Lecture 15: Double Integrals: SF HK N L FHK N L-Fh0L
Lecture 15: Double Integrals: SF HK N L FHK N L-Fh0L
Lecture 15: Double Integrals: SF HK N L FHK N L-Fh0L
The integral
R f (x, y )
This theorem is obtained from the quantum fundamental theorem DF (k/n) = f (k/n) f (0), Sf (k/n) = F (k/n) (which holds for all functions!) in the limit n and allows to compute integrals by inverting dierentiation. Dierentiation rules become integration rules: the product rule becomes integration by parts, the chain rule becomes partial integration.
One can interpret R f (x, y ) dydx as the signed volume of the solid below the graph of f and above R in the x y plane. As in 1D integration, the volume of the solid below the xy-plane is counted negatively. Fubinis theorem allows to switch the order of integration over a rectangle if the b d d b function f is continuous: a c f (x, y ) dxdy = c a f (x, y ) dydx.
i j f( , ) = n n
i j [a,b] [c,d] n n
i j f( , ) n n
k n
k n
which holds for all functions. Now divide both sides by n2 and take the limit n .
Fubinis theorem only holds for rectangles. We extend the class of regions now to so called Type I and Type II regions:
If f (x, y ) is dierentiable on a region R, the integral the limit of the Riemann sum 1 n2 when n . We write also
R
f (x, y ) dxdy is dened as A type I region is of the form R = {(x, y ) | a x b, c(x) y d(x) } . An integral over such a region is called a type I integral f dA =
b a d(x) c(x)
i j , n )R (n
i j f( , ) n n
d x
If we integrate f (x, y ) = xy over the unit square we can sum up the Riemann sum for xed y = j/n and get y/2. Now perform the integral over y to get 1/4. This example shows how we can reduce double integrals to single variable integrals. If f (x, y ) = 1, then the integral is the area of the region R. The integral is the limit L(n)/n2 , where L(n) is the number of lattice points (i/n, j/n) inside R.
f (x, y ) dydx .
c x a b
8
a y b y
A type II region is of the form R = {(x, y ) | c y d, a(y ) x b(y ) } . An integral over such a region is called a type II integral
R
1 dydx =
R R
2 R2 x2 dx .
f dA =
d c
b(y ) a(y )
f (x, y ) dxdy .
c
/2
/2 /2
Integrate f (x, y ) = x over the region bounded above by sin(x3 ) and bounded below by the graph of sin(x3 ) for 0 x . The value of this integral has a physical meaning. It is called moment of inertia.
1/3 0 sin(x3 ) sin(x3 )
x2 dydx = 2
1/3 0
sin(x3 )x2 dx
Using a double angle formula we get /2 u) du = R2 . We will now see R2 /2 2 (1+cos(2 2 how to do that better in polar coordinates. Remark: The Riemann integral just dened works well for continuous functions. In other branches of mathematics like probability theory, a better integral is needed. The Lebesgue integral ts the bill. Its denition is close to the Riemann integral which we have given as the limit n2 (xk ,yl )R f (xk , yl ) where xk = k/n, yl = l/n. The Lebesgue integral replaces the regularly spaced (xk , yl ) grid with random points xk , yl and uses the same formula. The following Mathematica code computes the integral 01 01 x2 y using this Monte Carlo denition of the Lebesgue integral.
M=10000; R:=Random [ ] ; f [ x , y ] : = x 2 y ; Sum [ f [ R,R] , {M} ] /M M=100; f [ x , y ] : = x2 y ; Sum [ f [ k/M, l /M] , { k ,M} , { l ,M} ] /M2 but the Lebesgue integral is usually closer to the actual answer 1/6 than the Riemann integral. Note that for all continuous functions, the Lebesgue integral gives the same results than the Riemann integral. It does not change calculus. But it is useful for example to compute nasty integrals like the area of the Mandelbrot set.
Integrate f (x, y ) = y over the region bound by the xaxes, the lines y = x + 1 and y = 1 x. The problem is best solved as a type I integral. As you can see from the picture, we would have to compute 2 dierent integrals as a type I integral. To do so, we have to write the bounds as a function of y : they are x = y 1 and x= 1y
1 0 1y y 1
Homework
1 2
Find the double integral
4 2 1 0 (3x
y 3 dx dy = 2
1 0
1 1 1 y 3(1 y ) dy = 2( ) = . 4 3 10
y ) dxdy .
Find the area of the region and use it to compute the average value region. R = {(x, y ) | 0 x 2, sin(x) 1 y cos(x) + 2}
R
x 2
dxdy ?
3
2
The type II integral 01 [ y1 ex dx]dy can not be solved 2 because ex has no anti-derivative in terms of elementary functions. 2 The type I integral 01 [ 0x ex dy ] dx however can be solved: =
1 0
Find the volume of the solid lying under the paraboloid z = x2 + y 2 and above the rectangle R = [2, 2] [3, 3] = {(x, y ) | 2 x 2, 3 y 3 }.
2x 2 Calculate the iterated integral 01 x (x y ) dydx. Sketch the corresponding type I region. Write this integral as integral over a type II region and compute the integral again.
4 5
xe
x 2
ex 1 (1 e1 ) | = = 0.316... . dx = 2 0 2
x dydx . ey2