VVIT 13 A01 QUIZ 7

MATHEMATICS
1. If |z
1
1| s1, |z
2
2| s 2 and |z
3
3| s 3 then the maximum value of |z
1
+ z
2
+ z
3
| is
(A) 13 (B) 14
(C) 12 (D) 6
2. All the possible values of k for which |z + i| - |z i| = k represents hyperbola is
(A) 0 < k < 2 (B) -2 < k < 2
(C) k e (-2, 2) {0} (D) 1 < k < 2
3. The inequality |z 4| > |z + 2| represents
(A) Re(z) > 0 (B) Re(z) < 0
(C) Re(z) > 1 (D) none of these
4. If |z i| < 1, then the value of |z + 12 6i| is less than
(A) 14 (B) 2
(C) 28 (D) none of these
5. Radius of the circle z z + z + z - iz + i z - 7 = 0 is
(A) 2 units (B) 3 units
(C) 1 unit (D) 4 units
6. Sum of the squares of the greatest and the least value of |z| satisfying the equation
z
4
z = 2 is
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) none of these
7. If |z z
1
|
2
+ |z z
2
|
2
= k will represent a circle, then
(A) k s |z
1
z
2
|
2
(B) k >
2
1
|z
1
z
2
|
2

(C) k > |z
1
z
2
| (D) none of these
8. If points corresponding to the complex numbers z
1
, z
2
, z
3
and z
4
are the vertices of a
rhombus, taken in order, then for a non-zero real number k
(A) z
1
z
3
= i k( z
2
z
4
) (B) z
1
z
2
= i k( z
3
z
4
)
(C) z
1
+ z
3
= k( z
2
+z
4
) (D) z
1
+ z
2
= k( z
3
+z
4
)
9. For a complex number z , | z-1| + |z +1| =2. Then z lies on a
(A) parabola (B) line segment
(C) circle (D) none of these

10. If z = a + bi =
ix 1
ix 1
+

; a, b, x e R, then which of the following holds good?

(A)
2
t
< arg z s 0 (B) t < arg z s 0
(C) |z| = 1 (D) arg z = t; and |z| = 1
11. In an argands plane Oz
1
z
2
form an isosceles triangle with O (the origin) as the vertex
and z
1
, z
2
being the roots of the equation az
2
+ bz + c = 0 (a = 0), then which of the
following is permissible?
(A) a, b, c and z
1
are real
(B) a, b, c are real and z
1
is neither purely real nor purely imaginary
(C) a, b, c are real and z
1
is purely imaginary
(D) a, b, c are neither purely real nor purely imaginary and z
1
is purely real or purely
imaginary
12. Given z
n
= A(2 + i)
n
+ B(2 i)
n
, r, A, B, C, D e R and n e N. If z
n
= r
n
(C cos no + iD sin
no), then
(A) r = 5, o = tan
1
(2) (B) r = 5, o = cot
1
(2)
(C) r = 5 , o = tan
1
(2) (D) r = 5 , o = cot
1
(2)
13. The complex number z, the least in the absolute value, which satisfies the condition |z
2 + 2i| = 1 is
(A) z =
2
1
{(2 2 1) + i(2 2 1)} (B) z =
2
1
{(2 2 1) + i(1 2 2 )}
(C) z =
2
1
{(2 2 + 1) i(2 2 + 1)} (D) z =
2
1
{(2 2 + 1) + i(1 2 2 )}
14. If z
1
= 3 + 5i, z
2
= 5 3i and z is a complex number lying on the line segment joining
z
1
and z
2
, then arg z can be
(A)
4
3t
(B)
4
t

(C)
6
t
(D)
6
5t

15. Which of the following represents a point in an argands plane, equidistant from the roots
of the equation (z + 1)
4
= 16z
4

(A) (0, 0) (B) |
.
|

\
|
0 ,
3
1

(C) |
.
|

\
|
0 ,
3
1
(D)
|
|
.
|

\
|
5
2
, 0
16. If z = i log (2 + 3 ), then sin z is equal to
(A) 3 i (B) 3 i
(C) 3 (D) 3
17. If z
1
, z
2
, z
3
are affixes of the vertices A, B and C respectively of a triangle ABC having
centroid at G such that z = 0 is the mid point of AG, then
(A) z
1
+ z
2
+ 4z
3
= 0 (B) 4z
1
+ z
2
+ z
3
= 0
(C) z
1
+ 4z
2
+ z
3
= 0 (D) z
1
+ z
2
+ z
3
= 0
18. The equations |z + 1 i| = 2 and |z| = 3 has
(A) one solution (B) two solutions
(C) no solution (D) none of these
19. Find the value of sin
(
(

|
.
|

\
| t
+
t
z
2
sin i
2
cos log , where z satisfies the equation |z 2i| = 1
and has least modulus
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) none of these
20. The number of digits in 5
30
is, (log
10
2 = 0.3010)
(A) 30 (B) 22
(C) 21 (D) none of these
21. The coefficient of x
n
in
( )
2
n n 3 2
! n
x 1
....
! 3
x
! 2
x
x 1
|
|
.
|

\
|

+ + + is equal to
(A)
( )
! n
n
n

(B)
( )
! n
2
n

(C)
( )
2
! n
1
(D)
( )
2
! n
1

22. The coefficient of x
65
in the expansion of (1+x)
131
(x
2
- x + 1)
130
is
(A)
130
C
65
+
129
C
66

(B)
130
C
65
+
129
C
55

(C)
130
C
66
+
129
C
65

(D) none of these.
23. The sum of the rational terms in the expression of ( )
10
5 / 1
3 2 + is
(A) 41 (B) 40
(C) 42 (D) none of these
24. If n is a positive integer then the value of
n
81
1
(1 10
2n
C
1
+ 10
2

2n
C
2
. . .+ 10
2n
) is equal to
(A) one (B) two
(C) zero (D) none of these

25. The sum of coefficients in the expansion of the binomial (5p 4q)
n
where n is a positive integer
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 1 (D) none of these

26. The term independent of x in the expansion
9
2
x
1
x |
.
|

\
|
is
(A) 1 (B) 1
(C) 48 (D) none of these
27. Greatest coefficient in the expansion of (1 + x)
10
is
(A)
! 6 ! 5
! 10
(B)
( )
2
! 5
! 10

(C)
! 7 ! 5
! 10
(D) none of these
28. The value of
1 n
n
2
3
1
2
0
1
C
C
n ....
C
C
3
C
C
2
C
C

+ + + + is equal to
(A)
( )
2
1 n n
(B)
( )( )
2
1 n 1 n +

(C)
( )
2
1 n n +
(D)
4
n n
2
+

29. The co-efficient of x
k
(0 s k s n) in the expansion of E = 1 + (1 + x) + (1 + x)
2
+ .. +(1 + x)
n
is
(A)
n + 1
C
k +1
(B)
n
C
k

(C)
n + 1
C
n k + 1
(D)
n + 1
C
k 1


30. The remainder when 2
2003
is divided by 17 is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 8 (D) none of these

31. The coefficient of x
65
in the expansion of (1+x)
131
(x
2
- x + 1)
130
is
(A)
130
C
65
+
129
C
66
(B)
130
C
65
+
129
C
55

(C)
130
C
66
+
129
C
65
(D) none of these.
32. For | x| < 1, the value of 1 + 3x + 6x
2
+ 10x
3
+ .. is
(A)
4
) x 1 (
4

(B)
( )
3
x 1
3

(C)
( )
3
x 1
1

(D) None of these

33. If 1+ 99
n
, n being an odd positive integer greater than 1, is divisible by 10
m
, then largest m is
equal to
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
34. The coefficient of the middle term in the expansion of ( 1 + x)
2n
is
(A)
n
C
n
(B)
3n
C
n

(C)
2n
C
n
(D)
2n
C
n/2

35. If the second, third and fourth terms in the expansion of ( a+ b)
n
are 135, 30 and 10/3
respectively, then
(A) n = 3 (B) n=2
(C) n = 7 (D) n = 5
36. If (1+ ax)
n
= 1+ 8x + 24x
2
., then the values of a and n are equal to
(A) 2 , 4 (B) 2 , 3
(C) 3,6 (D) 1 , 2

PHYSICS
Single option correct
1. The frequency of a note emitted by a source changes by 20% as it approaches stationary observer. As it recedes
away from him the apparent frequency will be different from the actual frequency by (Velocity of sound in air
is 340 m/s)
(A) 20% (B) 17.4% (C) 16.67% (D) 12 %


2. Along the straight line joining two consecutive displacement- nodes in a pure stationary sound wave, at
different points.
(A) the S.H.M.s will be in different phases (B) the velocities will be in different phases
(C) the accelerations are in phase (D) the frequencies are equal.

3. A source of sound of single f
o
flies along a straight line which is at a finite distance from the
observer. Then the observer hears

o
at the instant when the source is nearest to him if v
source
<< v
sound
.


o
the instant when the source is nearest to him
(C) during the fly past, the increase in frequency is not equal to the decrease in the frequency.
(D) None of these

4.
o
approaches a receding observer in still air and the speed of sound in
the air is V
o
, then

o
.
(B) the wavelength of the wave train in air is greater than V
o o
.
(C) the wavelength of the wave train in air must be less than V
o o

(D) the velocity of the wave train in air equal to V
o
.

5. As a girl stops singing a pure note, she is surprised to hear an echo of higher frequency i.e. a higher musical
pitch. Then
(A) there could be some warm air between the girl and the reflecting surface
(B) there could be two identical fixed reflecting surfaces, one half a wavelength of the sound wave
away
from the other
(C) the girl could be moving towards a fixed reflector
(D) the reflector could be moving away from the girl.

6. In a resonance tube, closed at one end by a smooth moving piston and the other end open, exhibits the first three
resonance lengths, L
1
, L
2
and L
3
for the same tuning fork. Then they are related by
(A) L
3
= 2L
2
= 4 L
1
(B) L
3
=
5
3
L
2
= 5 L
1

(C) (L
3
- L
2
) = (L
2
- L
1
) (D) (L
3
- L
2
) = 2(L
2
- L
1
)

7. If the tension in a stretched string fixed at both ends in changed by 20%, the fundamental frequency is found to
change by 15 Hz. Then the
(A) original frequency is 150 Hz
(B) velocity of propagation of the transverse wave along the string changes by 5 %
(C) velocity of propagation of the transverse wave along the string change by 10 %
(D) fundamental wavelength on the string does not change.

8. Beats are produced by two progressive waves. Maximum loudness at the waxing is x times the loudness of each
wave. The value of x is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 4

9. The speed of a wave is 360 m/s and the frequency is 500 hertz. The phase difference between two nearer
particles is 60
o
. The path difference between them will be
(A) 0.72 m (B) 12 cm (C) 120 cm (D) 0.72 cm

Comprehension 1

A string of linear mass density 0.5 g/cm and a total length 30 cm is tied
to a fixed wall at one end and to a frictionless ring at the other end. The
ring can move on a vertical rod. A wave pulse is produced on the string
which moves towards the ring at a speed of 20 cm/s. The pulse is
symmetric about its maximum which is located at a distance of 20 cm
from the end joined to the ring. Assume that the wave is reflected from
the ends without loss of energy


20 cm


10. The time taken by the string to regain its shape is
(a) 1 s (b) 2 s (c) 3 s (d) 4 s

11. The shape of the string changes periodically with time. This time period is
(a) 1 s (b) 2 s (c) 3 s (d) 4 s

12. The tension in the string is
(a)
3
1 10 N

(b)
3
2 10 N

(c)
-3
3 10 N (d)
3
4 10 N

Comprehension 2

When a composite wire is made by joining two wires as shown in the figure and
possible frequencies of this wire is asked (both ends fixed) then the lowest
frequency is that at which individual lowest frequencies of the two wires are
equal. Given l
1
= l
2
=l and
2
1
9

= = . The tension in the string is T. ( is

mass per unit length)

l
2

1
2
l
1


13. hat is the lowest possible frequency such that the junction is node.
(a)
1 T
2l
(b)
1 T
l
(c)
4 T
l
(d)
2 T
l


14. What is the lowest frequency such that the Junction is an anti node.
(a)
1 T
4l
(b)
3 T
4l
(c)
5 T
4l
(d)
7 T
4l


15. The number of loops formed in wire 1 is n
1
and that in wire 2 is n
2
, when the string is vibrating with the lowest
possible frequency with the junction as a node. Then n
1
/ n
2
is
(a) 81 (b)
1
3
(c) 3 (d) 1

MATRIX MATCH QUESTIONS

M1: A satellite is revolving around the earth in a stable orbit of radius . r
COLUMN I COLUMN II
A Orbital velocity is proportional to P r
B Time period is proportional to Q
1
r

C Total energy is proportional to R
3/ 2
r
D Angular momentum is proportional to S
1/ 2
r

M2.
COLUMN I COLUMN II
A
A particle is fired vertically with a speed
15 km/s. Its speed in far off space is
P 7.9 km /s
B
A particle is fired vertically with u so as to
reach to a ht. 6400 km then u =
Q 10 km/s
C
A tunnel is dug along the diameter of the
earth. A particle is released from one
end. The velocity at the other end is
R 7.0 km/s
D
The orbital velocity of a satellite moving
around the earth at a ht. 2000 km above
the surface of earth is
S 0
M3. Two concentric spherical shells of radius r
1
and r
2
( r
2
> r
1
) and mass m each. Consider a point P
distance R such that r
1
< R < r
2
.
COLUMN I COLUMN II
A Gravitational Field at P P Non zero
B
Work done in carrying a mass m, once
around in the radius R
Q Is proportional to m
C
Gravitation field at common centre of
spheres is
R Is proportional to 2m
D Gravitational Potential a + P S Zero
M4. Let V and E denote the gravitational potential and gravitational field at a point. Then,

COLUMN I COLUMN II
A
0, 0 E V = =
P At centre of spherical shell
B
0, 0 E V = =
Q At centre of solid sphere
C
0, 0 V E = =
R At centre of circular ring
D
0, 0 V E = =
S None


NUMERICALS

N1.
A mass
24
6 10 kg is to be compressed in a sphere in such a way that the escape velocity from its
surface is
8
3 10 m/s , the radius of the sphere in mm (approximately).
N2. If a planet of radius R and density D is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit of radius r with the
time period T then the mass of the sun is
2
2
4
B
r
m
GT
t
= Here _______ B =
N3. If A is the area swept by the line joining the earth and the sun during Feb 2010. the area swept by the
same line during the first week of that month is
A
k
then the value of _____ k =
N4. Two balls A and B are thrown vertically upwards from the same location on the surface of the earth with
velocities 2
3
gR
and
2
3
gR
respectively, where R is the radius of the earth and g is the acceleration
due to gravity on the surface of the earth. The ratio of the maximum height attained by A to that attained
by B is
N5. Treating the earth as a symmetrical sphere of radius R=6400 km with field 9.8 N/kg at its surface, calculate
the vertical speed with which a rocket should be fired so as to reach a height 4R from the surface. Give the
answer in Km/sec. Write the first digit of answer.

CHEMISTRY

Single Answer Questions

1. Which of the following is a correct name for ( )
3 3
2
CH C CHCOCH =
(a) 2- methyl -2- penten -4-one (b) 4-methyl-3-
penten-2-one
(c) 1,3-dimethyl-2- pentenal (d) isopentenone

2. Which of the following are enol tautomers of 3-methylcylohexanone?

OH
(I)

(II)
OH

OH
(III)

OH
(IV)

(a) I and II (b) I and IV (c) II and III (d) only I

3. Which of the following statements is not generally true?
(a) C = O is stronger than an equivalent C = C
(b) C = O has a larger bond dipole than C = C
(c) aldehydes and ketones have higher boiling points than similarly sized alkenes
(d) tautomerism is acid catalyzed but not base catalyzed conversion.

4. Which of the following isomers is most acidic?
(a) 3,4- hexanedione (b) 2,5- hexanedione (c) 2,4-hexanedione (d) hexanedial

5. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?
(a) 3-methyl-5-heptanone (b) 5-methyl-3-heptanone
(c) 5-ethyl-3-hexanone (d) 2-ethyl-4-hexanone
O


6. Most stable carbonium ion is:
(a)

P NO
2
C
6
H
4
C
+ ( )
H
2
(b)

C
6
H
5
CH
+ ( )
2
(c)

PCl C
6
H
4
CH
2
+
(d)

PCH
3
OC
6
H
4
CH
2
+ ( )


7. How many stereoisomers does the following compound have?

CH
3
CH
2
CH
|
Br
CH
2
CH = CH CH
3

(a) none (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6


8. The structural formula for vitamin C is shown below. Of the four
hydroxyl groups, identified by shaded circles, which is most acidic?
(a)1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4


9. The Fischer projection of

H
Br
CH
3
C H
3
H
Br
is


(a)

CH
3
CH
3
H Br
H Br

(b)

CH
3
CH
3
Br H
Br H

(c)

CH
3
CH
3
H Br
Br H

(d)
CH
3
CH
3
Br H
H Br


10. Which of the following have an enol form?
(A) Benzaldehyde,
6 5
C H CHO (B) 2,2-dimethyl
propanal
(C) 2,2-dichloropropanal
(a) none have enol forms (b) only A (3) only B (d) A and C

11. What is an acceptable name for the following compound?
3 2 2 2 3
H CCH CH CH NHCH
(a) N-methylbutylamine (b) N-butylmethylamine
(c) 1-methyl-1-butylamine (d) 2-petylamine .

12. When you switch one group on a molecule with one stereocenter, the new compound will be
(a) the diastereomer (b) the enantiomer (c) identical (d) meso

13. Which of the hydrogen atoms in the following compound is the most
acidic?
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d N
N
O
H
O
H
H
O
H
H
O
H
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)

14. Which of the following structures is not a resonance contributor to the hybrid defined by the other three?
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


15. Which of the following isomeric dienes is chiral?
(a) 2,3-pentadiene (b)3-methyl-1,2-butadiene
(c) 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene (d) none, all are achiral

16. Examine the compound below.How many stereoisomers having this constitution are
possible?
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8


17. What is the total number of pi bonds found in the following compound?


H C C CH
2
NO
2

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

18. Which of the following will give more enol contents?
(I)

O
O

(II)
O
O

(III)
O
O

(IV)
O
O
O

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV

19. The following structures are resonance contributors for a reactive intermediate formed during ozonolysis of
alkenes. Identify the most energetically favorable and the least favorable contributors?

(a) III is most favorable & II is least favorable (b) I is most favorable & IV is least
favorable
(c) II is most favorable & IV is least favorable (d) I is most favorable & II is least favorable

20. Which of the following compounds has no isomer?
(a) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
Cl (b) CH
3
CHO (c) CH
2
=CHCl (d) ClCH
2
CH
2
Cl

21. Which of the following compounds would you expect to be most soluble in water?
(a) CH
2
Cl
2
(b) C
6
H
12
(cyclohexane) (c) CH
3
CH
2
OH (d) C
2
H
5
OC
2
H
5


22. Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism?
(a) 2-butene (b) propene (c) 1-phenylpropene (d) 2-methyl-2-
butene

23. Which of the following statements applies to a C
10
H
14
O
2
compound?
(a) it may have 2 double bonds and 2 rings (b) it may have 3 double bonds and 0 rings
(c) it may have 1 triple bond and 3 rings (d) it may have 0 double bonds and 3 rings

24. How many stereocenters does the following molecule have?
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 6

CH
3


25. Which of the following structural pairs represents contributors to a resonance hybrid?
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


26. Which two Fischer formulas represent a pair of enantiomers?


(a) I & II (b) III & IV (c) I & IV (d) II & III

27. What is IUPAC name for the following compound?


CH
3
C C CH
|
CH
3
CH = CH
2

(a) 4- vinyl-2-pentyne (b) 4-methylhex-2-yn-5-ene
(c) 3-methylhex-4-yn-l-ene (d) 3-methylhex-1en-4-yne

28. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a)a pair of enantiomeric compounds will have the same melting point.
(b) a pair of enantiomeric compounds will have the same solubility in ethanol.
(c) a pair of enantiomeric compounds will have exactly the same functional groups.
(d) a pair of enantiomeric compounds will have identical optical rotations

29. The antimalarial alkaloid quinine, C
20
H
24
N
2
O
2
, is optically active. An ethanol solution of 8g quinine in 100mL
displays a rotation of -13.6 in a 1dm polarimeter tube. What is the specific rotation of quinine?
(a) -85 (b) -170 (c) -43 (d) -26

30. The major reason that phenol is a better Bronsted acid than cyclohexanol is
(a) it is a better proton donor.
(b) the cyclohexyl group is an electron donating group by induction, which destabilizes the
anion formed in
the reaction.
(c) phenol is able to stabilize the anion formed in the reaction by resonance
(d) the phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group by induction, which stabilizes the anion
formed in the
reaction.
31. Which of the following compounds is the strongest Bronsted base?
(a)

NH
2

(b)

N
H
H
H

(c)

N
H

(d)
N
CH
3
H
3
C
CH
3


32. How many degrees of unsaturation does the following structure have?
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7


Comprehension -1

Hyperconjugation is used to explain the stabilities of alkenes and carbonium ions. Hyperconjugation
is also known as no-bond resonance. Based on the information given above, answer the question
below:
33. The order of stability of the carbonium ions given below.

CH
3
C
CH
3
CH
3
+
(a)

H
3
C C
CH
3
C
2
H
5
+
(b)

H
2
C CH
+
(c)

HC C
+
(d)


(a) a b c d > > > (b) b a c d > > > (c) b a d c > > > (d) a b d c > > >

34. Hyper conjugation involves
(a) o bond p orbital overlap (b) o bond s
orbital overlap
(c) pure s-s overlap (d) pure p-p overlap

35. The correct order of stabilities of the given free radicals is

(a)

C
CH
3
CH
3 CH
3
.

(b)
C
CH
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
C H
3
.

(c)
C
CH
CH
3
CH
CH
3
C H
3
C H
3
CH
3
.

(d)

C
CH
CH
CH
CH
3
C H
3
C H
3
CH
3
C H
3
C H
3
.

(a) a b c d > > > (b) b >c >d>a (c) a>c>d>b (d) d>b>c>a

36. The species having no hyper conjugation is
(a) tertiary butyl benzene (b) tertiary butyl carbonium ion
(c) methyl carbonium ion (d) ethane
(a) a,b, and c (b) a and b (c) a,c and d (d) a,b,c and d

Comprehension -1I

Optical activity is shown by asymmetric molecules. To check whether a molecule is asymmetric, the
mirror. Image of the molecule is constructed, and if the mirror image is non-superimposable on the
original molecule, then the molecule isoptically active. Based on the information given above, answer
the questions below:
37. Choose the correct statements:
(a) A molecule may be optically active, even though it has no chiral carbon atoms.
(b) A molecule may be optically inactive, even though it has chiral carbon atoms.
(c) Molecules which are free from all elements of symmetry are optically active.
(d) By fractional distillation, enantiomers cant be separated.
(a) a,c and d (b) a,b and d (c) a,b and c (d) all

38. The two molecules, shown in different conformations, represent of

CH
3
C
F
Cl
H

F
C
Cl
H
CH
3

(a) enantiomers (b) diasteromers (c) same molecule (d) none of the
above
39. Select the correct statement:
(a) trans-1,3-dibromocyclohexane will show optical activity
(b) cis-1,4 dibromocyclohexane will show optical activity
(c) trans-1,4 dibromocyclohexane will show optical activity
(d) the number of distinct stereoisomers possible for 2,3-dichlorobutane is 4.

40. Select the correct statements:
(a) Angle of rotation depends on the concentration of the substance
(b) In a molecule, with two chiral centers, when you interchange any two groups at only one
of the
sterocenter, then the new molecule obtained is a diastereomer.
(c) Diastereomers have same chemical and physical properties
(d) Enantiomers have same physical properties, and also same chemical properties, with
optically
inactive compounds.
(a) a and d (b) a,b and c (c) a,b and d (d) c and d

ANSWER KEY
MATHS

1.C 2.C 3.D 4.A 5.B
6.C 7.B 8.A 9.B 10.D
11.B 12.D 13.B 14.D 15.C
16.B 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.C
21.B 22.D 23.A 24.A 25.C
26.D 27.B 28.C 29.D 30.C
31.D 32.C 33.A 34.C 35.D
36.A
PHYSICS
Answer key:
1.D 2.A 3.A 4. 5.A
6.C 7.B 8.D 9.B 10.B
11.C 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.B



M1. A-S B-R C-Q D-P
M2. A-Q B-P C-S D-R
M3. A P,Q B S C S
D P,
Q
M4: A - S B - S C -P,Q,R D - S

N1 9
N2 3
N3 4
N4 8
N5 1
CHEMISTRY



1.B

2.B

3.D

4.C

5.B



6.D

7.C

8.C

9.D

10.A



11.A

12.B

13.D

14.A


15.A



16.D

17.C

18.D

19.B

20.C



21.C

22.A

23.A

24.C

25.A



26.B

27.D

28.D

29.B

30.C



31.D

32.D

33.A

34.A

35.A



36.C

37.D

38.A

39.A

40.C