) -20 (B) -92 (C) +52.5 (D) +66.5
35) example of polysaccharide is
(A)starch (B)sucrose (C) cellulose (D)A&C
36) general formula for polysaccharide is
(A) (C
6
H
10
O
5
)
n
(B)C
n+2
H
2n
O
n
(C)C
n+1
H
2n
O (D)C
n
H
2n
O
n
37) ___________ is the main component of cell walls of plants.
(A) cellulose (B) starch (C) protein (D) nuclic acid
38) in which solvent, cellulose is soluble ?
(A)water (B)chloroform
(C) ammoniacal cupric hydroxide (D) alcoholic potassium hydroxide
39) which sugar is not present in vegetable ?
(A)glucose (B)sucrose (C)maltose (D) lactose
40) which is not a sugar ?
(A) starch (B) sucrose (C) maltose (D) glucose
41) which substance in animal body can be Converted in glucose and also gives energy when
required ?
(A) sucrose (B) glycogen (C) cellulose (D) starch
42) _____________ is not a cellulose .
(A) nylon fibre (B) lilen (C) rayon (D) acetate fibre
43) protein is/are_________
(A) enzyme (B) hormones (C) antibodies (D) all of above
44) what are the names of scientist, who had obtained many amino acid from hydrolysis of protein ?
(A) Haworth & Hirst (B) Tollens & Tanret (C) Emil Fischer (D) all of above
45) which amino acid is known as C-terminal residue in alanylglycylphenylalanine ?
(A) alanine (B) glycine (C) phenyl alanine (D) none
46) molecular mass of polypeptid is_________
(A) 100 (B) upto 10000 (C)upto 20000 (D) upto 1 Crore
47) molecular mass of protein _________
(A) upto 1000 (B) upto 5000 (C) upto 10000 (D) >10000
48) the polypeptide chains run parallel and are held together by _______bonds.
(A) disulphide (B) covalent
(C) co-ordination-covalent bond (D) none
49) By which bond the polypeptide chains are held together in fibrous protein ?
(A) hydrogen bond (B) covalent bond (C) disulphide bond (D) A&C
222
50) which protein is insoluble in water,which is present in muscle ?
(A) myosin (B) albumin (C) keratin (D) insulin
51) in a-helix shaped protein , polypeptide chain is coild in helix shape approximate_______ amino
acids are included per turn of helix
(A) 3.6 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 72
52) which isnt true reason of denaturation of protein ?
(A) detergent (B) change in pH (C) increase in temperature (D) none
53) which is the reason of denaturation of protein ?
(A) organic solvent (B) detergent (C) adding concentrate alkali (D) all
54) in certain clynical chemistry tests removal of all protein materials , which chemical is added to
sample ?
(A) trichloro acetic acid (B) bezoic acid
(C) ethanoic acid (D) benzene sulphonic acid
55) which is called as coenzyme ?
(A) protein chain (B) inorganic component as cofactor
(C) organic component as co-factor (D) apoenzyme
56) Which of the following ions may be co-factor ?
(A) Zn
2+
, Cu
2+
(B) C
4+
, Si
4+
(C) CI
, Br
(D) PO
4
3
,S0
4
2
57) which of the following is true ?
(A) Coenzyme + Apoenzyme Enzyme
(Active) (Active) (Active)
(B) Coenzyme + Apoenzyme Enzyme
(Active) (inactive) (Active)
(C) Coenzyme + Apoenzyme Enzyme
(inactive) (Active) (Active)
(D) Coenzyme + Apoenzyme Enzyme
(inactive) (inactive) (Active)
58) sucrose is hydrolyzed by__________enzyme
(A) zymase (B) invertaze (C) emulsin (D) lipase
59) fat soluble vitamin is
(A) H (B) A (C) C (D) B
60) haemorrhage disease caused by deficiency of___________vitamin
(A) Calciferol (B) phylloquinone (C) Tocopherol (D) retinol
61) which vitamin isnt synthesizes from vegetable ?
(A) Cyanocobalamine (B) pyridoxine (C)thiamine (D) Tocopherol
62) which vitamins source is yeast?
(A) B1 (B) H (C) B6 (D) all
223
63) which disease caused by deficiency of vitamin E ?
(A) Sterility (B) skin disease
(C) bone deformation in children (D) paralysis
64) which substance isnt formed by complete hydrolysis of nucleic acid ?
(A) hexos sugar (B) phosphoric acid
(C) hetrocyclic bases which contains nitrogen element (D) pentose sugar
65) purine base is
(A) G (B) C (C) T (D) U
66) pyrimidine base is
(A) C (B) T (C) U (D) All
67) which base isnt present in DNA ?
(A) A (B) G (C) C (D) U
68) which base isnt present in RNA ?
(A) G (B)T (C) U (D)C
69) a unit formed by attachment of a base to_________ position of sugar is known as nucleoside
(A) Cl (B) C2 (C) C3 (C) C4
70) unit formed by attachment of which carbon of nucleoside to phosphate ion is known as
nucleotide ?
(A) Cl (B)C2 (C)C3 (C)C4
71) two nucleosides are joined together by phosphodiester linkage, this linkage is formed between
___________ of one sugar and ________ of other sugar.
(A) Cl ,C1 (B) Cl, C3 (C) C3, C5 (D) C5,C5
72) structure of DNA is look alike _________
(A) spiral straircase (B) double helix (C) twisted rope (D) all
73) who proposed that structure of DNA is double helix ?
(A) luis & pouling (B) HC crick & JDWatson
(C) howarth & hirst (D) tallence & tenrate
74) by which bond , base of one nucleotide and base of another nucleotide are joined together ?
(A) hydrogen bond (B) covalent bond (C) coordination covalent bond (D) ionic
75) which pairs of bases are true for linkage between two chain of polynucleiotide ?
(A) adenine-Thymine (B) adenine- guranine
(C) guanine-thymine (D) adenine-cytosine
76) how many hydrogen bonds between base G and Base C are present in structure of DNA ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) no certain number
77) if a person bleeds by his gingiva , so what would you suggest to eat to prevent the disease ?
(A) vegetable oil (B) citrus fruits (C) cheese (D) milk
224
78) which subgroup isnt possible for vitamin ?
(A)B1 (B) B4 (C) B6 (D) B12
79) _________ term is familiar for vitamin nowdays
(A) vitamin (B) vitamine (C) vitmin (D) viatamine
80) which sugar indicates mutarotation ?
(A) glucose (B) fructose (C) maltose (D) all
81) whichsugarisntindicatingmutarotation?
(A) sucrose (B) lactose (C) maltose (D) none
82) molecularmass of_________ carbohydrate is 180 gm/mol
(A) glucose (B) fructose (C) galactose (D) all
83) molecularmassof_________ sugar is 342 gm/mol
(A) cellobios (B) maltose (C) A&B (D)none
84) Glucose is known as glucopyranose because
(A) cyclicstructure of glucose contains 6 memberring
(B) cyclicstructure of glucose contains 5 carbon atoms and one oxygen atoms
(C) glucose is aldohexose
(D) glucose is ketohexose
85) one base present in central part of DNA, its joined to another base with 3 hydrogen bond, so
what is that base ?
(A)A (B) G (C)T (D) U
86) one pyrimidine base present in central part of DNA, itsjoinedtoanotherbase with 2 hydrogen
bond, so what is that base ?
(A) A (B) G (C) C (D) T
87) which reaction isntgiven by glucose ?
(A) glucose is oxidized by tollens reagent
(B) glucose gives violet color with skiffs reagent
(C) Fehlingssolution is reduced by glucose
(D) glucose gives addition product with sodium bisulphite
88) the crystal of glucose obtained from which solvent are dissolved in water and the specific rotation
of this freshly prepared solution of glucose is +112 ?
(A) ethyle alcohol (B) aceticacid (C) pyridine (D) A & B
89) mutarotation for aqueous solution of glucose is_________
(A)+19 (B) +52.5 (C) +112 (D) +119
90) which type of carbon is called anomeric carbon in cyclic structure of glucose ?
(A) its joined with aldehyde group in open chain structure
(B) its carbonyl carbon in open chain structure of glucose
(C) its joined with carboxylic group in open chain structure
(D) none
225
91) if the solution of glucose shows a specific rotation of +52.5 then mixture of a - D
+
glucose ___%
and [a - D + glucose_______ %
(A) 25,75 (B) 36,64 (C)64,36 (D) 33,67
92) glucose known as______
(A) aldopentose (B) ketopentose (C) aldohexos (D) ketohexose
93) fructose is known______
(A) aldopentose (B) ketopentose (C) aldohexos (D) ketohexose
94) which substance is insoluble in water?
(A) starch (B) sucrose (C) maltose (D) lactose
95) starch is mixture of amylose______% and amylopectin of______%
(A) 10,90 (B) 20,80 (C) 30,70 (D) 80,20
96) in structure of amylopectin a-D+glucose units are joined by C1-0-C4linkage, but some
a-D+ glucose units are joined by __________ linkage
(A) C
l
-O-C
2
(B) C
1
-O-C
5
(C) C
l
-O-C
6
(D) C
2
-O-C
4
97) in structure of amylose a-D+glucose units are joined by__________linkage.
(A)Cl-0-C2 (B) C1-0-C4 (C) C1-0-C3 (D) C1-0-C6
98) cellulose consist of long chain of__________
(A) a-D+glucose (B) a-D+fructose (C) b-D+ glucose (D) b-D-glucose
99) in cellulose 2 monosaccharide molecule are joined by________linkage
(A) C
l
-O-C
2
(B) C
l
-O-C
3
(C) C
l
-O-C
4
(D) C
l
-O-C
6
100) structure of all a-aminoacid posses ______aminogroup.
(A) primary (B) secondary (C) tertiary (D) A&B
101) proline amino acid contains_________amino group
(A) primary (B) secondary (C) tertiary (D) A&B
102) essential amino acid is
(A) valine (B)histidine (C)methionine (D)all
103) some amino acids are known as none essential aminoacid because
(A) they are not necessaryfor normal body reaction
(B) they are synthesized in body
(C) instead of those another amino acid are obtained through diet
(D) they cause disease in body
104) amino acid contains
(A) aminogroup (B) amide group (C) carboxyl group (D) A&C
105) in dry solid form the amino acid exists as dipolar molecule in which carboxyl group is present as
carboxylate ion & amino group is present as amonium ion this dipolar ion is also known
as_______ ion
(A) twitterion (B) zwitterion (C) carboxeminium (D) all
226
106) in electric field the pH value at which amino acid doesnt migrate towards any electrode is
called______
(A) neutral point (B) amphotericpoint (C) isoelectricpoint (D) all
107) by which method a mixture of amino acid can be separated
(A) breedingArc (B) electrophoresis (C) chromatography (D) B&C
108) which bond is formed to reaction between amino group of 1-amino acid and carboxyl group of
another amino acid
(A) esterbond (B) amide bond (C) peptide bond (D) B&C
109) three different amino acids joined in different sequence to form different types of tri-peptide
(A)2
3
(B)3
3
(C)6 (D) 3
110) which ofthe followingsentence is true or false ? (symbol fortrue isT, and forfalse its F)
(i) group attached to C
l
in cyclicstructure of glucose acts as reducingagent group, this glucose
is one monosaccharide unit of sucrose
(ii) group attached to C
l
in cyclicstructure of glucose acts as reducing agent group, this glucose
is one monosaccharide unit of maltose
(iii) in maltose two monosaccharide units are joined to each other
(iv) group attached to C
4
in cyclicstructure of galactose acts as reducing agent group
(A) FFTF (B) FTTF (C) TFFT (D)TTTT
111) starch is mixture of
(A) zymez (B) amiloze (C) amilo pectine (D) B&C
112) cellulose consist of long chain of
(A) a-D+glucose (B) b-D+glucose (C) fructose (D) A&B
113) Answer, whether the following statements are true of false, & select properchoice !
(i) Tyrosine got its name because of its sweet taste
(ii) glycine got its name because it was first obtained from cheese
(iii) glutamic is acidic amino acid
(iv) arginine is basicaminoacid
(v) alanine is neutral amino acid
(vi) glycin isnt neutral amino acid
whethergiven statements are true or false
(a) (i, ii, iii) -true (b) (i, ii, vi) -false (c) (iii, iv, v)-true (d) (ii)-false,(ii,iv)-true
Multiple choice-
(A) a-F,b-T,c-T,d-F (B) a-T,b-T,c-T,d-F
(C) a-F,b-T,c-F,d-T (D) a-F,b-T,c-T,d-T
227
114) Amino acid is given in Column-1 & its nature is given in Column-ll so match the following
Column 1 Column II
i. lysine a. acidic
ii. glysine b. basic
iii. arginine c. nutral
iv. alanine
(A) i-b,ii-c,iii-b,iv-c (B) i-b,ii-a,iii-b,iv-c (C) i-a,ii-a,iii-b,iv-c (D) i-c,ii-b,iii-a,iv-b
115) Match section 1 & 2
SECTION I SECTION II
i. N-terminal residu a. aminogroup written at right side in peptide chain
ii. C-terminal residue b. carboxyl group written at leftside in peptide chain
c. aminogroup written at leftside in peptide chain
d. carboxyl group written at rightside in peptide chain
(A) i-a,ii-b (B) i-c,ii-d (C) i-b,ii-c (D) i-b, ii-a
116) carbohydrate given in column I and its example given in column II, select proper choice
SECTION I SECTION II
i. monosaccharide a. raffinose
ii. disaccharide b. fructose
iii. trisaccharide c. stachyose
iv. tetrasaccharide d. glycogene
v. polysaccharide e. cellobiose
(A) i-b,ii-e,iii-a,iv-d,v-c (B) i-b,ii-e,iii-a,iv-c,v-d
(C) i-b,ii-d,iii-a,iv-e,v-c (D) i-a,ii-b,iii-c,iv-d,v-e
117) chemical reactions are given in section I and chain or group present in structure of glucose are
given in section II. Match Section-I with Section-II
Section-I Section-II
i. glucose forms oxime with a. OHC-C-C-C-C-C chain is present
hydroxyl amine
ii. glucose is oxidized by nitric acid and b. carbonyl group is present
give saccharic acid
iii. glucose is oxidized by bromine water c. OHC-C(OH)-C(OH)-C(OH)-C(OH)-CH
2
OH
and givegluconicacid chain is present
iv. glucose forms penta-acitile glucose d. OHC-C-C-C-C-CH
2
OH chain is present
with aceticenhydride in presence of
pyridine
(A) i-b,ii-d,iii-a,iv-c (B) i-a,ii-b,iii-c,iv-d (C) i-d,ii-biii-a,iv-c (D) i-b,ii-a,iii-d,iv-c
228
118) the observered angle of rotation of 6.25 g of sucrose in 25 ml of aqueous solution in a polarimeter
tube 15 cm long is +66.5
0
what is the specific rotation of solution of sucrose?
(A) 13.3
0
(B) 66.5
0
(C) 24.9
0
(D) 26.6
0
119) the observered angle of rotation of 20g of sucrose in 40 ml of aqueous solution in a polarimeter
tube 30cm long is +28.5, what is the specific rotation of solution of glucose ?
(A) 19 (B) 52.5 (C) 57 (D) 112
120) which of the followingsentence istrue or false ?
(symbol fortrue isT, and forfalse it's F)
i. in maltose anomericcarbon of two monosaccharide units are involved in formation of
glycosidicbond
ii. in sucrose anomericcarbon of one monosaccharide unit is involved in formation of
glycosidicbond
iii. in lactose anomericcarbon of one monosaccharide unit is involved in formation of
glycosidicbond
(A) FFT (B) TTF (C)TFT (D) FTT
121) structure of protein given in column I, Shape & example of protein is given in Column II & its
bond isgiven in Column III, so match following,
COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III
i. primary structure a. b- platinated P. hydrogen bond
ii. secondary structure b. myoglobin Q.disulphide bond
iii. tertiary structure c. insulin R. ionicbond
iv. quaternary structure d. hemoglobin S. vanderwalls force
(A) i-c-Q, ii-a-P, iii-b-R, iv-d-S (B) i-c-Q. ii-a-P- iii-b-P,QR,S, iv-d-P,QR
(C) i-b-P, ii-a-S, iii-c-Q iv-d-QR (D) i-b-P,QR, ii-d-R, iii-a-Q iv-c-P,S
122) which effects are show in denaturation Of protein ?
i. protein forming insoluble form
ii. interference with the hydrophobic interaction in protein
iii. interference with the hydrophilic interaction in protein
iv. protein maintain their biological activity
v. protein loss their biological activity
vi. hydrogen bond is increase to adding concentrate acid in protein
(A) (ii,iv,v) (B) (i,ii,iv) (C) (i,iii,v) (D) (i,ii,iv,vi)
229
123) solubility of vitamin & sources are given in column-1 and vitamin isgiven in column II
COLUMN - I COULMN II
i. fat soluble vitamin a. vitamin-A
ii. watersoluble vitamin b. vitamin-B
iii. both fat & watersoluble vitamin c. vitamin-C
iv. synthezisesfrom carotene in human body d. vitamin-D
v. synthezises in skin with the help of sunlight e. vitamin-E
vi. formed by microorganism in intestine f. vitamin- H
g. vitamin-K
(A) (i-b,c) (ii-a,d,e,g) (iii-f) (iv-a) (v-d) (vi-g) (B) (i-a,d,e,g) (ii-b,c) (iii-f) (iv-a) (v-d) (vi-b,g)
(C) (i-b,a) (ii-c,d,e,g) (iii-f) (iv-c) (v-a,d) (vi-e,g) (D) (i-f) (ii-a,d,e,g) (iii-d)(iv-d) (v-b,c) (vi-a)
124) Symbol of vitamin isgiven in column I, chemical name of vitamin isgiven in column II & disease
caused by their deficiency given in Column III, so match the correct answers
COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III
i. vitamin B6 a. ascorbic acid p. bleeding in gingiva
ii. vitamin A b. pyridoxine q. hair losses
iii. vitamin C c. riboflavin r. xerophthalmia
iv. vitamin H d. retinol s. convulsions
e. calciferol t. beri-beri
f. biotin u. pernicious anemia
(A) (i-c,t) (ii-d,r) (iii-a,p) (iv-f,u) (B) (i-e,q) (ii-a,u) (iii-bs,) (iv-f,t)
(C) (i-b,s) (ii-d,r) (iii-e,p) (iv-c,s) (D) (i-b
y
s) (ii-d,r) (iii-a,p) (iv-f,q)
125) which of thefollowingsentence istrue or false ?
(symbol for true is T and for false is F)
i. message forthe synthesis of a specific protein is present in DNA
ii. cytosine base is derivatives of pyrimidine
iii. b-D ribose sugar present in DNA
iv. DNA is the exclusively responsible for maintaining the identity of different species of
organism upto 100 years
(A) TTFT (B) FTFF (C) FTFT (D) FFFF
230
126)
H
OH
CH OH
2
H
H
H
O
H
O
H
H
OH
H OH
H
O H
OH
OH
OH
CH OH
2
Structure P Structure Q
Structure R is formed by Joining structure P and Q, so give the namesof P, Q, R
(A) P = a - D + glucose, Q = b - D + galectose R = a + lactose
(B) P = b - D + galectose, Q = a - D + glucose R = a + lactose
(C) P = a - D + glucose, Q = a - D + galectose R = a + lactose
(D) P = b - D + galectose, Q = b - D + glucose & b - D + glucose ?
127) what are a - D+glucose & b - D + glucose?
(A) epimer (B)anomer (C) enantiomer (D) confirmer
128) which statement is appropriate for anomer of glucose ?
(A) they are isomers of glucose which contain different structure with C
1
& C
4
(B) theyare isomers of glucose which contain different structure with C
l
(C) they are enantiomers of glucose
(D) they are mixture of D-glucose&L- glucose
129) from which carbon of sugar, hetrocyclic base and phosphate ester are joined in both DNA
& RNA ?
(A) base of sugarwith C
5
& phosphate of sugar with C
2
(B) base of sugarwith C
2
& phosphate of sugar with C
5
(C) base of sugarwith C
5
& phosphate of sugarwith C
l
(D) base of sugarwith C
l
& phosphate of sugarwith C
5
130) which purine bases are joined in DNA ?
(A) cytosine & adenine
(B) cytosine & guanine
(C) adenine &guanine
(D) adenine &thymine
131) which pyrimidine bases are joined in DNA ?
(A) cytosine & adenine (B) cytosine & guanine
(C) cytosine & uracil (D) cytosine & thymine
231
132) which statement is true of false for following structure of sugar?
OH
H
CH OH
2
H
H
H
O
H
O
OH
H OH
H
O
H
OH
OH
CH OH
2
HOH C
2
'P' =
H
OH
CH OH
2
H
H
H
O
O
H
OH
OH
CH OH
2
H
H
H
O
OH
OH
'Q'
H
OH
H
=
i. P is reducing sugar & q is non reducing sugar
ii. P is non-reducing sugar & q is reducing sugar
iii. in p and q, glycosidic bond respectively are b & b
iv. in p and q, glycosidic bond respectively are b & a
v. p is structure of (+) sucrose
vi. q is structure of b (+) maltose
(A) FTFFTF (B) FTTFTF (C) TFFTFT (D) TFFTTT
133)
H
OH
H
H
H
H
OH
OH
HO
HO
O
Given Structure of carbohydrate is
(A) Ketohexos (B) aldohexos
(C) b-furanose (D) b-pyranose
232
1 D 21 D 41 B 61 A 81 A 101 B 121 B
2 C 22 D 42 A 62 D 82 D 102 D 122 C
3 D 23 D 43 D 63 A 83 C 103 B 123 B
4 D 24 B 44 C 64 A 84 B 104 D 124 D
5 B 25 B 45 D 65 A 85 B 105 B 125 B
6 C 26 C 46 B 66 D 86 D 106 C 126 B
7 C 27 C 47 D 67 D 87 B 107 D 127 B
8 A 28 A 48 A 68 B 88 D 108 D 128 B
9 D 29 C 49 D 69 A 89 B 109 C 129 D
10 A 30 B 50 A 70 D 90 B 110 B 130 B
11 B 31 A 51 A 71 C 91 B 111 D 131 D
12 C 32 A 52 D 72 D 92 C 112 B 132 B
13 B 33 C 53 D 73 B 93 D 113 D 133 B
14 A 34 B 54 A 74 A 94 A 114 A 134 A
15 D 35 D 55 C 75 A 95 B 115 B 135 C
16 B 36 A 56 A 76 C 96 C 116 B
17 A 37 A 57 D 77 B 97 B 117 A
18 A 38 C 58 B 78 B 98 C 118 C
19 C 39 D 59 B 79 A 99 C 119 A
20 B 40 A 60 B 80 D 100 A 120 A
ANSWER KEY
134) P is responsible for heredity & P is formed by Qand R. So give the name for P, Q and R.
(A) P = chromozomes Q = protein R = nucleicacid
(B) P = chromozomes Q = petrocine R = nucleic acid
(C) P = nucleicacid Q= chromozomes R = chromozomes
(D) p = DNA Q = sugar R = adenine
135) Scientists names are given in Column I, their contribution & researches in science is given in
Column II, match the correct answer
COLUMN I COLUMN II
i. Haworth & Hirst a. proposed a double helix structure of DNA
ii. Emil Fischer b. suggested that reaction between amino group of one aminoacid
and carboxyl group of anotheraminoacid losses watermolecules
and forms amide
iii. Watson & crick c. suggested that glucose molecule may contain pyranose ring
d. determined the configuration of almost all aldopentose and
aldohexose.
e. mechanism of enzyme can be explained by the lock& key model
(A) i-c, ii-d,e, iii-b (B) i-b, ii-d,e, iii-a (C) i-c, ii-b,d , iii-a (D) i-a, ii-b,d,e, iii-c
233
UNIT : 27 CHEMISTRY IN EVERY DAY LIFE
M.C.Q.
1. Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic
[A] Tetracycline [B] Chloromycetin [C] Penicillin [D] None of these
2. 2-Acetoxy benzoic acid is used as an
[A] Antimalarial [B] Antidepressant [C] Antiseptic [D] Antipyretic
3. Which of the following is used as an antibiotic
[A] Ciprofloxacin [B] Paracetamol [C] Ibuprofen [D] Tocopherol
4. When salicyclic acid is treated with acetic anhydride we get
[A] Aspirin [B] Paracetamol [C] Salol [D] chloramphenicol
5. Amoxillin is semi-synthetic modification of
[A] Penicillin [B] Streptomycin [C] Tetracycline [D] Chloroampheniol
6. Which of the following is an antidiabatic drug
[A] Insulin [B] Penicillin [C] Chloroquine [D] Aspirin
7. Which of these is a hypnotic
[A] Metaldehyde [B] Acetaldehyde [C] Paraldehyde[D] orthoaldehyde
8. The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is
(A)
OH
CONH
2
(B)
OH
NH
3
COCH
(C)
Cl
CONH
2
(D)
Cl
COCH
3
9. An ester used as medicine is
[A] Ethyl acetate [B] Methyl acetate [C] Methyl salicylate [D] Ethyl benzoate
10. The use of chemicals for treatment of diseases is called as
[A] Homoeotherapy [B] Isothermotherapy [C] Angiotherapy [D] Chemotherapy
11. The following compound is used as
O C CH
3
O
COOH
[A] An anti-inflammatory compound [B] Analgesic
[C] Hypnotic [D] Antiseptic
12. Arsenic drugs are mainly used in the treatment of
[A] Jaundice [B] Typhoid [C] Syphilis [D] Cholera
234
13. An antipyretic is
[A] Quinine [B] Paracetamol [C] Luminal [D] Piperazine
14. The drug used as an antidepressant is
[A] Luminol [B] Phenelzine [C] Mescaline [D] Sulphadiazine
15. Antiseptic chloroxylenol is
[A] 4-chloro-3, 5-dimethylphenol [B] 3-chloro-4, 5-dimethylphenol
[C] 4-chloro-2, 5-dimethylphenol [D] 5-chloro-3, 4-dimethylphenol
16. Which of the following is an insecticide
[A] Bakelite [B] TNT [C] BHC [D] Aspirin
17. Which of the following drugs is an antifertility drug
[A] Sulphaguanidine [B] Paludrin [C] Norethindron [D] Birthionol
18. Aspirin is
[A] Antibiotic [B] Antipyretic [C] Sedative [D] Psychedelic
19. A medicine which promotes the secretion of urine is called
[A] Uretic [B] Monouretic [C] Diuretic [D] Triuretic
20. An example of a psychedelic agent is
[A] DNA [B] LSD [C] DDT [D] TNT
21. An antibiotic with a broad spectrum
[A] Kills the antibodies [B] Acts on a specific antigen
[C] Acts on different antigens [D] Acts on both the antigens and antibodies
22. Which of the following is not a narcotic-
[A] Codeine [B] Brown Sugar [C] Diclofenac [D] Morphine
23. Which of the following medicine is required for malaria-
[A] Aspirin [B] Penicillin [C] Chloroquine [D] Paracetamol
24. Streptomycin is an example of
[A] Antibiotic [B] Analgesic [C] Antipyretic [D] Anaesthetic.
25. Which of the following is not a narcotic drug-
[A] Opium [B] Heroin [C] Pethidine [D Bithional
26. Chloroxylenol is an important component of
[A] Soap [B] Antibiotics [C] Dettol [D] Pain killing ointments
27. Which of the following is an antidepressants-
[A] Chloroxylenol [B] Bithional [C] Cocaine [D] Penicillin G
28. Which one is a broad spectrum antibiotic-
[A] Chloremphenicol [B] Penicillin [C] Paracetamol [D] Ampicillin
235
29. The drug used for treatment of typhoid is
[A] Chloromycetin [B] Novalgin [C] Paracetamol [D] Quinine
30. Halinin is an
[A] Antibiotic [B] Antipyretic [C] Hormone [D] Vitamin
31. Sulpha drugs are derivatives of
[A] Benzene sulphonic acid [B] Sulphanilic acid
[C] Sulphanilamide [D] P- Aminobenzenzoic acid
32. Which of the following can bring down the body temperature-
[A] Aspirin [B] Chloroquine [C] Penicillin [D] Quinine
33. Which of the following can be used as an bacteriocidal ?
[A] Paracetamol [B] Penicillin [C] Chloremphenicol [D] Streptomycin.
34. Vernol, a barbituric drug is used as a-
[A] Anaesthetic [B] Sedative [C] Antiseptic [D] Antipyretic.
35. Which of the following is a hypnotic drug-
[A] Catechol [B] Luminal [C] Phenol [D] Tincture iodine
36. Morphine is used then as an
[A] Antipyretic [B] Antiseptic [C] Analgesic [D] Insecticide.
37. A substance which can act both as an analgesic and antipyretic is
[A] Quinine [B] Aspirin [C] Penicillin [D] Insulin.
38. Drug which do not bind to the active site but bind to a different site?What is such site called ?
[A] In active site [B] Locktic site [C] reactive site [D] allostic site
39. Which drug is not for acidity?
[A] Omeprazole [B] Lansoprazole [C] Lysol [D] Al[(OH)
3
40. Which drug is not analgesic?
[A] Equanil [B] Ibuprofen [C] Naproxin [D] Diclofenac sodium
41. Which of the following is antipyretic?
[A] Ranitidine [B] Tarcey [C] Terpineol [D] Chloroform
42. What is the drug called which binds to receptor site and stop communication process of cell?
[A] Antagonists [B] Agonists [C] pigonists [D] logistic
43. Which of the following is a non-narcotic analgesic?
[A] ofloxacin [B] meprombamate [C] amytal [D] Aspirin
44. Which of the following substances may be used as antiseptic as well as disinfectant?
[A] Formaldehyde [B] Chlorine [C] KMnO
4
[D] Phenol
236
45. Which of the following analgesics is not habit-forming?
[A] Morphine [B] Aspirin [C] Codein [D] Heroin
46. Which of the following statements is not correct?
[A] Antipyretics are substances which are used to reduce the body temperature
[B] Analgesics are substance which are used to relieve pain
[C] Antiseptics and disinfectants can be used for the same purposes
[D] Antiseptics can be safely applied on living beings whereas disinfectants are not safe to apply.
47. Which of the following is commonly used as disinfectant?
[A] Acriflavin [B] Mercurochrome [C] Tincture of iodine [D] Phenol
48. Which is used as a disinfectants drugs?
[A] Paracetamol [B] Soframycin [C] Lysol [D] Streptomycin
49. Dettol is a mixture of
[A] Chloroxylenol and terpeneol in a suitable solvent
[B] formaldehyde and phenol in the solvent water
[C] tincture of iodine and chloroform
[D] KMnO
4
and iodoform
50. Which of the following is a general anaesthetics?
[A] Procaine [B] Cocainc [C] Nitrous oxide [D] Xylocaine
51. Which of the following is not a local anaesthetic ?
[A] Diethyl ether [B] Cocaine [C] Procaine [D] Xylocaine
52. The anaesthetic which is administered by injection is
[A] diethyl ether [B] divinyl ether [C] liquid nitrous oxide [D] morphine
53. Which of the following diseases is not caused by bacteria?
[A] Pneumonia [B] Dysentery [C] Tuberculosis [D] Diphtheria
54. Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?
[A] Tuberculosis [B] Dysentery [C] Malaria [D] Syphilis
55. Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoas?
[A] Tuberculosis [B] Pneumonia [C] Diphtheria [D] Malaria
56. Which of the following diseases is not caused by protozoas?
[A] Malaria [B] Dysentery [C] Smallpox [D] Syphilis
57. Which of the following is viruses born disease?
[A] Pneumonia [B] Malaria [C] Diphtheria [D] Influenza
58. The drug used to cure tuberculosis is
[A] quinine [B] piperazine [C] sulphanilamide [D] para-aminosalicyclic acid
237
59. The drug used for the treatment of throat infection is
[A] quinine [B] piperazine
[C] sulpha drug like sulphanilamide [D] isonicotin hydrazide
60. Which of the following is not tranquilizer?
[A] Luminal [B] Veronal [C] Reserpine [D] Piperazine
61. Which of the following is not true for reserpine?
[A] Reserpine is an alkaloid
[B] Reserpine is also known as serpasil
[C] Reserpine is obtained from the plant Raowolfia serpentina
[D] Reserpine is not a tranquilizer.
62. Which of the following is used for lowering blood pressure?
[A] Reserpine [B] Morphine [C] Diethyl ether [D] Cocaine
63. Which of the following antibiotics is used to cure typhoid?
[A] Penicillin [B] Chloramphenicol [C]Tetracycline [D] Streptomycin
64. Which of the following antibiotics is used to cure tuberculosis?
[A] Penicillin [B] Chloramphenicol [C] Tetracycline [D] Streptomycin
65. Which of the following is not regarded as antibiotics in true sense?
[A] Tetracycline [B] Penicillin [C] Sulpha drugs [D] Chloramphenicol
66. The substance used in the birth control pills is
[A] tetracycline [B] sulphadiazine [C] mifepriston [D] piperazine
67. The structure of aspirin is
[A]
OCOCH
3
COOH
[B]
NHCOCH
3
OH
[C] [D]
CH
3
Cl
OH
CH
3
68. The structure of paracetamol is
[A]
OCOCH
3
COOH
[B]
NHCOCH
3
OH
[C]
OC H
5 2
NHCOCH
3
[D]
CH
3
Cl
OH
CH
3
238
69. Which of the following structures is not correct?
[A] Aspirin
OCOCH
3
COOH
[B] Piperazine
H
2
C CH
2
NH
CH
2 H
2
C
HN
[C] Isonicotin hydrazide
N NHNH2
[D] Paracetamol C2H5O
NHCOCH3
70. A 16 years old boy came to the doctor with main complaints of frequent sneezing, watering from nose
and eyes, intense, itching in eyes. and cold. He has past history of allergy to dost. The doctor
prescribes most probably which of the drugs.
[A] Norediindrone [B] Lansoprazole [C] Reserpine [D] Chlorpheniramine
71. The structure given below is known as
H C
2
C
NH
2
N
S CH
3
H
CH
3
COOH
O
O
[A] Penicilline F [B] Penicillin G [D] Penicillin K [D] Ampicillin
72. Which synthetic sweetener is 160 times more sweeter than sugar?
[A] Aspartame [B] Saccharin [C] Sucralose [D] Alitame
73. Which compound is used as a preservative in foods?
[A] Salt of sorbic acid [B] Citric acid [C] Ascorbic acid [D] Saccharin
74. Choose the correct statement.
[A] Saccharin is 650 times sweeter than sugar [B] Alitame is 2000 times sweeter than sugar
[C] Sucralose is 1600 times sweeter than sugar [D] Aspartame is 550 times sweeter than sugar
75. Which compound is antioxident?
[A] BHA [B] DDB [C] ABS [D] CFRP
76. Which is not edible colour from the following?
[A] Carotene [B] Caramel [C] Tetrazine [D] Alitame
239
1 C 16 C 31 C 46 C 61 D 76 D
2 D 17 C 32 A 47 D 62 A 77 C
3 A 18 B 33 B 48 C 63 B 78 A
4 A 19 C 34 B 49 A 64 D 79 C
5 A 20 B 35 B 50 C 65 C 80 A
6 A 21 C 36 C 51 A 66 C 81 B
7 C 22 C 37 B 52 D 67 A 82 B
8 B 23 C 38 A 53 B 68 B 83 A
9 C 24 A 39 C 54 A 69 D
10 D 25 D 40 A 55 D 70 D
11 B 26 C 41 A 56 C 71 B
12 C 27 C 42 A 57 D 72 A
13 B 28 A 43 D 58 D 73 A
14 B 29 A 44 D 59 C 74 B
15 A 30 A 45 B 60 D 75 A
ANSWER KEY
77. Which of the following substances is added to soap to make it antiseptic?
[A] Iodine [B] KMnO
4
[C] Bithional [D] Cl
2
78. Soap is-
[A]Sodium stearate [B] Calcium stearate [C] Sodium acetate [D] Sodium benzoate
79. The polar head of sodium stearate is-
[A] Na+ [B] H+ [C] COO [D] CH3[CH216
80. Detergents......the surface tension of water-
[A] Reduces [B] Increases [C] Keeps constant [D]Slightly increases
81. Cetyl tri methyl ammonium chloride is which type of detergent ?
[A] Anionic [B] Cationic [C] Non-ionic [D] Biosoft
82. Structurally biodegradable detergent should contain
[A] Normal alkyl chain [B] Branched alkyl chain
[C] Phenyl side chain [D] Cyclohexyl side chain
83. Which of the following detergent is used as germicide?
[A] Cetyl trimethyl ammonium chlorie [B] p-do decylbenzene sulphonate
[C] sodium lauryl alko sulphonate [D] Butylated hydroxy toluene.
241
Unit - 28 - CHEMESTRY PRACTICAL
Important Points
Chemical analysis : Analytical chemistry deals with qualitative and quantitative analysis of substances.
Qualitative analysis : A salt consists of two parts known as radicals. The positively charged part of a salt
(cation) which has been derived from a base is termed as basic radical and the negatively charged part of salt
(anion) which has been derived from an acid is termed as acidic radical. In qualitative inorganic analysis, the
given compound is analysed for the basic and acid radicals (i.e., the cations and the anions), that it contains. For
example zinc blende is analysed for the
+ 2
Zn and
- 2
S ions that it contains.
Systematic Procedure for Qualitative Analysis of Inorganic Salts
It involves the following steps : (1) Preliminary tests (2) Wet tests for acid radicals and (3) Wet tests for
basic radicals.
(1) Peliminary Test
(i) Physical examination : It involves the study of colour, smell, density etc.
Colour Salt
Black Oxides :
Sulphides : (blackish brown)
Blue Hydrated , anhydrous
Orange , some dichromate , ferricyanides
Green Nickel salts, hydrated ferrous salts, potassium permanganate , some
copper (II) salts
Brownish
yellow
Dark brown (but yellow in aq. solution)
Pale brown
Light pink Hydrated manganese salts
Reddish pink Hydrated cobalt (II) salts
Red
Yellow , chromates
4 3 2
, , , O Co CuO FeO MnO ,
3 2
O Ni
NiS CoS FeS S Cu CuS S Ag , , , , ,
2 2
, HgS PbS, ,
3 2
S Bi
4
CuSO
4
CoSO
2
KO
3 2 7 2 2
), ( S Sb O Cr K
)
4
KMnO
SnS
3 4 3 2 2 2
, , , , , FeCl CuCrO O Fe CdO O Ag PbO
3
MnCO
4 3 2
, O Pb HgI
AgI AgBr PbI CdS , , ,
2
(ii) Flame test :
Characteristic flame colour : Certain metals and their salts impart specific colours to Bunsen burner
flame.
(a) Pb imparts pale greenish colour to the flame.
(b) Cu and Cu salts impart blue or green colour to the flame.
(c) Ba and its salts impart apple green colour to the flame.
(d) Ca imparts brick red colour to the flame.
(iii) Borax bead test :
The transparent glassy bead ) (
3 2 2
O B NaBO + when heated with inorganic salt and the colour produced
gives some idea of cation present in it.
242
Colour of bead in oxidising flame Colour of bead in reducing flame Basic radical present
Greenish when hot, blue in cold. Red and opaque Cu
Yellow when hot Green Fe
Brown in cold Grey or black or opaque Ni
(a) Compound fused in cavity directly
Nature and colour of bead Cation
Yellow, soft bead which marks on paper
White yellow when hot
Grey metallic particles attracted by magnet
+ 2
Pb
ZnO
CO Ni Fe , ,
(iv) Charcoal cavity test
(2) Wet tests for acid radicals :
Salt or mixture is treated with dil.
4 2
SO H and also with conc. separately and by observing the types of
gases evolved. Confirmatory tests of anions are performed.
Observations with Dilute H
2
SO
4
Observation Acid Radical Confiramatory Test
Colourless pungent gas
giving white fumes
with aq. OH NH
4
-
Cl
(chloride)
(i) Add
2
MnO in the same test tube and heat-pale green
2
Cl gas
(ii) S.E.+ 3 3
AgNO HNO + solution white ppt. soluble in aq. 3
NH
(iii) Chromyl chloride test
Reddish brown fumes
-
Br (bromide) (iv) Add O Mn
2
and heat yellowish brown
2
Br gas
(v) S.E.+
3 3
AgNO HNO + solution pale yellow ppt. partially
soluble aq.
3
NH
(vi) Layer test
Violet pungent vapours
turning starch paper
blue.
-
I (iodide) (vii) S.E.+
3 3
AgNO HNO + yellow ppt. insoluble in aq.
3
NH
(viii) Layer test
Brown pungent fum es
intensified by the
addition of Cu- turnigs.
-
3
NO (nitrate) (ix) Ring test
Observations with concentrated H
2
SO
4
Observations Acid Radical Confirmatory test
Brisk effervescence
with evolution of
colourless and
odourless gas.
(carbonate)
Gas turns lime water milky but milkyness disappears on
passing gas inexcess,
Brown fumes
(Nitrite)
Add KI and starch solution blue colour
;
(colourless); (brown)
starch ? ? ? blue colour
Smell of rotten eggs
smell) on
heating
(sulphide) Gas turn lead acetate paper black
Sodium carbonate extract + sodium nitroprusside
purple colour,
243
Reactions
Chloride :
(i) HCl KHSO SO H KCl + +
4 4 2
conc.
fumes) white (
4 3
Cl NH NH HCl +
O H Cl MnCl MnO HCl
2 2 2 2
2 4 + + +
D
(ii)
ppt. white
3 3
KNO AgCl AgNO KCl + +
soluble
2 3 3
] ) ( [ 2 . Cl NH Ag NH aq AgCl +
(iii) Chromyl- chloride test :
Chloride + +
heat
H conc. ) solid (
4 2 7 2 2
SO O Cr K reddish brown vapours of chromyl-chloride
). (
2 2
Cl CrO
Pass these vapours into , NaOH when yellow
4 2
CrO Na solution is formed. On adding
COOH CH
3
and
2 3
) ( COO CH Pb, yellow ppt. of lead chromate ) (
4
PbCrO is formed.
Bromide :
(iv) H KHSO SO H KBr + +
D
4 4 2
conc. ;
2 2 2 2
2 4 MnBr O H Br MnO HBr + + +
D
(v)
ppt. yellow pale
3 3
NaNO AgBr AgNO NaBr + +
soluble partially
2 3 3
] ) ( [ 2 aq. Br NH Ag NH AgBr +
(vi) Layer Test :
2
. . Cl E S + water +
3
CHCl

shake
yellowish orange colour in layer or can be taken
instead of
3
CHCl );
) CHCl in (soluble
yellow orange
2 2
3
2 2 Br NaCl Cl NaBr + +
In case of
-
I , violet colour of
2
I in
3
CHCl layer, ,
2 2
2 2 I NaCl Cl NaI + + (violet)
Iodide :
(vii) HI KHSO SO H KI + +
D
4 4 2
conc. ;
2 4 2
2 I SO H HI + +
2 2
2 SO O H +
Nitrate :
3 4 4 2 3
HNO NaHSO SO H NaNO + +
fumes brown
2 2 2 3
2 4 4 O H O NO HNO +
;
O H NO NO Cu HNO Cu
2 2 2 3 3
2 2 ) ( 4 + + +
(viii) Ring test : To water extract (all
-
3
NO are water soluble) add freshly prepared
4
FeSO solution and
then conc.
4 2
SO H carefully by the side of the test- tube. A dark brown ring of
- + 2
4
2
5 2
] ) ( [ SO NO O H Fe
at the interface between the two liquids is formed.
3 4 4 2 3
2 2 2 HNO NaHSO SO H NaNO + + ;
+ +
4 2 4 3
3 6 2 SO H SO Fe HNO O H NO SO Fe
2 3 4 2
4 2 ) ( 3 + +
O H SO NO O H Fe NO SO O H Fe
2
2
4
2
5 2 4 6 2
] ) ( [ ] ) ( [ + +
- +
244
Specific test in solution
(i) Sulphate : S.E. add dil. (to decompose
- 2
3
CO until reaction ceases). Add
2
BaCl solution. White ppt.
insoluble in conc.
3
HNO , NaCl BaSO NaSO BaCl 2
ppt. white
4 4 2
+ +
(ii) Borate : lgnite the mixture containing borate, conc.
4 2
SO H . And ethanol in a china-dish with a
burning splinter green edged flame of ethyl borate.
4 2 3 3
(conc.)
4 2 3 3
3 2 3 2 SO Na BO H SO H BO Na + +
;
O H B O H C OH H C BO H
ethanol
2
(volatile)
flame green with burns
3 5 2 5 2 3 3
3 ) ( 3 + +
D
In presence of
+ 2
Cu
, perform this test in a test tube since salts are not volatile.
(iii) + +
3
. . HNO E S ammonium molybdate solution. Heat, yellow crystalline ppt. confirms
+ +
D
3 4 2 4 4 3
24 ) ( 12 HNO MoO NH PO Na
O H NaNO NO NH MoO PO NH
2 3 3 4 3
ppt. yellow
4 3 4
12 3 21 12 . ) ( + + +
Arsenic also gives this test. Hence presence of phosphate should also be checked after group II.
(iv) Fluoride : Sand +salt (F
) + conc. H
2
SO
4
; heat and bring a water wetted rod in contact with
vapours at the mouth of the test tube. A white deposit on the rod shows the presence to F
.
HF NaHSO SO H NaF + +
D
4 4 2
O H SiF HF SiO
2 4 2
2 4 + +
D
white
4 4 6 2 2 4
2 4 3 SiO H SiF H O H SiF +
(3) Wet tests for basic radicals :
Analysis of Basic Radicals
Group Basic radicals Group
reagent
Ppt. as Explanation
I
+ + + 2 2
2
(I), , Pb Hg Ag
dil HCl Chloride
) , , (
2 2 2
PbCl Cl Hg AgCl
SP
K values of chlorides are low, hence
precipitated. Others have higher
SP
K
values hence not precipitated.
II
+ + + 2 2 2
, , Pb Cd Cu ,
+ 2
Hg (II),
+ + 3 3
, As Bi ,
+ + 2 3
, Sn Sb
S H
2
gas in
presence of
dil. HCl
Sulphides
(
3 2
, S As CuS etc.)
SP
K values of sulphides are low hence
precipitated by low ] [
2-
S ion. HCl
(with common
+
H ion) decreases
ionization of S H
2
which gives low
] [
2-
S . Hence II group is precipitated.
Others with higher
SP
K values not
precipitated.
III + + + 3 3 3
, , Fe Cr Al
OH NH
4
in
presence of
Cl NH
4
Hydroxide,
3
) (OH Al
etc.
SP
K values of
3
) (OH Al etc. are low.
Cl NH
4
(with common
+
4
NH ion)
decreases ionization of OH NH
4
giving low ] [
-
OH . Hence group III is
precipitated.
IV
+ + + + 2 2 2 2
, , , Co Mn Ni Zn
S H
2
in
ammonical
medium
Sulphides ( ZnS etc.)
SP
K values of sulphides of group IV
are high hence precipitation takes place
in higher ] [
2-
S . Basic medium
increases ionization of S H
2
increasing
] [
2-
S hence precipitation of group IV.
V
+ + + 2 2 2
, , Sr Ba Ca
Cl NH
CO NH
4
3 2 4
) ( + Carbonates (
3
CaCO
etc.)
SP
K values of carbonate are les s than
that of group VI ) (
2+
Mg hence
precipitation before
+ 2
Mg .
VI
+ + +
K Na Mg , ( ,
2
also
included)
4 2
4
HPO Na
OH NH
+
White ppt.
) (
4
MgHPO
0
(Zero)
+
4
NH
Tested independently from original
solution.
245
Group Basic radicals Group
reagent
Ppt. as Explanation
V
+ + + 2 2 2
, , Sr Ba Ca
Cl NH
CO NH
4
3 2 4
) ( + Carbonates (
3
CaCO
etc.)
SP
K values of carbonate are les s than
that of group VI ) (
2+
Mg hence
precipitation before
+ 2
Mg .
VI
+ + +
K Na Mg , ( ,
2
also
included)
4 2
4
HPO Na
OH NH
+
White ppt.
) (
4
MgHPO
0
(Zero)
+
4
NH
Tested independently from original
solution.
Chemical reactions involved in the tests of basic radicals
Group I : When dil. HCl is added to original solution, insoluble chlorides of lead, silver mercurous
mercury are precipitated.
3 2 2 3
2 2 ) ( HNO PbCl HCl NH Pb + +
;
3 3
HNO AgCl HCl AgNO + +
3 2 2 3
2 2 ) ( HNO HgCl HCl NO Hg + +
Pb
2+
(lead)
(i)
2
PbCl is soluble in hot water and on cooling white crystals are again formed.
(ii) The solution of
2
PbCl gives a yellow precipitate with potassium chromate solution which is insoluble
in acetic acid but soluble in sodium hydroxide.
KCl PbCrO CrO K PbCl 2
ppt. yellow
4 4 2 2
+ +
;
O H CrO Na PbO Na NaOH PbCrO
2 4 2 2 2 4
2 4 + + +
(iii) The solution of
2
PbCl forms a yellow precipitate with potassium iodide solution.
KCl PbI KI PbCl 2 2
. ppt Yellow
2 2
+ +
(iv) White precipitate of lead sulphate is formed with dilute .
4 2
SO H
The precipitate is soluble in ammonium acetate, HCl PbSO SO H PbCl 2
4 4 2 2
+ + ;
4 2 4 2 3 4 3 4
) ( ) ( 2 SO NH COO CH Pb COONH CH PbSO + +
Group II : When hydrogen sulphide is passed in acidified solution, the radicals of second group are
precipitated as sulphides. The precipitate is treated with yellow ammonium sulphide. The sulphides of IIB
are first oxidised to higher sulphides which then dissolve to form thio-compounds.
5 2 2 4 2 2 4 3 2
) ( 2 ) ( 2 S As S NH S NH S Ag + +
5 2 2 4 2 2 4 3 2
) ( 2 ) ( 2 S Sb S NH S NH S Sb + +
2 2 4 2 2 4
) ( ) ( SnS S NH S NH SnS + +
246
te thioarsena
Ammonium
4 3 4 4 5 2
) ( 2 ) ( 3 AsS NH S NH S As +
nate thioantimo
Ammonium
4 2 4 2 4 5 2
) ( 2 ) ( 3 SbS NH S NH S Sb +
te thiostanna
Ammonium
3 2 4 2 4 2
) ( ) ( SnS NH S NH SnS +
All the three are soluble.
In case, the precipitate does not dissolve in yellow ammonium sulphide, it may be either HgS or
PbS
or
3 2
S Bi or
CuS
or
. CdS
The precipitate is heated with dilute .
3
HNO Except , all other sulphides of are
soluble.
O H S NO NO Pb HNO PbS
2 2 3 3
4 3 2 ) ( 3 8 3 + + + +
O H S NO NO Bi HNO S Bi
2 3 3 3 3 2
4 3 2 ) ( 2 8 + + + +
O H S NO NO Cu HNO CuS
2 2 3 3
4 3 2 ) ( 3 8 3 + + + + O H S NO NO Cd HNO CdS
2 2 3 3
4 3 2 ) ( 3 8 3 + + + +
Pb
2+
(lead)
In case the sulphide dissolves in dilute ,
3
HNO a small part of the solution is taken. Dilute
4 2
SO H is added.
If lead is present, a white precipitate of lead sulphate appears,
3
ppt.) (White
4 4 2 2 3
2 ) ( HNO PbSO SO H NO Pb + +
In absence of lead, the remaining solution is made alkaline by the addition of excess of .
4
OH NH Bismuth
forms a white precipitat of , ) (
3
OH Bi copper forms a deep blue coloured solution while cadmium forms a
colourless soluble complex,
ppt. White
3 ) ( 3 ) (
3 4 3 4 3 3
NO NH OH Bi OH NH NO Bi + +
solution) blue (deep
nitrate cupric e Tetrammin
; 4 ) ( ] ) ( [ 4 ) (
2 2 3 4 3 4 2 3
O H NO NH Cu OH NH NO Cu + +
solution) s (colourles
nitrate cadmium e Tetrammin
4 ) ( ] ) ( [ 4 ) (
2 2 3 4 3 4 2 3
O H NO NH Cd OH NH NO Cd + +
Cu
2+
(copper) :
Blue coloured solution is acidified with acetic acid. When potassium ferrocyanide is added a chocolate
coloured precipitate is formed,
+ COOH CH NO NH Cu
3 2 3 4 3
4 ) ( ) (
4 4 2 3
4 ) ( COONH CH NO Cu +
ppt. Chocolate
4 ) ( [ ] ) ( [ ) ( 2
3 6 2 6 4 2 3
KNO CN Fe Cu CN Fe K NO Cu + +
247
Group III : Hydroxides are precipitated on addition of excess of ammonium hydroxide in presence of
ammonium chloride.
Cl NH OH Al OH NH AlCl
4
ppt. Gelatinous
3 4 3
3 ) ( 3 + +
Cl NH OH Cr OH NH CrCl
4
ppt. Green
3 4 3
3 ) ( 3 + +
Cl NH OH Fe OH NH FeCl
4
ppt. red Brownish
3 4 3
3 ) ( 3 + +
Fe
3+
(iron) : The brownish red precipitate dissolves in dilute HCl. The solution is divided into two parts.
Part I :
] ) ( [
6 4
CN Fe K solution is added which forms deep blue solution or precipitate.
O H FeCl HCl OH Fe
2 3 3
3 3 ) ( + +
KCl CN Fe Fe CN Fe K FeCl 12 ] ) ( [ ] ) ( [ 3 4
blue Prussian
3 6 4 6 4 3
+ +
Part II :
Addition of potassium thiocyanate solution gives a blood red colouration.
KCl CNS Fe KCNS FeCl 3 ) ( 3
colour red Blood
3 3
+ +
Al
3+
(aluminium) :
The gelatinous precipitate dissolves in
NaOH
,
O H NaAlO NaOH OH Al
2
Soluble
2 3
2 ) ( + +
The solution is boiled with ammonium chloride when
3
) (OH Al is again formed.
3 3 2 4 2
) ( NH NaCl OH Al O H Cl NH NaAlO + + + +
Group IV : On passing S H
2
through the filtrate of the third group, sulphides of fourth group are precipitated.
NiS and CoS are black and insoluble in concentrated HCl while MnS (buff coloured), ZnS (colourless) are
soluble in conc. HCl.
Zn
2+
(zinc) : The sulphide dissolves in HCl. S H ZnCl HCl ZnS
2 2
2 + +
When the solution is treated with , NaOH first a white precipitate appears which dissolves in excess of NaOH
NaCl OH Zn NaOH ZnCl 2 ) ( 2
ppt. White
2 2
+ + O H ZnO Na NaOH OH Zn
2
(Soluble)
2 2 2
2 2 ) ( + +
On passing S H
2
, white precipitate of zinc sulphide is formed
NaOH ZnS S H ZnO Na 2
ppt. White
2 2 2
+ +
Mn
2+
(manganese) : Manganese sulphide dissolves in HCl S H MnCl HCl MnS
2 2
2 + +
On heating the solution with
NaOH
and
2
Br -water, manganese dissolve gets precipitated.
NaCl OH Mn NaOH MnCl 2 ) ( 2
2 2
+ + O H MnO O OH Mn
2 2 2
) ( +
The precipitate is treated with excess of nitric acid and
2
PbO or
4 3
O Pb (red lead). The contents are
heated. The formation of permanganic acid imparts pink colour to the supernatant liquid.
2 3 3 2
) ( 2 4 2 NO Mn HNO MnO +
2 2
2 O O H + +
+ +
3 4 3 2 3
26 5 ) ( 2 HNO O Pb NO Mn
(pink) acid c Permangani
2 2 3 4
12 15 2 O H ) Pb (NO HMnO + +
The above test fails in presence of HCl.
248
Ni
2+
(nickel) and Co
2+
(cobalt)
The black precipitate is dissolved in aquaregia.
O H S NO NiCl HNO HCl NiS
2 2 3
2 3 2 2 2 6 3 + + + + +
O H S NO CoCl HNO HCl CoS
2 2 3
4 3 2 3 2 6 3 + + + + +
The solution is evaporated to dryness and residue extracted with dilute HCl. It is divided into three parts.
Part I : Add OH NH
4
(excess) and dimethyl glyoxime. A rosy red precipitate appears, if nickel is present,
+
= -
= -
+ OH NH
NOH C CH
NOH C CH
NiCl
4
3
3
2
2 | 2
O H Cl NH
CH C
CH C
OH
N
N
O
Ni
O
N
N
OH
C CH
C CH
2 4
3
3
3
3
2 2 |
|
|
| + +
-
-
=
=
-
= -
= -
Part II : Add COOH CH
3
in excess and .
2
KNO The appearance of yellow precipite confirms the presence
of cobalt.
2 3 3 2
HNO COOK CH COOH CH KNO + +
KCl NO Co KNO CoCl 2 ) ( 2
2 2 2 2
+ +
O H NO NO Co HNO NO Co
2 3 2 2 2 2
) ( 2 ) ( + + +
] ) ( [ 3 ) (
6 2 3 2 3 2
NO Co K KNO NO Co +
Part III : Solution containing either nickel or cobalt is treated with
3
NaHCO and bromine water. Appearance
of apple green colour is observed, the solution is heated when black precipited is formed, which shows the
presence of nickel, NaCl HCO Co NaHCO CoCl 2 ) ( 2
2 3 3 2
+ +
2 2 3 3 4 3 2 3
3 3 ) ( 4 ) ( CO O H CO Co Na NaHCO HCO Co + + +
O HBr O H Br + + 2
2 2
NaOH CO Co Na O O H CO Co Na 2 ) ( 2 ) ( 2
n) colouratio (Green
carbonate cobalti sod.
3 3 3 2 3 3 4
+ + +
2 2 3 3 2
2 2 CO O H NaCl NiCO NaHCO NiCl + + + +
2 ] [ 2
2
(Black)
3 2 3
CO O Ni O NiCO + +
250
1. In borax bead test, which of the following compound is formed [CBSE PMT 2002]
(a) Meta borate (b) Tetra borate (c) Double oxide (d) Ortho borate
2. The metal that does not give the borax-bead test is [MP PMT 1999]
(a) Chromium (b) Nickel (c) Lead (d) Manganese
3. Which of the following is coloured compound? [BCECE 2005]
(a) CuF
2
(b) CuI (c) NaCl (d) MgCl
2
4. The alkaline earth metal that imparts apple green colour to the bunsen flame when introduced in
it in the form of its chloride is [EAMCET 1979]
(a) Barium (b) Strontium (c) Calcium (d) Magnesium
5. Which gives violet coloured bead in borax bead test [BHU 1988; MP PET 1997]
(a)
2
Fe
+
(b)
2
Ni
+
(c)
2
Co
+
(d)
2
Mn
+
6. When concentrated H
2
SO
4
is added to dry KNO
3
, brown fumes evolve. These fumes are
[CPMT 1988; IIT 1987]
(a) SO
2
(b) SO
3
(c) NO (d) NO
2
7. Which one of the following salt give green coloured flame when the salt is tested by Pt wire
(a) Barium salt (b) Calcium salt (c) Borate (d) Lead salt
8. Sodium sulphite on heating with dilute HCl liberates a gas which [NCERT 1972]
(a) Turns lead acetate paper black
(b) Turns acidified potassium dichromate paper green
(c) Burns with a blue flame
(d) Smells like vinegar
9. Starch-iodide paper is used for the test of
(a) Iodine (b) Iodide ion (c) Oxidising agent (d) Reducing agent
10. Which of the following salt gives white precipitate with solution and dil. solution and gives green
flame test
(a) CuCl
2
(b) BaCl
2
(c) pbCl
2
(d) Cu(NO
3
)
2
11. Two gases when mixed give white dense fumes, the gases are
(a) NH
3
and SO
2
(b) SO
2
and steam (c) NH
3
and HCl (d) NH
3
and N
2
O
12. Blue borax bead is obtained with [MADT Bihar 1982; MP PET 1995]
(a) Zn (b) Cobalt (c) Chromium (d) Fe
13. Which of the following imparts green colour to the burner flame [DCE 2004]
(a) B(OMe)
3
(b) Na(OMe) (c) Al(OPr)
3
(d) Sn(OH)
2
M.C.Q.
251
14. A colourless gas with the smell of rotten fish is [AFMC 2005]
(a) H
2
S (b) PH
3
(c) SO
2
(d) None of these
15. MnO
2
and H
2
SO
4
added to NaCl, the greenish yellow gas liberated is [Orissa JEE 2005]
(a) Cl
2
(b) NH
3
(c) N
2
(d) H
2
16. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct when a mixture of NaCl and K
2
Cr
2
O
7
is
gently warmed with conc H
2
SO
4
. [IIT 1998; CPMT 1988; AMU 1984; MP PMT 2002]
(a) A deep red vapour is evolved
(b) The vapour when passed into NaOH solution gives a yellow solution of Na
2
Cr
2
O
7
(c) Chlorine gas is evolved
(d) Chromyl chloride is formed
17. Which of the following combines with Fe (II) ions to form a brown complex [AIIMS 1982, 87;
AFMC 1988; CBSE PMT 2000; Pb. PMT 2000; MP PET 2000, 01]
(a) N
2
O (b) NO (c) N
2
O
3
(d) N
2
O
5
18. Which of the following will not produce a precipitate with AgNO
3
solution [MP PMT 1990]
(a) F
(b) Br
(c) CO
3
2
(d) PO
4
3
19. Which of the following gives black precipitate when H

2
S gas is passed through its solution
[CPMT 1974]
(a) Acidic AgNO
3
(b) Mg(NO3)2 (c) Ammonical BaCl2 (d) Copper nitrate
20. A salt gives violet vapours when treated with conc. H2SO4. It contains [DPMT 1981; CPMT
1971]
(a) Cl
(b) I
(c) Br
(d) NO
3
21. When water is added to a salt solution containing chloroform, chloroform layer turns violet. Salt
contains [CPMT 1982]
(a) Cl
(b) I
(c) NO
3
(d) S
2
22. Phosphate radical with ammonium molybdate gives precipitate of which colour
(a) Violet (b) Pink (c) Canary yellow (d) Green
23. Which compound is soluble in NH
4
OH [AFMC 1987]
(a) PbCl
2
(b) PbSO
4
(c) AgCl (d) CaCO
3
24. Nitrates of all the metals are [DPMT 1983, 89]
(a) Coloured (b) Unstable (c) Soluble in water (d) Insoluble in water
25. Nitrate is confirmed by ring test. The brown colour of the ring is due to the formation of
[EAMCET 1979; AFMC 1981, 88, 90; RPET 1999; MP PMT 2000; MP PET 2002; CPMT 2004]
(a) Ferrous nitrite (b) FeSO
4
NO (c) FeSO
2
NO
2
(d) Ferrous nitrate
26. Aqueous solution of a salt when treated with AgNO
3
solution gives a white precipitate, which
dissolves in NH
4
OH. Radical present in the salt is
(a) Cl
(b) Br
(c) I
(d) NO
3
27. When CO
2
is passed into lime water it turns milky. When excess of CO
2
is passed, milkyness
disappears because
(a) Reaction is reversed (b) Water soluble Ca(HCO
3
)
2
is formed
(c) Vaporisable calcium derivative is formed (d) None of these
252
28. A mixture when heated with conc. H
2
SO
4
with MnO
2
brown fumes are formed due to
(a) Br
(b) NO
3
(c) Cl
(d) I
29. In the test of sulphate radical, the white precipitate of sulphate is soluble in
(a) Conc. HCl (b) Conc. H
2
SO
4
(c) Conc. HNO
3
(d) None of these
30. Which reagent is used to remove SO
4
2
and Cl

[Pb. PMT 2002]
(a) BaSO
4
(b) NaOH (c) Pb(NO
3
)
2
(d) KOH
31. ........ is formed when potassium iodide is heated with conc. H
2
SO
4
[CPMT 1971]
(a) HI (b) I
2
(c) HIO
3
(d) KIO
3
32. Chromyl chloride test is performed for the confirmation of the presence of the following in a
mixture [CPMT 1990; KCET 1992; RPET 1999]
(a) Sulphate (b) Chromium (c) Chloride (d) Chromium and chloride
33. A solution of a salt in dilute sulphuric acid imparts deep blue colour with starch iodine solution
it confirms the presence of which of the following [MP PET 2003; NCERT 1974; CPMT 1977]
(a) NO
2
(b) I
(c) NO
3
(d) CH
3
COO
34. Ammonia reacts with excess of chlorine to form [DPMT 2000]

(a) N
2
and HCl (b) NH
4
Cl and NCl
3
(c) NCl
3
and HCl (d) N
2
and NH
4
Cl
35. Which of the following anions would decolourise acidified KMnO
4
solution
(a) SO
4
2
(b) S
2
(c) NO
3
(d) CH
3
COO
36. The gas which is absorbed by ferrous sulphate solution giving blackish brown colour is
[AMU 1999]
(a) NO (b) CO (c) N
2
(d) NH
2
37. Which one of the following anions is not easily removed from aqueous solutions by precipitation
[IIT 1995]
(a) Cl
(b) NO
3
(c) CO
3
2
(d) SO
4
2
38. Na
2
CO
3
cannot be used to identify [BVP 2004]
(a) CO
3
2
(b) SO
3
2
(c) S
2
(d) SO
4
2
39. The number of hydroxide ions, produced by one molecule of sodium carbonate (Na
2
CO
3
) on
hydrolysis is [Pb. CET 2002]
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
40. By passing KMnO
4
gas in acidified H
2
S solution, we get [MP PET 1997]
(a) K
2
S (b) S (c) K
2
SO
3
(d) MnO
2
41. Which of the following doesnt give a ppt. with silver nitrate solution. [J & K 2005]
(a) Ethyl bromide (b) Sodium bromide (c)Calcium chloride (d) Sodium chloride
42. Which sulphide is soluble in (NH
4
)
2
CO
3
(a) SnS (b) AS
2
S
3
(c) Sb
2
S
3
(d) CdS
43. When acetic acid and K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] is added to a copper salt, a chocolate precipitate is obtained
of the compound
(a) Copper cyanide (b) Copper ferrocyanide
(c) Basic copper sulphate (d) Basic copper cyanide
253
44. A precipitate of the following would be obtained when HCl is added to a solution of stannous
sulphide (SnS) in yellow ammonium sulphide [CPMT 1977; NCERT 1974]
(a) SnS (b) SnS
2
(c) Sn
2
S
3
(d) (NH
4
)
2
SnS
3
45. The compound insoluble in acetic acid is [CPMT 1989]
(a) Calcium oxide (b) Calcium carbonate (c) Calcium oxalate (d) Calcium hydroxide
46. Which of the following give white precipitate when HCl is added to its aqueous solution
(a) Hg
+
(b) Mg
++
(c) Zn
++
(d) Cd
++
47. Reagent used in the qualitative analysis of IVth group is
(a) HCl (b) H
2
S (alkaline) (c) (NH
4
)
2
S (d) None of these
48. Which of the following pairs would be expected to form precipitate when solution are mixed
[NCERT 1984]
(a) K
+
, SO
4
2
(b) Na
+
, S
2
(c) Ag
+
, NO
3
(d) Al
3+
, OH
49. Addition of solution of oxalate to an aqueous solution of mixture of Ba

2+
, Sr
2+
yLku Ca
2+
and will
precipitate [MP PMT 1985]
(a) Ca
2+
(b) Ca
2+
, Sr
+2
(c) Ba
2+
, Sr
+2
(d) All the three
50. Distinguishing reagent between silver and lead salts is [MADT Bihar 1984]
(a) H
2
S gas (b) Hot dilute HCl solution
(c) NH
4
Cl
(S)
+ NH
4
OH
(aq)
(solid) + solution (d) NH
4
Cl
(S)
(solid) + (NH
4
)
2
CO
3(aq)
solution
51. The ion that cannot be precipitated by both HCl and H
2
S is [IIT 1982; CPMT 1989]
(a) Pb
2+
(b) Cu
2+
(c) Ag
+
(d) Sn
2+
52. Pb(CH
3
COO)
2
gives.colour with H
2
S [DPMT 2000]
(a) Orange (b) Red (c) Black (d) White
53. Fe
2+
ion can be distinguished by Fe
3+
ion by [DPMT 2000]
(a) NH
4
SCN (b) AgNO
3
(c) BaCl
2
(d) None of these
54. Which of the following change the colour of the aqueous solution of FeCl
3
[Roorkee Qualifying
1998]
(a) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (b) H
2
S (c) NH
4
CNS (d) KCNS
55. Which of the following mixture is chromic acid [Pb. PMT 2000]
(a) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
and HCl (b) K
2
SO
4
conc. H
2
SO
4
(c) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
and conc. H
2
SO
4
(d) H
2
SO
4
and HCl
56. If Na
+
ion and S
2
ion is larger than Cl
ion, which of the following will be least soluble in water

[AMU (Engg.) 1999]
(a) MgS (b) NaCl (c) Na
2
S (d) MgCl
2
57. Lead sulphate is soluble [MP PET 1999]
(a) In conc. nitric acid (b) In conc. hydrochloric acid
(c) In a solution of ammonium acetate (d) In water
58. When H
2
S gas is passed through the HCl containing aqueous solutions of CuCl
2
, HgCl
2
, BiCl
3
and CoCl
2
, which does not precipitate out [MP PMT 2002]
(a) CuS (b) HgS (c) Bi
2
S
3-
(d) CoS
254
59. Group reagent for analytic group IV is [Kurukshetra CET 2002]
(a) NH
4
Cl + NH
4
OH (b) NH
4
Cl + NH
4
OH + H
2
S
(c) NH
4
OH + (NH
4
)
2
CO
3
(d) HCl + H
2
S
60. When H
2
S is passed through Hg
2
S we get [AIEEE 2002]
(a) HgS (b) HgS + Hg
2
S (c) Hg
2
S + Hg (d) Hg
2
S
61. [X] + H
2
SO
4
[Y] a colourless gas with irritating smell
[Y] + K
2
Cr
2
O
7
+ H
2
SO
4
green solution
[X] and [Y] is [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2003]
(a) SO
3
2
, SO
2
(b) Cl
, HCl (c) S
2
, H
2
S (d) CO
3
2
, CO
2
62. Concentrated sodium hydroxide can separate a mixture of [MP PMT 2000]
(a) Zn
2+
and Pb
2+
(b) Al
3+
and Zn
3+
(c) Cr
3+
and Fe
3+
(d) Al
3+
and Cr
3+
63. What product is formed by mixing the solution of K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] with the solution of FeCl
3
[Roorkee 1989]
(a) Ferro-ferricyanide (b) Ferric-ferrocyanide (c) Ferri-ferricyanide (d) None of these
64. When H
2
S is passed through a mixture containing Cu
+2
, Ni
+2
, Zn
+2
in acidic solution then ion will
precipitate [RPMT 2002]
(a) Cu
+2
, Ni
+2
(b) Ni
+2
(c) Cu
+2
, Zn
+2
(d) Cu
+2
65. Ferric ion forms a prussian blue coloured ppt. due to [CPMT 1980; BHU 1980; MP PET 1995;
Kurukshetra CEE 1998; RPET 1999; MP PMT 2001]
(a) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (b) Fe
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (c) KMnO
4
(d) Fe(OH)
3
66. A 0.3 M HCl solution contains the following ions Hg
2+
, Cd
2+
, Sr
2+
, Fe
2+
yLku Cu
2+
. The addition
of H
2
S to above solution will precipitate [CPMT 1973]
(a) Cd, Cu and Hg (b) Cd, Fe and Sr (c) Hg, Cu and Fe (d) Cu, Sr and Fe
67. Which of the following gives a ppt. with Pb(NO
3
)
2
but not with Ba(NO
3
)
2
[CPMT 1979; MP
PET 1997]
(a) NaCl (b) Sodium acetate
(c) Sodium nitrate (d) Sodium hydrogen phosphate
68. In the group III radicals, in place of NH
4
Cl which of the following can be used [AIIMS 1980,
82; MP PMT 1985]
(a) NH
4
NO
3
(b) (NH
4
)
2
SO
4
(c) (NH
4
)
2
(d) NaCl
69. Which compound does not dissolve in hot dilute HNO
3
[IIT 1996]
(a) HgS (b) PbS (c) CuS (d) CdS
70. Which of the following sulphate is insoluble in water [MNR 1995]
(a) CuSO
4
(b) CdSO
4
(c) PbSO
4
(d) BaSO
4
71. Mark the compound which turns black with NH
4
OH [AFMC 1981; MP PMT 1995]
(a) Lead chloride (b) Mercurous chloride (c) Mercuric chloride (d) Silver chloride
72. Colour of cobalt chloride solution is [AFMC 1981]
(a) Pink (b) Black (c) Colourless (d) Green
73. Nesslers reagent is used to detect [CPMT 1989; AIIMS 1997; MP PET 1999]
(a) CrO
4
2
(b) PO
4
3
(c) MnO
4
(d) NH
4
+
255
74. Fe(OH)
3
can be separated from Al(OH)
3
by addition of [BHU 1981]
(a) Dil. HCl (b) NaCl solution
(c) NaOH solution (d) NH
4
Cl and NH
4
OH
75. The reagents NH
4
Cl and aqueous NH
3
will precipitate [IIT 1991]
(a) Ca
2+
(b) Al
3+
(c) Mg
2+
(d) Zn
2+
76. Addition of SnCl
2
to HgCl
2
gives ppt [BVP 2003]
(a) White turning to red (b) White turning to gray
(c) Black turning to white (d) None of these
77. Heamoglobin is a complex of [CPMT 2003]
(a) Fe
3+
(b) Fe
2+
(c) Fe
4+
(d) Cu
2+
78. In Nesslers reagent for the detection of ammonia the active species is [Kerala (Med.) 2003]
(a) Hg
2
Cl
2
(b) Hg
2+
(c) Hg
2
I
2
(d) HgI
4
2
79. Which one of the following sulphides is only completely precipitated when the acidic solution is
made dilute [MP PET 2000]
(a) HgS (b) PbS (c) CdS (d) CuS
80. A reagent used to test the presence of ion is [KCET 1998]
(a) H
2
S (b) NH
4
CNS (c) K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
] (d) K
3
[Fe(CN)
6
]
81. The following four solutions are kept in separate beakers and copper metal is put in each of them.
Which solution will become blue after some time [MP PMT 2003]
(a) AgNO
3
solution (b) Zn(NO
3
)
2
solution (c) Ba(NO
3
)
2
solution (d) NaNO
3
solution
82. In qualitative analysis, in order to detect second group basic radical, H
2
S gas is passed in the
presence of dilute HCl to [KCET 2004]
(a) Increase in dissociation of H
2
S (b) Decrease the dissociation of salt solution
(c) Decrease the dissociation of H
2
S (d) Increase the dissociation of salt solution
83. Sodium nitroprusside when added to an alkaline solution of sulphide ions produce a [AFMC 2005]
(a) Red colouration (b) Blue colouration (c) Purple colouration (d) Brown colouration
84. If 20 ml of 0.25 N strong acid and 30 ml of 0.2 N of strong base are mixed, then the resulting
solution is [KCET 2002]
(a) 0.25 N basic (b) 0.2 N acidic (c) 0.25 N acidic (d) 0.2 N basic
85. 10 ml of 10 M H
2
SO
4
is mixed to 100 ml 1M NaOH solution. The resultant solution will be
[NCERT 1971]
(a) Acidic (b) Neutral (c) Weakly alkaline (d) Strongly alkaline
86. The equivalent weight of KMnO
4
in alkaline medium will be [MP PMT 2001]
(a) 31.60 (b) 52.66 (c) 79.00 (d) 158.00
87. Phenolphthalein is most suitable indicator for the titration of [MP PMT 2000]
(a) CH
3
COOH and NH
4
OH (b) CH
3
COOH and NaOH
(c) HCl and NH
4
OH (d) H
2
CO
3
and NH
4
OH
88. 20 ml of a N solution of KMnO
4
just reacts with 20 ml of a solution of oxalic acid. The weight
of oxalic acid crystals in 1N of the solution is [JIPMER 1999]
(a) 31.5 g (b) 126 g (c) 63 g (d) 6.3 g
256
ANSWERS KEY
1 a 16 a,b,d 31 b 46 a 61 c 76 b
2 c 17 b 32 c 47 b 62 c 77 b
3 a 18 d 33 a 48 d 63 b 78 d
4 d 19 a 34 c 49 d 64 d 79 c
5 d 20 b 35 b 50 b 65 b 80 d
6 d 21 b 36 a 51 b 66 a 81 a
7 a 22 c 37 b 52 c 67 a 82 c
8 b 23 c 38 a 53 a 68 a 83 c
9 a 24 c 39 a 54 a 69 a 84 d
10 b 25 b 40 b 55 c 70 d 85 a
11 c 26 a 41 a 56 a 71 b 86 d
12 b 27 b 42 b 57 a 72 a 87 d
13 a 28 a 43 b 58 d 73 d 88 c
14 b 29 d 44 b 59 b 74 c
15 a 30 c 45 c 60 c 75 b
257
N O T E S
258
N O T E S
259
N O T E S
260
N O T E S
261
N O T E S
262
N O T E S
263
N O T E S
264
N O T E S
265
N O T E S
266
N O T E S
267
N O T E S
268
N O T E S

Chemestry English Part-2 New

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Chemestry English Part-2 New

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Chemestry English Part-2 New

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

QUESTION BANK

(3) The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence

C under vaccum (d) It is a strong lewis base

(A) SiC & CO

Red Lead (Sindhur)

11.34 g/ml heaviest.

N bond energy is very high 945KJ mole

(17) 3Ca + 8NHO

neg. in F. (D) Non - Metallic nature of F.

to acquire helium configuration. In this respect

< < (B)

Cl O ClO ClO < <

< < (D) None of above

Cl +Cl (Free fadical)

are combined by primary valency which

act as unidentate ligands.

< EDTAA < NH

< CO : Spectrochemical series.

(C) H (D) None of these

70. In a complex, the highest possible coordination number is :

104. The most stable ion is

[X] +Zn Y + Au Identify the complexes [X] and [Y]

(B) Resonance stabilization of enol form

127. Which species represents the electrophile in aromatic nitration?

128. The most stable carbonium ion among the following is

130. Which of the following is the most stable free radical?

(3) Baeyer`s Test :- CH

(9) Halogenation of alkane is an example of ?

carbonium ion is more stsble than

- Carbonium is more stable than 2

carbonium (less stable)

1/ Bondorder there for bond length in

- carbon there for only one monosubstitated product is possible

for this reaction arrange given Nu

in increasing order of reactivities.

Tertiary but ylalcohol s. grignard reaction

P and Qrespecctively are

(D) All of the above

(A) 3, 4, 5 - Tribromo benzene (B) 3, 4, 5 - Tribromo phenol

19. Which of the following gives black precipitate when H

34. Ammonia reacts with excess of chlorine to form [DPMT 2000]

49. Addition of solution of oxalate to an aqueous solution of mixture of Ba

ion is larger than Cl

ion, which of the following will be least soluble in water

You might also like