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MAHE 2000 filaments connect adjacent cells through
MAHE PG ENTRANCE 2000 microtubules.
ANSWERS (MANIPAL) Ans: (c)
Please read our disclaimer before continuing. For more 5. About prostate true is
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Discuss questions at question forum a. Urethra penetrates apex, b. Central
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This paper was contributed by Dr. Prashant peripheral, c. Columella semilunaris
Gupta , MD(patho),Ex- B.S.Medical College, opens into prostatic utricle, d. Posterior
Bankura, West Bengal and Dr. Shraddha
Agarwal, Ex- Mysore Medical College, Mysore lobe separated by rectovesical pouch.
Anatomy Ans: (c)
6. Which of the following types of
1. Regarding trigeminal nerve true is collagen fiber is characteristic of hyaline
a. Mesencephalic nuclei is multipolar, b. cartilage
Sends proprioceptive fibres to a. Type I, b. Type II, c. Type III, d. Type
mesencephalic nerve, c. Medially it is IV.
related to middle meningeal artery, d. Ans: (b)
Receives innervation from lateral horn of 7. Lacrimal gland is supplied by
spinal cord. a. Otic ganglion, b. Celiac ganglion, c.
Ans: (b) Trigeminal ganglion, d. Sympathetic
2. Transverse vaginal sulcus corresponds chain ganglion.
to Ans: (a)
a. Junction of urethra and bladder, b.
Junction of cervix and vagina, c. Lower
limit of rectum, d. Upper limit of bladder.
Ans: (a) Physiology
3. True about pituitary gland is
a. Adenohypophysis develops from 1. Spermatogonia matures into
neuroectoderm, b. Contralataral spermatozoa in
homonymous hemianopia occurs when a. 40 days, b. 72 days, c. 96 days, d. 120
pituitary tumor causes pressure over optic days.
chiasma, c. Cord like arrangement in pars Ans: (b)
tuberalis which produces gonadotropins, 2. Synaptic transmission in auto nomic
d. ADH and oxytocin produced in ganglia is due to
posterior pirtutary. a. Cholinergic, b. Nicotinic, c. Muscarine,
Ans: (a) d. Dopaminergic
4. Which of the following about Ans: (b)
epithelium is true, 3. Amount of volume of air in lung after
a. Zona occludens is at basal portion; b. normal expiration is
Capillaries go through the gap junctions, a. 2200ml, b. 4900ml, c. 1000ml, d.
c. Basement membrane is formed by type 2700ml.
4 collagen, d. In zona adherence actin Ans: (a)
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4. After moderate exercise, following 12. Transmitter at neuromuscular
changes occur in blood flow: functions
a. Increase in heart rate, b. Increase in a. Nicotine, b. Atropine, c. Acetylcholine,
muscle blood flow, c. Decrease in d. Noradrenaline
peripheral resistance, d. All of the above. Ans: (c)
Ans: (c) 13. There is increase in secretion through
5. Which of the following forms blood anterior pituitary by
brain Barrier a. Hyperosmolarity of plasma, b.
a. Astrocytes, b. Microcytes, c. Somatostatin, c. Somatomedin, d.
Oligodendrocytes, d. Endothelial cells. Suckling of breast
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)
6. Core body temperature is closest to 14. Frontal lobe lesion causes are except
a. Oral temperature, b. rectal, c. Surface, a. Acalculia, b. Emotional alteration, c.
d. Axillary. Personality changes, d. B+C
Ans: (b) Ans: (a)
7. When Spinal cord is secured at the 15. EEG with eyes open, mind wandering
level of brainstem, the effect on shows
respiration will be a. Alpha waves, b. beta waves, c. Delta
a. Caeses, b. Normal, c. Irregular, d. waves, d. Theta waves
Apneic Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
8. Fetal oxygenation depends on all Biochemistry
except
a. HbF, b. Blood flow through placenta, c. 1. Which of the enzyme deficiency is
Fetal respiration, d. Fetal heart rate. correctly paired
Ans: (c) a. Farbers – Alpha galactosidase, b.
9. In normal person, blood is prevented Gauchers – Beta glucosidase, c.
from clotting by all except Niemann-picks – Beta galactosidase, d.
a. Plasminogen, b. Normal blood flow, c. Fabry’s disease – sphingomyelinase.
natural anti clotting factor, d. Smooth Ans: (b)
endothelial cells. 2. Glucose on anaerobic glycolysis is
Ans: (a) converted to
10. Insulin like growth factor is a. 2 lactate + NADPH + 2ATP, b. 2
synthesized in pyruvate + 2 ATP + 2NADPH, c. 2
a. Placenta, b. Liver, c. islet of pyruvate + 2 lactate, d. 2 lactate + 2 ATP
Langerhans, d. Pitutary Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) 3. For initiation of protein synthesis in
11. Atrial natriuretic factor acts by: prokaryotes all are required except
a. Membrane bound Guanyl cyclase, b. a. Initiation factor, b. t-RNA, c. GTP, b.
cytosolic Guanyl cyclase, c. soluble 40s Ribosome.
CGMP, d. Lipooxygenase. Ans: (d)
Ans: (a)
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4. Regarding oxidative phosphorylation Pharmacology
all are true except: -
a. Accept free O2, b. Protons facilitate it,1. Which of the following can be given
c. Takes place in matrix of mitochondria, with OCP
d. Inhibited by oligomycin a. Mebendazole, b. Amoxycillin, c.
Ans: (b) Phenytoin, d. Rifampin
5. Polymerase chain reaction is used for Ans: (a)
a. Amplification of human DNA, b. 2. Mode of action of vigabatrin is
detecting RNA, c. Detecting DNA, d. To a. Inhibitor of GABA transaminase
break sDNA to ssDNA. increasing GABA conc, b. Suppress Na+
Ans: (a) current channels, c. Inhibit T type Ca 2+
6. Peptide bond true is channel, d. None
a. Cleaved by denaturation of protein, b. Ans: (a)
Ionizes at normal pH, c. Stable at strong 3. Mode of action of baclofen is
pH (acidic), d. Primary structure a. Act as GABA receptor agonist thro
determines biologic activation and hyperpolarising neurons by increasing k+
confirmations. conductance and altering ca2+ flux , b.
Ans: (d) Depolarise muscle by opening Na+
channel, c. Both, d. None
Manipal A I P P G Paper 2000 Ans: (a)
4. Moricizine used as antiarrhythmic
7. Gene therapy is causes: -
a. Inserting normal gene in place of a. Prolongation of action potential, b.
abnormal ones, b. development of better Decrease action potential, c. No change in
genes for future generations, c. Removing action potential, d. None of the above.
the abnormal gene only, d. All of the Ans: (a)
above. 5. All of the following can be used
Ans: (a) against chloroquine resistant malaria
8. Which is true about porphyria except
a. Read poisoning – ferrachelatase a. Mefloquine, b. Quinine, c. Primaquine,
inhibition, b. Protoporhyrin oxidase is a d. Halofantrine.
cytosolic enzyme, c. ALA synthase Ans: (c)
requires TPP, d. Variegate porphyria – 6. Ethanol elimination is a
uroporphyin synthase I. a. Linear elimination, b. Dose dependent,
Ans: (c) c. Saturation type, d. Fixed elimination
9. Risk factors for coronary artery disease Ans: (d)
are all except 7. Prodrug used in prostatic carcinoma
a. Increase VLDL, b. Increase HDL, c. with antiandrogenic action is
Increase LDL, d. All of the above. a. Cyproterone, b. Clomiphene, c.
Ans: (b) Danazol, d. Tamoxifen
Ans: (a)
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8. Which of the following is not a. Reserpine, b. Metoclopramide, c.
hepatotoxic Bromocriptine, d. Haloperidol.
a. INH, b.Rifampin, c. Ethambutol, d. Ans: (c)
Pyarizinamide.
Ans: (c) Pathology
9. Which of the following is a best drug
to stop cisplatin induced vomiting 1. All of the following are due to
a. Ondensetron, b. Cisapride, d. congestion of blood except
Domperidone, c. Metoclopramide a. brown induration of lung, b.
Ans: (a) Strawberry gall bladder, c. Nutmeg liver,
10. Drug of choice to be used in SVT d. Sago spleen.
with WPW is Ans: (b)
a. Verapamil, b. Amiodarone, c. 2. Poor prognostic factor is liver disease
Lignocaine, d. Digoxin is
Ans: (b) a. Bile lake, b. Collagen formation, c.
11. Dorazolamide is a Mallory hyaline body, d. Councilman
a. Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, b. body.
Systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, c. Ans: (c)
Both, d. None. 3. Lymphatic spread is most common in
Ans: (a) a. Rhabdomyosarcoma, b.
12. Organophosphorus poisoning acts by Dermatofibrosarcoma, c. Liposarcoma, d.
a. Adrenergic action, b. Cholinergic Osteosarcoma.
action, c. Anticholinesterase action, d. Ans: (a)
Pseudocholinesterase inhibitor. 4. Renal pathology in SLE is all except: -
Ans: (c) a. Lipoid nephrosis, b. Focal
13. Cocaine is Proliferative, c. Diffuse proliferation, d.
a. Vasodilator, b. Vasoconstrictor and Diffuse membranous.
Hypertensive, c. Vasodilator and Ans: (a)
bradycardia, d. Vasodilation followed by 5. All are granulomatous except
vasoconstriction. a. Giardiasis, b. Histoplasmosis, c.
Ans: (b) Schistosomiasis, d. Leprosy
14. Caffeine is given along with Ans: (a)
ergotamine to cause 6. CML is associated with
a. Increased absorption, b. Toxicity, c. No a. Philadelphia chromosome, b. Persistent
advantage, d. For colouring. barr body, c. San Francisco chromosome,
Ans: (a) d. XXY.
15. Plasma concentration reflects the Ans: (a)
action in 7. Function of Kupfer cells is
a. Digoxin, b. Hit and run drug, c. a. Phagocytic, b. Lytic, c. Secretory, d.
Diuretic, d. Lignocaine Excretory
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
16. Dopamine against is 8. Radiation acts by all of these except
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a. Autoimmunity, b. Mutation, c. Free 5. Food poisoning is not seen with
radical, d. DNA breakage. a.staphylococci, b. Botulinism, c. Vibrio
Ans: (a) cholerae, d. Bacillus cereus.
9. Edema is caused by all except Ans: (c)
a. Decrease protein in plasma, b. 6. Which of the following crosses
Decrease protein in interstitial fluid, c. placenta
Increased protein in plasma, d. none of a. Ig G, b. Ig A. c. Ig M, d. Ig E.
the above. Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) 7. Most effective mode of transmission of
10. In fibrocystic disease of breast all are the HIV is
seen except a. Blood transfusion, b. By syringes, c.
a. Inflammation, b. Fibrosis, c. Dilatation Vertical transmission, d. Heterosexual
of ducts which appear cystic , d. Adenosis contact.
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
11. Comedocarcinoma of breast 8. Bacterial resistance transmission is
a. Synonym for tubular carcinoma, b. through
Variant of paget’s disease of nipple, c. a. Conjugation, b. transduction, c.
Synonym of scirrhous carcinoma, d. On Convocation, d. Transformation
cut section punctate areas of necrotic Ans: (b)
material is seen 9. Kyasanur forest disease is caused by
Ans: (d) a. Virus, b. Louse, c. Mite, d. Tick
Ans: (a)
Microbiology 10. Ascariasis causes
a. Intestinal obstruction, b. Bile duct
1. Heterophile antibody is seen in obstruction, c. Both, d. neither
a. Coomb’s test, b. Casoni’s test, c. Weil Ans: (c)
felix reaction, d. Frei’s test FSM
Ans: (c)
2. Test to detect echinococcus infection is 1. Double edge sword produces which
a. Napiers Aldehyde test, b. Sabin type of wound
Feldman dye test, c. Casoni’s test, d. a. Triangular, b. Elliptical, c. Wedge
Free’s test. shape, d. Oval.
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
3. Dimorphic fungus is 2. In a case of drowning froth was
a. Cryptococcus, d. Aspergillus, c. coming out of mouth froth was
Histoplasma, d. sporothrix a. Fine and Frothy, b. Coarse and turbid,
Ans: (c) c. Blood stained, d. Fine and bubbling.
4. Characteristic feature of strongyloides Ans: (a)
infection is 3. Regarding sudden infant death all are
a. Malabsorption, b.Anemia, c. Invades true except
satiated muscle, d. Intestinal obstruction. a. Mother taking narcotics, b. Congenital
Ans: (a) defect, c. Previous SIDS, d. Prematurity.
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Ans:(d) a. Should have passed at least VI
4. While taking dying declaration, a standard, b. Can read and write, c. Passed
doctor should X standard, d. Should be a graduate.
a. Call magistrate, b.Testify the Ans: (b)
statements made under sound mind, c. 5. For malnutrition Anemia; one should
Note down the declaration, d. Arrange for show weight for height below.
the witness. a. 60, b. 50, c. 70, d. 80.
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
5. Putrefaction occurs over the caecal 6. Mesotheliomas are due to
area after around a. Asbestosis, b. Silicosis, c. Byssinosis,
a. 12 hours, b. 12-24 hours, c. 24-28 d. Bagassosis
hours, d. 3 days. Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) 7. Which is the following Arboviral
6. Blood stain of human origin is tested infection is not found in India
by, a. Yellow fever, b. Japanese encephalitis,
a. Precipitin test, b. Hemin test, c. c. KFD, d. West Nile fever
Hemochromagen test, d. Benzidine test. Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) 8. Most effective method of transmission
of leprosy is
SPM a. Skin to skin contact, b. Droplet
infection, c. Urine, d. Blood transmission.
1. Commonest cause of blindness in India Ans: (b)
is 9. For malaria control, DDT is sprayed
a. Malnutrition, b. Trachoma, c. a. Rice fields, b. Indoor, c. Outdoor, d.
Conjunctivitis, d. Refraction error. wheat fields.
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)
2. Adequate treatment of multibacillary 10. Under 5 mortality rate x 100
leprosy is done when, denotes:
a. Treatment of 24 months is received in Total deaths during the year
36 months, b. Treatment of 6 months in a. Proportional mortality rate, b. Specific
12 months, c. 24 months treatment mortality rate, c. Case fatality rate, d.
received in 30 months, d. Varies Child survival index.
depending on coexistence with TB Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) 11. Predictive value of a negative test is
3. SET centers are used in a. b x 100, b. C x 100, c. d x 100, d.
a. Leprosy elimination, b. TB control, c. a x 100
Guineaworm eradication, d. Malaria a+b c+d c+d
survey. a+b
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
4. Minimum qualification of village 12. Unmodified risk factors for heart
health guide should be disease is
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a. Smoking, b. Alcohol, c. family history, a. Staphylococci, b. Salmonella,
d. Cholesterol. c.Clostridium botulinium, d. Bacillus
Ans: (c) cereus.
13. Which of the following comes under Ans: (a)
UIP
a. Hepatitis B, b. Rubella, c. Measles, d. ENT
None
Ans: (c) 1. Paracusis is seen in
14. Food poisoning is caused by a. otosclerosis, b. Otogenic deafness, c.
a. Staphylococci , b. Pseudomonas, c. CSOM, d. Meniere’s disease
Streptococci, d. Vibrio cholera Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) 2. Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma is most
15. PQLI includes commonly seen in
a. Education, IMR, life expectancy of a. Young female, b. Elderly female, c.
infant, b. Per capita income, education, Infants, d. Young boy.
IMR, c. MMR, IMR education, d. Life Ans: (d)
expectancy at age 1m IMR, literacy. 3. betahistine is given in’
Ans: (d) a. Otosclerosis, b. Meniere’s disease, c.
16. Goals to be achieved by 2000 were CSOM, d. ASOM
a. IMR <60, CBR <21, b. IMR <80, CBR Ans: (b)
<21, c. CBR <10, IMR < 60, d. MMR 4. Power of microscope used in laryngeal
<10, IMR <60. surgery is
Ans: (a) a. 200mm, b. 400mm, c. 500mm, d.
17. Worker on roti diet presents with 300mm.
diarrhea and CNS symptoms, freckles Ans: (b)
over neck and dermatitis. Also rashes are 5. Cholesteatoma is most commonly
present on exposed parts of body. found in
Probable cause is a. Tubotympanic CSOM, b. Atticoantral
a. Vitamin B1 deficiency, b. Vitamin B2 CSOM, c. Serous otitis media, d. Foreign
deficiency, c. Niacin deficiency, d. body in ear.
Protein calorie malnutrition. Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) 6. Caldwell luc operation is done in
18. In case control study, control is a. Frontal sinus, b. Maxillary sinus, c.
a. Chosen before the study, b. free from Ethmoid, d. Sphenoid sinus.
the disease, c. Suffering from the disease, Ans: (b)
d. Should be different from case in age 7.Ludwig’s angina is seen in
sex etc. a. Submandibular region, b. Sublingual
Ans: (b) region, c. submental region, d. Deep neck
19. Which of the following has shortest space.
incubation period in case of food Ans: (a)
poisoning 8. Myiasis is
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a. Maggots is nose, b. Maggots in sinus, a. Oxytetracycline, b. Chlormycetin, c.
c. Maggots in mouth, d. None of the Ciprofloxacin, d. Gentamycin
above. Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) 3. Size of pupil in iridocyclitis is
9. Middle ear pressure is measured by a. Oval and large, b. Small and pinpoint,
a. Tuning fork, b. Pure tone audiometry, c. Small and irregular, d. None of above.
c. Electrocochleography, d. Impedance Ans: (c)
Audiometry. 4. Which of the following drug is
Ans: (d) contraindication in closed angle glaucoma
10. Tumor which is friable and bleeds on a. Atropine, b. Pilocarpine, c.
touch is Tropicamide, d. Acetazolamide.
a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, b. Ans: (a)
Maxillary antrum tumor, c. 5. Type of discharge in spring catarrh is
Rhinosporidosis, d. Angiofibroma. a. Ropy white discharge, b. Purulent
Ans: (c) discharge, c. Mucopurulent discharge, d.
11. Male voice does not break at puberty Orange fluorescent discharge.
it is called as Ans: (a)
a. Pubophonia, b. Spastic dysphonia, c. 6. Second sight is seen in
Esophageal voice, d. Dysphonia plica a. Lental sclerosis, b. Morgagnian, c.
ventricularis Nuclear cataract, d. Cortical cataract.
Ans: (a) Ans: (c)
12. True regarding vocal cord is 7. Rosette cataract is most commonly
a. Rima glottis is diamond shape during seen in
phonation, b. Partial lesion of recurrent a. Thromine deficiency, b. Concussion
laryngeal nerve causes adduction of vocal injury, c. Diabetes,d. Hypertension.
cord, c. Posterior cricoarytenoid causes Ans: (b)
adduction of vocal cords, d. Lateral 8. Diabetic retinopathy A/E
cricoarytenoid causes abduction of vocal a. Visual symptoms occur early, b.
cords. Severity depends on duration, c. regular
Ans: (a) control of sugar helps in control, d. None
Ans: (a)
Eye
Pediatrics
1. Mode of transmission of congenital
glaucoma is 1. 10 year old child presents with cough
a. Autosomal recessive, b. Autosomal fever diarrhea, splenomegaly since 10
document, c. X- Linked recessive, d. X- days, abdominal distension is suffering
Linked dominant. form
Ans: (a) a. Typhoid, b. Malaria, c. Infection, d.
2. Drug of choice in angular Tuberculosis
conjunctivitis is Ans: (a)
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2. The rates of upper and lower body Medicine
segment becomes equal at
a. 4 years, b. 5 years, c. 6-years, d. 7 1. A patient on prolonged therapy for
years. lymphoma has developed
Ans: (c) immunosuppression following can cause
3. Increase in alpha fetoprotein is seen in pulmonary affection except
all except a. CMV, b. EBV, c. Good Pasteur’s
a. Downs syndrome, b. Prematurity, c. disease, d. Drug induced infiltrate
Embryonal cell carcinoma, d. Yolk sac Ans: (b)
tumor. 2. In HIV, person develops AIDS when
Ans: (a) CD4 + count is
4. Cleft palate is seen in a. < 400, b. < 200, c. 50-100, d. 500
a. Downs syndrome, b. Edward Ans: (b)
syndrome, c. Patau syndrome, d. 3. Apathetic hyperthyroidism is
Klienfelter’s syndrome. characterized by all except:
Ans: (c) a. Elderly people are affected, b.
5. When does the child starts riding Insidious in onset, c. It is familial
tricycle disorder, d. Proximal myopathy,
a. 4 years, b. 3 years, c. 2years, d. 5 years. cardiomyopathy also occurs.
Ans: (b) Ans: (c)
6. Breath holding spell in child which of 4. which of the following is X-linked
the following should be done recessive disorder
a. Call the doctor and see him, b. Ignore a. Huntington’s chorea, b. Duchenne
the child, c. Give diazepam, d. Take an muscular dystrophy, c. Von willebrand’s
ECG. disease, d. Polycystic kidney.
Ans: (b) Ans: (b)
5. Nitric oxide acts by
7. Mongolian spot a. Stimulating Cox-2, b. Inhibiting Cox-1,
a. Found on palate, b. Disappear by 1 c. Phospholipase A2, d. Lipooxygenase
year of age, c. Can be in perianal area, d. pathway.
All of the above. Ans: (c)
Ans: (b) 6. About lepromatous leprosy true is all
8. Harlequin skin change is except
a. A form of icthyosis, b. Early sepsis, c. a. Indefinate margins are there, b. central
Does not matter, d. fatal clearing is not present, c. raised edges are
Ans: (a) seen, d. Sensation is lost late.
9. Down’s syndrome is due to Ans: (d)
a. Triploidy, b. Polyploidy, c. tetraploidy, 7. A patient presents with short stature
d. Aneuploidy. and no barr body in cytology, all of the
Ans: (d) following are possible except
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a. Turners syndrome, b. testicular Ans: (d)
feminisation, c. Klienfelters syndrome, d. 14. Which of the following is given for
None of the above. prophylaxis of Rheumatic fever.
Ans: (c) a. Benzyl penicillin, b. Benzathine
8. In vitamin B6 dependent anemia the penicillin, c. Procaine penicillin, d. Any
RBC are of the above.
a. Microcytic hypochromic, b. Ans: (b)
Macrocytic, c. Spherocytic, d. 15. Vaccination not given in pregnancy is
Elliptocytic a. Rubella, b. Hepatitis B, c. tetanus, d.
Ans: (a) Typhoid
9. Regarding megalablastic anemia all are Ans: (a)
true except 16. Most common nosocomial infection
a. Extramedullary hemolysis occurs, b. is
Intramedullary hemolysis occurs, c. a. UTI, b. respiratory, c. skin, d.
Thrombocytes are enlarged, d. Gastric Gastrointestinal
cellular atypia occurs. Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) 17. HDV is
10. Chronic subdural hematoma a. Complete virus, b. Incomplete virus, c.
a. Slow absorption of csf into the clot, b. partial virus, d. Total virus.
Secondarily infected, c. Bleeding into Ans: (b)
tuberculoma, d. Bleeding of middle 18. H pylori causes
meningeal artery. a. 90% duodenal ulcer, b. 95% gastric
Ans: (a) ulcer, c. 65% duodenal carcinoma, d.
11. A COPD patient has pH pf 6.5, PaCo2 40% duodenal ulcer.
is 60 mmHg and Pao2 is 44mm Mg is Ans: (a)
suffering from: 19. In a patient with heart rate of
a. Respiratory acidosis, b. respiratory 40/minute P wave is absent and QRS
alkalosis, c. Metabolic acidosis, d. complex is normal probably patient must
Metabolic alkalosis. be having
Ans: (a) a. Atrial fibrillation, b. Incomplete AV
12. When iodine is given, it causes block, c. Ectopic pacemaker, d. Sinus
regression of thyroxine is called wolf arrythmia.
chaikoff effect it is used in Ans: (a)
a. Lugol’s iodine is used before operation 20. Regarding toxoplasmosis all are true
in hyperthyroidism, b. Iodine following except
surgery, c. iodine in salt, d. None of the a. 50% of infants are infected in first
above. trimester, b. 65% fetus involved in 3rd
Ans: (a) trimester, c. Perinatal mortality rate is 5-
13. Regarding acute severe asthma all are 10%, d. IgM is seen in 80% of mothers.
true except Ans: (a)
a. Pulses paradoxus, b. Tachypnea, c. 21. In CML all are given except
Tachycardia, d. Decreased Pa Co2 level.
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a. Melphalan, b. Busulphan, c. Interferon, a. Change lentigo maligna into malignant
d. Hydroxyurea melanoma, b. Amelanotic, c. Nodular, d.
Ans: (a) Acral lentiginous.
22. Treatment of choice for pneumocystis Ans: (a)
carinii infection is 6. Which of the following is commonly
a. Cotrimazole, b. Rifampin, c. used solution as preservative during renal
Trimethoprim only, d. Interferon Alpha transplantation.
Ans: (a) a. University of Wisconsin solution
23. Indicators of internal malignancy are (UAW), b. ringer Lacate, c. Dextrose
all except 5%,d. Formalin.
a. Acanthosis nigricans, b. Trosseau’s Ans: (a)
sign, c. Trosier’s node, d. Spider 7. Double bubble sign is seen in
Angiomas. a. Esophageal carcinoma, b. Jejunal
Ans: (b) atresia, c. Duodenal atresia, d,
Omphalocele.
Surgery Ans: (c)
8. After influenza infection a lady
1. Best way to investigate Hemobilia is developed painful thyroid swelling,
a. PTCA, b. Angiography, c. USG, d. diagnosis is
ERCP a. Reidle’s thyroiditis, b. Subacute
Ans: (b) granulomatous thyroiditis, c. Hashimoto’s
2. All of the following predispose to thyroiditis, d. Graves disease.
cholangiocarcinoma except Ans: (b)
a. Previous Cholecystectomy, b. 9. Most common benign lesion ion
Sclerosing cholangitis, c. Choledochal esophagus is’
cyst, d. Inflammatory bowel disease. a. Leiomyoma, b. Neurofibroma, c.
Ans: (a) Lipoma, d. Hemangioma.
3. Regarding hirschsprung’s disease all Ans: (a)
are true except 10. Which is the most dangerous
a. Affected segment will be dilated, b. complication of LGV
Auerbach’s and meissner’s plexus are a. Rectal stricture, b. Uretheral structure,
absent, c. Entire colon is rarely involved, c. Pelvic Abscess, d. Inguinal swelling.
d. More common in females. Ans: (b)
Ans: (d) 11. Regarding crohn’s disease all are true
4. Which of the following is most a. Transmural, b. Fistula are common, c.
common complication after Premalignant lesion, d. Mycobacterium
appendicectomy flavum is the cause.
a. Wound infection, b. Fecal fistula, c. Ans: (d)
Subphrenic abcess, d. Portal pyemia 12. All of the following is associated with
Ans: (a) gastric carcinoma except.
5. Regarding Hutchison freckle which of
the following is true
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a. Previous surgery, b. Group A blood injury, d. Self resolving condition of
group, c. Atrophic gastritis, d. Gastric ankle.
ulcer. Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) 20. Which of the following is
13. Normal portal pressure is premalignant condition
a. 7-10mm of the saline, b. 7-10mm of a. Condyloma acuminata, b. Atypical
Hg, c. 5-7mm Hg, d. 20-30mm Hg. endometrial hyperplasia, c. cervical
Ans: (d) polyp, d. Fordyce spots.
14. Desmoid tumor is Ans: (b)
a. Tumor of anterior abdominal wall, b.
Primary tumor of umblicus, c. Type of Orthopedics
sarcoma, d. Metastasis to umbilicus from
primary in abdomen. 1. March fracture is seen in
Ans: (a) a. 2nd metatarsal, b. metacarpals, c. 3rd
15. Dequervain’s thyroiditis true is all metacarpals, d. 5th metatarsal.
except Ans: (a)
a. Raised Esr, b. Spontaneous resolution, 2. Loosers zone is seen in
c. Increased iodine uptake. D. Follows a. Osteopetrosis, b. Osteomalacia, c.
viral infection. Osteoarthritis, d. osteoporosis.
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
16. Proptosis is seen mainly in 3. Hangman’s fracture is
a. Thyroglossal cyst, b. orbital tumors, c. a. Spondylolisthesis of C2 over C3 , b.
Myxedema, d. Thyrotoxicosis. Fracture of odontoid process, c. Fracture
Ans: (d) of transverse process, d. Dislocation of
17. Synergistic gangrene is caused by C5.
a. Anaerobic streptococcus and Ans: (a)
staphylococci infection, b.
Microaerophilic staphylococci, c.
Closotridium botulinism, d. All of the 4. Bunion is
above. a. Fluid filled bursa over bony
Ans: (a) prominence, b. Benign tumour of
18. Taussig’s operation is sensational bones, c. Communication
a. Extraperitoneal lymphadenectomy, between radial and ulnar bursae, d. Cyst
b. Intraperitoneal between radical and ulnar bursae.
lymphadenectomy, c. Modified Ans: (a)
neck node dissection, d. Pelvic 5. Osteochondroma develops into
extenteration a. Chondrosarcoma, b. Osteosacroma, c.
Ans: (a) Exostosis, d. Osteoma.
19. Meleny’s ulcer is Ans: (a)
a. Due to synergistic action of 6. Test for dequervain’s tenosynovitis is
staphylococci and streptococci, b. Known a. Frankelstein test, b. Phalen’s test, c.
to occur in burns, c. Occurs in head Tinel’s sign, d. Apley grinding test.
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Ans: (a) 4. Embryonic period is after conception
7. Regarding Rheumatoid arthritis all are
to
true except. a. 8 weeks, b. 10 weeks, c. 12 weeks, d.
a. Morning stiffness of less than 15 72 hours.
minutes, b. Small joints of hand are Ans: (a)
involved, c. More then 3 joints are 5. Treatment of choice for stress
involved, d. Symmetrical involvement of incontinence is
joints. a. Bursch operation, b. Manchester
Ans: (a) operation, c. Gallium Operation,
8. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate b. d. Shirodkar sling.
crystals are seen in Ans: (a)
a. Gout, b. Pseudogout, c. Arthritis, d.6. Call exner bodies are seen in
Osteomalacia. a. Granulosa cell tumor, b.
Ans: (b) Dysgerminoma, c. Theca cell tumor, d.
9. Regarding hip joint which of the Endodermal sinus tumor.
following is true. Ans: (a)
a. Flexor retinaculum attaches the head of
7. Litzmans obliquity is
femur to hip bone, b. After fracture neck
a. Nagelle pelvis, b. Normal synclitism, c.
of femur, psoas muscle acts lateral rotator
Anterior synclitism, d. Posterior
of femur, c. Abductor muscles are asynclitism.
supplied by inferior gluteal nerve, d. Ans: (d)
Capsule of hip joint is attached to 8. In the left anterior oblique breech
intertrochantric ridge. presentation diameter of engagement of
Ans: (a) head is
a. Left lateral oblique, b. Right anterior
Obstetrics and Gynecology oblique, c. Occipito transverse, d.
Anterior position.
1. Grayish white frothy discharge per Ans: (b)
vaginum is seen in 9. SLE in pregnancy true in all except
a. Candida, b. Gardenella vaginalis, c. a. Causes recurrent abortion, b. Lupus
Trichomonas, d. All of the above. anticoagulant in an anticoagulant in vitro,
Ans: (b) c. Causes eclampsia, d. Corticosteroids
2. Pregnant woman is anemic when Hb is are contraindicated.
less than Ans: (d)
a. 9gm%, b. 10gm%, c. 11gm%, d. 10. True about cephalhematoma is
12gm%. a. Incompressible and soft, b. Does not
Ans: (c) cross the suture line, c. Present at birth, d.
3. Endometrial carcinoma with involved Surgery is required.
paraaortic lymph node is staged as: - Ans: (b)
a. IIIb, b. IIIc, c. Iva, d. Iva. 11. Most common presentation of
Ans: (b) genitourinary TB is
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a. Oligomenorrhea, b. Menorrhagia, c. a. Immunocompromized, b. Infants, c.
Secondary Amenmorrhea, d. Primary Elderly, d. Old age.
dysmenorrhea. Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) 4. Tinea infection of nail is treated by
12. Menopausal symptoms are due to lack a. Griseofulvin and fluconazole, b.
of Miconazole, d. Whitfields ointment.
a. LH, b. FSH, c. Estrogen, d. Ans: (a)
Progesterone.
Ans: (c) Anaesthesia
13. Which of the following does not cross
placenta 1. Scholine is
a. heparin, b. Warfarin, c. Tetracycline, d.
a. Depolarising muscle relaxant causing
Insulin. prolonged relaxation, b. Is competitive
Ans: (a) muscle relaxant, c. Competitive partial
14. Mifepristone in MTP acts by agonist, d. Competetive agonist.
a. Agonist of progesterone, b. Agonist of Ans: (a)
estrogen, c. Antagonist of progesterone, 2. All of the following is true regarding
d. Antagonist of estrogen. halothane except: -
Ans: (c) a. Causes bronchospasm, b. Sensitisizes
15. AFP can be used to determine all centers to adrenaline, c. Potentiate
except competitive neuromuscular blockers, d.
a. Downs syndrome, b. IUGR, c. Preterm Non inflammable volatile liquid.
infant, d. Neural tube defects. Ans: (a)
Ans: (c) 3. Saddle block anaesthesia true is
16. Suckling releases which hormone a. Epidural anaesthesia of sacral region,
from pituitary b. Hyperbaric solution injected in spinal
a. Prolactin, Oxytocin, c. Somatostatin, d.canal, c. Anesthetic moves up in spinal
Somatomedin canal, d. Inferior gluteal nerve block.
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
4. Caudal anaesthesia is
Skin a. Anesthetic injection in coccygeal canal,
b. For perineal and rectal surgery, c.
1. Silvery scales on erythematous bone is Injection into umbilical vein, d. Same as
seen in epidural.
a. Pemphigus, b. Pityriasis versicolor, c. Ans: (b)
Psoriasis, d. Erythema nodosum.
Ans: (c)
2. Ultra violet light most commonly
effects
a. Skin, b. Liver, c. Lung, d. Kidney.
Ans: (a)
3. Norwegian scabies is most seen in
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5. Post spinal anaesthesia headache is due For More Pre PG Questions, answers,
to explanations visit www.aippg.com/pg
a. Increase in amount of CSF, b. Leakage The AIPPG Unified Question Download
of CSF, c. Bleeding of epidural veins, d. System.
Tonsillar herniation.
Ans: (b) Visit our message board at
www.aippg.com/messageboard.html
Radiology
This paper was contributed by Dr. Prashant
1. Cardiac hypertrophy is diagnosed by Gupta , MD(patho),Ex- B.S.Medical College,
Bankura, West Bengal and Dr. Shraddha
a. Chest X-ray, b. Cardiac biopsy
Agarwal, Ex- Mysore Medical College, Mysore
(histology of left ventricle), c. Left
ventricular thickness, d. Weighing the
heart.
Ans: (b)
2. Pseudoparalysis rosary, frenkel’s line,
pencil thin cortex on X-ray is
a. Vitamin C deficiency, b. Vitamin D
deficiency, c. Vitamin A deficiency, d.
Fatty acid deficiency.
Ans: (a)