1 The linear sequential model of software development is A)** A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.

B) A good approach when a working program is required quickly. C) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams. D) An old fashioned model that cannot be used in a modern context. 2 The linear sequential model of software development is also known as the A) Classical life cycle model B) Fountain model C) Spiral model D) Waterfall model E)** both a and d 3 The incremental model of software development is A) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined. B)** A good approach when a working core product is required quickly. C) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams. D) A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products. 4 The rapid application development model is A) Another name for component-based development. B) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly. C)** A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model. D) All of the above. 5 Evolutionary software process models A) Are iterative in nature B) Can easily accommodate product requirements changes C) Do not generally produce throwaway systems D)** All of the above 6 The prototyping model of software development is A) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined. B)** A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly. C) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams. D) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product. 7 The spiral model of software development A) Ends with the delivery of the software product B) Is more chaotic than the incremental model C) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration D)** All of the above 8 The concurrent development model is A) Another name for the rapid application development model. B)** Often used for the development of client/server applications. C) Only used for development of parallel or distributed systems. D) Used whenever a large number of change requests are anticipated. 9 The component-based development model is A) Only appropriate for computer hardware design. B) Not able to support the development of reusable components. C)** Works best when object technologies are available for support. D) Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics. 10 The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical me thods to A) Define the specification for computer-based systems B) Develop defect free computer-based systems C) Verify the correctness of computer-based systems

D)**

All of the above

11 Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process m odel for software development? A) Inception phase B) Elaboration phase C) Construction phase D)** Validation phase 12 In the Unified Process model requirements are determined iteratively and may span more than one phase of the process. A)** True B) False 1 Which A)** B) C) D) question no longer concerns the modern software engineer? Why does computer hardware cost so much? Why does software take a long time to finish? Why does it cost so much to develop a piece of software? Why can't software errors be removed from products prior to delivery?

2 Today the increased power of the personal computer has brought about an abando nment of the practice of team development of software. A) True B)** False 3 Software is a product and can be manufactured using the same technologies used for other engineering artifacts. A) True B)** False 4 Software deteriorates rather than wears out because A) Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments B) Defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often C)** Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions D) Software spare parts become harder to order 5 Most A) B) C) D)** mains. software continues to be custom built because Component reuse is common in the software world. Reusable components are too expensive to use. Software is easier to build without using someone else's components. Off-the-shelf software components are unavailable in many application do

6 The nature of software applications can be characterized by their information A) complexity B) content C) determinacy D)** both b and c 7 Modern software applications are so complex that it is hard to develop mutuall y exclusive category names. A)** True B) False 8 The so called "new economy" that gripped commerce and finance during the 1990s died and no longer influences decisions made by businesses and software enginee rs. A) True B)** False

9 The functionality of most computer systems does not need to be enhanced the li fetime of the system. A) True B)** False 10 Change cannot be easily accommodated in most software systems, unless the sys tem was designed with change in mind. A)** True B) False 11 Most software development projects are initiated to try to meet some business need. A)** True B) False 12 In general software only succeeds if its behavior is consistent with the obje ctives of its designers. A) True B)** False 1 Which A) B)** C) D) of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers? Process Manufacturing Methods Tools

2 Software engineering umbrella activities are only applied during the initial p hases of software development projects. A) True B)** False 3 Which A)** B) C) D) of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities? communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing

4 Process models are described as agile because they A) eliminate the need for cumbersome documentation B)** emphasize maneuverability and adaptability C) do not waste development time on planning activities D) make extensive use of prototype creation 5 Which A) B) C) D) E)** of these terms are level names in the Capability Maturity Model? Performed Repeated Reused Optimized both a and d

6 Software processes can be constructed out of pre-existing software patterns to best meet the needs of a software project. A)** True B) False 7 Which A) B) C) of these are standards for assessing software processes? SEI SPICE ISO 19002

D) E)**

ISO 9001 both b and d

8 The best software process model is one that has been created by the people who will actually be doing the work. A)** True B) False 9 Which A) B)** C) D) of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software Process? Emphasizes personal measurement of work product Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work products

10 Which of these are objectives of Team Software Process? A) Accelerate software process improvement B) Allow better time management by highly trained professionals C) Build self-directed software teams D) Show managers how to reduce costs and sustain quality E)** both b and c 11 Process technology tools allow software organizations to compress schedules b y skipping unimportant activities. A) True B)** False 12 It is generally accepted that one cannot have weak software processes and cre ate high quality end products. A)** True B) False 1 Agility is nothing more than the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to change. A) True B)** False 2 Which ? A)** B) C) D) of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process Eliminate the use of project planning and testing Only essential work products are produced Process allows team to streamline tasks Uses incremental product delivery strategy

3 How do you create agile processes to manage unpredictability? A) Requirements gathering must be conducted very carefully B) Risk analysis must be conducted before planning takes place C) Software increments must be delivered in short time periods D) Software processes must adapt to changes incrementally E)** both c and d 4 In agile software processes the highest priority is to satisfy the customer th rough early and continuous delivery of valuable software. A)** True B) False 5 It is not possible to build software that meets the customers' needs today and exhibits the quality characteristics that will enable it to be extended tomorro w. A) True B)** False

6 Which of the following traits need to exist among the members of an agile soft ware team? A) Competence B) Decision-making ability C) Mutual trust and respect D)** All of the above 7 All agile process models conform to a greater or lesser degree to the principl es stated in the "Manifesto for Agile Software Development". A)** True B) False 8 What rocess A) B) C) D)** are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming (XP) p model? analysis, design, coding, testing planning, analysis, design, coding planning, analysis, coding, testing planning, design, coding, testing

9 What are the three framework activities for the Adaptive Software Development (ASD) process model? A) analysis, design, coding B) feasibility study, functional model iteration, implementation C) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development D)** speculation, collaboration, learning 10 The Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM) suggests a philosophy that is b ased on the Pareto principle (80% of the application can be delivered in 20% of the time required to build the complete application). A)** True B) False 11 Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each team member at each daily Scrum meeting? A) What did you do since the last meeting? B) What obstacles are you encountering? C)** What is the cause of the problems you are encountering? D) What do you plan to accomplish at the next team meeting? 12 In Feature Driven Development (FDD) a "feature" is a client-valued function t hat can be delivered in two months or less. A) True B)** False 13 Agile Modeling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these s oftware tasks? A) Analysis B) Design C) Coding D) Testing E)** both a and b 1 The essence of software engineering practice might be described as understand the problem, plan a solution, carry out the plan, and examine the result for acc uracy. A)** True B) False 2 Which of the following is not one of Hooker's core principles of software engi

neering A) B) C)** D) 3 Every ustomer A) B)**

practice? All design should be as simple as possible, but no simpler A software system exists only to provide value to its users. Pareto principle (20% of any product requires 80% of the effort) Remember that you produce others will consume communication activity should have a facilitator to make sure that the c is not allowed to dominate the proceedings. True False

4 The agile view of iterative customer communication and collaboration is applic able to all software engineering practice. A)** True B) False 5 Software engineers collaborate with customers to define which of the following ? A) Customer visible usage scenarios B) Important software features C) System inputs and outputs D)** All of the above 6 Everyone on the software team should be involved in the planning activity so t hat we can A) reduce the granularity of the plan B) analyze requirements in depth C)** get all team members to "sign up" to the plan D) begin design 7 What A) B) C) D)** E) role(s) do user stories play in agile planning? Define useful software features and functions delivered to end-users Determine a schedule used to deliver each software increment Provide a substitute to performing detailed scheduling of activities Used to estimate the effort required build the current increment both a and d

8 Which of the following activities is not one of the four things that need to b e accomplished by the generic planning task set? A) Develop overall project strategy B) Identify the functionality to deliver in each software increment C)** Create a detailed schedule for the complete software project D) Devise a means of tracking progress on a regular basis 9 Analysis models depict software in which three representations? A) architecture, interface, component B) cost, risk, schedule C)** information, function, behavior D) None of the above 10 The customer can directly observe both the difference between the internal qu ality of a design and its external quality? A) True B)** False 11 Teams using agile software practices never create models. A) True B)** False 12 Many of the tasks from the generic task sets for analysis modeling and design

can be conducted in parallel with one another. A)** True B) False 13 Which of the following is not one of the principles of good coding? A) Create unit tests before you begin coding B) Create a visual layout that aids understanding C)** Keep variable names short so that code is compact D) Write self-documenting code, not program documentation 14 A successful test is one that discovers at least one as-yet undiscovered erro r. A)** True B) False 15 Which of the following are tasks in the generic task set for construction? A) Build a software component B) Create a user interface C) Unit test the component D) Assess the quality of the component E)** both a and c 16 Which of the following are valid reasons for collecting customer feedback con cerning delivered software? A) Allows developers to make changes to the delivered increment B) Delivery schedule can be revised to reflect changes C) Developers can identify changes to incorporate into next increment D)** All of the above 1 Software engineers do not need to consider hardware when designing a computerbased system. A) True B)** False 2 Which A) B) C) D) E)** of the following can be elements of computer-based systems? documentation software people hardware all of the above

3 The system engineering process usually begins with the A) detailed view B) domain view C) element view D)** world view 4 To construct a system model the engineer should consider which of the followin g restraining factors? A) assumptions B) budget C) constraints D) schedule E)** both a and c 5 By following modern system engineering practices simulation of reactive system s is no longer necessary. A) True B)** False

6 During business process engineering, three different architectures are examine d. A)** applications, data, technology infrastructure B) communications, organization, financial infrastructure C) network, database, reporting structure D) systems, requirements, data structure 7 Which elements of business processing engineering are the responsibilities of the software engineer? A) business area analysis B) business system design C) construction and integration D) information strategy planning E)** both b and c 8 The goal of product engineering is to translate the customer's desire for a se t of defined capabilities into a working product. A)** True B) False 9 The architecture components for product engineering are A)** data, hardware, software, people B) data, documentation, hardware, software C) data, hardware, software, procedures D) documentation, hardware, people, procedures 10 The A) B) C)** D) 11 The A) B) C) D)** top level of the hierarchical model of a system is known as the AFD DFD SCD SFD system model template contains which of the following elements input output user interface all of the above

12 UML notations that can be used to model the hardware and software elements of a system are A) Activity diagrams B) Class diagrams C) Deployment diagrams D) Use-case diagrams E)** a, b, and c 1 Requirements engineering is a generic process that does not vary from one soft ware project to another. A)** True B) False 2 During project inception the intent of the of the tasks are to determine A) basic problem understanding B) nature of the solution needed C) people who want a solution D) none of the bbove E)** a, b and c 3 Three things that make requirements elicitation difficult are problems of A) budgeting

B) C) D) E)**

scope understanding volatility b, c and d

4 The result of the requirements engineering elaboration task is an analysis mod el that defines which of the following problem domain(s)? A) information B) functional C) behavioral D)** all of the above 5 It is relatively common for different customers to propose conflicting require ments, each arguing that his or her version is the right one. A)** True B) False 6 The system specification describes the A)** Function, performance and constraints of a computer-based system B) implementation of each allocated system C) element software architecture D) time required for system simulation 7 The best way to conduct a requirements validation review is to A) examine the system model for errors B) have the customer look over the requirements C) send them to the design team and see if they have any concerns D)** use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement 8 The use of traceability tables helps to A) debug programs following the detection of run-time errors B) determine the performance of algorithm implementations C)** identify, control, and track requirements changes D) none of the above 9 A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development. A) True B)** False 10 The job of the requirements engineer is to categorize all stakeholder informa tion in a way that allows decision makers to choose an internally consistent set of requirements. A)** True B) False 11 The nature of collaboration is such that all system requirements are defined by consensus of a committee of customers and developers. A) True B)** False 12 Which of the following is not one of the context-free questions that would be used during project inception? A) What will be the economic benefit from a good solution? B)** Who is against this project? C) Who will pay for the work? D) Who will use the solution? 13 In collaborative requirements gathering, the facilitator A) cannot be a member of the software team

B) C)** D)

cannot be a customer controls and facilitates the process must be an outsider

14 Which of the following is not one of the requirement classifications used in Quality Function Deployment (QFD)? A) exciting B) expected C)** mandatory D) normal 15 Developers and customers create use-cases to help the software team understan d how different classes of end-users will use functions. A)** True B) False 16 The work products produced during requirement elicitation will vary depending on the A) size of the budget B)** size of the product being built C) software process being used D) stakeholders needs 17 Use-case actors are always people, never system devices. A) True B)** False 18 Which of following is not a UML diagram used creating a system analysis model ? A) activity diagram B) class diagram C)** dataflow diagram D) state diagram 19 Analysis patterns facilitate the transformation of the analysis model into a design model by suggesting reliable solutions to common problems. A) True B)** False 20 In win-win negotiation, the customer's needs are met even though the develope r's need may not be. A) True B)** False 21 In requirements validation the requirements model is reviewed to ensure its t echnical feasibility. A) True B)** False 1 Which A) B) C)** D) of the following is not an objective for building an analysis model? define set of software requirements that can be validated describe customer requirements develop an abbreviated solution for the problem establish basis for software design

2 Object-oriented domain analysis is concerned with the identification and speci fication of reusable classes within an application domain. A)** True B) False

3 The data dictionary contains descriptions of each software A) control item B) data object C) diagram D) notation E)** both a and b 4 Which A) B) C)** D) of these is not an element of an object-oriented analysis model? Behavioral elements Class-based elements Data elements Scenario-based elements

5 In analysis models the only data objects that need representation are those th at will be implemented using software classes. A) True B)** False 6 The values that are assigned to an object's attributes make that object unique . A)** True B) False 7 The relationships shown in a data model must be classified to show their A) cardinality B) directionality C) modality D) probability E)** both a and c 8 The entity relationship diagram A)** depicts relationships between data objects B) depicts functions that transform the data flow C) indicates how data are transformed by the system D) indicates system reactions to external events 9 A generalized description of a collection of similar objects is a A)** class B) instance C) subclass D) super class 10 Operations are object procedures that are invoked when an object receives a m essage. A)** True B) False 11 In many cases there is no need to create a graphical representation of a usag e scenario. A)** True B) False 12 UML s? A) B) C) D)** activity diagrams are useful in representing which analysis model element Behavioral elements Class-based elements Flow-based elements Scenario-based elements

13 The data flow diagram

A) B) C) D) E)**

depicts relationships between data objects depicts functions that transform the data flow indicates how data are transformed by the system indicates system reactions to external events both b and c

14 Control flow diagrams are A) needed to model event driven systems. B) required for all systems. C) used in place of data flow diagrams. D) useful for modeling real-time systems. E)** both a and d 15 The data flow diagram must be augmented by descriptive text in order to descr ibe the functional requirements for a software product. A)** True B) False 16 Which of the following should be considered as candidate objects in a problem space? A) events B) people C) structures D)** all of the above 17 Attributes cannot be defined for a class until design has been completed. A) True B)** False 18 Which of the following is not one of the broad categories used to classify op erations? A) computation B) data manipulation C) event monitors D)** transformers 19 Which of the following items does not appear on a CRC card? A) class collaborators B) class name C)** class reliability D) class responsibilities 20 Class responsibilities are defined by A) its attributes only B) its collaborators C) its operations only D)** both its attributes and operations 21 An analysis package involves the categorization of analysis model elements in to useful groupings. A)** True B) False 22 Events occur whenever a(n) A)** actor and the OO system exchange information B) class operation is invoked C) messages are passed between objects D) all of the above 23 The state diagram

A) B) C) D)** 24 For A) B) C)** D) 1 Which A) B) C) D) E)**

depicts relationships between data objects depicts functions that transform the data flow indicates how data are transformed by the system indicates system reactions to external events purposes of behavior modeling a state is any consumer or producer of data. data object hierarchy. observable mode of behavior. well defined process. of these are valid software configuration items? software tools documentation executable programs test data all of the above

2 Which of the following is not considered one of the four important elements th at should exist when a configuration management system is developed? A) component elements B) human elements C) process elements D)** validation elements 3 Once a software engineering work product becomes a baseline it cannot be chang ed again. A) True B)** False 4 Which se? A) B) C) D) E)** configuration objects would not typically be found in the project databa design specification marketing data organizational structure description test plans both b and c

5 Modern software engineering practice suggests that a software team maintain SC I's in a project database or repository. A)** True B) False 6 A data repository metamodel is used to determine how A) information is stored in the repository B) data integrity can be maintained C) the existing model can be extended D)** All of the above 7 Many data repository requirements are the same as those for a typical database application. A)** True B) False 8 The ability to track relationships and changes to configuration objects is one of the most important features of the SCM repository. A)** True B) False 9 Which of the following tasks is not part of software configuration management?

A) B) C)** D)

change control reporting statistical quality control version control

10 A basic configuration object is a __________ created by a software engineer d uring some phase of the software development process. A) program data structure B) a software component C)** unit of information D) all of the above 11 A new __________ is defined when major changes have been made to one or more configuration objects. A) entity B) item C) variant D)** version 12 Change control is not necessary if a development group is making use of an au tomated project database tool. A) True B)** False 13 When software configuration management is a formal activity, the software con figuration audit is conducted by the A) development team B)** quality assurance group C) senior managers D) testing specialists 14 The A) rs B) C)** s D) primary purpose of configuration status reporting is to allow revision of project schedules and cost estimates by project manage evaluate the performance of software developers and organizations make sure that change information is communicated to all affected partie none of the above

15 Configuration issues that need to be considered when developing WebApps inclu de: A) content B) cost C) people D) politics E)** a, b, and c 16 WebApp configuration objects can be managed in much the same way as conventio nal software configuration objects except for: A)** content items B) functional items C) graphic items D) user items 17 Content management establishes a process by which Web content is rendered on the user's display screen. A) True B)** False 18 Change management for WebApps is best handled in agile manner.

A)** B)

True False

19 One reason that version control is difficult for WebApps is that in an uncont rolled environment, you can have multiple authors making changes to the same fil es from multiple locations without any realizing it. A)** True B) False 20 Requiring developers to check Web configuration items in and out and sending affected stakeholders e-mail messages automatically are good ways to deal with c onfiguration auditing and reporting for WebApps. A)** True B) False 21 SCI standards take a formal view and do not address guidelines for applying c hange management in agile environments. A) True B)** False 1 With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program prio r to delivery to the customer. A) True B)** False 2 Which A) B) C) D)** of the following are characteristics of testable software? observability simplicity stability all of the above

3 The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that ea ch program function is operational is called A)** black-box testing B) glass-box testing C) grey-box testing D) white-box testing 4 The testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the intern al logic of a software module is called A) behavioral testing B) black-box testing C) grey-box testing D)** white-box testing 5 What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by w hite-box testing? A) behavioral errors B) logic errors C) performance errors D) typographical errors E)** both b and d 6 Program flow graphs are identical to program flowcharts. A) True B)** False 7 The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regard ing the number of A) cycles in the program

B) C)** D)

errors in the program independent logic paths in the program statements in the program

8 The cyclomatic complexity of a program can be computed directly from a PDL rep resentation of an algorithm without drawing a program flow graph. A) True B)** False 9 Condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they A) rely on basis path testing B)** exercise the logical conditions in a program module C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs 10 Data flow testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they A) rely on basis path testing B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module C)** select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs 11 Loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they A) rely basis path testing B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables D)** focus on testing the validity of loop constructs 12 Black-box testing attempts to find errors in which of the following categorie s A) incorrect or missing functions B) interface errors C) performance errors D)** all of the above E) none of the above 13 Graph-based testing methods can only be used for object-oriented systems A) True B)** False 14 Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be developed. A)** True B) False 15 Boundary value analysis can only be used to do white-box testing. A) True B)** False 16 Comparison testing is typically done to test two competing products as part o f customer market analysis prior to product release. A) True B)** False 17 Orthogonal array testing enables the test designer to maximize the coverage o f the test cases devised for relatively small input domains. A) True

B)**

False

18 Test case design "in the small" for OO software is driven by the algorithmic detail of the individual operations. A)** True B) False 19 Encapsulation of attributes and operations inside objects makes it easy to ob tain object state information during testing. A) True B)** False 20 Use-cases can provide useful input into the design of black-box and state-bas ed tests of OO software. A)** True B) False 21 Fault-based testing is best reserved for A) conventional software testing B)** operations and classes that are critical or suspect C) use-case validation D) white-box testing of operator algorithms 22 Testing OO class operations is made more difficult by A) encapsulation B) inheritance C) polymorphism D)** both b and c 23 Scenario-based testing A)** concentrates on actor and software interaction B) misses errors in specifications C) misses errors in subsystem interactions D) both a and b 24 Deep A) B) C) D)** structure testing is not designed to examine object behaviors exercise communication mechanisms exercise object dependencies exercise structure observable by the user

25 Random order tests are conducted to exercise different class instance life hi stories. A)** True B) False 26 Which of these techniques is not useful for partition testing at the class le vel A) attribute-based partitioning B) category-based partitioning C)** equivalence class partitioning D) state-based partitioning 27 Multiple class testing is too complex to be tested using random test cases. A) True B)** False 28 Tests derived from behavioral class models should be based on the A) data flow diagram B) object-relation diagram

C)** D)

state diagram use-case diagram

29 Client/server architectures cannot be properly tested because network load is highly variable. A) True B)** False 30 Real-time applications add a new and potentially difficult element to the tes ting mix A) performance B) reliability C) security D)** time 1 In software quality assurance work there is no difference between software ver ification and software validation. A) True B)** False 2 The best reason for using Independent software test teams is that A) software developers do not need to do any testing B)** a test team will test the software more thoroughly C) testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins D) arguments between developers and testers are reduced 3 What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software testing i s organized? a. integration testing b. system testing c. unit testing d.validation testing A) B) C)** D) a, b, c, d, d, d, a, b, c, a, d, c, b c b a

4 Class testing of object-oriented software is equivalent to unit testing for tr aditional software. A)** True B) False 5 By collecting software metrics and making use of existing software reliability models it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines for determining when sof tware testing is finished. A)** True B) False 6 Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process? A) conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing B) specify requirements in a quantifiable manner C) use independent test teams D) wait till code is written prior to writing the test plan E)** both a and b 7 Which of the following need to be assessed during unit testing? A) algorithmic performance

B) C) D) E)**

code stability error handling execution paths both c and d

8 Drivers and stubs are not needed for unit testing because the modules are test ed independently of one another. A) True B)** False 9 Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that A) low level modules never need testing B) major decision points are tested early C) no drivers need to be written D) no stubs need to be written E)** both b and c 10 Bottom-up integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that A) major decision points are tested early B) no drivers need to be written C)** no stubs need to be written D) regression testing is not required 11 Regression testing should be a normal part of integration testing because as a new module is added to the system new A) control logic is invoked B) data flow paths are established C) drivers require testing D) all of the above E)** both a and b 12 Smoke testing might best be described as A) bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software B)** rolling integration testing C) testing that hides implementation errors D) unit testing for small programs 13 When testing object-oriented software it is important to test each class oper ation separately as part of the unit testing process. A) True B)** False 14 The A)** B) C) D) OO testing integration strategy involves testing groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way single operations as they are added to the evolving class implementation operator programs derived from use-case scenarios none of the above

15 The focus of validation testing is to uncover places that a user will be able to observe failure of the software to conform to its requirements. A)** True B) False 16 Software validation is achieved through a series of tests performed by the us er once the software is deployed in his or her work environment. A) True B)** False 17 Configuration reviews are not needed if regression testing has been rigorousl y applied during software integration.

A) B)**

True False

18 Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the A) developer B)** end users C) test team D) systems engineers 19 Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail in a varie ty of ways and verifies that software is able to continue execution without inte rruption. A) True B)** False 20 Security testing attempts to verify that protection mechanisms built into a s ystem protect it from improper penetration. A)** True B) False 21 Stress testing examines the pressures placed on the user during system use in extreme environments. A) True B)** False 22 Performance testing is only important for real-time or embedded systems. A) True B)** False 23 Debugging is not testing, but always occurs as a consequence of testing. A)** True B) False 24 Which of the following is an approach to debugging? A)** backtracking B) brute force C) cause elimination D) code restructuring E) a, b, and c