DC BASICS AND NETWORKS AND ELECTROMAGNETIC THEORY 1.

Two wires A and B of the same material and length l and 2l have radius r and 2r respectively. The ratio of their resistance will be a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:4 d) 1:8 ans: a 2. Pure metals generally have a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient ans: b 3. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.0008'C. If the resistance of the wire is 8 Ohm at 0'C , what is the resistance of the wire at 100'C? a) 8.64 Ohm b) 8.08 Ohm c) 7.92 Ohm d) 7.20 Ohm ans: a 4. The insulation resistance of a cable of length is 1 MegaOhm.For a length of 100 km of same cable, the insulation resistance will be a) 1 MegaOhm b) 10 MegaOhm c) 0.1 MegaOhm d) 0.01 MegaOhm ans: c 5. The hot resistance of the filament of a bulb is higher than the cold resistance because the temperature coefficient of the filament is a) negative b) infinite c) zero d) positive ans: d 6. Four resistances 80 Ohm, 50 Ohm , 25 Ohm and R are connected in parallel. Current through 25 Ohm resistance is 4 A.Total current of the supply is 10 A. The value of R will be a) 66.66 Ohm

b) 40.25 Ohm c) 36.36 Ohm d) 76.56 Ohm ans: c 7. Three parallel resistive branches are connected across a DC supply .What will be the ratio of the branch currents I1:I2:I3 if the branch resistances are in the ratio R1:R2:R3::2:4:6 ? a) 3:2:6 b) 2:4:6 c) 6:3:2 d) 6:2:4 ans: c. 8. Two resistors R1and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 Ohm when in series and 1 Ohm when in parallel , the resistances are a) 2 ohm and 2.5 ohm b) 1 ohm and 3.5 ohm c) 1.5 ohm and 3 ohm d) 4 and 0.5 ohm ans: c 9. How are 500 Ohm resistors connected so as to give an effective resistance of 750 Ohm? a) Three resistors of 500 Ohm each , in parallel b) Three resistors of 500 Ohm each , in series c) Two resistors of 500 Ohm each , in parallel d) Two resistors of 500 Ohm, each , in parallel and the combination in series with another 500 Ohm resistor. ans: d 10. Which of the following does not use heating effect of electric current? a) Electric furnace b) Geyser c) Electric Iron d) Vacuum Cleaner ans: d 11. Which of the following is not equivalent to Watts? a) amperes X volts b) amperes X amperes X volt c) amperes/ volt d) joules per second ans: c

12. A network consists of linear resistors and ideal voltage source. If the value of the resistors are doubled , then voltage across each resistor is a) halved b) doubled c) increased four tines d) not changed ans: d 13. Three resistances each of R Ohm are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between any two terminals will be a) R ohm b) 3/2 ohm c) 3R ohm d) 2/3 ohm ans: d 14. When an electric current flows through a conductor, its temperature rises. This is because of a) mutual collisions between metal atoms b) mutual collisions between conducting electrons c) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms d) none of the above ans: c 15. Two heaters , rated at 1000 W , each 250 V are connected in series across a 250 V , 50 Hz AC mains. The total power drawn from the supply would be a) 1000 W b) 500 W c) 250 W d) 2000 W ans: b 16. Two incandescent light bulbs of 40 W and 60 W rating are connected in series across the mains. Then a) the bulbs together consume 100 W b) the bulbs together consume 50 W c) the 60 W bulb glows brighter d) the 40 W bulb glows brighter ans : d 17. How many 200 W/ 220 V incandescent lamps connected in series would consume the same total power as a single 100W/ 220V incandescent lamp? a) not possible

b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 ans: b 18. A 100W bulb burns on an average of 10 hours a day for one week. The weekly consumption of energy will be a) 7 b) 70 c) 0.7 d) none of the above ans: a 19. A network has 4 nodes and 3 independent loops. What is the number of branches in the network? a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) none of the above ans: b 20. An electric circuit with 10 nodes and 7 branches will have a) 3 loop equations b) 4 loop equations c) 7 loop equations d) none of the above ans: b 21. A network has 10 nodes and 17 branches. . The number of different node pair voltage would be a) 7 b) 9 c) 45 d) none of the above ans: b AC BASICS AND NETWORKS 1. The rms value of a sine wave is 100 A. Its peak value is a) 70.7 A b) 141 A c) 150 A d) 282.8 A ans: 2

2. The rms value of the resultant current in a wire which carries a dc current of 10 A and a sinusoidal alternating current of peak value 20 A is a) 14.1 A b) 17.3 A c) 22.4 A d) none of the above ans: b 3. A boiler at home is switched on to the AC mains supplying power at 230 V, 50 Hz. The frequency of instantaneous power consumed is a) 0 Hz b) 50 Hz c) 100 Hz d) 150 Hz ans: c 4. Unit of inductive reactance is a) Henry b) millihenry c) Wb d) Ohm ans: d 5. A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal current of 1A rms at a frequency of 50 Hz. The average power dissipated by the indicator is a) 0 W b) 0.25 W c) 0.5 W d) 1.0 W ans: a 6. A circuit component that opposes the change in circuit voltage is a) resistance b) capacitance c) inductance d) all of the above ans: b 7. The reactance offered by a capacitor to AC of frequency 50 Hz is 10 ohm. If the frequency is increased to 100 Hz , reactance becomes a) 20 ohm b) 5 ohm c) 2.5 ohm d) 30 ohm

ans: b 8. The pf of a practical inductor is a) unity b) zero c) lagging d) leading ans: c 9. The power factor of an ordinary electric bulb is a) zero b) unity c) slightly more than unity d) slightly less than unity ans: d 10. A 2-terminal network consists of one of the RLC elements. The element is connected to ans ac supply. The current through the element is I A. When an inductor is inserted in series between the source and the element , the current through the element becomes 2I A . What is the element? a) A resistor b) An inductor c) A capacitor d) cannot be a single element ans: c 11. Unit of reactive power is a) VA b) watt c) VAR d) ohm ans: c 12. An ac source of 200V rms supplies active power of 600 W and reactive power of 800 VAR. The rms current drawn from the source is a) 10 A b) 5 A c) 3.75 A d) 2.5 A ans: b 13. With the increase in applied frequency , the dielectric loss in a material will a) increase b) decrease c) remains constant

d) becomes zero ans: a 14. In a ac series RLC circuit , the voltage across R and L is 20 V, the voltage across L and C is 9 V and voltage and voltage across RLC is 15 V , What is the voltage across C? a) 7V b) 12 V c) 16 V d) 21 V ans: a 15. The quantity (2 + j9) represents the resistive and reactive components of current drawn by an ac circuit. The phase angle between the applied voltage and current is a) 41.4' b) 53.13' c) 36.87' d) 46.86' ans: c 16. Under the condition resonance in R-L-C series circuit, the pf of the circuit is a) 0.5 lagging b) 0.5 leading c) unity d) zero ans: c 17. In a series RLC circuit at resonance , the magnitude of voltage developed across the capacitor a) is always zero b) can never be greater that the input voltage c) can be greater than the input voltage however, it is 90 degrees out of phase with the input voltage d) can be greater than the input voltage and is in phase with the input voltage. ans: c 18. A series R-L-C circuit , the maximum voltage across the capacitor occurs at a frequency a) double the resonant frequency b) equal to resonant frequency c) below the resonant frequency d) none of the above ans: c

19. In a series R-L-C circuit , the voltage across inductance will be maximum a) at resonant frequency b) just after resonant frequency c) just before resonant frequency d) just before and after resonant frequency ans: b 20. For a series R-L-C circuit , the power factor at the lower power frequency is a) 0.5 lagging b) 0.5 leading c) unity d) 0.707 leading ans: d 21. Q-factor of as series R-L-C circuit possessing resonant frequency of 10 Hz and bandwidth of 5 Hz is a) 0.5 b) 2 c) 2.5 d) 50 ans: b 22. When Q-factor of a circuit is high , then a) power factor of the circuit is high b) impedance of the circuit is high c) bandwidth is large d) none of the above ans: b 23. A high Q coil has a) large bandwidth b) high losses c) low losses d) flat response ans: c 24. A coil is tuned to resonance at 500 kHz with a resonating capacitor of 36 pf at 250 kHz , the resonance is obtained with resonating capacitor of 160 pf .What is the self-capacitance of the coil? a) 2.66 pf b) 5.33 pf c) 8 pf d) 10.66 pf ans: b

25. A R-L-C resonant circuit has a resonance frequency of 1.5 MHz and a bandwidth of 10kHz . If c= 150pf, then the effective resistance of the circuit will be a) 29.5 ohm b) 14.75 ohm c) 9.4 ohm d) 4.7ohm ans: d ANALOG ELECTRONICS 1.The emitter of a transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it a) has to dissipate maximum power b) has to supply the charge carriers c) is the first region of the transistor d) must posses low resistance ans: b 2. An emitter is a bipolar junction transistor is doped much more heavily than the base as it increases the a) emitter efficiency b) Base transport factor c) forward current gain d) all the above ans: d 3. The impurity commonly used for realizing the base region of a silicon n-p-n transistor is a) Gallium b) indium c) Boron d) Phosphorus ans: c 4. In a properly biased N-P-N transistor , most of the electrons from the emitter a) pass to the collector through the base b) recombine with holes in the base c) recombine with holes in emitter itself d) are stopped by the function better ans: a 5. For an npn bipolar transistor, what is the main stream of current in the base region ? a) Drift of holes b) Diffusion of holes

c) Drift of electrons d) Diffusion of electrons ans: d 6. The DC current gain of BJT is 50. Assuming that the emitter injection efficiency is 0.995, the base transport factor is a) 0.980 b) 0.985 c) 0.990 d) 0.995 ans: b 7. If for a silicon npn transistors , the base-to-emitter voltage is 0.7 V and the collector-to-base Voltage is 0.2 V , then the transistor is operating in the a) normal active mode b) saturation mode c) inverse active mode d) cutoff mode ans: a 8. Ebers-model of a transistor represents two diodes a) in series b) in parallel c) back-to-back d) none of the above ans: c 9. In a transistor , the reverse saturation current Ico a) doubles for every 10 deg/C rise in temperature b) doubles for every 1 deg/C rise in temperature c) increases linearly with temperature d) decreases linearly with temperature ans: a 10. The phenomenon known as "Early Effect" in a bipolar transistor refers to a reduction of the effective base-width caused by a) electron hole recombination at the time b) the reverse biasing of the base-collector junction c) the forward biasing of emitter-base junction d) the early removal of stored base charge during saturation-to-cutoff switching ans: b 11. Notch is also called as a) band-pass filter

b) low-pass filter c) high-pass filter d) narrow-band reject filter ans: d 12. The filter which exhibits ac equiripple in the pass-band and monotonic characteristic in stop band is a) Buttorworth b) Chebyshev c) Bessel d) Elliptic ans: a 13. A multiplier which can accept input voltages of either polarity and can produce output voltage of both polarities is called a) Bi-quadrant multiplier b) four quadrant multiplier c) two quadrant multiplier d) one quadrant multiplier ans: c 14. A multiplier is derived using two logarithmic amplifiers and and antilog amplifier . One more section required is a) multiplier b) adder c) subtractor d) divider ans: b 15. A frequency multiplier usually operates in a) push-pull b) class A c) class B d) class C ans: d 16. FSK demodulation is an application of a) PLL b) timer c) BPF d) none of the above ans: a 17. An oscillator whose frequency is changed by a variable dc voltage is known as

a) a crystal oscillator b) a VCO c) an Armstrong oscillator d) a piezoelectric device ans: b 18. The integrated circuit chip NE/SE 566 is a a) Schmitt trigger b) power amplifier c) video amplifier d) voltage controlled oscillator ans: d 19. For a step input , the output of an integrator is a) a pulse b) a triangular waveform c) a spike d) a ramp ans: d 20. The damping factor of a second order active low pass filter to give butterworth response is a) 1.732 b) 1.414 c) 0.707 d) none of the above ans: b ELECTRONIC COMPONENTS AND DEVICES 1. The color code of a 1 kiloohm resistance is a) black , brown , red b) red, brown, brown c) brown, black, red d) black, black , red ans. c 2. An electron with velocity u is placed in an electric field E and magnetic field B. The force experienced by the electron is given by a) -eE b) -eu X B c) -e(u X E + B) d) -e(E + u X B) ans. d

3. The primary reason for the widespread use of Silicon semiconductor device technology is a) abundance of Silicon on the surface of Earth. b) larger bandgap of Silicon in comparison to Germanium. c) favourable properties of Silicon-dioxide (Sio2). d) lower melting point. ans. a 4. A Silicon wafer has 100 nm of oxide on it and is inserted in a furnace at a temperature above 1000 degree centigrade for further oxidation in dry oxygen. The oxidation rate is a) independent of current , oxide thickness and temperature. b) independent of current, oxide thickness but depends on temperature. c) slows down as the oxide grows. d) zero as the existing oxide prevents further oxidations. ans. d 5. The band gap of silicon at room temperature is a) 1.3 eV b) 0.7 eV c) 1.1 eV d) 1.4 eV ans. c 6. n-type silicon is obtained by doping silicon with a) Germanium b) Aluminium c) Boron d) Phosporous ans. d 7. Which of the following is true ? a) A silicon wafer heavily doped with boron is a p+ substrate. b) A silicon wafer lightly doped with boron is a p+ substrate. c) A silicon wafer heavily doped with Arsenic is a p+ substrate. d) A silicon wafer lightly doped with Arsenic is a p+ substrate. ans. a 8. The concentration of minority carriers in an extrinsic semiconductor under equilibrium is a) directly proportional to the doping concentration. b) inversely proportional to the doping concentration. c) directly proportional to the intrinsic concentration. d) inversely proportional to the intrinsic concentration.

ans. b 9. Under low level injection assumption, the injected minority carrier current for an extrinsic semiconductor is essentially the a) diffusion current b) drift current c) recombination current d) induced current ans. a 10. The majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor have an average drift velocity in a direction perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. The electric field E induced due to Hall effect acts in the direction . a) v X B b) B X v c) along v d) opposite to v ans. B 11. The depletion region or space charge region or transition region in a semiconductor P-N junction diode has a) electron and holes. b) positive ions and electrons. c) positive ions and negative ions. d) no ions, electron or holes. ans. c 12. In a p+ n junction diode under reverse bias, the magnitude of electric field is maximum at a) the edge of the depletion region on the p-side. b) the edge of the depletion region on the n-side. c) the p+n junction. d) the centre of the depletion region on the n-side. ans. c 13. A p-n junction has a built-in potential of 0.8 V. The depletion layer width at a reverse bias of 1.2V is the 2 micrometer. For a reverse bias of 7.2V , the depletion layer width will be a) 4 micrometer b) 4.9 micrometer c) 8 micrometer d) 12 micrometer ans. a

14. At 300 K for a diode current of 1mA , a certain germanium diode requires a forward bias of 0.1435 V, whereas a certain silicon diode requires a forward bias of 0.718 V, Under the conditions stated above , the closest approximation of the ratio of reverse saturation current in germanium diode to that in silicon diode is a) 1 b) 5 c) 4 x 10 d) 8 x 10 ans. c 15. A silicon PN junction at a temperature of 20C has a reverse saturation current of 10 pico-Amperes (pA). The reverse saturation current at 40C for same bias is approximately a) 30 pA b) 40 pA c) 50 pA d) 60 pA ans. b 16. Which of the following is not associated with a p-n junction ? a) Junction Capacitance b) Charge Storage-Capacitance c) Depletion Capacitance d) Channel Length Modulation. ans. d 17. As the temperature is increased, the voltage across a diode carrying a constant current a) increases b) decreases c) remains constant. d) may increase or decrease depending on the doping levels in the junction. ans. b 18. Choose proper substitutes of X and Y to make the following statement correct. Tunnel diode and Avalanche diode are operated in X bias and Y bias respectively a) X- reverse ,Y-reverse b) X-reverse, Y -forward c) X-forward, Y- reverse d) X-forward, Y-forward ans. c 19. Consider the following assertions. S1- For zener effect to occur, a very abrupt junction is required.

S2- For quantum tunneling to occur , a very narrow energy barrier is required. which of the following is correct? a) Only S2 is true. b) S1 and S2 are both true but S2 is not a reason for S1 c) S1 and S2 are both true and S2 is a reason for S1. d) Both S1 and S2 are false. ans. a 20. A dc power supply has a no-load voltage of 30 V, and a full-load voltage of 25 V at a full load-current of 1A. Its output resistance and load regulation , respectively are a) 5 ohm and 20 % b) 25 ohm and 20% c) 5 ohm and 16.7% d) 25 ohm and 16.7 % ans. b POWER SYSTEMS 1. For low head and high discharge the hydraulic turbine used is a) Francis turbine b) Kaplan turbine c) Pelton wheel d) none of the above ans: b 2. A Kaplan turbine is a) In ward flow, impulse turbine b) Outward flow reaction turbine c) A high head mixed flow turbine d) Low head axial flow turbine ans: d 3. An hydro-graph indicates a) The discharge at any time during the period under consideration b) The max. and min. runoff during the period c) The average run off during the period d) all the above ans: d 4. As compared to steam-station ,hydro-electric stations have : a) More cost of installation b) Less maintenance and fuel cost c) both (a) and (b) d) Low depreciation charges.

ans: c 5. The rotor used in alternators of hydro-electric station is a) Cylindrical rotor b) Salient pole rotor c) Non salient pole rotor d) Round rotor with ac excitation ans: b 6. The cost of fuel transportation is minimum in ______ plant. a) Thermal b) Nuclear c) Hydro d) Diesel ans: c 7. Which of the following generating stations has minimum running cost. a) Thermal b) Nuclear c) Hydro d) none of these ans: c 8. Which of the following plants have the highest capital cost a) Nuclear b) Diesel c) Thermal d) none ans: a 9. For harnessing low variable water heads, the suitable hydraulic turbine with high percentage of reaction and runner adjustable vanes is a) Kaplan b) Francis c) Pelton d) Impeller ans: a 10. In a Thermal power plant, the feed water coming to the economizer is heated using a) H.P. steam b) L.P. steam c) direct heat in the furnace d) flue gases

ans: d 11. In thermal power plants, the pressure in the working fluid cycle is developed by a) Condenser b) Super heater c) feed water d) turbine ans: d 12. Which material is used in controlling chain reaction in av nuclear reactor? a) Thorium b) Heavy water c) Boron d) Beryllium ans: b 13. When a fixed amount of power is transmitted, the efficiency of transmission increases when a) Voltage decreases, power factor remains constant b) voltage increases, power factor increase c) voltage decreases, power factor decreases d) voltage constant , power factor decreases ans: b 14. The surge impedance of 0.400km long OH line is 400 ohm for 200 km length of the same line , the surge impedance will be a) 200 ohm b) 800 ohm c) 400 ohm d) 100 ohm ans: c 15. The insulation level of a 400 EHV OH transmission line is decided on the basis of a) lightening voltage b) switching over voltage c) corona inception voltage d) radio and TV interference ans: b 16. Bundled conductors are employed to improve the a) appearance of the transmission line b) mechanical stability of the line c) decrease system stability d) increase the short circuit current

ans: c 17. An OH line having a surge impedance of 400 ohm is connected in series with an underground cable having a surge impedance of 100 ohm . If a surge of 50 Kv travels from the line end towards the line cable junctions, the value of the transmitted voltage wave at the junction is a) 30 Kv b) 20 Kv c) 80 Kv d) -30 Kv ans: b 19. The load carrying capability of a long AC transmission line is a) always limited by the conductor size b) limited by stability considerations c) reduced at low anbrent temperatures d) decreased by the use of bundled conductors of single conductors. ans: b 20. Corona losses are minimized when a) corona size is reduced b) smooth conductor is released c) sharp points are provided in the hardware d) current density in conductors is reduced ans: b 21. The corona loss on a particular system at 50HZ is 1kw/km/ph. The rocona loss at 60 HZ is a) 1kw/ph/km b) 0-83 kw/km/ph c) 1.2 kw/km/ph d) 1.13 kw/km/ph ans: d 22. A loss-less radial transmission line with surge impedance loading a) takes negative VAR at sending end and zero VAR at receiving end b) take positive VAR at sending end and zero VAR at receiving end c) has flat voltage profile and unity power factor at all points along it d) has sending end voltage higher than receiving end voltage and unity power factor at sending end ans: c

23. Consider along , two wire line composed of solid round conductors. The radius of both conductors is 0.25 cm and the distance between there centers is 1m . If this distance is doubled, then the inductance per unit length a) doubles b) halves c) increase but does not double d) decreases but not halve ans: c 24. A long wire composed of a smooth round conductor runs above and parallel to the ground. A high voltage exists between the conductor and the ground . The max electric stress occurs at. a) the upper surface of the conductor b) the lower surface of the conductor c) the ground surface d) none of the above ans: b 25. Bundled conductors are mainly used in high voltage OH transmission lines to a) reduce transmission line losses b) increase mechanical strength of the line c) reduce corona d) reduce sag ans: c DC MACHINES 1. The developed electromagnetic force and/or torque in electro mechanical energy conversion system act in a direction that tends a) to increase the stored energy at constant flux b) to decrease the stored energy at constant flux c) to decrease the coenergy at constant mmf. d) to decrease the stored energy at constant mmf ans: b 2. For a linear electromagnetic circuit, the following statement is true a) Field energy is equal to the coenergy b) Field energy is greater than the coenergy c) Field energy is lesser than the coenergy d) Coenergy is zero ans: a 3. In an electromechanical energy conversion device, the developed torque depends upon a) stator field strength and torque angle

b) stator field and rotor field strengths c) stator field and rotor field strengths and torque angle d) stator field only ans: c 4. In electro mechanical energy conversion devices , a small air gap is left between the stator and rotor in order to a) reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path b) increase flux density in the air gap c) permit mechanical clearance d) none of the above ans: c 5. A rotating electrical machine having its self inductance of both stator and rotor winding's, independent of rotor position will definitely not develop a) starting torque b) synchronizing torque c) hysteresis torque d) reluctance torque ans: b 6. A circular metallic disc is placed in a vertical magnetic field of constant induction in the downward direction. If the disc is rotated in a horizontal plane , the emf induced will be a) zero b) constant independent of disc size c) increasing radically in the outward direction d) decreasing radically in the outward direction ans: a 7. The emf induced in a conductor rotating in a bipolar field is a) dc b) ac c) dc and ac both d) none of these ans: b AC MACHINES 1 1. The basic function of a transformer is to change a) the level of the voltage. b) the power level c) the power factor d) the frequency ans: a

2. In an ordinary transformer which of the following does not change a) voltage b) current c) frequency d) all the above ans: c 3. The efficiency of a power transformer is around a) 50% b) 60% c) 80% d) 95% ans: d 4. An ideal transformer does not change a) voltage b) power c) current d) none of the above ans: b 5. For an ideal transformer the winding's should have a) maximum resistance on primary side and least resistance on secondary side b) least resistance on primary side and maximum resistance on the secondary side c) equal resistance on primary and secondary sides d) no ohmic resistance on either side ans: d 6. The core flux in transformer depends mainly on a) supply voltage b) supply voltage and frequency c) supply voltage, frequency and load d) supply voltage and load but independent of frequency ans: b 7. A transformer steps up the voltage by a factor 100. The ratio of current in the primary to that in the secondary is a) 1 b) 100 c) 0.01 d) 0.1 ans: b

8. If the applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased by 50% and the frequency is reduced 50% , the maximum core flux density will a) change to three times the original value. b) change to 1.5 times the original value c) change to 0.5 times the original value d) remain the same as the original value ans: a 9. If the supply frequency of a transformer is increased , keeping the supply voltage constant, then a) both magnetizing component and core loss component of current will decrease b) both magnetizing component and core loss component of current will increase c) magnetizing component of current will increase while core loss component of current will decrease d) magnetizing component of current will decrease while core loss component of current will increase. ans: a 10. Primary winding of a transformer comprises of two identical winding's in parallel. If one winding's is removed , magnetizing current will be a) halved b) the same c) double d) increased four times ans: c 11. The core flux of a practical transformer with a resistance load a) is strictly constant with load changes b) increases linearly with load c) increases as the square root of the load d) decreases with increase of load ans: a 12. In a transformer , zero voltage regulation at full load is a) not possible b) possible at unity power factor load c) possible at leading power factor load d) possible at lagging power factor load ans: c 13. A single phase transformer has a maximum efficiency of 90% at full load and unity power factor. Efficiency at half load at the same power factor is a) 86.7% b) 88.26 %

c) 88.9% d) 87.8% ans: d 14. The main purpose of performing open-circuit on a transformer is to measure its a) copper loss b) core loss c) total loss d) insulation resistance ans: b 15. The desirable properties of transformer core material are a) low permeability and low hysteresis loss b) high permeability and high hysteresis loss c) high permeability and low hysteresis loss d) low permeability and high hysteresis loss ans: c 16. The all -day efficiency of a transformer depends primarily on a) its copper loss b) the amount of load c) duration of load d) both b and c ans: d 17. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design a) reduces the weight per KVA b) increases the weight per KVA c) has no relation with the weight of transformer d) none of the above ans: a

18. What does the the use of higher flux density in the transformer design a) Increase the weight per KVA b) Decrease in weight per KVA c) Reduced iron losses d) Reduced copper losses ans. b 19. Cores of large power transformers are made from which one of the following ? a) Hot-rolled steel b) Cold-rolled non-grain oriented steel. c) Cold-rolled grain oriented steel

d) Ferrite. ans. c 20. Grain oriented laminated sheel steel in transformer reduces a) copper loss b) eddy current loss c) hysteresis loss d) none of the above ans. C SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION 3 21. A lightning stroke discharges impulse current of 10 kA (peak) on a 400 kV transmission line having surge impedance of 250 ohm. The magnitude of transient over voltage travelling waves in either direction assuming equal distribution from the point of lightning strike will be a) 1250 kV b) 1650 kV c) 2500 kV d) 2900 kV ans. a 22. The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by a) load power factor b) switching overvoltages c) harmonics d) corona ans. b 23. Steady-state stability of a power system is the ability of the power system to a) maintain voltage at the rated voltage level b) maintain frequency exactly at 50Hz c) maintain a spinning reserve margin at all times. d) maintain synchronism between machines and on external tie lines. ans. d 24. The load carrying capability of a long ac transmission line is a) always limited by the conductor size b) limited by stability considerations. c) reduced at low ambient temperatures. d) decreased by the use of bundled conductors of single conductors. ans. b

25. An 800 kV transmission line is having per phase line inductance of 1.1 mH/km and per phase line capacitance of 11.68 nF/km. Ignoring the length of the line , its ideal power transfer capability in MW is a) 1204 MW b) 1504 MW c) 2085 MW d) 2606 MW ans. c 26. An 800 kV transmission line has a maximum power transfer capacity of P. If it is operated at 400 kV with the series reactance unchanged, then maximum power transfer capacity is approximately a) P b) 2P c) P/2 d) P/4 ans. d 27. A round rotor generator with internal voltage E1=2.0 pu and X=1.1 pu is connected to a round rotor sysnchronous motor with internal voltage E2= 1.3 pu and X= 1.2 pu. The reactance of the line connecting the generator supplies 0.5 pu power, the rotor angle difference between the machines will be a) 57.42 degrees b) 1 degree c) 32.58 degrees d) 122.58 degrees ans. c 28. The pu parameters for a 500 MVA machine on its own base are: inertia , M= 20 pu ; reactance ,X= pu. The pu values of inertia and reactance on 100 MVA common base, respectively, are a) 4, 0.4 b) 100, 10 c) 4, 10 d) 100,0.4 ans. d 29. A power station consists of two synchronous A and B of ratings 250 MVA and 500 MVA with inertia 1.6 and 1.0 pu respectively on their own base MVA ratings. The equivalent pu inertia constant for the system on 100 MVA common base is a) 2.6 b) 6.15 c) 1.625

d) 9 ans. d 30. A shunt reactor of 100 MVAr is operated at 98% of its rated voltage and at 96% of its rated frequency. The reactive power absorbed by the reactor is a) 98. MVAr b) 10.402 MVAr c) 96.04 MVAr d) 100 MVAr ans. D 31. A 3-phase 11kV generator feeds power to a constant power unity power factor load of 100 MW through a 3-phase transmission line. The line-to-line voltage at the terminals of the machine is maintained constant at 11 kV. The per unit positive sequence impedance of the line based on 100 MVA and 11 KV is j0.2. The line-toline voltage at the load terminals is measured to be less than 11kV. The total reactive power to be injected at the terminals of the load to the increase the line-toline voltage at the load terminals to 11 kV is a) 100 MVAR b) 10.1 MVAR c) -100 MVAR d) -10.1 MVAR ans. d A generator feeds power to an infinite bus through a double circuit transmission line. A 3-phase fault occurs at the middle point of one of the lines. The infinite bus voltage is 1 pu, the transient internal voltage of the generator is 1.1 pu and the equivalent transfer admittance during fault is 0.8 pu. The 100 MVA generator has an inertia constant of 5 MJ/MVA and it was delivering 1.0 pu power prior of the fault with rotor power angle of 30 . The system frequency is 50 Hz. 32. The initial accelerating power (in pu) will be a) 1.0 b) 0.6 c) 0.56 d) 0.4 ans. c 33. If the initial accelerating power is Xpu, the initial acceleration in electrical degrees/sec , and the inertial constant in MJ-sec/electrical degrees respectively will be a) 31.4X,18 b) 1800X, 0.056 c) X/1800 , 0.056 d) 3/3.14, 18

ans. b 34. In load-flow analysis , the load connected at a bus is represented as a) constant current drawn from the bus. b) constant impedance connected at the bus. c) voltage and frequency dependent source at the bus. d) constant real and reactive power drawn from the bus. ans. d 35. Gauss-Siedel interative method can be used for solving a set of a) linear differential equations only. b) linear algebraic equations only. c) both linear and nonlinear algebraic equations only. d) both linear and nonlinear differential equations only. ans. b 36. The Gauss-Siedel load flow method has the following disadvantages. Tick the incorrect statements a) Unreliable convergence b) slow convergence c) choice of slack bus affects convergence. d) A good initial guess for voltages is essential for convergence. ans. b 37. A power system consists of 300 buses out of which 20 buses are generator bus, 25 buses are ones with reactive power support and 15 buses are the ones with fixed shunt capacitors. All the other buses are load buses. It is proposed to perform a load flow analysis in the system using Newton-Rapson method. The size of the NewtonRapson Jacobian matrix is a) 553 X 553 b) 540 X 540 c) 555 X 555 d) 554 X 554 ans. b 38. If the reference bus is changed in two load flow buses with same system data and power obtained for reference bus taken as specified P and Q in the latter run a) the system losses will be unchanged but complex bus voltages will change. b) the system losses will change but complex bus voltages remain unchanged. c) the system losses as well as complex bus voltages will change. d) the system losses as well as complex bus voltages will be unchanged. ans. A ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN

1. For a soft magnetic material there will be a) steeply rising magnetization curve. b) relatively narrow and small hysteresis loop. c) less energy loss per cycle of magnetization. d) all the above.

2. Silicon content in iron lamination is kept within 5% as it a) increases hysteresis loss. b) increases cost. c) makes the material brittle. d) reduces the curie point. ans: c 3. For under frequency operation the eddy current loss a) decreases. b) increases. c) remains unchanged. d) cannot be predicted. ans: a. 4. What is the suitable shape of plunger magnet to give almost flat force-stroke characteristics? a) Flat faced . b) Conical. c) Stepped. d) Tapered. ans: d. 5. In a dc machine " contraction coefficient" is used to take into account the reduction of a) air-gap area due to armature slots. b) iron losses in the teeth due to lower tooth density. c) armature mmf due to armature slots. d) torque due to ventilating duets. ans: a 6. Carter's coefficient is applicable for estimating a) requirements of air-gap mmf. b) flux distribution in air gap. c) length of air gap. d) no-load loss. ans: a

7. A lap wound dc machine has 400 conductors and 8 poles. The voltage induced per conductor is 2 volts. The machine generates a voltage of a) 100 V b) 200 V c) 400 V d) 800 V ans: a 8. The yoke of a dc machine a) must be made of magnetic material. b) should preferably be made of magnetic material but can be of non-magnetic material. c) must be made of non-magnetic material. d) is partially made of magnetic material and partially made of non-magnetic material. ans: a. 9. The pole shoes of a dc machines a) are always laminated. b) are never laminated. c) are sometimes laminated. d) are partially laminated. ans: a 10. Poles of a dc machines are often laminated to a) reduce pulsation loss. b) reduce armature reaction. c) reduce iron weight. d) dissipate more heat. ans: a. ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MATERIALS 1. Total number of electrons that can be accommodated in various electron states in a valence band of a given solid is equal to a) atomic number of the solid. b) half the number of atoms in the solid. c) the number of atoms in the solid. d) twice the number of atoms in the solid. ans: a. 2. Vacant lattice sites in the halide crystals cause a) plastic deformation and ionic conductivity. b) transparency and diffusion. c) diffusion and ionic conductivity.

d) plastic deformation and transparency. ans: c. 3. For which of the following materials , is the Hall coefficient zero? a) Metal. b) Insulator. c) Intrinsic semiconductor. d) Alloy. ans: c. 4. Principle of Hall effect is used in the construction of which one of the following? a) Ammeter. b) Voltmeter. c) Galvanometer. d) Gauss meter. ans: d. 5. According to the Wiedemann-Franz law the ratio of thermal conductivity of electrical conductivity of a conductor is a) independent of temperature. b) directly proportional to temperature. c) inversely proportional to temperature. d) inversely proportional to square of temperature. ans: b. 6. The correct sequence of increasing order of electrical resistivity of the given materials is a) diamond, doped germanium , silicon, gold. b) gold , silicon, doped germanium , diamond. c) gold , doped germanium , silicon, diamond. d) gold , diamond , silicon, doped germanium. ans: c. 7. What is the correct arrangement of the following alloys in the decreasing order of resistivity? a) German silver- constantan- monel metal. b) German silver-monel metal- constantan. c) constantan-monel model- German silver. d) constantan - German silver- monel metal. ans: d. 8. In metals, resistivity is composed of two parts : one part is characteristic of the particular substance. The other part is due to a) applied voltage.

b) crystal imperfections. c) applied magnetic field. d) supplied thermal energy. ans: b. 9. Which one of the following is correct? As frequency increases, the surface resistance of metal a) decreases. b) increases. c) remains unchanged. d) varies in an unpredictable manner. ans: b. 10. The conductivity of a conducting material on being subject to critical magnetic field changes to a) normal state. b) unstable state. c) temperature-independent state. d) temperature-dependent state. ans: a. CONTROL SYSTEMS 1. The most commonly used input signal in control system is a) step function b) ramp or velocity c) accelerating function d) all the above ans: a 2. What is the characteristic of a good control system? a) Sensitive to parameter variation b) insensitive to input commands c) Neither sensitive to parameter variation nor sensitive to input commands d) Insensitive to parameter variation but sensitive to input commands ans: d 3. Linear system obeys a) principle of maximum power transfer b) reciprocity principle c) principle of superposition d) all the above ans: d

4. If a linear time invariant system is excited by a true random signal like white noise, the output of the linear system will have which of the following properties ? a) output will be a white noise b) output will be periodic c) output will not be random d) output will be correlated or colored noise. ans: c 5. A system can be completely described by a transfer if it is a) nonlinear and continuous b) linear and time-varying c) non-linear and time-invariant d) linear and time-invariant ans: d 6. A function of one or more variables which conveys information on the nature of physical phenomenon called a) noise b) interference c) system d) signal ans: d 7. If the initial conditions for a system are inherently zero , what does it physically mean? a) The system is at rest but stores energy b) The system is working but does not store energy c) The system is at rest or no energy is stored in any of its parts d) The system is working with zero reference input ans: d 8. In a control system, the use of negative feedback a) eliminates the chances of instability. b) increases the reliability. c) reduces the effects of disturbance and noise signals in the forward path. d) increases the influence of variations of component parameters on the system performance. ans: c 9. which one of the following effects in the system is NOT caused by negative feedback? a) Reduction in gain b) increase in bandwidth. c) increase in distortion.

d) reduction in output impedance. ans: c 10. In a speed control system , output rate feedback is used to a) limit the speed of motor. b) limit the acceleration of the motor c) reduce the damping of the system d) increase the gain margin. ans: c