Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on Network Models: Set 1

1. The Internet model consists of _______ layers. A) Three B) Five C) Seven D) Eight

2. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the _______ layer. A) Network B) Transport C) Application D) Physical 3. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium. A) Physical B) Data link C) Network D) Transport 4. Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer. A) Data link B) Physical C) Transport D) Application

5. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are _______. A) Added B) Removed C) Rearranged D) Modified

6. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layer. A) Physical B) Data link C) Transport D) None of the above

7. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer.

A) Network B) Data link C) Transport D) None of the above 8. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 4 is read by B's _______ layer. A) Physical B) Transport C) Application D) None of the above 9. The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals. A) Physical B) Data link C) Transport D) None of the above

10. Which of the following is an application layer service? A) Remote log-in B) File transfer and access C) Mail service D) All the above 11. Why was the OSI model developed? A) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite. B) The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially C) Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate D) None of the above

12. The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to be organized. A) CCITT B) OSI C) ISO D) ANSI 13. The physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over the physical medium. A) programs B) dialogs C) protocols D) bits

14. The OSI model consists of _______ layers.

A) three B) five C) seven D) eight 15. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______. A) added B) removed C) rearranged D) modified

16. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer. A) physical B) transport C) session D) presentation

17. In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer? A) node-to-node delivery B) process-to-process message delivery C) synchronization D) updating and maintenance of routing tables

18. In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the ________ layer. A) transport B) session C) presentation D) application

19. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address does the router look at? A) port B) logical C) physical D) none of the above

20. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted. A) port

B) IP C) physical D) none of the above

21. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses. A) 32 B) 64 C) 128 D) variable

22. ICMPv6 includes _______. A) IGMP B) ARP C) RARP D) a and b

23. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next. A) physical B) data link C) transport D) none of the above

24. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer that includes the logical addresses of the sender and receiver. A) physical B) data link C) network D) none of the above 1. B) Five 2. B) Transport 3. A) Physical 4. D) Application 5. A) Added 6. C) Transport 7. A) Network 8. B) Transport 9. A) Physical 10. D) All the above 11. C) Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate 12. B) OSI 13. D) bits

14. C) 15. B) 16. C) 17. B) 18. C) 19. B) 20. A) 21. C) 22. D) 23. B) 24. C)

seven removed session process-to-process message delivery presentation logical port 128 a and b data link network

1. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another. A) physical B) transport C) network D) none of the above

2. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol. A) reliable B) connection-oriented C) both a and b D) none of the above

3. _______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from the upper layer. A) TCP B) UDP C) IP D) none of the above

4. __________ provides full transport layer services to applications. A) TCP B) UDP C) ARP D) none of the above

5. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. A) port B) physical

C) logical D) none of the above

6. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network interface card (NIC). A) 32-bit B) 64-bit C) 6-byte D) none of the above

7. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long. A) 32 B) 48 C) 16 D) none of the above

8. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which allows diverse systems to communicate. A) OSI B) ISO C) IEEE D) none of the above

9. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development of universally compatible networking protocols. A) OSI B) ISO C) IEEE D) none of the above

10. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support layers. A) user B) network C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

11. The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support layers. A) user B) network C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)

12. The _______ layer links the network support layers and the user support layers. A) transport B) network C) data link D) session

13. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream over a physical medium. A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical 14. The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data units from one station to the next without errors. A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical

15. The ______ layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet across multiple network links. A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical

16. The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery of the entire message. A) transport B) network C) data link D) physical 17. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between communicating devices. A) transport B) network C) session D) physical

18. The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices through transformation of data into a mutually agreed upon format. A) transport B) network C) data link D) presentation

19. The _________ layer enables the users to access the network. A) transport B) application C) data link D) physical

20. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI model. A) seven-layer; before B) five-layer; before C) six-layer; before D) five-layer; after 21. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI model. A) application B) network C) data link D) physical 22. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. A) physical B) IP C) port D) specific 23. The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet. A) physical B) IP C) port D) specific

24. The_____ address identifies a process on a host. A) physical B) IP

C) port D) specific 1. B) transport 2. D) none of the above 3. B) UDP 4. A) TCP 5. B) physical 6. C) 6-byte 7. C) 16 8. B) ISO 9. A) OSI 10. B) network 11. A) user 12. A) transport 13. D) physical 14. C) data link 15. B) network 16. A) transport 17. C) session 18. D) presentation 19. B) application 20. B) five-layer; before 21. A) application 22. A) physical 23. B) IP 24. C) port 25. 1. What term is used to describe two or more computers that are linked to each other? 26. A) Star connection 27. B) Computer system 28. C) Computer network 29. D) Net 30. 31. 2. What interface card do you need to connect to a network? 32. A) ISP card 33. B) Wireless card 34. C) Router 35. D) NIC 36. 37. 3. Which of the following is not described as a typical network classification? 38. A) Local area network 39. B) Wide area network 40. C) Metropolitan area network 41. D) County area network 42.

43. 4. What type of network device allows you to share your connection to the Internet with other computers in your home? 44. A) Ethernet card 45. B) NIC 46. C) Router 47. D) Cat 5 48. 49. 5. What is another name for a shared network? 50. A) WAP 51. B) Switch 52. C) Broadband router 53. D) Hub 54. 55. 6. What type of network is commonly used in a college lab environment? 56. A) WAN 57. B) MAN 58. C) LAN 59. D) CAN 60. 61. 7. What type of network is commonly used in an international organization? 62. A) WAN 63. B) MAN 64. C) LAN 65. D) CAN 66. 67. 8. What is the term used to describe the amount of space you have to transmit to and from the Internet? 68. A) Internet speed 69. B) Network speed 70. C) Router 71. D) Bandwidth 72. 73. 9. Which of the following high-speed circuits is the fastest? 74. A) T1 75. B) T2 76. C) T3 77. D) DS3 78. 79. 10. What type of communication media is the most widely used cabling for data transfer today? 80. A) Cat 5 81. B) Twisted pair 82. C) Coaxial 83. D) Optical fiber 84. 85. ANSWERS:

1 C

2 D

3 D

4 C

5 D

6 C

7 A

8 D

9 D

10 A

1. A) B) C) D)

Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to ________. periodic signals electromagnetic signals aperiodic signals low-frequency sine waves

2. A) B) C) D)

A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency? 1 Hz 100 Hz 1 KHz 1 MHz

3. A) B) C) D)

In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________. peak amplitude frequency phase slope

4. A) B)

In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________. signal amplitude frequency

C) D)

phase time

5. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what is the highest frequency? A) B) C) D) 5 KHz 10 KHz 47 KHz 57 KHz

6. A) B) C) D)

What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz? 4 MHz 1 KHz 3 MHz none of the above

7. A) B) C) D)

As frequency increases, the period ________. decreases increases remains the same doubles

8. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then the period of B is ________ that of A.

A) B) C) D)

one-half twice the same as indeterminate from

9. A) B) C) D)

A sine wave is ________. periodic and continuous aperiodic and continuous periodic and discrete aperiodic and discrete

10. V. A) B) C) D)

If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is ________

2 1 -2 between -2 and 2

11. A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first point and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. This means ________. A) B) C) D) P2 is zero P2 equals P1 P2 is much larger than P1 P2 is much smaller than P1

12. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the resistance of the transmission medium. A) B) C) D) Attenuation Distortion Noise Decibel

13. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal. A) B) C) D) Attenuation Distortion Noise Decibel

14. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal. A) B) C) D) Attenuation Distortion Noise Decibel

15. A) B)

When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the ________. throughput wavelength of the signal

C) D)

distortion factor distance a signal or bit has traveled

16. A) B) C) D)

Data can be ________. analog digital (a) or (b) none of the above

17. A) B) C) D)

_______ data are continuous and take continuous values. analog digital (a) or (b) none of the above

ANSWERS:

1 B

2 C

3 B

4 D

5 D

6 C

7 A

8 B

9 A

10 C

11 B

12 A

13 B

14 C

15 D

16 C

17 A

1. A) B) C)

_______ data have discrete states and take discrete values. Analog Digital (a) or (b)

D)

None of the above

2. A) B) C) D)

Signals can be ________. analog digital either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

3. A) B) C) D)

_____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a range. Analog Digital (a) or (b) None of the above

4. A) B) C) D)

_______ signals can have only a limited number of values. Analog Digital (a) or (b) None of the above

5. A) B)

Frequency and period are ______. inverse of each other proportional to each other

C) D)

the same none of the above

6. A) B) C) D)

________is the rate of change with respect to time. Amplitude Time Frequency Voltage

7. A) B) C) D)

_______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0. Frequency Phase Amplitude Voltage

8. A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single spike in the _____ domain. A) B) C) D) time; frequency frequency; time time; phase phase; time

9. A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications; we need to send a _______ signal.

A) B) C) D)

composite; single-frequency single-frequency; composite single-frequency; double-frequency none of the above

10. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the lowest frequencies contained in that signal. A) B) C) D) frequency period bandwidth amplitude

11. A) B) C) D)

A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an infinite bandwidth. digital analog either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

12. A) B) C) D)

Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____ channel. low-pass bandpass low rate high rate

13. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the channel. A) B) C) D) low-pass bandpass low rate high rate

14. rate. A) B) C) D)

For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical maximum bit

noisy noiseless bandpass low-pass

15. rate. A) B) C) D)

For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the maximum bit

noisy noiseless bandpass low-pass

16. A) B) C)

_________ can impair a signal. Attenuation Distortion Noise

D)

All of the above

17. A) B) C) D)

The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link. bandwidth-period frequency-amplitude bandwidth-delay delay-amplitude

ANSWERS:

1 B

2 C

3 A

4 B

5 A

6 C

7 B

8 A

9 B

10 C

11 A

12 A

13 B

14 B

15 A

16 D

17 C

1. A) B) C) D)

Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding. line block NRZ Manchester

2. A) B) C) D)

_______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit. RZ Manchester Differential Manchester All the above

3. A) B) C) D)

_______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit. RZ Manchester Differential Manchester All the above

4. A) B) C) D)

PCM is an example of _______ conversion. digital-to-digital digital-to-analog analog-to-analog analog-to-digital

5. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to the Nyquist theorem? A) B) C) D) 200 samples/s 500 samples/s 1000 samples/s 1200 samples/s

6. A) B) C)

The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be_______. equal to the lowest frequency of a signal equal to the highest frequency of a signal twice the bandwidth of a signal

D)

twice the highest frequency of a signal

7. A) B) C) D)

Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for synchronization? NRZ-L RZ NRZ-I Manchester

8. A) B) C) D)

Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s? NRZ-I RZ Manchester AMI

9. A) B) C) D)

Which quantization level results in a more faithful reproduction of the signal? 2 8 16 32

10. A) B)

Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver. Synchronization Error detection

C) D)

Attenuation (a) and (b)

11. A) B) C) D)

In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its own wire. Asynchronous serial Synchronous serial Parallel (a) and (b)

12. A) B) C) D)

In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a time. asynchronous serial synchronous serial parallel (a) and (b)

13. A) B) C) D)

In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte. asynchronous serial synchronous serial parallel (a) and (b)

14. A)

In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______. fixed

B) C) D)

variable a function of the data rate zero

15. ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block coding, and scrambling. A) B) C) D) Analog-to-digital Digital-to-analog Analog-to-analog Digital-to-digital

16. A) B) C) D)

________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal. Block coding Line coding Scrambling None of the above

17. A) B) C) D)

_______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherent error detection. Block coding Line coding Scrambling None of the above

18. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit group with an n-bit group. A) B) C) D) Block coding Line coding Scrambling None of the above

19. A) B) C) D)

________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits. Scrambling Line coding Block coding None of the above

20. A) B) C) D)

Two common scrambling techniques are ________. NRZ and RZ AMI and NRZ B8ZS and HDB3 Manchester and differential Manchester

21. The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is called __________. A) B) C) PAL PCM sampling

D)

none of the above

22. A) B) C) D)

The first step in PCM is ________. quantization modulation sampling none of the above

23. A) B) C) D)

There are three sampling methods: __________. quantized, sampled, and ideal ideal, sampled, and flat-top ideal, natural, and flat-top none of the above

24. ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds the change from the previous sample. A) B) C) D) DM; PCM PCM; DM DM; CM none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 A D C D D D A D D D C D A B D B A A A C B C C B

1. While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is (are) three subclass(es) of serial transmission. A) B) C) D) one; two two; three one; three none of the above

2. In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 or more stop bits (1s) at the end of each byte. A) B) C) D) synchronous asynchronous isochronous none of the above

3. In _________ transmission, we send bits one after another without start or stop bits or gaps. It is the responsibility of the receiver to group the bits. A) B) C) D) synchronous asynchronous isochronous none of the above

4. The ________ mode provides synchronization for the entire stream of bits must. In other words, it guarantees that the data arrive at a fixed rate. A) B) synchronous asynchronous

C) D)

isochronous none of the above

5. A) B) C) D)

A _________ digital signal includes timing information in the data being transmitted. self-synchronizing self-modulated self-transmitted none of the above

6. In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a running average of the received signal power, called the _______. A) B) C) D) baseline base line none of the above

7. The ________ rate defines the number of data elements sent in 1s; the ______ rate is the number of signal elements sent in 1s. A) B) C) D) data; signal signal; data baud; bit none of the above

8.

The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate.

A) B) C) D)

baud bit signal none of the above

9. A) B) C) D)

The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate. baud bit signal none of the above

10. In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the time axis, either above or below. A) B) C) D) polar bipolar unipolar all of the above

11. In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides of the time axis. For example, the voltage level for 0 can be positive and the voltage level for 1 can be negative. A) B) C) D) polar bipolar unipolar all of the above

12. A) B) C) D)

In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. NRZ-I NRZ-L both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b)

13. In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. A) B) C) D) NRZ-I NRZ-L both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b)

14. A) B) C) D)

The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-L are combined into the ________ scheme. Manchester differential Manchester both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b)

15. A) B) C)

The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-I are combined into the ________ scheme. Manchester differential Manchester both (a) and (b)

D)

neither (a) nor (b)

16. In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two halves. The voltage remains at one level during the first half and moves to the other level in the second half. The transition at the middle of the bit provides synchronization. A) B) C) D) Manchester differential Manchester both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b)

17. In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of the bit, but the bit values are determined at the beginning of the bit. If the next bit is 0, there is a transition; if the next bit is 1, there is none. A) B) C) D) Manchester differential Manchester both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b)

18. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the middle of the bit is used for __________. A) B) C) D) bit transfer baud transfer synchronization none of the above

19. NRZ. A) B) C) D)

The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is ____ that of

the same as twice thrice none of the above

20. A) B) C) D)

In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative. unipolar bipolar polar none of the above

21 The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit patterns as one signal element belonging to a four-level signal. A) B) C) D) 4B5B 2B1Q MLT-3 none of the above

22. The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and -V) and three transition rules to move between the levels. A) B) C) 4B5B 2B1Q MLT-3

D)

none of the above

23. A) B) C) D)

______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB. B4B8 HDB3 B8ZS none of the above

24. A) B) C) D)

______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V B4B8 HDB3 B8ZSf none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 C B A C A A A A B C A B A A B C B C B B B C C B

1. A) B) C) D)

ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion. digital-to-digital digital-to-analog analog-to-analog analog-to-digital

2. A) B) C) D)

AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion. digital-to-digital digital-to-analog analog-to-analog analog-to-digital

3. A) B) C) D)

In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied. frequency and amplitude phase and frequency amplitude and phase none of the above

4. A) B) C) D)

If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ________ bps. 100 400 800 1600

5. A) B) C) D)

If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________. 300 400 600 1200

6. A) B) C) D)

If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________. 300 400 600 1200

7. A) B) C) D)

If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the baud rate? 300 400 1000 1200

8. A) B) C) D)

If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit rate? 300 400 1000 12000

9. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of the carrier signal? A) B) C) 700 KHz 705 KHz 710 KHz

D)

Cannot be determined from given information

10. _______ conversion is the process of changing one of the characteristics of an analog signal based on the information in the digital data. A) B) C) D) Digital-to-analog Analog-to-analog Analog-to-digital Digital-to-digital

11. A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog conversion? ASK PSK FSK AM

12. In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal elements. Both frequency and phase remain constant. A) B) C) D) ASK PSK FSK QAM

13. In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to represent data. Both peak amplitude and phase remain constant. A) ASK

B) C) D)

PSK FSK QAM

14. In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or more different signal elements. Both peak amplitude and frequency remain constant. A) B) C) D) ASK PSK FSK QAM

15. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal element, particularly when we are using two carriers (one in-phase and one quadrature). A) B) C) D) amplitude and phase amplitude and frequency frequency and phase none of the above

16. A) B) C) D)

Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________. ASK and FSK ASK and PSK PSK and FSK none of the above

17. A) B) C) D)

________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other quadrature. ASK PSK FSK QAM

18. A) B) C) D)

_________ conversion is the representation of analog information by an analog signal. Digital-to-analog Analog-to-analog Analog-to-digital Digital-to-digital

19. A) B) C) D)

Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is _______. low-pass band-pass either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

20. A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog conversion? AM PM FM QAM

21. In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its amplitude varies with the changing amplitudes of the modulating signal. A) B) C) D) AM PM FM none of the above

22. In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. The peak amplitude and phase of the carrier signal remain constant, but as the amplitude of the information signal changes, the frequency of the carrier changes correspondingly. A) B) C) D) AM PM FM none of the above

23. In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. A) B) C) D) AM PM FM none of the above

24. In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the same as the amplitude of the carrier frequency.

A) B) C) D)

PSK OOK FSK none of the above

25. A) B) C) D)

How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK? 2 1 0 none of the above

26. A) B) C) D)

How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK? 2 1 0 none of the above

27. A) B) C) D)

How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK? 2 1 0 none of the above

28. A) B) C) D)

How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK? 2 1 0 none of the above

29. A) B) C) D)

The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots. 2 1 0 none of the above

30. A) B) C) D)

The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots. 2 1 0 none of the above

31. A) B) C) D)

The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots. 2 1 4 none of the above

32. A) B) C) D)

The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ dots. 4 16 8 none of the above

33. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each AM station. A) B) C) D) 5 10 20 none of the above

34. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for each FM station. A) B) C) D) 20 100 200 none of the above

ANSWERS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 B C C C D D C D A A D A C B A B D B B D A C B B B A B A A A C B B

1. A) B) C) D)

The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _______. modulation encoding line discipline multiplexing

2. A) B) C) D)

Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals? FDM TDM WDM (a) and (c)

3. A) B) C) D)

Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals? FDM TDM WDM None of the above

4. A) B) C) D)

Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency? FDM TDM Both (a) and (b) None of the above

5. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains _______ slots. A) B) C) D) n n+1 n-1 0 to n

6. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources. A) B) C) D) greater than less than equal to not related to

7. A) B) C) D)

Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams? FDM TDM WDM none of the above

8. A) B)

_________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific goals. Frequency Bandwidth

C) D)

Amplitude None of the above

9. ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by using spreading. A) B) C) D) Efficiency; privacy and antijamming Privacy and antijamming; efficiency Privacy and efficiency; antijamming Efficiency and antijamming; privacy

10. ________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals across a single data link. A) B) C) D) Demodulating Multiplexing Compressing None of the above

11. A) B) C) D)

In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link. 1; n 1; 1 n; 1 n; n

12.

The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a transmission.

A) B) C) D)

channel; link link; channel line; channel line; link

13. ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater than the combined bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted. A) B) C) D) TDM FDM Both (a) or (b) Neither (a) or (b)

14. A) B) C) D)

FSM is an _________technique. analog digital either (a) or (b) none of the above

15. A) B) C) D)

____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable. FDM TDM WDM None of the above

16. A) B) C) D)

______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals. FDM TDM WDM None of the above

17. _____ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high bandwidth of a link. A) B) C) D) FDM TDM WDM None of the above

18. _____ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate channels into one high-rate one. A) B) C) D) FDM TDM WDM None of the above

19. A) B) C)

We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or statistical. FDM TDM WDM

D)

none of the above

20. In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output even if it is not sending data. A) B) C) D) synchronous statistical isochronous none of the above

21. A) B) C) D)

In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth efficiency. synchronous statistical isochronous none of the above

22 . A) B) C) D)

In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a larger bandwidth. spread spectrum line coding block coding none of the above

23. _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the medium without interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a malicious intruder. A) Spread spectrum

B) C) D)

Multiplexing Modulation None of the above.

24. The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are modulated by the source signal. At one moment, the sign modulates one carrier frequency; at the next moment, the signal modulates another carrier frequency. A) B) C) D) FDM DSSS FHSS TDM

25. The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing each data bit with n bits. A) B) C) D) FDM DSSS FHSS TDM

ANSWERS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 D D B A A A C B A B C A B A C C B B B A B A A C B

1. A)

Transmission media are usually categorized as _______. fixed or unfixed

B) C) D)

guided or unguided determinate or indeterminate metallic or nonmetallic

2. A) B) C) D)

Transmission media lie below the _______ layer. physical network transport application

3. A) B) C) D)

_______ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting outer sheath. Twisted-pair Coaxial Fiber-optic Shielded twisted-pair

4. A) B) C) D)

In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves. light radio infrared very low-frequency

5.

Which of the following primarily uses guided media?

A) B) C) D)

cellular telephone system local telephone system satellite communications radio broadcasting

6. A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is not a guided medium? twisted-pair cable coaxial cable fiber-optic cable atmosphere

7. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than twisted-pair cable? A) B) C) D) inner conductor diameter of cable outer conductor insulating material

8. A) B) C) D)

In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding. denser than less dense than the same density as another name for

9. A) B) C) D)

The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition. glass or plastic copper bimetallic liquid

10. When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, _______ occurs. A) B) C) D) reflection refraction incidence criticism

11. When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam bends along the interface. A) B) C) D) more than less than equal to none of the above

12. A) B) C)

Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation. ground sky line-of-sight

D)

none of the above

13. A) B) C) D)

Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use ______ propagation. ground sky line-of-sight none of the above

14. A) B) C) D)

Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation. ground sky line-of-sight none of the above

15. A) B) C) D)

A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna. omnidirectional bidirectional unidirectional horn

16. A) B)

A(n) _____ medium provides a physical conduit from one device to another. guided unguided

C) D)

either (a) or (b) none of the above

17. A) B) C) D)

________ cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together. Coaxial Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above

18. A) B) C) D)

_______ cable is used for voice and data communications. Coaxial Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above

19. A) B) C) D)

__________ consists of a central conductor and a shield. Coaxial Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above

20. A)

_____ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _____ cable. Twisted-pair; fiber-optic

B) C) D)

Coaxial; fiber-optic Coaxial; twisted-pair none of the above

21. ______ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by cladding, all encased in an outside jacket. A) B) C) D) Coaxial Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above

22. A) B) C) D)

______ cables carry data signals in the form of light. Coaxial Fiber-optic Twisted-pair none of the above

23. A) B) C) D)

In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by _______. reflection refraction modulation none of the above

24. _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of a physical conductor. A) B) C) D) Guided Unguided Either (a) or (b) None of the above

25. A) B) C) D)

Radio waves are _________. omnidirectional unidirectional bidirectional none of the above

26. A) B) C) D)

Microwaves are _________. omnidirectional unidirectional bidirectional none of the above

27. A) B) C) D)

_______ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN communications. Radio waves Microwaves Infrared waves none of the above

28. ________ are used for short-range communications such as those between a PC and a peripheral device. A) B) C) D) Radio waves Microwaves Infrared waves none of the above

ANSWERS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 B A B A B D C A A A C A B C C A C C A C B B A B A B B C 1. Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been important. A) B) C) D) four three five six

2. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories. A) B) C) D) four three five two

3. Packet-switched networks can also be divided into ______subcategories: virtual-circuit networks and datagram networks A) B) C) D) four three two five

4. A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical links, in which each link is divided into n channels. A) B) C) D) line-switched frame-switched circuit-switched none of the above

5. Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer. A) B) C) D) data line physical network transport

6. In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase; the resources remain dedicated for the entire duration of data transfer phase until the teardown phase. A) B) C) datagram switching circuit switching frame switching

D)

none of the above

7. In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet. A) B) C) D) datagram switching circuit switching frame switching none of the above

8. In _________, resources are allocated on demand. A) B) C) D) datagram switching circuit switching frame switching none of the above

9. In __________, each packet is treated independently of all others. A) B) C) D) datagram switching circuit switching frame switching none of the above

10. In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases. A) B) C) datagram switching circuit switching frame switching

D)

none of the above

11. A _________ network is a cross between a circuit-switched network and a datagram network. It has some characteristics of both. A) B) C) D) virtual-circuit packet-switched frame-switched none of the above

12. We can say that a packet switch has _______ types of components. A) B) C) D) two three four none of the above

13. The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______ switch. A) B) C) D) crosspoint crossbar TSI STS

14. A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at each stage that route the packets based on the output port represented as a binary string. A) B) crossbar TSI

C) D)

banyan none of the above

15. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages. A) B) C) D) 8 4 3 2

16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ microswitches at each stage. A) B) C) D) 8 4 3 2

17. A ________ switch combines space-division and time-division technologies to take advantage of the best of both. A) B) C) D) TST SSS TTT none of the above

18. The most popular technology in time-division switching is called the _________. A) STI

B) C) D)

ITS TSI none of the above

19. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to or greater than ____. A) B) C) D) 10 20 30 40

20. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be equal to or greater than ____. A) B) C) D) 21 19 31 41

21. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the minimum number of crosspoints is greater than or equal to _______. A) B) C) D) 15,200 18,000 42,000 20,000

22. In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______.

A) B) C) D)

10,000 20,000 40,000 30,000

23. In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______. A) B) C) D) 40,000 greater than 40,000 less than 40,000 greater than 100,000

24. A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in several (normally three) stages. A) B) C) D) multistage multiple crossbar multiple path none of the above

25. In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one another spatially. A) B) C) D) time-division space-division two-dimensional three-dimensional

26. A switched WAN is normally implemented as a _______ network.

A) B) C) D)

virtual-circuit datagram circuit-switched none of the above

27. In a ________ network, two types of addressing are involved: global and local. A) B) C) D) virtual-circuit datagram circuit-switched none of the above

28. The network layer in the Internet is designed as a __________ network. A) B) C) D) virtual-circuit datagram circuit-switched none of the above

29. A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table that is based on the ______ address. A) B) C) D) source destination local none of the above

30. The _______ address in the header of a packet in a datagram network normally remains the same during the entire journey of the packet. A) B) C) D) source destination local none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 B B C C B B A A A A A C B C C B A C A B A C C A B A A B B

1. A) B) C) D)

A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network. packet-switched circuit-switched message-switched none of the above

2. The local loop has _______ cable that connects the subscriber telephone to the nearest end office. A) B) C) D) twisted-pair coaxial fiber-optic none of the above

3.

Data from a computer are _______; the local loop handles _______ signals.

A) B) C) D)

analog; analog analog; digital digital; digital digital; analog

4. _______ is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and downstream data rates. A) B) C) D) VDSL ADSL SDSL (a) and (b)

5. A) B) C) D)

DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of _______ and _______. FDM; TDM QDM; QAM FDM; QAM PSK; FSK

6. A) B) C) D)

The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______. voice communication upstream data downstream data control data

7. A) B) C) D)

_______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line. VDSL ADSL SDSL HDSL

8. A) B) C) D)

HDSL encodes data using _______. 4B/5B 2B1Q 1B2Q 6B/8T

9. A) B) C) D)

Another name for the cable TV office is the _______. splitter fiber node combiner head end

10. A) B) C) D)

A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______. upstream downstream upstream and downstream none of the above

11. In an HFC network, the downstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique. A) B) C) D) PSK QAM PCM ASK

12. In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique. A) B) C) D) QAM QPSK PCM ASK

13. A) B) C) D)

The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is called _______. MCNS DOCSIS CMTS ADSL

14. The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain old telephone system (POTS), was an ________ system. A) B) digital analog

C) D)

digital as well as analog none of the above

15. A) B) C) D)

The modern telephone network is now ________. digital analog digital as well as analog none of the above

16. A) B) C) D)

The telephone network is made of ______ major components. 2 3 4 none of the above

17. A) B) C) D)

The United States is divided into many _______. LECs LATAs IXCs none of the above

18. A)

The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called a(n) _____ . POP

B) C) D)

IXC LEC none of the above

19. A) B) C) D)

The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called a(n) _______. POP IXC LEC none of the above

20. A) B) C) D)

In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling and data. in-band out-of-band mixed none of the above

21. In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for signaling and another portion for data. A) B) C) D) in-band out-of-band mixed none of the above

22.

The protocol that is used for signaling in the telephone network is called ______.

A) B) C) D)

POP SSS SS7 none of the above

23. Telephone companies provide two types of analog services: analog _______ services and analog _____services. A) B) C) D) switched; in-band out-of-band; in-band switched; leased leased; out-of-band

24. A) B) C) D)

The two most common digital services are ________ service and ______. switched/56; switched/64 switched/56; DDS DDS; swiched 64 leased; out-of-band

25. The term modem is a composite word that refers to the two functional entities that make up the device: a signal _______ and a signal _______. A) B) C) D) modulator; demodulator demodulator; modulator modern; demo none of the above

26. A) B) C) D)

Most popular modems available are based on the ________standards. V-series X-series VX-series none of the above

27. ______technology is a set of technologies develpoed by the telephone companies to provide high data rate transmission. A) B) C) D) ASL DSL LDS none of the above

28. A) B) C) D)

The traditional cable TV system used ________cable end to end. twisted-pair coaxial fiber-optic none of the above

29. A) B) C)

The second generation of cable networks is called a(n) _________ network. HFC HCF CFH

D)

none of the above

30. A) B) C) D)

The HFC network uses _______ cable. twisted-pair coaxial fiber-optic a combination of (b) and (c)

31. To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key devices: a ______ and a _________ A) B) C) D) CM; CMS CT; CMTS CM; CMTS none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 B A D C C C D B D B B B B B C B B C B A B C C B A A B B A D 1. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic? A) B) C) D) Simple parity check Two-dimensional parity check CRC Checksum

2. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit? A) B) C) D) Simple parity check Two-dimensional parity check CRC Checksum

3. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC? A) B) C) D) The divisor The quotient The dividend The remainder

4. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC. A) B) C) D) The same size as one bit less than one bit more than none of the above

5. A burst error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed. A) B) C) D) double-bit burst single-bit none of the above

6. In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors without requesting retransmission. A) B) C) D) backward onward forward none of the above

7. In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the sender to send the data again. A) B) C) D) backward retransmission forward none of the above

8. We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories: ________ and ______coding. A) B) C) D) block; linear linear; nonlinear block; convolution none of the above

9. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results. A) B) C) addition and multiplication addition and division addition and subtraction

D)

none of the above

10. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation for both addition and subtraction. A) B) C) D) XOR OR AND none of the above

11. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called ___. A) B) C) D) block; blockwords linear; datawords block; datawords none of the above

12. We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The resulting n-bit blocks are called _________. A) B) C) D) datawords blockwords codewords none of the above

13. The ________ between two words is the number of differences between corresponding bits. A) B) Hamming code Hamming distance

C) D)

Hamming rule none of the above

14. To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be _______. A) B) C) D) 5 6 11 none of the above

15. To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be ________. A) B) C) D) 5 6 11 none of the above

16. In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid codewords creates another valid codeword. A) B) C) D) XORing ORing ANDing none of the above

17. A simple parity-check code can detect __________ errors.

A) B) C) D)

an even-number of two no errors an odd-number of

18. _______codes are special linear block codes with one extra property. If a codeword is rotated, the result is another codeword. A) B) C) D) Non-linear Convolution Cyclic none of the above

19. The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______. A) B) C) D) correction; detection detection; correction creation; correction creation; detection

20. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range ______, inclusive. A) B) C) D) 1 to 10 1 to 11 0 to 10 none of the above

21. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only ______. A) B) C) D) 1 and 2 0 and 2 0 and 1 none of the above

22. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in _________. A) B) C) D) 1 2 0 none of the above

23. In block coding, if k =2 and n =3, we have _______ invalid codewords. A) B) C) D) 8 4 2 none of the above

24. The Hamming distance between equal codewords is _________. A) B) C) D) 1 n 0 none of the above

25. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________. A) B) C) D) 2 0 1 none of the above

26. In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming distance between two codewords is ________. A) B) C) D) 2 3 5 none of the above

27. If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the corresponding codeword is three, there are _____ bits in error. A) B) C) D) 3 4 5 none of the above

28. The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the polynomial. A) B) range degree

C) D)

power none of the above

29. The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________. A) B) C) D) degree generator redundancy none of the above

30. A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect all odd-numbered errors. A) B) C) D) x x+1 1 none of the above

31. Checksums use _________ arithmetic. A) B) C) D) two's complement arithmetic one's complement arithmetic either (a) or (b) none of the above

32. In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is ________. A) 1111

B) C) D)

1101 1000 none of the above

33. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________. A) B) C) D) 1111 0000 1110 0111

34. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________. A) B) C) D) 1111 0000 1110 0111

Answers:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 3 D A D C B C B C C A C C B B C A D C A C C C B C A C A B B B B C B A

1. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers? A) B) C) 0 to 63 0 to 64 1 to 63

D)

1 to 64

2. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _______ to the sender. A) B) C) D) 5 6 7 any of the above

3. A) B) C) D)

ARQ stands for _______. Automatic repeat quantization Automatic repeat request Automatic retransmission request Acknowledge repeat request

4. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are needed. A) B) C) D) exactly 10 less than 10 more than 10 none of the above

5. A)

HDLC is an acronym for _______. High-duplex line communication

B) C) D)

High-level data link control Half-duplex digital link combination Host double-level circuit

6. A) B) C) D)

Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______ communication. node-to-node host-to-host process-to-process none of the above

7. _______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to a destination, or from other messages going from other sources to other destinations. A) B) C) D) Digitizing Controlling Framing none of the above

8. A) B) C) D)

In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames. fixed-size variable-size standard none of the above

9.

In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the boundary of two frames.

A) B) C) D)

fixed-size variable-size standard none of the above

10. _________framing uses two categories of protocols: character-oriented and bitoriented. A) B) C) D) Fixed-size Variable-size Standard None of the above

11. A) B) C) D)

In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of characters. bit-oriented character-oriented either (a) or (b) none of the above

12. A) B) C) D)

In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits. byte-oriented bit-oriented either (a) or (b) none of the above

13. A) B) C) D)

In _________ protocols, we use ________. character-oriented; byte stuffing character-oriented; bit stuffing bit-oriented; character stuffing none of the above

14. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there is a character with the same pattern as the ______. A) B) C) D) header trailer flag none of the above

15. A) B) C) D)

In ________ protocols, we use ________. byte-oriented; bit stuffing character-oriented; bit stuffing bit-oriented; bit stuffing none of the above

16. Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a sequence of bits with the same pattern as the ________. A) B) C) header trailer flag

D)

none of the above

17. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment. A) B) C) D) Flow Error Transmission none of the above

18. A) B) C) D)

______ control refers to methods of error detection and correction. Flow Error Transmission none of the above

19. A) B) C) D)

The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait Protocol are for ______ channels. noisy noiseless either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

20. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for ______ channels. A) noisy

B) C) D)

noiseless either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

21. A) B) C) D)

The ____ Protocol has neither flow nor error control. Stop-and-Wait Simplest Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ

22. A) B) C) D)

The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control. Stop-and-Wait Simplest Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ

23. A) B) C) D)

The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control. Stop-and-Wait Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ both (b) and (c)

Answers:

1 A

2 C

3 B

4 A

5 B

6 A

7 C

8 A

9 B

10 11 B B

12 13 B A

14 C

15 16 C C

17 18 19 A B B

20 21 A B

22 23 A D

1. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another with no regard to the receiver. A) B) C) D) Stop-and-Wait Simplest Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ

2. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it receives confirmation from the receiver, and then sends the next frame. A) B) C) D) Stop-and-Wait Simplest Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ

3. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the _______Protocol. A) B) C) D) Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ none of the above

4. In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, we resend all outstanding frames.

A) B) C) D)

Stop-and-Wait ARQ Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ none of the above

5. In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission by sending only frames that are corrupted. A) B) C) D) Stop-and-Wait ARQ Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ none of the above

6. A) B) C) D)

Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________. sliding frame sliding window sliding packet none of the above

7. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the send window must be _____ A) B) C) D) 15 16 31 1

8. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____ A) B) C) D) 15 16 31 1

9. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the send window must be _____ A) B) C) D) 15 16 31 1

10. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____ A) B) C) D) 15 16 31 1

11. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for communication over point-to-point and multipoint links. A) bit-oriented

B) C) D)

byte-oriented character-oriented none of the above

12. The most common protocol for point-to-point access is the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), which is a _________protocol. A) B) C) D) bit-oriented byte-oriented character-oriented none of the above

13. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment. A) B) C) D) Flow Error Transmission none of the above

14. _________control in the data link layer is based on automatic repeat request, which is the retransmission of data. A) B) C) D) Flow Error Transmission none of the above

15. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number the frames. The sequence numbers are based on __________arithmetic. A) B) C) D) modulo-2 modulo-4 modulo-m none of the above

16. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in ______ arithmetic the sequence number of the next frame expected. A) B) C) D) modulo-2 modulo-4 modulo-m none of the above

17. In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number field is 8, the sequence numbers are in ________ arithmetic, A) B) C) D) modulo-2 modulo- 8 modulo-256 none of the above

18. Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of the send window is 1. A) B) 2 1

C) D)

8 none of the above

19. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station and multiple secondary stations. A) B) C) D) ABM NRM ARM NBM

20. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each station can function as a primary and a secondary. A) B) C) D) ABM NRM ARM NBM

21. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring, and terminating links. A) B) C) D) NCP LCP CHAP PAP

22.

In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a two-step process:

A) B) C) D)

NCP LCP CHAP PAP

23. In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking authentication protocol in which the password is kept secret; it is never sent online. A) B) C) D) NCP LCP CHAP PAP

ANSWERS: 1 B 2 A 3 A 4 B 5 C 6 B 7 C 8 D 9 B 10 11 12 13 14 15 B A B A B A 16 17 18 19 20 A C B B A

21 22 23 B D C

1. A) B) C) D)

In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it has a frame to send. pure ALOHA slotted ALOHA both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b)

2. A) B) C)

In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time. the same as two times three times

D)

none of the above

3. A) B) C) D)

The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent. 12.2 18.4 36.8 none of the above

4. A) B) C) D)

In __________, each station is forced to send only at the beginning of the time slot. pure ALOHA slotted ALOHA both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b)

5. A) B) C) D)

In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time. the same as two times three times none of the above

6. A) B)

The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent. 12.2 18.4

C) D)

36.8 none of the above

7. A) B) C) D)

The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time. the same as two times three times none of the above

8. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its frame immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line until it finds it idle. A) B) C) D) nonpersistent 1-persistent p-persistent none of the above

9. In the ________method, a station that has a frame to send senses the line. If the line is idle, it sends immediately. If the line is not idle, it waits a random amount of time and then senses the line again. A) B) C) D) nonpersistent 1-persistent p-persistent none of the above

10 In the _______method, after the station finds the line idle it sends or refrain from sending based on the outcome of a random number generator. If the line is busy, it tries again. A) B) C) D) nonpersistent 1-persistent p-persistent none of the above

11. A) B) C) D)

We have categorized access methods into _______ groups. two three four five

12. In ___________ methods, no station is superior to another station and none is assigned the control over another. A) B) C) D) random access controlled access channelization none of the above

13. In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a station senses the medium before trying to use it. A) B) C) MA CSMA FDMA

D)

CDMA

14. A) B) C) D)

________ requires that each station first listen to the medium before sending. MA CSMA FDMA CDMA

15. A) B) C) D)

__________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision. CSMA/CA CSMA/CD either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b)

16. In ________, a station monitors the medium after it sends a frame to see if the transmission was successful. If so, the station is finished. If, however, there is a collision, the frame is sent again. A) B) C) D) CSMA/CA CSMA/CD either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b)

17. A)

To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented. CSMA/CA

B) C) D)

CSMA/CD either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b)

18. In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of three strategies: the interframe space, the contention window, and acknowledgments. A) B) C) D) CSMA/CA CSMA/CD either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b)

19. In _______ methods, the stations consult one another to find which station has the right to send. A) B) C) D) random access controlled access channelization none of the above

20. In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it has been authorized by other stations. A) B) C) D) random access controlled access channelization none of the above

21. A) B) C) D)

We discussed ______ popular controlled-access methods. two three four none of the above

22. In the ________ method, a station needs to make a reservation before sending data. Time is divided into intervals. A) B) C) D) reservation polling token passing none of the above

23. In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In each interval, a reservation frame precedes the data frames sent in that interval. A) B) C) D) reservation polling token passing none of the above

24. In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be made through the primary device even when the ultimate destination is a secondary device. A) B) C) reservation polling token passing

D)

none of the above

25. In the _______ method, the primary device controls the link; the secondary devices follow its instructions. A) B) C) D) reservation polling token passing none of the above

26. A) B) C) D)

In the _______ method, the stations in a network are organized in a logical ring. reservation polling token passing none of the above

27. A) B) C) D)

In the _______ method, each station has a predecessor and a successor. reservation polling token passing none of the above

28. A) B)

In the _________ method, a special packet called a ______ circulates through the ring. reservation: control frame polling: poll request

C) D)

token passing: token none of the above

29. _________ is a multiple-access method in which the available bandwidth of a link is shared in time, frequency, or through code, between different stations. A) B) C) D) Random access Controlled access Channelization none of the above

30. A) B) C) D)

We discussed ________ channelization protocols. two three four none of the above

31. A) B) C) D)

In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

32. In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In other words, each band is reserved for a specific station, and it belongs to the station all the time.

A) B) C) D)

FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

33. A) B) C) D)

In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

34. In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during which it can send data. Each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot. A) B) C) D) FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

35. A) B) C) D)

In _____, each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

36. A) B) C) D)

In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve multiple access. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

37. A) B) C) D)

_______ is based on coding theory and uses sequences of numbers called chips. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

38. A) B) C) D)

In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such the Walsh tables. FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

ANSWERS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 A B B B A C A B A 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 B B A A B B C C C

10 11 12 13 14 15 C B A B B B 29 30 31 32 33 34 C B A A B B

16 17 18 19 B A A B 35 36 37 38 B C C C

1. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the physical and data link layers. A) B) C) D) IEEE 802.3 IEEE 802.5 IEEE 802.11 IEEE 802.2

2. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central base station, known as the access point (AP). A) B) C) D) ESS BSS CSS none of the above

3. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________. A) B) C) D) an ad hoc architecture an infrastructure network either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

4. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________. A) B) C) D) an ad hoc architecture an infrastructure network either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

5. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs via two ________. A) B) C) D) BSSs ESSs APs none of the above

6. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a BSS. A) B) C) D) no-transition BSS-transition ESS-transition none of the above

7. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another, but the movement is confined inside one ESS. A) B) C) D) no-transition BSS-transition ESS-transition none of the above

8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another. A) B) no-transition BSS-transition

C) D)

ESS-transition none of the above

9. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can be implemented in an infrastructure network (not in an ad hoc network). A) B) C) D) DCF PCF either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another without passing through the distribution system, the address flag is _____ A) B) C) D) 00 01 10 11

11. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address flag is _______. A) B) C) D) 00 01 10 11

12. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is _____.

A) B) C) D)

00 01 10 11

13. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless distribution system, the address flag is _____ A) B) C) D) 00 01 10 11

14. The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services: ______ and _______. A) B) C) D) BSS; ASS ESS; SSS BSS; ESS BSS; DCF

15. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is _________. A) B) C) D) ALOHA CSMA/CA CSMA/CD none of the above

16. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______. A) B) C) D) contention controlled polling none of the above

17. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision avoidance. A) B) C) D) NAV BSS ESS none of the above

18. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ fields. A) B) C) D) four five six none of the above

19. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to ______addresses. A) B) C) D) four five six none of the above

20. The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________. A) B) C) D) FHSS DSSS OFDM either (a) or (b)

21. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________. A) B) C) D) FHSS DSSS OFDM either (a) or (b)

22. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________. A) B) C) D) FHSS DSSS OFDM either (a) or (b)

23. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________. A) B) C) D) FHSS DSSS OFDM either (a) or (b)

24. The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) B) C) D) 1 6 11 22

25. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) B) C) D) 1 2 6 none of the above

26. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) B) C) D) 1 2 5.5 none of the above

27. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) B) C) 1 2 11

D)

22

28. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames. A) B) C) D) four five six none of the above

29. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small area. A) B) C) D) wired LAN wireless LAN VLAN none of the above

30. A Bluetooth network is called a ________. A) B) C) D) piconet scatternet bluenet none of the above

31. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________. A) B) scatternet; piconets piconets: scatternet

C) D)

piconets: bluenet bluenet; scatternet

32. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary devices. A) B) C) D) one; five five; three two; six one; seven

33. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station problem. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed station problem. A) B) C) D) can; cannot cannot; can can; can cannot; cannot

34. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps A) B) C) D) 2 5 11 none of the above

35. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of the Internet model.

A) B) C) D)

radio baseband L2CAP none of the above

36. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in LANs. A) B) C) D) radio baseband L2CAP none of the above

37. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer in LANs. A) B) C) D) radio baseband L2CAP none of the above

38. The access method in Bluetooth is ________. A) B) C) D) FDMA TDD-TDMA CDMA none of the above

39. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency (delay in data delivery) is more important than integrity (error-free delivery). A) B) C) D) SCO ACL ACO SCL

40. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding latency. A) B) C) D) SCO ACL ACO SCL

41. Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid interference from other devices or other networks. A) B) C) D) DSSS FHSS FDMA none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 C B A B C A B C B A B C D C B C A D A D C 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 B C A C C D D B A B D A D A B C B A B B

1. A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer of the Internet model. A) B) C) D) physical data link network all of the above

2. A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments of a LAN, and has no filtering capability. A) B) C) D) repeater bridge router none of the above

3. A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the physical and data link layers of the Internet model. A) B) C) D) repeater bridge router none of the above

4. table. A) B)

A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and automatically build its forwarding

simple dual

C) D)

transparent none of the above

5. A) B) C) D)

A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a loopless topology. binary tree spanning tree multiway tree none of the above

6. A) B) C) D)

A _______ LAN allows several LANs to be connected. backbone wireless wired none of the above

7. A) B) C) D)

A backbone is usually a ______. bus star either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

8. A)

A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by _________. software

B) C) D)

physical wiring hardware none of the above

9. A) B) C) D)

Membership in a VLAN can be based on _________. port numbers MAC addresses IP addresses all of the above

10. A) B) C) D)

VLANs can_________. reduce network traffic provide an extra measure of security either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b)

11. A) B) C) D)

_________ is just a connector. An active hub A passive hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

12. In a star-topology Ethernet LAN, _______ is just a point where the signals coming from different stations collide; it is the collision point.

A) B) C) D)

An active hub A passive hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

13. layer. A) B) C) D)

________ is part of the media; its location in the Internet model is below the physical

An active hub A passive hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

14. A) B) C) D)

A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer. passive hub repeater bridge router

15. A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes too weak or corrupted, regenerates the original bit pattern. It then sends the refreshed signal. A) B) C) D) passive hub repeater bridge router

16. A) B) C) D)

A __________ forwards every frame; it has no filtering capability. passive hub repeater bridge router

17. ________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is normally used to create connections between stations in a physical star topology. A) B) C) D) An active hub A passive hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

18. A) B) C) D)

A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer. passive hub repeater bridge router

19. A) B) C)

A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained in the frame. passive hub repeater bridge

D)

router

20. A) B) C) D)

A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions. passive hub repeater bridge none of the above

21. A) B) C) D)

A ________ is a device in which the stations are completely unaware of its existence. passive hub repeater simple bridge transparent bridge

22. A) B) C) D)

IEEE 802.1d specification, defines _________ criteria for a transparent bridges. two three four none of the above

23. A) B)

A spanning tree is a graph in which there is no _____. node branch

C) D)

loop arc

24. In a bridged LAN, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path only. A) B) C) D) spanning tree binary tree unary tree none of the above

25. A) B) C) D)

A three-layer switch is a kind of ________. repeater bridge router none of the above

26. A) B) C) D)

A two-layer switch is a ______. repeater bridge router none of the above

27. Some new two-layer switches, called _______ switches, have been designed to forward the frame as soon as they check the MAC addresses in the header of the frame.

A) B) C) D)

cut-through go-through come-through none of the above

28. A) B) C) D)

A _______ is a three-layer device that handles packets based on their logical addresses. repeater bridge router none of the above

29. A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the Internet and has a table that is used for making decisions about the route. A) B) C) D) repeater bridge router none of the above

30. A) B) C) D)

A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated router. two-layer three-layer four-layer none of the above

31. A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five layers of the Internet model or seven layers of OSI model. A) B) C) D) repeater bridge router gateway

32. A _____ can be used as a connecting device between two internetworks that use different models. A) B) C) D) repeater bridge router gateway

33. A) B) C) D)

In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one switch. bus ring star none of the above

34. A) B) C)

A ________ link acts as a LAN in a remote backbone connected by remote bridges. point-to-point multipoint multidrop

D)

none of the above

35. A) B) C) D)

VLANs create _________ domains. unicast multicast broadcast none of the above

36. In a(n) _______ configuration, the administrator types the port numbers, the IP addresses, or other characteristics, using the VLAN software. A) B) C) D) manual automatic semiautomatic none of the above

37. In a(n) _____ configuration, the stations are automatically connected or disconnected from a VLAN using criteria defined by the administrator. A) B) C) D) manual automatic semiautomatic none of the above

38. In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done manually, with migrations done automatically. A) manual

B) C) D)

automatic semiautomatic none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 A A B C B A C A D D B B B B B B A C C C D 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 B C A C B A C C B D D C A C A B C

1. _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system. A) B) C) D) AMPS D-AMPS GSM none of the above

2. __________ is a second-generation cellular phone system. A) B) C) D) AMPS D-AMPS GSM none of the above

3. ____________ is a digital version of AMPS. A) B) C) GSM D-AMPS IS-95

D)

none of the above

4. ___________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in Europe. A) B) C) D) GSM D-AMPS IS-95 none of the above

5. ________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS. A) B) C) D) GSM D-AMPS IS-95 none of the above

6. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal communication. A) B) C) D) first-generation second-generation third-generation none of the above

7. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base station. A) B) hard soft

C) D)

medium none of the above

8. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base stations at the same time. A) B) C) D) hard soft medium none of the above

9. _______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA. A) B) C) D) AMPS D-AMPS GSM none of the above

10. AMPS operates in the ISM _____ band. A) B) C) D) 800-MHz 900-MHz 1800-MHz none of the above

11. In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels. A) 800

B) C) D)

900 1000 none of the above

12. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______. A) B) C) D) 1 3 5 7

13. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels. A) B) C) D) FDMA TDMA CDMA none of the above

14. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels. A) B) C) D) FDMA TDMA CDMA both (a) and (b)

15. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______.

A) B) C) D)

1 3 5 7

16. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________. A) B) C) D) FDMA TDMA CDMA both (a) and (b)

17. IS-95 is based on ____________. A) B) C) D) FDMA CDMA DSSS all of the above

18. IS-95 uses the ISM _______band. A) B) C) D) 800-MHz 900-MHz 1900-MHz either (a) or (c)

19. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization. A) B) C) D) GPS Teledesic Iridium none of the above

20. In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally _____. A) B) C) D) 1 3 5 7

21. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA. A) B) C) D) IMT-DS IMT-MC IMT-TC IMT-SC

22. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000. A) B) C) D) IMT-DS IMT-MC IMT-TC IMT-SC

23. In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a combination of W-CDMA and TDMA. A) B) C) D) IMT-DS IMT-MC IMT-TC IMT-SC

24. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA. A) B) C) D) IMT-DS IMT-MC IMT-TC IMT-SC

25. The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a complete trip around the Earth, is determined by _________ law. A) B) C) D) Kepler's Newton's Ohm's none of the above

26. The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the _________. A) B) path effect

C) D)

footprint none of the above

27. There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite. A) B) C) D) one two many none of the above

28. MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km. A) B) C) D) 3000 and 5000 5000 and 10,000 5000 and 15,000 none of the above

29. LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of ________ km. A) B) C) D) 1000 2000 3000 none of the above

30. ______ is based on a principle called trilateration. A) GPS

B) C) D)

Teledesic Iridium none of the above

31. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits. A) B) C) D) equatorial polar inclined none of the above

32. A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in phase with Earth. A) B) C) D) equatorial polar inclined none of the above

33. GPS satellites are ________ satellites. A) B) C) D) GEO MEO LEO none of the above

34.________ satellites provide time and location information for vehicles and ships.

A) B) C) D)

GPS Iridium Teledesic none of the above

35. Iridium satellites are ________satellites. A) B) C) D) GEO MEO LEO none of the above

36. ________ satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for handheld terminals. A) B) C) D) GPS Iridium Teledesic none of the above

37. Teledesic satellites are _________satellites. A) B) C) D) GEO MEO LEO none of the above

38. ________ satellites will provide universal broadband Internet access. A) B) C) D) GPS Iridium Teledesic none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 A B B A C C A B A A D D A D B D D D A A A 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 B C D A C A C B A B A B A C B C C

1. _______ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber-optic networks. A) B) C) D) SONET SDH either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

2. _______ is a standard developed by ITU-T. A) B) C) D) SONET SDH either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

3. SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________. A) STSs

B) C) D)

STMs either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

4. SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________. A) B) C) D) STSs STMs either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

5. An ______ signal is the optical modulation of an STS-n (or STM-n) signal. A) B) C) D) OC-n TDM-n FDM-n none of the above

6. SONET defines _______ layers. A) B) C) D) two three four five

7. SONET is a _______ TDM system.

A) B) C) D)

asynchronous synchronous statistical none of the above

8. A SONET system can use _________. A) B) C) D) STS multiplexers regenerators add/drop multiplexers all of the above

9. SONET sends ________ frames per second A) B) C) D) 1000 2000 4000 8000

10. In SONET each frame lasts _______ microseconds. A) B) C) D) 20 64 128 none of the above

11. An STS-1 frame is made of ________ rows A) B) C) D) 1 9 90 none of the above

12. An STS-1 frame is made ______columns A) B) C) D) 1 9 90 none of the above

13. An STS-3 frame is made of ______ rows. A) B) C) D) 1 9 27 none of the above

14. An STS-3 frame is made of ________ columns. A) B) C) D) 9 90 270 none of the above

15. SONET network topologies can be __________. A) B) C) D) linear ring mesh all of the above

16. A linear SONET network can be __________. A) B) C) D) point-to-point multipoint either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

17. A ring SONET network can be _________. A) B) C) D) unidirectional bidirectional. either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

18. To make SONET backward-compatible with the current hierarchy, its frame design includes a system of. A) B) C) OCs STMs STSs

D)

VTs

19. A ________ is a repeater. A) B) C) D) regenerator ADM STS multiplexer/demultiplexer none of the above

20. __________ allow insertion and extraction of signals. A) B) C) D) regenerators ADMs STS multiplexer/demultiplexers none of the above

21. A _______ is the optical link connecting two neighbor devices. A) B) C) D) section line path none of the above

22. A ______ is the portion of the network between two multiplexers. A) B) section line

C) D)

path none of the above

23. A ______is the end-to-end portion of the network between two STS multiplexers. A) B) C) D) section line path none of the above

24. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal from its optical source to its optical destination. A) B) C) D) section line path photonic

25. The ____ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical line. A) B) C) D) section line path photonic

26. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical section. A) section

B) C) D)

line path photonic

27. The _______ layer corresponds to the physical layer of the OSI model. A) B) C) D) section line path photonic

28. An STS multiplexer is a ______ device. A) B) C) D) one-layer two-layer three-layer four-layer

29. An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ device. A) B) C) D) one-layer two-layer three-layer four-layer

30. A regenerator is a ________ device.

A) B) C) D)

one-layer two-layer three-layer four-layer

31. In SONET, for each frame, the bytes are transmitted __________. A) B) C) D) from left to the right, top to bottom from right to the left, bottom to top from left to the right, bottom to top from right to the left, top to bottom

32. In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted ____________. A) B) C) D) from least significant to the most significant from most significant to the least significant two at a time three at a time

33. Each ________in a SONET frame can carry a digitized voice channel. A) B) C) D) bit byte frame none of the above

34. The section overhead consists of ______octets. A) B) C) D) 1 6 9 18

35. Line overhead consists of ________ bytes. A) B) C) D) 1 6 9 18

36. The path overhead consists of ______ bytes. A) B) C) D) 1 6 9 18

37. In ________ APS, there are normally two lines: one working line and one protection line. Both lines are active all the time. A) B) C) D) one-plus-one one-to-one one-to-many none of the above

38. In ______ APS, there is one working line and one protection line. The data are normally sent on the working line until it fails. A) B) C) D) one-plus-one one-to-one one-to-many none of the above

39. In ________APS, there is only one protection line for many working lines. When a failure occurs in one of the working lines, the protection line takes control until the failed line is repaired. A) B) C) D) one-plus-one one-to-one one-to-many none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 A B A B A C B D D D B C B C D C C D A B A 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 B C C B A D D C B A B B C D C A B C

1. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in response to demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early 1990s. A) B) C) D) X.25 Frame Relay ATM none of the above

2. Frame Relay provides ________. A) B) C) D) PVCs SVCs either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

3. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______. A) B) C) D) PVC SVC DLCIs none of the above

4. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry is recorded for all switches by the administrator A) B) C) D) PVC SVC either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

5. In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires establishing and terminating phases A) B) C) a PVC an SVC either (a) or (b)

D)

neither (a) nor (b)

6. Frame Relay has _______. A) B) C) D) only the physical layer only the data link the physical and data link layers the physical, data link, and network layers

7. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports _____control. A) B) C) D) flow error either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b)

8. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes. A) B) C) D) only 2 2 to 3 2 to 4 none of the above

9. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in the last byte of the address. A) B) 0 1

C) D)

2 3

10. To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device called a _________. A) B) C) D) VOFR FRAD MUX none of the above

11. Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that sends voice through the network. A) B) C) D) VOFR FRAD MUX none of the above

12. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU-T. A) B) C) D) X.25 Frame Relay ATM none of the above

13. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information.

A) B) C) D)

frame packet cell none of the above

14. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________. A) B) C) D) VPI VCI DLCI a combination of (a) and (b)

15. The ATM standard defines ______ layers. A) B) C) D) two three four five

16. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length. A) B) C) D) 8 12 16 24

17. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length. A) B) C) D) 8 12 16 24

18. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes. A) B) C) D) 40 50 52 53

19. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size packets. A) B) C) D) X.25 Frame Relay ATM all of the above

20. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch. A) B) C) D) UNI NNI NNN None of the above

21. _________ is the interface between two ATM switches. A) B) C) D) UNI NNI NNN none of the above

22. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through _______. A) B) C) D) TPs VPs VCs all of the above

23. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps them into ATM cells. A) B) C) D) physical ATM AAL none of the above

24. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and multiplexing services. A) B) physical ATM

C) D)

AAL none of the above

25. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission, encoding, and electrical-to-optical transformation. A) B) C) D) physical ATM layer AAL none of the above

26. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers. A) B) C) D) two three four none of the above

27. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data. A) B) C) D) AAL1 AAL2 AAL3/4 AAL5

28. In ATM, _______is for short packets. A) AAL1

B) C) D)

AAL2 AAL3/4 AAL5

29. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit approach or datagram approach). A) B) C) D) AAL1 AAL2 AAL3/4 AAL5

30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error control mechanism. A) B) C) D) AAL1 AAL2 AAL3/4 AAL5

31. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN). A) B) C) D) X.25 Frame Relay ATM none of the above

32. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations.

A) B) C) D)

pure legacy mixed architecture none of the above

33. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs uses ATM technology. A) B) C) D) pure legacy mixed architecture none of the above

34. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy ATM LAN. A) B) C) D) pure legacy mixed architecture none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 B C C A B C D C B B A C C D B A B D C A B 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 D C B A A A B C D C A B C

1. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits. A) B) 4 8

C) D)

32 64

2. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block. A) B) C) D) A B C D

3. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7. A) B) C) D) A B C none of the above

4. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 229.1.2.3. A) B) C) D) A B D none of the above

5. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 191.1.2.3. A) A

B) C) D)

B C none of the above

6. What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15? A) B) C) D) 255 15 0 none of the above

7. What is the result of ANDing 0 and 15? A) B) C) D) 255 15 0 none of the above

8. What is the result of ANDing 254 and 15? A) B) C) D) 254 14 0 none of the above

9. What is the result of ANDing 192 and 65?

A) B) C) D)

192 65 64 none of the above

10. Which one is not a contiguous mask? A) B) C) D) 255.255.255.254 255.255.224.0 255.148.0.0 all are

11. The number of addresses in a class C block is _______. A) B) C) D) 65,534 16,777,216 256 none of the above

12. The number of addresses in a class B block is _______. A) B) C) D) 65,536 16,777,216 256 none of the above

13. The number of addresses in a class A block is _______. A) B) C) D) 65,534 16,777,216 256 none of the above

14. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. A) B) C) D) can be any number must be a multiple of 256 must be a power of 2 none of the above

15. The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. A) B) C) D) must be a power of 4 must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes none of the above

16. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses? A) B) C) D) 2.4.6.5 2.4.6.16 2.4.6.64 none of the above

17. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 16 classless addresses? A) B) C) D) 2.4.6.5 2.4.6.15 2.4.6.62 none of the above

18. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 256 classless addresses? A) B) C) D) 2.4.6.5 2.4.6.15 2.4.6.0 none of the above

19. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/27? A) B) C) D) 12.2.2.0 12.2.2.32 12.2.2.64 none of the above

20. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/10? A) B) 12.0.0.0 12.2.0.0

C) D)

12.2.2.2 none of the above

21. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28? A) B) C) D) 12.2.2.0 12.2.2.96 12.2.2.112 none of the above

22. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/24. A) B) C) D) 32 64 256 none of the above

23. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/30. A) B) C) D) 2 4 8 none of the above

24. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28? A) B) C) D) 12.2.2.16 12.2.2.112 12.2.2.127 none of the above

25. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.6/30? A) B) C) D) 12.2.2.2 12.2.2.6 12.2.2.7 none of the above

26. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The organization needs 10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix length? A) B) C) D) /20 /24 /25 none of the above

27. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet prefix length is /28, what is the maximum number of subnets? A) B) 2 4

C) D)

8 none of the above

28. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are granted? A) B) C) D) 8 16 32 none of the above

29. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.128/29. How many addresses are granted? A) B) C) D) 8 16 32 none of the above

30. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.32.0/27. How many addresses are granted? A) B) C) D) 8 16 32 none of the above

31. What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation?

A) B) C) D)

/9 /8 /16 none of the above

32. What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation? A) B) C) D) /9 /8 /16 none of the above

33. What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation? A) B) C) D) /24 /8 /16 none of the above

34. In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of the address range. A) B) C) D) suffix prefix netid none of the above

35. In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the hostid). A) B) C) D) suffix prefix hostid none of the above

36. In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the _____________. A) B) C) D) netid hostid mask none of the above

37. In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask? A) B) C) D) 255.255.255.0 255.255.242.0 255.255.0.0 none of the above

38. In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask? A) B) C) D) 255.254.0.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.128 none of the above

39. In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length? A) B) C) D) /20 /28 /18 none of the above

40. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long. A) B) C) D) 32 64 128 none of the above

41. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets); A) B) C) D) 4 8 16 none of the above

42. To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies ____________notation. A) B) C) dotted decimal hexadecimal colon both a and b

D)

none of the above

43. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______ sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits in length. A) B) C) D) 8: 2 8: 3 8: 4 none of the above

44. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons. A) B) C) D) 8 7 4 none of the above

45. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits. A) B) C) D) 16 32 8 none of the above

46. In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer. A) B) a unicast a multicast

C) D)

an anycast none of the above

47. In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with addresses that have the same prefix. A) B) C) D) a unicast a multicast an anycast none of the above

48. In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers. A) B) C) D) a unicast a multicast an anycast none of the above

49. In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the address. A) B) C) D) type purpose both a and b none of the above

50. In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host as a unicast address. A) provider-based unicast

B) C) D)

link local site local none of the above

51. In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by 16 bits of one, followed by the 32-bit IPv4 address. A) B) C) D) link local site local mapped none of the above

52. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero followed by 32 bits of IPv4 address. A) B) C) D) link local site local mapped none of the above

53. In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons. A) B) C) D) link local site local mapped none of the above

54. In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons. A) B) C) D) link local site local mapped none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 C A A C B B C B C C C A B C B C D C C A C 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 C B C C B C B A C B C A B A C A A C C C B 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 C B B A C B A A C D A B

1. A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______. A) B) C) D) error checking error correction datagram acknowledgment none of the above

2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. A) B) C) D) there are 10 bytes of options there are 40 bytes of options there are 10 bytes in the header there are 40 bytes in the header

3. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the data field is 400 bytes? A) B) C) D) 428 407 107 427

4. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and total length value of 40,000? A) B) C) D) 39,988 40,012 40,048 39,952

5. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the following is true? A) B) C) D) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams. The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams. The identification field is the same for all three datagrams. The offset field is the same for all three datagrams.

6. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______. A) B) C) the datagram has not been fragmented the datagram is 100 bytes in size the first byte of the datagram is byte 100

D)

the first byte of the datagram is byte 800

7. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment? A) B) C) D) Identification number Offset number Total length (b) and (c)

8. The IPv4 header size _______. A) B) C) D) is 20 to 60 bytes long is always 20 bytes long is always 60 bytes long depends on the MTU

9. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram? A) B) C) D) Base header Extension header Data packet from the upper layer (a) and (c)

10. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram. A) B) version next-header

C) D)

hop limit neighbor-advertisement

11. The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite. A) B) C) D) ARP IP RARP none of the above

12. IP is _________ datagram protocol. A) B) C) D) an unreliable a connectionless both a and b none of the above

13. The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP assumes the unreliability of the underlying layers and does its best to get a transmission through to its destination, but with no guarantees. A) B) C) D) reliable delivery connection-oriented delivery best-effort delivery none of the above

14. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.

A) B) C) D)

there are 10 bytes of options there are 40 bytes of options there are 40 bytes in the header none of the above

15. In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the datagram as a fragment? A) B) C) D) Do not fragment bit ? 0 More Fragment bit ? 0 Fragment offset = 1000 none of the above

16. The IPv4 header size _______. A) B) C) D) is 20 to 60 bytes long is 20 bytes long is 60 bytes long none of the above

17. In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram must be less than the _______. A) B) C) D) MUT MAT MTU none of the above

18. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now called the _______ field. A) B) C) D) IETF checksum differentiated services none of the above

19. In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the ___________ data. A) B) C) D) base header; extension header base header; upper-layer data base header; frame header none of the above

20. IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4. A) B) C) D) more less the same level none of the above

21. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested network, the decision is based on the _______ field in the base header. A) B) C) hop limit priority next header

D)

none of the above

22. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP address combine to indicate a unique path identifier for a specific flow of data. A) B) C) D) flow label next header hop limit destination IP address

ANSWERS: 1 D 2 D 3 A 4 D 5 C 6 D 7 D 8 A 9 A 10 11 12 13 14 C B C C C 15 16 17 18 19 C A C C B 20 21 22 A B A

1. A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal jurisdiction. A) B) C) D) physical logical a and b none of the above

2. The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ addresses. A) B) C) D) port IP Email none of the above

3. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network.

A) B) C) D)

physical logical a and b none of the above

4. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) B) C) D) the destination IP address in the datagram header the IP address of the router found in the routing table either a or b none of the above

5. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) B) C) D) the destination IP address in the datagram header the IP address of the router found in the routing table either a or b none of the above

6. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) B) C) D) the destination IP address in the datagram header the IP address of the router found in the routing table either a or b none of the above

7. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) B) C) D) the destination IP address in the datagram header the IP address of the router found in the routing table either a or b none of the above

8. In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address is updated manually. A) B) C) D) static mapping dynamic mapping physical mapping none of the above

9. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found for a given logical address. A) B) C) D) ARP RARP both a and b none of the above

10. The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an ARP request. A) B) 0x000000000000 0.0.0.0

C) D)

variable class dependent

11. An ARP reply is normally _______. A) B) C) D) broadcast multicast unicast none of the above

12. An ARP request is normally _______. A) B) C) D) broadcast multicast unicast none of the above

13. A technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting effect. A) B) C) D) ARP RARP proxy ARP none of the above

14. A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts. A) ARP

B) C) D)

RARP proxy ARP none of the above

15. ICMP is a _________ layer protocol. A) B) C) D) data link transport network none of the above

16. ICMP messages are divided into two broad categories: _____________. A) B) C) D) query and error reporting messages request and response messages request and reply messages none of the above

17. An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section. A) B) C) D) a 16-byte a 32-byte an 8-byte none of the above

18. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?

A) B) C) D)

An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message. An ICMP error message may be generated for each fragment. An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram. none is true

19. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? A) B) C) D) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message. An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first fragment. An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram. none is true

20. IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol. A) B) C) D) UDP TCP ICM none of the above

21. IGMP is _______ protocol. A) B) C) D) an error reporting a group management a transmission none of the above

22. IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a list of loyal members related to each router interface. A) B) C) D) broadcast unicast multicast none of the above

23. IGMP operates __________. A) B) C) D) locally globally both a and b none of the above

24. An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______. A) B) C) D) host; host host; router router; host or router none of the above

25. The _______ is used by a router in response to a received leave report. A) B) C) D) general query message special query message membership report none of the above

26. The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet address identify a ________. A) B) C) D) multicast router host multicast group none of the above

27. The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query message. A) B) C) D) version type group address none of the above

28. A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______. A) B) C) D) one source; one destination one source; multiple destinations multiple sources; one destination none of the above

29. In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing, multicasting can be accomplished through _______. A) B) C) mapping queries tunneling

D)

none of the above

30. If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of _______ sent in response to a general query message. A) B) C) D) one membership report is two membership reports are three membership reports are none of the above

31. In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______. A) B) C) D) once twice three times none of the above

32. In IGMP, the general query message ___________________ group. A) B) C) D) does not define a particular explicitly defines a can define more than one none of the above

33. An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet. A) B) UDP IP

C) D)

Ethernet frame none of the above

34. The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a value of _______ in its protocol field. A) B) C) D) 3 2 1 none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 B B A A 23 24 25 26 A C B C 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 B B A A A A C A C C C A C D B D B C 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 C B C B B A B B

1. In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on the same network. A) B) C) D) a connectionless a direct an indirect none of the above

2. In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on different networks. A) B) C) a connection-oriented a direct an indirect

D)

none of the above

3. In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table. A) B) C) D) next-hop network-specific host-specific default

4. In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table. A) B) C) D) next-hop network-specific host-specific default

5. In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network address in the routing table. A) B) C) D) next-hop network-specific host-specific default

6. In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information. A) next-hop

B) C) D)

network-specific host-specific default

7. The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using ________. A) B) C) D) classful addressing classless addressing both a and b none of the above

8. The principle of ________ states that the routing table is sorted from the longest mask to the shortest mask. A) B) C) D) first mask matching shortest mask matching longest mask matching none of the above

9. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables. A) B) C) D) reduce increase both a and b none of the above

10. _______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing tables. A) B) C) D) Forwarding Routing Directing None of the above

11. A _______ routing table contains information entered manually. A) B) C) D) static dynamic hierarchical none of the above

12. A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of the dynamic routing protocols. A) B) C) D) static dynamic hierarchical none of the above

13. The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer functions of the router. A) B) C) D) physical and data link network transport none of the above

14. The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer functions of the router. A) B) C) D) physical and data link network transport none of the above

15. The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in a router is done by _________. A) B) C) D) input and output ports routing processor switching fabrics none of the above

16. A static table is one _______. A) B) C) D) with manual entries which is updated automatically either a or b none of the above

17. A dynamic table is one _______. A) B) C) with manual entries which is updated automatically either a or b

D)

none of the above

18. For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________. A) B) C) D) wide area networks autonomous networks autonomous systems none of the above

19. ____________ is a group of networks and routers under the authority of a single administration. A) B) C) D) An autonomous system An area a and b none of the above

20. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as _______________. A) B) C) D) interdomain routing intradomain routing both a and b none of the above

21. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ____________. A) B) interdomain routing intradomain routing

C) D)

both a and b none of the above

22. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the minimum distance. A) B) C) D) path vector distance vector link state none of the above

23. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node. A) B) C) D) path vector distance vector link state none of the above

24. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________ and whenever there is a change. A) B) C) D) every other node its immediate neighbors one neighbor none of the above

25. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________ routing.

A) B) C) D)

distance vector link state path vector none of the above

26. The metric used by _______ is the hop count. A) B) C) D) OSPF RIP BGP none of the above

27. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table. A) B) C) D) distance vector link state path vector none of the above

28. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol based on _______ routing. A) B) C) D) distance vector link state path vector none of the above

29. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to each route. A) B) C) D) OSPF RIP BGP none of the above

30. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in between. A) B) C) D) point-to-point transient stub none of the above

31. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it. A) B) C) D) point-to-point transient stub none of the above

32. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one router. A) B) C) D) point-to-point transient stub none of the above

33. In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the administration may create a _________ link between them using a longer path that probably goes through several routers. A) B) C) D) point-to-point transient stub none of the above

34. In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in each autonomous system that acts on behalf of the entire autonomous system. A) B) C) D) distant vector path vector link state none of the above

35. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing. A) B) C) D) BGP RIP OSPF none of the above

36. To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends an ________ message. A) B) open update

C) D)

keepalive none of the above

37. An area is _______. A) B) C) D) part of an AS composed of at least two ASs another term for an AS none of the above

38. A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified as a _______ communication. A) B) C) D) unicast multicast broadcast none of the above

39. A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of hosts is classified as a _______ communication. A) B) C) D) unicast multicast broadcast none of the above

40. A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is classified as a _______ communication.

A) B) C) D)

unicast multicast broadcast none of the above

41. In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of its interfaces. A) B) C) D) unicasting multicasting broadcasting none of the above

42. In _______, the router may forward the received packet through several of its interfaces. A) B) C) D) unicasting multicasting broadcasting none of the above

43. Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not efficient and may create long delays. A) B) C) D) unicasting; multiple unicasting multicasting; multiple unicasting broadcasting; multicasting none of the above

44. In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that defines a ______ path tree to possible destinations. A) B) C) D) average longest shortest none of the above

45. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ________ path tree for each group. A) B) C) D) average longest shortest none of the above

46. In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to have one shortest path tree for each group. A) B) C) D) group-shared source-based a or b none of the above

47. In the group-shared tree approach, _________ involved in multicasting. A) B) C) only the core router is all routers are only some routers are

D)

none of the above

48. Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree approach. A) B) C) D) source-based group-shared a or b none of the above

49. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of the OSPF protocol that uses multicast routing to create source-based trees. The protocol is based on _______ routing. A) B) C) D) distance vector link state path vector none of the above

50. MOSPF is a _______ protocol. A) B) C) D) data-driven command-driven both a and b none of the above

51. _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the systems. A) Forwarding

B) C) D)

Flooding Backwarding none of the above

52. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ path from the source to the router. A) B) C) D) shortest longest average none of the above

53. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process. A) B) C) D) forwarding backwarding flooding none of the above

54. RPF guarantees that each network receives only ____ of the multicast packet. A) B) C) D) one copy two copies a or b none of the above

55. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each destination.

A) B) C) D)

unicast multicast broadcast none of the above

56. RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of the packet. A) B) C) D) one copy no copies multiple copies none of the above

57. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that have active members for that particular group. A) B) C) D) RPF RPB RPM none of the above

58. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast shortest path tree that supports dynamic membership changes. A) B) C) D) RPM; RPB RPB; RPM RPF: RPM none of the above

59. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector routing. It is a source-based routing protocol, based on RIP. A) B) C) D) MOSPF DVMRP CBT none of the above

60. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP. A) B) C) D) source-based group-shared both a and b none of the above

61. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______. A) B) C) D) RPF RPB RPM none of the above

62. A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. A) B) weed graft

C) D)

prune none of the above

63. A _______ message tells an upstream router to start sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. A) B) C) D) weed graft prune none of the above

64. CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the root of the tree. A) B) C) D) source-based group-shared a or b none of the above

65. PIM-DM is used in a _______ multicast environment, such as a LAN. A) B) C) D) dense sparse a or b none of the above

66. PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast environment such as a WAN. A) dense

B) C) D)

sparse a or b none of the above

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 B C C D 23 24 25 26 B B A B 45 46 47 48 C B A A 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 B A B C A B A B A B C A B C A B A B 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 B B A A B C D B A A A C B A A B B C 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 B A B A D D C A C A B A C C B B A B

1. How many digits of the DNIC (Data Network Identification Code) identify the country? A. B. C. D. E. first three first four first five first six None of the above

Answer: A

2. A station in a network forwards incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output queue. What routing algorithm is being used? A. B. C. D. hot potato routing flooding static routing delta routing

E.

None of the above

Answer: A

3. The probability that a single bit will be in error on a typical public telephone line using 4800 bps modem is 10 to the power -3. If no error detection mechanism is used, the residual error rate for a communication line using 9-bit frames is approximately equal to A. B. C. D. E. 0.003 0.009 0.991 0.999 None of the above

Answer: B

4. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device A. B. C. D. Router Bridge Repeater Modem

Answer: B

5. Which of the following condition is used to transmit two packets over a medium at the same time? A. B. C. Contention Collision Synchronous

D. E.

Asynchronous None of the above

Answer: B

6. You have a class A network address 10.0.0.0 with 40 subnets, but are required to add 60 new subnets very soon. You would like to still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign? A. B. C. D. E. 255.240.0.0 255.248.0.0 255.252.0.0 255.254.0.0 255.255.255.255

Answer: D

7. What are the most commonly used transmission speeds in BPS used in data communication? A. B. C. D. E. 300 1200 2400 9600 None of the above

Answer: D

8. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network? A. 127.0.0.1

B. C. D. E.

255.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 255.255.255.0 None of the above

Answer: D

9. Which of the following is used for modulation and demodulation? A. B. C. D. E. modem protocols gateway multiplexer None of the above

Answer: A

10. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of wireless LAN? A. B. C. D. Slower data transmission higher error rate interference of transmissions from different computers All of the above

Answer: D

11. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) A. allows gateways to send error a control messages to other gateways or hosts

B. provides communication between the Internet Protocol Software on one machine and the Internet Protocol Software on another C. reports error conditions to the original source, the source must relate errors to individual application programs and take action to correct the problem D. E. All of the above None of the above

Answer: D

12. Your company has a LAN in its downtown office and has now set up a LAN in the manufacturing plant in the suburbs. To enable everyone to share data and resources between the two LANs, what type of device(s) are needed to connect them? Choose the most correct answer. A. B. C. D. Modem Cable Hub Router

Answer: D

13. The term 'duplex' refers to the ability of the data receiving stations to echo back a confirming message to the sender. In full duplex data transmission, both the sender and the receiver A. B. C. D. E. cannot talk at once can receive and send data simultaneously can send or receive data one at a time can do one way data transmission only None of the above

Answer: B

14. How many hosts are attached to each of the local area networks at your site? A. B. C. D. E. 128 254 256 64 None of the above

Answer: B

15. Which of the following technique is used for fragment? A. a technique used in best-effort delivery systems to avoid endlessly looping packets

B. a technique used by protocols in which a lower level protocol accepts a message from a higher level protocol and places it in the data portion of the low level frame C. one of the pieces that results when an IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller pieces for transmission across a network that cannot handle the original datagram size D. E. All of the above None of the above

Answer: C

16. Contention is A. One or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of devices B. C. time a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second signal the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the same

D. a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications service among stations attached to the network

E.

None of the above

Answer: C

17. Avalanche photodiode receivers can detect hits of transmitted data by receiving A. B. C. D. E. 100 photons 200 photons 300 photons 400 photons None of the above

Answer: B

18. Satellite-Switched Time-Division Multiple Access (SS/TDMA) is A. time. B. the method of determining which device has access to the transmission medium at any

a medium access control technique for multiple access transmission media

C. a form of TDMA in which circuit switching is used to dynamically change the channel assignments D. E. All of the above None of the above

Answer: C

19. When you ping the loopback address, a packet is sent where? A. B. On the network Down through the layers of the IP architecture and then up the layers again

C. D. E.

Across the wire through the loopback dongle None of the above

Answer: B

20. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic mail messages from one machine to another? A. B. C. D. E. FTP SNMP SMTP RPC None of the above

Answer: C

21. Which of the following device is used to connect two systems, especially if the systems use different protocols? A. B. C. D. E. hub bridge gateway repeater None of the above

Answer: C

22. The synchronous modems are more costly than the asynchronous modems because

A. B. C. D. E.

they produce large volume of data they contain clock recovery circuits they transmit the data with stop and start bits. they operate with a larger bandwidth None of the above

Answer: B

23. A distributed network configuration in which all data/information pass through a central computer is A. B. C. D. E. bus network star network ring network Point-to-point network None of the above

Answer: B

24. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol allows an application program on one machine to send a datagram to an application program on another machine? A. B. C. D. E. UDP VMTP X.25 SMTP None of the above

Answer: A

25. A remote batch-processing operation in which data is solely input to a central computer would require a: A. B. C. D. E. telegraph line simplex lines mixed-band channel All the above None of the above

Answer: B 1. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is A. a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically bind a high level IP Address to a low-level physical hardware address B. C. D. E. a TCP/IP high level protocol for transferring files from one machine to another a protocol used to monitor computers a protocol that handles error and control messages None of the above

Answer: D

2. If you get both local and remote echoes, every character you type will appear on the screen A. B. C. D. E. once twice three times never None of the above

Answer: B

3. What part of 192.168.10.51 is the Network ID, assuming a default subnet mask? A. B. C. D. E. 192 192.168.10 0.0.0.5 51 None of the above

Answer: B

4. The slowest transmission speeds are those of A. B. C. D. twisted-pair wire coaxial cable fiber-optic cable microwaves

Answer: A

5. A noiseless 3 KHz Channel transmits bits with binary level signals. What is the maximum data rate? A. B. C. D. 3 Kbps 6 Kbps 12 Kbps 24 Kbps.

Answer: B

6. Carrier is A. One or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of devices B. C. time a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second signal the condition when two or more sections attempt to use the same channel at the same

D. a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications service among stations attached to the network E. None of the above

Answer: B

7. What can greatly reduce TCP/IP configuration problems? A. B. C. D. E. WINS Server WINS Proxy DHCP Server PDC None of the above

Answer: C

8. In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is _____. A. B. C. D. equal to the remainder at the sender zero nonzero the quotient at the sender

Answer: B

9. Which of the following statements is correct for the use of packet switching? A. the subdivision of information into individually addressed packets in conjunction with alternative routing arrangement enabled the transmission path to be altered in the event of congestion or individual link failure B. the employment of additional intelligence within the network enabled more sophisticated error control and link control procedures to be applied C. by employing wide bandwidth circuits for the trunk networks substantial economies through extensive sharing of capacity could be achieved. D. E. All of the above None of the above

Answer: D

10. A front-end processor is A. B. a user computer system a processor in a large-scale computer that executes operating system instructions

C. a minicomputer that relieves main-frame computers at a computer centre of communications control functions D. E. preliminary processor of batch jobs. None of the above

Answer: C

11. What is the port number for NNTP? A. B. 119 80

C. D.

79 70

Answer: A

12. Eight stations are competing for the use of a shared channel using the 'Adaptive tree Walk Protocol'. If the stations 7 and 8 are suddenly become ready at once, how many bit slots are needed to resolve the contention? A. B. C. D. 7 slots 5 slots 10 slots 14 slots

Answer: A

13. Usually, it takes 10-bits to represent one character. How many characters can be transmitted at a speed of 1200 BPS? A. B. C. D. E. 10 12 120 1200 None of the above

Answer: C

14. To connect a computer with a device in the same room, you might be likely to use A. B. a coaxial cable a dedicated line

C. D. E.

a ground station All of the above None of the above

Answer: A

15. Internet-like networks within an enterprise. A. B. C. D. Intranets Switching alternating Inter organizational networks Extranets

Answer: A

16. How many bits internet address is assigned to each host on a TCP/IP internet which is used in all communications with the host? A. B. C. D. E. 16 - bits 32 - bits 48 - bits 64 - bits None of the above

Answer: B

17. With an IP address of 100, you currently have 80 subnets. What subnet mask should you use to maximize the number of available hosts? A. 192

B. C. D. E.

224 240 248 252

Answer: E

18. Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly? A. B. C. D. E. wideband channel voice band channel narrowband channel broadband channel None of the above

Answer: C

19. Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers? A. B. C. D. E. communications software protocol communications hardware access to transmission medium All of the above

Answer: E

20. Which of the following does not allow multiple users or devices to share one communications line?

A. B. C. D. E.

doubleplexer multipplexer concentrator controller None of the above

Answer: A

21. The geostationary satellite used for communication systems A. B. C. D. E. rotates with the earth remains stationary relative to the earth is positioned over equator All of the above None of the above

Answer: D

22. Telecommunication networks frequently interconnect an organization with its customers and suppliers. Select the best fit for answer: A. B. C. D. Bandwidth alternatives Switching alternating Inter organizational networks Extranets

Answer: C

23. The packets switching concept was first proposed

A. B. C. D. E.

in the late 1980s for the Defense Ministry of US. in the early 1960s for military communication systems, mainly to handle speech in the late 1950s for Defense Ministry of US All of the above None of the above

Answer: B

24. The _____ houses the switches in token ring. A. B. C. D. E. transceiver nine-pin connector MAU NIC None of the above

Answer: C

25. What device separates a single network into two segments but lets the two segments appear as one to higher protocols? A. B. C. D. Switch Bridge Gateway Router

Answer: B 1. Which of the following refers to the terms "residual error rate"?

A. the number of bit errors per twenty four hours of continuous operation on an asynchronous line B. The probability that one or more errors will be undetected when an error detection scheme is used C. the probability that one or more errors will be detected when an error detection mechanism is used D. E. signal to noise ratio divided by the ratio of energy per bit to noise per hertz None of the above

Answer: B

2. Which of the following summation operations is performed on the bits to check an errordetecting code? A. B. C. D. Codec Coder-decoder Checksum Attenuation

Answer: C

3. The research and development department at your office has been experimenting with different technologies to help improve the performance of the network. One group has been examining the use of a broadband network versus a based band network. Select the correct statement about broadband and baseband. A. Broadband networks carry several channels on a single cable, whereas in a baseband network several cables carry one channel B. Baseband networks carry a single channel on a single cable, whereas broadband networks carry several channels on a single cable C. Baseband refers to local area networks, and broadband refers to wide area networks.

D. Baseband operates at a standard bit rate, whereas broadband may operate at different rates as needed E. Broadband and baseband refer to the different frequencies at which infrared operates then transmitting signals in certain conditions Answer: B

4. An error-detecting code inserted as a field in a block of data to be transmitted is known as A. B. C. D. E. Frame check sequence Error detecting code Checksum flow control None of the above

Answer: A

5. The cheapest modems can transmit A. B. C. D. E. 300 bits per second 1,200 bits per second 2,400 bits per second 4,800 bits per second None of the above

Answer: A

6. Computers cannot communicate with each other directly over telephone lines because they use digital pulses whereas telephone lines use analog sound frequencies. What is the name of the device which permits digital to analog conversion at the start of a long distance transmission?

A. B. C. D. E.

Interface Modem Attenuation Teleprocessor None of the above

Answer: B

7. What is the usual number of bits transmitted simultaneously in parallel data transmission used by microcomputers? A. B. C. D. E. 16 9 8 4 None of the above

Answer: B

8. The receive equalizer reduces delay distortions using a A. B. C. D. E. tapped delay lines gearshift descrambler difference engine None of the above

Answer: A

9. Four routers have to be interconnected in a point-to-point Network. Each pair of root us may connect by a high-speed line, a medium speed line or a low speed line. Find the total number of topologies. A. B. C. D. 12 81 48 729

Answer: D

10. A network consists of eight NT servers. You are planning to move servers to different segments of your network, what utility should be used at each server to determine which server generates the most traffic? A. B. C. D. E. NBTSTAT NETSTAT.EXE Performance Monitor Network Monitor ARP.EXE

Answer: D

11. Sending a file from your personal computer's primary memory or disk to another computer is called A. B. C. D. E. uploading downloading logging on hang on None of the above

Answer: A

12. What is the name of the software package that allows people to send electronic mail along a network of computers and workstations? A. B. C. D. E. Memory resident package Project management package Data communication package Electronic mail package None of the above

Answer: C

13. The communication mode that supports two-way traffic but only one direction at a time is A. B. C. D. E. simplex duplex half duplex multiplex None of the above

Answer: C

14. HMP (Host Monitoring Protocol) is: A. a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically bind a high level IP Address to a low-level physical hardware address B. C. a TCP/IP high level protocol for transferring files from one machine to another. a protocol used to monitor computers

D. E.

a protocol that handles error and control messages None of the above

Answer: C

15. Which of the following is a voice band channel? A. B. C. D. E. Telephone line Telegraph line Coaxial cable Microwave systems None of the above

Answer: A

16. A 8-Mbps token ring has a token holding timer value of 10 msec. What is the longest frame (assume header bits are negligible) that can be sent on this ring? A. B. C. D. 8000 B frame 80,000 B frame 8 x 105 bit frame 10,000 B frame

Answer: D

17. Data are sent over pin _____ of the EIA-232 interface. A. B. C. 2 3 4

D.

All of the above

Answer: A

18. To connect a computer with a device in the same room, you might be likely to use A. B. C. D. a coaxial cable a dedicated line a ground station All of the above

Answer: A

19. Demodulation is a process of A. B. C. D. converting analog to digital signals converting digital to analog signals multiplexing various signals into one high speed line signals performing data description.

Answer: A

20. Internet-like networks between a company and its business partners. Select the best fit for answer: A. B. C. D. Bandwidth alternatives Switching alternating Inter organizational networks Extranets

Answer: D

21. An example of an analog communication method is A. B. C. D. E. laser beam microwave voice grade telephone line All of the above None of the above

Answer: D

22. Which of the following layer protocols are responsible for user and the application programme support such as passwords, resource sharing, file transfer and network management? A. B. C. D. E. Layer 7 protocols Layer 6 protocols Layer 5 protocols Layer 4 protocols None of the above

Answer: A

23. What frequency range is used for FM radio transmission? A. B. C. D. E. Very Low Frequency : 3 kHz to 30. kHz Low Frequency : 30 kHz to 300 kHz High Frequency : 3 MHz to 30 MHz Very High Frequency : 30 MHz to 300 MHz None of the above

Answer: D

24. Transmission of computerized data from one location to another is called A. B. C. D. E. data transfer data flow data communication data management None of the above

Answer: C

25. Compared to analog signals, digital signals A. B. C. D. E. allow faster transmission are more accurate both (a) and (b) All of the above None of the above

Answer: C 1. FDDI is a A. B. C. D. E. ring network star network mesh network bus based network None of the above

Answer: A

2. An anticipated result from multiprogramming operations is: A. B. C. D. E. reduced computer idle time the handling of more jobs better scheduling of work All of the above None of the above

Answer: D

3. A central computer surrounded by one or more satellite computers is called a A. B. C. D. E. bus network ring network star network All of the above None of the above

Answer: C

4. If delays are recorded as 10 bit numbers in a 50 router network, and delay vectors are exchanged twice a second, how much bandwidth per fill duplex line is occupied by the distributed routing algorithm? A. B. C. 500 bps 1500 bps 5 bps

D.

1000 bps

Answer: D

5. HOSTS file entries are limited to how many characters? A. B. C. D. E. 8 255 500 Unlimited None of the above

Answer: B

6. Demodulation is the process of A. B. C. D. E. converting digital signals to analog signals converting analog signals to digital signals combining many low speed channels into one high speed channel dividing the high-speed signals into frequency bands None of the above

Answer: B

7. Which of the following statement is incorrect? A. The Addresses Resolution Protocol, ARP, allows a host to find the physical address of a target host on the same physical network, given only the target IP address. B. The sender's IP - to- physical address binding is included in every ARP broadcast; receivers update the IP-to-Physical address binding information in their cache before processing an ARP packet.

C. ARP is a low-level protocol that hides the underlying network physical addressing, permitting us to assign IP-addresses of our choice to every machine. D. E. All of the above None of the above

Answer: D

8. You are working with a network that has the network ID 192.168.10.0. What subnet should you use that supports up to 25 hosts and a maximum number of subnets? A. B. C. D. E. 255.255.255.192 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.248 255.255.255.252

Answer: B

9. Which of the following best illustrates the default subnet mask for a class A,B, and C Network? A. B. C. D. E. 0.0.0.0, 0.0.0.1, 0.0.1.1 255.255.255.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.0.0.0 255.0.0.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.0 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.0, 255.255.255.255 None of the above

Answer: C

10. Modulation is the process of

A. B. C. D.

converting analog signals to digital signals converting digital signals to analog signals Multiplexing various signals into high speed line signals performing data encryption.

Answer: B

11. Devices interconnected by the LAN should include A. B. C. D. E. Computers and terminals mass storage device, printers and plotters bridges and gateways All of the above None of the above

Answer: D

12. What are the data transmission channels available for carrying data from one location to another? A. B. C. D. E. Narrowband Voice band Broadband All of the above None of the above

Answer: D

13. On a class B network, how many hosts are available at each site with a subnet mask of 248?

A. B. C. D. E.

16,382 8,190 4,094 2,046 1,022

Answer: D

14. Which of the following technique is used for encapsulation? A. a technique used in best-effort delivery systems to avoid endlessly looping packets.

B. a technique used by protocols in which a lower level protocol accepts a message from a higher level protocol and places it in the data portion of the low level frame. C. One of the pieces that results when an IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller pieces for transmission across a network that cannot handle the original datagram size D. E. All of the above None of the above

Answer: B

15. You are working with three networks that have the network IDs 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0. What subnet mask can you use to combine these addresses into one? A. B. C. D. 255.255.252.0 225.255.254.0 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.252

Answer: A

16. With an IP address set starting with 150, you currently have six offices that you are treating as subnets. Plans are in place to open 10 more offices before the end of the year. What subnet mask should you use to satisfy the needed number of subnets and maximize the number of hosts available at each site? A. B. C. D. E. 192 224 240 248 252

Answer: D

17. A machine that connects to two or more electronic mail systems and transfers mail messages among them is known as A. B. C. D. E. Gateways mail gateway bridges User Agent None of the above

Answer: B

18. If digital data rate of 9600 bps is encoded using 8-level phase shift keying (PSK) method, the modulation rate is A. B. C. D. 1200 bands 3200 bands 4800 bands 9600 bands

E.

None of the above

Answer: B

19. Error detection at a data link level is achieved by A. B. C. D. bit stuffing cyclic redundancy codes Hamming codes equalization

Answer: B

20. When the computer provides the manager with a multiple choice of possible answers, the prompting technique is A. B. C. D. E. question and answer form filling open-ended question menu selection None of the above

Answer: D

21. Which network topology is considered passive? A. B. C. D. Cross Ring Star Mesh

E.

Bus

Answer: E

22. If a firm wanted to transmit data from 1,000 punched cards to a remote computer, they would use a(n) A. B. C. D. E. POS terminal data collection terminal batch processing terminal intelligent terminal None of the above

Answer: C

23. Which address is the loopback address? A. B. C. D. E. 0.0.0.1 127.0.0.0 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.255 None of the above

Answer: C

24. Error rate is A. an error-detecting code based on a summation operation performed on the bits to be checked. B. digits. a check bit appended to an array of binary digits to make the sum of all the binary

C. a code in which each expression conforms to specific rules of construction, so that if certain errors occur in an expression, the resulting expression will not conform to the rules of construction and thus the presence of the errors is detected. D. E. the ratio of the number of data units in error to the total number of data units None of the above

Answer: D

25. Intranets and extranets can use their network fire walls and other security features to establish secure Internet links within an enterprise or with its trading partners. Select the best fit for answer: A. B. C. D. Network Server Virtual Private Network Network operating system OSI

Answer: B 1. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels. A) B) C) D) Protocol Medium Signal All the above

2. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the _______. A) B) C) Medium Protocol Message

D)

Transmission

3. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the _______of a network. A) B) C) D) Performance Reliability Security Feasibility

4. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue. A) B) C) D) Performance Reliability Security All the above

5. Which topology requires a central controller or hub? A) B) C) D) Mesh Star Bus Ring

6. Which topology requires a multipoint connection? A) B) Mesh Star

C) D)

Bus Ring

7. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission. A) B) C) D) simplex half-duplex full-duplex automatic

8. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission. A) B) C) D) simplex half-duplex full-duplex automatic

9. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices. A) B) C) D) point-to-point multipoint primary secondary

10. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link. A) point-to-point

B) C) D)

multipoint primary secondary

11. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices at all times. A) B) C) D) simplex half-duplex full-duplex half-simplex

12. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together. A) B) C) D) IMPs host computers networks routers

13. This was the first network. A) B) C) D) CSNET NSFNET ANSNET ARPANET

14. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field? A) B) C) D) ITU-T IEEE FCC ISOC

15. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize new technologies. A) B) C) D) Forums Regulatory agencies Standards organizations All of the above

16. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and electronic signaling specifications? A) B) C) D) EIA ITU-T ANSI ISO

17. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet. A) B) C) D) TCP/IP NCP UNIX ACM

18. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they are presented. A) B) C) D) Semantics Syntax Timing All of the above

19. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation. A) B) C) D) Semantics Syntax Timing None of the above

20. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast it can be sent. A) B) C) D) Semantics Syntax Timing none of the above

21. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way. A) B) simplex half-duplex

C) D)

full-duplex all of the above

22. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link. A) B) C) D) multipoint point-to-point (a) and (b) none of the above

23. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link. A) B) C) D) multipoint point-to-point (a) and (b) none of the above

24. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network. A) B) C) D) Data flow Mode of operation Topology None of the above

25. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology. A) mesh

B) C) D)

ring bus all of the above

26. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or between nearby buildings. A) B) C) D) MAN LAN WAN none of the above

27. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world. A) B) C) D) MAN LAN WAN none of the above

28. ________ is a collection of many separate networks. A) B) C) D) A WAN An internet a LAN None of the above

29. There are ______________ Internet service providers.

A) B) C) D)

local regional national and international all of the above

30. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication. A) B) C) D) forum protocol standard none of the above

31. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard. A) B) C) D) RCF RFC ID none of the above

1. Medium 2. Message 3. Reliability 4. Security 5. Star 6. Bus 7. simplex 8. simplex 9. point-to-point 10. multipoint 11. full-duplex 12. IMPs

13. ARPANET 14. FCC 15. Forums 16. EIA 17. TCP/IP 18. Syntax 19. Semantics 20. Timing 21. all of the above 22. point-to-point 23. multipoint 24. Topology 25. all of the above 26. LAN 27. WAN 28. An internet 29. all of the above 30. protocol 31. RFC