AIRCAT1201

Roots Education AIRCAT1201 1

AIRCAT-1201

Before initiating the dissection, heres a word of advice: There are several test series available to a student
from various coaching institutes. A few of these are extremely tough in either of the sections (QA, DI/LR or
English), or difficult at an overall level. From 2003 to 2006, the CAT papers were relatively difficult. While
opting for a difficult test series might have been a good strategy at that point of time, the subsequent changes
including reduced number and level of questions and fewer sections mean it is no longer a sensible choice. A
good test series has to ADAPT to the changes, and reflect the more recent and likely future trend of CAT. When
some institutes treat it as a marketing strategy, and offer FREE and difficult tests just to attract students,
unfortunately its the students who lose out.

At MBAGuru, we put in extra efforts to ensure that our students get the best possible simulation of online CAT.
The AIRCATs are very closely mapped with the actual online CAT levels. The variations in degree of difficulty of
sections/overall tests are deliberately designed to help you prepare for all possible variations in CAT. Our team
of mentors, who prepare the AIRCATs, appear for CAT every year, and the year-to-year changes in AIRCATs are
carried out basis their detailed inputs.

As you would have noticed, even the Test Screen/Interface and the Navigation pane/buttons are replicas of the
real CAT interface as depicted on the official website of CAT.

AIRCAT-1201 Dissection

While going through this sheet, you are requested to open the answer Key of AIRCAT 1201 in a separate
window for easy reference.

The test had 2 sections with sectional time limits of 70 minutes each, in sync with the latest CAT pattern. In
effect, you were taking 2 separate tests without any breaks in between. There were 4 marks per question for
the right answer, and 1 for each wrong answer. Students often believe that only 25% negative marking gives
them the freedom to mark choices even when they are not sure. However you must keep in mind that while
the negative marking is only 25%, there is also a 75% probability of getting an answer wrong and only a 25%
chance of getting it right, when you simply guess it! So, the odds are heavily against this strategy being
successful. At the same time, if you have answered say 20 out of the 30 questions in a section with relative
certainty of their correctness, it may be worthwhile to make intelligent guesses (if you can narrow down to 2
options) in about 3-4 questions. That is more likely to work as a strategy as opposed to random guesswork.

Let us now look at a detailed sectional analysis in terms of (relative) difficulty level:










Easy Intermediate Difficult Difficulty Level
Cut off
Questions
(Marks)
Section I
(QA and DA)
11 12 7 Intermediate 13 (48)
Section II
(LR and VA)
11 10 9 Intermediate 14 (52)
Overall 22 22 16 Intermediate 28 (104)

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Overall, the sections were very neatly balanced and nearly 75% of the questions in each of the sections ranged
from easy to intermediate level. In accordance with the concept of scaled score and percentile based on scaled
score in the actual CAT, the students are better off attempting some of the difficult questions as well, and that
involves a little bit of risk taking. (As a manager, thats what you are grooming yourself for, isnt it?). However,
since this is just the first CAT-like test for most, familiarity and adaptability with the test type is much more
important and attempting the easy to intermediate question types with a 80-85% accuracy should be a priority.
The sectional analysis follows.

Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation (QA and DI)
The DI sub-section set began with a cricket/advertisement question-set and most of the students would have
tried it, and realised it was not as easy as giving or having opinions about Cricket is Next up was a pure DI
question set which had data in form of percentage. This was a comparatively easier set. However, the language
in the questions and options was a little confusing, making the set an intermediate level one. Overall, 5-6
questions from the 9 DI questions could have been attempted correctly from which a score of 18-19 could have
been achieved.

The overall difficulty level of the QA questions was intermediate, and the skill was interspersed with easy as
well as more difficult questions. A good knowledge of topics you are good at would have helped immensely in
cracking this part of the test. Besides, there were a couple of questions which would have proved tricky for
most of you, like Q.28 (which required comfort with Number System as well as Probability), Q.21 and Q.22!
Rest of the questions could have been attempted depending upon your comfort level. Considering there were 8
questions from Arithmetic, 9 from Algebra and 4 from Geometry, you could have attempted 11 to 12 questions
with maximum 2 incorrect attempts. This would have ensured a score in the range of 40-42 for the QA sub-
section, assuming you were able to at least look at all the 21 questions. However, even assuming a less-than-
perfect approach to this section, a score of 34-36 was still pretty much in the offing!

Combining the two, a good score would have been around 53-55 and cut-off score could be around 48 in this
section.

Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning (VA and LR):
The LR sub-section had sitter Single questions 33, 34 and 36, while 35 was of intermediate difficulty level. This
was a LR set of Blood Relations (37-40) in which you had to assume different scenarios, rather than fixed data.
But if you observed closely, only 2 cases were possible, which would have made things easy. The other set (31-
32) on languages was also of an Intermediate difficulty level. So out of 10 questions in LR, 5-6 could have been
correct, ensuring a score of around 22. Even in not-so-good a scenario, a score of 18 was definitely achievable.

The English Subsection began with VA. The first 5 questions on Fill-in-the-Blanks ranged from easy to moderate
difficulty level. 3-4 out of 5 would have been a good start. 3 questions on Sentence correction were included to
do some justice to the exhaustive grammar sessions, and the level of these was not very difficult. While
Critical Reasoning questions can always be tricky for those who are usually baffled after reading all the answer
options, 2 out of 3 could have been surely attempted. 2 of the 3 Para-jumble based questions could have been
attempted if one smartly looked for the clues in the question. This AIRCAT had only 1 RC passage, a complete
bonanza for those who dread RC. (The going would get tougher in the future though). In RC, out of the 6
questions (although some were cryptic), 4 attempts would have been ensured a decent show. The overall
attempts could have been around 14, with not more than 3 incorrect, allowing you to pull off a score of 37-40.

The overall cut-off in this section hence could lie between 50-54, with 58-60 being a good score.
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Overall a score of around 112 would mean around 94-95%ile, in AIRCAT-1. The past experience has shown
that you can usually add around 4-5 %ile to the AIRCAT scores to get the approximate %ile in actual CAT.
Hence if you clear the mentioned cut-offs, you would stand a good chance to getting calls from 2-3 IIMs.

Also a person getting between 75%ile- 95%ile in AIRCAT can expect around 4-5%ile higher..Those around 60%ile
can expect a higher increase than even 5%ile and those above 95%ile too can expect an increase in actual CAT
though it would be smaller increase..

Summary:
As is always the case with a balanced paper, it is easy to score some but tough to score high. Maintaining
balance across sections will initially prove difficult but if you are disciplined in your approach, you will get the
best fit. Initially you could sacrifice speed for accuracy. 70-80% attempt with 80% accuracy would have been an
excellent start. Your perseverance and focus become relatively more important in such a situation. Overall
number of right attempts can be upwards of 28-30 questions. Remember, in the initial stage accuracy is much
more important than speed. Concurrently a strategy of attempting which type of questions within a section has
to be set, with minor iterations based on scores got in the subsequent tests and strength in a particular area.

Disclaimer: The above analysis is generic and cannot factor in your individual strengths and weaknesses beyond
a point and hence please interpret it to suit your specific Adaptability!

-AIRCAT Spinner Team (AST)
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Roots Education AIRCAT1201 4
SECTION I

Directions for questions 1 to 5: Refer to the following information to answer the questions.
Sachin and Sehwag are celebrity endorsers for 4 brands: P, Q, R and S. They appear in a certain number of ads for
these brands and earn some money for each ad as per their contracts with the respective brands. The brand-wise
percentage break-up of money earned by each of the two and the brand-wise percentage break-up of the number
of ads done by each is given in the table for this year. It is known that both have endorsed only these 4 brands in
this year and the previous year. The table also shows the brand-wise percentage increase in money earned by each
through their respective endorsements and the brand-wise percentage increase in the number of ads for each of the
two, over the last year.

















1. If Sehwag does 20% fewer ads as compared to Sachin for these brands and earns the same total amount as
Sachin does, then who earns the maximum average amount per ad and for which brands ads this year?
A] Sachin, P B] Sehwag, R
C] Sachin, Q D] Sehwag, S

2. Sachin earns the least amount per ad for endorsing which of the brands this year?
A] P B] Q
C] R D] S

3. Sehwags earnings per ad have shown an increase over the last year for the ads of how many brands?
A] 1 B] 0
C] 3 D] 2

4. Sachin did the maximum number of ads last year for which of the following brands?
A] Q B] P
C] R D] Indeterminate

5. As compared to last year, the greatest (absolute) increase in the number of ads was observed for
A] Sachin, P B] Sehwag, R
C] Sehwag, Q D] Indeterminate

Brand Celebrity
% split-up
of money
earned
% split-up
of number
of ads
% increase
over last year
in money
earned
% increase
over last year
in number of
ads
P
Sehwag 20 30 10 20
Sachin 35 30 10 10
Q
Sehwag 15 20 15 0
Sachin 30 25 10 5
R
Sehwag 35 25 20 15
Sachin 20 25 15 25
S
Sehwag 30 25 10 20
Sachin 15 20 20 0

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Directions for questions 6 to 9: Study the following charts and answer the questions that follow.
The JNC is preparing for the upcoming general elections and hoping to throw the incumbent MDA out of power.
Traditionally, the poll success of JNC has been directly related to the involvement of the dynasty in the polls. The
charismatic members of the dynasty have always occupied the positions of the chief of the JNC and helped the
party through their mass appeal. The exception to this however is the current incumbent, a lady who does not
enjoy quite the same support amongst the masses. There is intense speculation that during these elections one or
both of her children, R and P, will come forward and take over the reins of the JNC chief. The children may join
active politics or even contest the polls. Amidst rumours and expectations, our magazine Boutlook, conducted a
survey of 800 people asking each of them 4 questions regarding the prospects of JNC with or without R and P
entering active politics or contesting elections. 70% of the respondents were from the rural areas (30% from
urban) while 45% were females (55% males). The following tables show the responses of those surveyed against
respective questions.











6. The number of people who believe P should become the party chief is less than those who think R and P
should enter active politics by
A] 21% B] 42.85%
C] 30% D] 140%

7. If in the question Who of the two should inherit the chiefs position, 100 people who favoured R was
incorrectly shown as favouring P, which of the following is true about the popularity of R and P amongst
those surveyed?
A] P is still preferred by more people than R is.
B] P and R are equally favoured.
C] The number of people favouring R exceeds those favouring P by nearly 11 %
D] The number of people favouring R exceeds those favouring P by nearly 9.9 %

8. If the respondents were proportionately (i.e. male: female and rural: urban) divided across each of the
three responses to the question Will R and Ps entry enthuse young voters, then the ratio of the male
voters whose response was Yes to the rural voters whose response was Dont know is closest to
A] 14 : 9 B] 11 : 14
C] 33 : 7 D] 6 : 1

9. The minimum possible number of people who answered at least one question with a Dont know is
A] 80 B] 120
C] 184 D] Indeterminate
Question Response 1 Response 2 Response 3
Should R & P enter active
politics?
Yes=70% No=20% Dont know = 10%
Should R & P contest elections? Yes=53% No=27% Dont know = 20%
Who of the two should inherit
the chiefs position?
R=28% P=49% Dont know = 23%
Will R & Ps entry enthuse
young voters?
Yes=67% No=22% Dont know = 11%

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Directions for questions 10 to 15: Answer the questions independently of each other.

10. A fish is fifteen inches long. It is made up of three distinct and non-overlapping parts head, tail and
middle. Its head is as long as its tail. If only the head were twice as long as it really is, the head and tail
would together be as long as the middle. How long is the tail of the fish?
A] 2 inches B] 3 inches C] 2.5 inches D] 5 inches


11. A man buys two items X and Y at Rs.60 per kg and Rs.80 per kg respectively. He mixes the two items
in a certain proportion and sells it at the cost price of one of the two items so as to gain a profit of 17.64 %.
Find the ratio of the two items?
A] 6 : 4 B] 5 : 6
C] 7 : 3 D] 3 : 7

12. If b, c e {1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of the equations of the form x
2
+ bx + c = 0 having real roots is
A] 10 B] 7
C] 6 D] 12

13. In order to buy a car, a man borrowed Rs.180000 on which he had to pay 7.5% simple interest every year.
He also agreed to repay the principal amount at the end of 21 years. After a certain number of years,
however, the rate of interest is reduced to 7%. It is also known that at the end of the agreed period, he will
have paid in all Rs.270900 as interest. For how many years does he pay at the reduced interest rate?
A] 7 years B] 12 years
C] 14 years D] 16 years

14. A word of 6 letters is formed from a set of 16 different letters of English alphabets (repetition allowed).
Find out the probability that exactly 2 letters are repeated.
A] (225 x 224 x 156)/ 16
6
B] 18080/ 16
6

C] (15 x 224 x 156) / 16
6
D] None of these

15. 3 candidates A, B and C represented different political parties in the Lok Sabha election for Amethi
constituency. A got 50% votes more than what B got. C trailed A by 18,000 votes. If it is known that B
got 5% votes more than C, find the number of voters on the voting list (given 90% of the voters on the
voting list voted and no votes were illegal).
A] 72,000 B] 81,000
C] 90,000 D] 126,000

Directions for questions 16 and 17: Answer the questions based on the following information.
There are 3 classes A, B and C having 20, 25 and 30 students respectively. A, B and C have average marks of 20,
25 and 30 respectively in an examination.
The following is also given for the three classes:
A Highest score 22, lowest score 18;
B Highest score 31, Lowest score 23
C Highest score 33, Lowest score 26
If 5 people are transferred from C to B, then 5 people are transferred from B to A, then 5 people are transferred
from A to B and finally 5 people are transferred from B to C.

16. What is the maximum possible average that can be achieved by class C (after the transfers)?
A] 30.833 B] 30
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Roots Education AIRCAT1201 7
C] 29.66 D] Cannot say

17. What is the maximum possible average that can be achieved by class B (after the transfers)?
A] 26 B] 27
C] 25 D] Cannot say

18. A and B are real numbers not equal to zero simultaneously. The number of real roots of equation
2 2
1
1
A B
x x
+ =

, is
A] 0 B] 1
C] 2 D] Indeterminate

Directions for questions 19 and 20: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A toy car is kept on a floor designed like a graph sheet, with X and Y-axes. The toy car is moved by feeding it
with a sequence of instructions through a remote control. The different instructions that can be used in moving it
and their meanings are:









19. When a sequence of three instructions, the first of which is a RUSH (x, y) instruction, the second is
YPOSE (2) and the third is XPOSE (3), is executed, the robot reaches point (7, 5). What are the values
of x and y respectively?
A] 9, 2 B] 9, 8
C] 7, 8 D] 5, 8

20. The robot is initially at (5, 4). The minimum number of instructions that need to be executed to bring it to
the origin (0, 0) if one cannot use the RUSH (x, y), and L < 1 is
A] 5 B] 2
C] 9 D] 1

Directions for questions 21 and 22: These questions are based on the situation given below.
Rectangle PRSU is divided into two smaller rectangles PQTU and QRST by line TQ. PQ = RS = 10 cm, QR = 5
cm. Points A, B, F are within rectangle PQTU, and points C, D, E are within the rectangle QRST. The closest pair
of points among the pairs (A, C), (A, D), (A, E), (F, C), (F, D), (F, E), (B, C), (B, D), (B, E) are 8\3 cm apart.

21. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?
A] The closest pair of points among the six given points cannot be (F, C)
B] Distance between A and B is greater than that between F and C
C] The closest pair of points among the six given points is (C, D), (D, E), or (C, E)
D] Distance between A and B is less than that between F and C

Instruction Meaning
RUSH (x, y) Move to point with coordinates (x, y) no matter where you are currently
XPOSE (L)
Move perpendicular to the X-axis through a distance of L in the positive
direction if L is positive, and in the negative direction if L is negative
YPOSE (L)
Move perpendicular to the Y-axis through a distance of L, in the
positive direction if L is positive, and in the negative direction if L is
negative

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Roots Education AIRCAT1201 8
22. AB > AF > BF; CD > DE > CE; BF = 6\5 cm; the closest pair of points among the 6 given points is
A] B, F B] C, E
C] A, C D] Either [A] or [B]

23. A teacher distributed m sweets to n students. To the first student she gave 1 sweet and 1/8 of the
remaining (m 1) sweets. To the second student, she gave 2 sweets and 1/8 of the now remaining sweets
and so on. To the n
th
student, she gave the remaining n sweets. How many sweets in all (m) did the
teacher have to start with and between how many students were the sweets distributed (n).
A] m = 25, n = 5 B] m = 49, n = 6
C] m = 49, n = 7 D] m = 36, n = 6

24. The arithmetic mean of first 16 terms of G.P. with first term = 1, common ratio = 2 lies between
A] 2
10
and 2
11
B] 2
9
and 2
10

C] 2
8
and 2
9
D] 2
11
and 2
12


25. Let the consecutive vertices of a rectangle R be A, B, C & D, such that AB = BC. Let E, F and G be the
mid points of sides AB, BC and AD respectively of the rectangle R. GC and DF intersect at H. Then the
ratio of the area of the quadrilateral EFHG to that of the rectangle R is:
A] 1/2 B] 1/3 C] 3/8 D] 5/8


26. A speaks the truth X out of (X + 1) times and B speaks truth (X + 2) out of (X + 3) times. The probability
that they will contradict each other is 1/3. Find the value of X?
A] 1 B] 2 C] 3 D] 4

27. Ravi bought a ticket for the England vs Germany match three weeks in advance but later he decided to
sell his ticket and make some money. He initially quoted a huge premium expecting to make a handsome
profit but finally managed to sell at a mere third of what he had quoted. In the process, Ravis expected
profit diminished by 80%. How many rupees did Ravi finally make for every rupee that he spent initially?
A] 1.5 B] 1 C] 1.33 D] 2.66

28. Pchand takes with him everyday a certain amount in Re.1 denominations and distributes it to the poor
people in his city. He always maintains one criterion, that every recipient on any given day has to receive
an equal amount. This equal amount per recipient is decided randomly every day. Now, if on a certain
day Pchand decided to take an amount of Rs. 1152 with him, then what is the probability that he ends up
donating to exactly 48 people on that day?
A] 0.042 B] 0.052 C] 0.044 D] 0.0667

29. In the diagram AD = DB and AH = HD. Find the ratio of the area of the shaded portion to that of the
triangle DEF, if DE || BC and HG || AE.

A] 2:3
B] 1:3
C] 1:2
D] 1: 1
1
3



A
H
D
B
G
I
E
C
C
F
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Roots Education AIRCAT1201 9

30. The total profit per trip made by running a train between Delhi and Kanpur consists of two parts, one of
which is a constant amount of Rs. 24 lakh per trip and the other varies as the square of the number of
wagons attached to the engine and amounts to Rs. 7n
2
, where n is the number of wagons attached to the
engine in the trip. If the average profit per wagon per trip should not fall below Rs. 169 lakh, then what is
the minimum number of wagons that have to be attached to the engine?
A] 23 B] 24 C] 25 D] 26
AIRCAT1201
Roots Education AIRCAT1201 10
SECTION II
Directions for questions 31 and 32: Study the following information and answer the questions that follow.
At a recent international summit, five delegates (A, B, C, D and E) participated.
1. B and C spoke English, although when D joined them, they all changed to Spanish, the only
common language among the three of them.
2. The only common languages among A, B and E were French and Spanish, whereas E did not
speak Portuguese.
3. The only common language between A and D was Spanish.
4. Exactly three delegates could speak Portuguese but C, who could speak French, could not speak
Italian.
5. The most common language was Spanish, while the least common was Italian.
6. One of the delegates spoke all five languages, another one spoke four, one spoke three, one spoke
two and the other only spoke one language.

31. How many languages did each delegate speak?
A] A-3, B-5, C-4, D-1, E-2 B] A-1, B-2, C-3, D-5, E-4
C] A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5 D] A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1, E-2


32. How many delegates spoke English and French respectively?
A] 2, 3 B] 2, 4
C] 4, 2 D] None of these

Directions for questions 33 to 36: Answer the questions independently of each other.
33. A, B, C, D play four games of cards. A wins the first game and collects Re 1 from each of B, C and D. B
wins the second game and collects Rs.2 from each of the rest of the players. C wins the third game and
collects Rs.3 from each of the rest of the players and D wins the fourth game and collects Rs.4 from each
of the rest of the players. If after the final game, the amount with each player is Rs.20, then what is the
highest amount held by any player before the first game?
A] Rs.29 B] Rs.26 C] Rs.30 D] Rs.32

34. On a mans tombstone, it is said that one sixth of his life was spent in childhood and one twelfth as an
adolescent. One seventh of his life passed between the time he became an adult and the time he married;
five years later, his son was born. Alas, the son died four years before he did. He lived to be twice as old
as his son did. How old did the man live to be?
A] 32 B] 42 C] 64 D] 84

35. Cutie, Tinkle, Nonu and Haidi stay in the same locality and study in different schools W, X, Y and Z.
i) Nonu and Haidi are the youngest of the lot and go to the nearby schools.
ii) Tinkle travels the longest while going to school.
iii) Haidi does not like the playground of school Y and therefore goes to some other school.
iv) The school X is not one of the nearby schools.
v) Tinkle studies at W.
Who amongst the four studies at Z?
A] Tinkle B] Nonu C] Cutie D] Haidi



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36. Exactly twelve books are arranged from left to right on a shelf. Of the twelve books, four are small
paperback books, two are large paperback books, three are clothbound books, and three are leather-bound
books. The four small paperback books are next to each other, and the three leather-bound books are next
to each other. The first (leftmost) book and the twelfth (rightmost) book are paperback books. If the third
book from left is a small paperback book and each large paperback book is next to a leather-bound book,
starting from left, which of the following books (starting from leftmost as first) must be a large paperback
book?
A] Seventh B] Second
C] Sixth D] Eighth

Directions for questions 37 to 40: Study the following information and answer the questions that follow.
Kiran, Amit, Chanda, Sukhi, Sonu and Nusrat are two sets of triplets; comprising of 4 males and 2 females. Amit
is Sonus only brother while Kiran is married to Sukhi. None of the six is married to a sibling, or to someone of
the same sex or to more than one person. Both the sets of triplets contain at least one member of each of the two
sexes.

37. Nusrat must be female if
A] Chanda is Sukhis sister-in-law. B] Chanda is Sukhis brother-in-law.
C] Chanda and Nusrat are siblings. D] Kiran and Sonu are siblings.

38. If Sonu and Nusrat form a married couple, which of the following must be true?
A] Sukhi is a female. B] Nusrat is a male.
C] Chanda is a male. D] Kiran is a male.

39. Which of the following statements must be false?
A] Chanda is Sukhis brother-in-law. B] Chanda is Sukhis sister-in-law.
C] Sonu is Sukhis brother-in-law. D] Amit is Sukhis sister-in-law.

40. Who cannot be a sister and brother?
A] Nusrat and Sonu B] Chanda and Nusrat
C] Kiran and Sonu D] All these are possible

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Roots Education AIRCAT1201 12

Directions for questions 41 to 45: Each of the sentences below has two blank spaces indicating that a word has
been left out in each of the blanks. Choose the set of words that completes the sentence most meaningfully,
with the first word fitting the first blank and the second word fitting the second blank.

41. An obvious step that continues to ________ New Delhi is the need to upgrade Indias dense, ________
rail network.
A] allude, rusted B] elude, prolific
C] elude, rusting D] prompt, profligate

42. The young woman was suffering from ________ induced by ________.
A] debility, starvation B] rabidity, radicalism
C] incapacity, serendipity D] euphoria, starvation

43. Women of all educational ________ and life experiences voice ________ sentiments on the issue.
A] learning, contrasting B] upbringing, remarkable
C] makings, identical D] backgrounds, similar

44. And how shall you punish those whose ________ is already ________ than their misdeeds?
A] life, longer B] remorse, greater
C] punishment, less D] ego, bigger

45. With increase in ________ and understanding, meanings of words ________.
A] communication, digress B] usage, disappear
C] knowledge, change D] technology, decline

Directions for questions 46 to 48: From the options given in each question, choose the one that would best
replace the underlined part of the sentence given in the question so as to make it grammatically correct as per
Standard English rules.

46. What was as remarkable as the development of the digital camera has been the use of the new technology
to revitalize, in a manner better than was ever before possible, some of the classic portraits of the pre-
photographic era.
A] What was as remarkable as the development of the digital camera
B] The thing that was as remarkable as developing the digital camera
C] No less remarkable than the development of the digital camera
D] Developing the digital camera has been none the less remarkable than

47. The Directive Principles of State Policy, however, expected the State to endeavor to secure a uniform
civil code for citizens.
A] The Directive Principles of State Policy, however, expected the State to endeavor to secure a
uniform civil code for citizens.
B] The Directive Principals, however, of State Policy expected the State to endeavor to secure a
uniform civil code for citizens.
C] The Directive Principles of State Policy however expected the State to endeavor to secure a
uniform civil code for citizens.
D] The Directive Principles of State Policy, however, expected the State to endeavor for securing a
uniform civil code for citizens.

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48. In June of 2008, Lady in Blue, Akshay Kumars view of a rope bridge over the Ganges sold for Rs.202
and it was the lowest price ever paid for a painting at auction.
A] Ganges sold for Rs.202 and it was
B] Ganges, which sold for Rs.202, was
C] Ganges, was sold for Rs.202,
D] Ganges, sold for Rs.202, and was

Directions for questions 49 to 51: Answer each question on the basis of the information given in the short
passage immediately preceding it.
49. Male cuckoos construct elaborately decorated nests. Basing their judgment on the fact that different local
populations of cuckoos of the same species build nests that exhibit different building and decorative styles,
researchers have concluded that the cuckoos building styles are a culturally acquired, rather than a
genetically transmitted, trait.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn by the researchers?
A] There are more common characteristics than there are differences among the nest-building
styles of the local cuckoo population that has been studied most extensively.
B] Female cuckoos do not have a natural inclination for building decorative nests.
C] The nests of one species of cuckoos lack the towers and ornamentation characteristic of the
nests of most other species of cuckoos.
D] Cuckoos are found only in Andaman and Maldives, where local populations of the birds
apparently seldom have contact with one another.

50. A drug that is highly effective in treating many types of infection can, at present, be obtained only from
the bark of the suguna, a tree that is quite rare in the wild. It takes the bark of 10,000 trees to make one
kilogram of the drug. It follows, therefore, that continued production of the drug would eventually lead to
the sugunas extinction.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?
A] The drug made from suguna bark is dispensed to doctors from a central authority.
B] A government funded research will soon reveal two alternative sources of obtaining the drug in
bulk quantities and at affordable prices.
C] The leaves of the suguna are used in a number of medical products which are available over the
counter and not just for this drug.
D] The suguna tree is worshipped by some tribals, who have recently submitted a memorandum to
the ministry of forest conservation pleading immediate halt to felling of suguna trees.

51. Bunty electric manufactures and sells the same motors as Bubbly electric. Employee wages account for
forty percent of the cost of manufacturing motors at both companies. Bunty electric is seeking a
competitive advantage over Bubbly electric. Therefore, to promote this end, Bunty electric should lower
employee wages.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
A] Because they make a small number of motors, motor manufacturers cannot receive volume
discounts on raw materials.
B] Bubbly electric has taken away twenty percent of Bunty electrics business over the last year.
C] Bunty electric pays its employees, on average, ten percent more than does Bubbly electric.
D] Lowering wages would reduce the quality of employee work, and this reduced quality would lead
to lowered sales.

AIRCAT1201
Roots Education AIRCAT1201 14
Directions for questions 52 to 54: Select the option that indicates the most logical order of the sentences given
below so that they form a coherent paragraph.
52. A) Additionally, Summers writes that the contribution of the nurses to the relief of the wounded was
at best marginal.
B) The prevailing problems of military medicine were caused by army organizational practices, and
the addition of a few nurses to the medical staff could be no more than symbolic.
C) A book by Anne Summers seeks to debunk the idealizations and present a reality at odds with
Nightingales heroic reputation.
D) Nightingales place in the national pantheon, Summers asserts, is largely due to the
propagandistic efforts of contemporary newspaper reporters.
E) According to Summers, Nightingales importance during the Crimean War has been exaggerated:
not until near the wars end did she become supervisor of the female nurses.
A] AEBCD B] CAEBD C] CEABD D] BCADE

53. A) Civil rights activists have long argued that one of the principal reasons why Blacks, Hispanics,
and other minority groups have difficulty establishing themselves in business is that they lack
access to the sizable orders and subcontracts that are generated by large companies.
B) Indeed, some federal and local agencies have gone so far as to set specific percentage goals for
apportioning parts of public works contracts to minority enterprises.
C) Now Congress, in apparent agreement, has required by law that businesses awarded federal
contracts of more than $500,000 do their best to find minority subcontractors and record their
efforts to do so on forms filed with the government.
D) Recent years have brought minority-owned businesses in the United States unprecedented
opportunities as well as new and significant risks.
A] DACB B] ACBD C] ADCB D] DABC

54. A) There is no pride in being an employee.
B) Reform in America has been sterile because it can imagine no change except through the
extension of this metaphor of a race, wider inclusion of competitors, a piece of the action, as it
were, for the disenfranchised.
C) There is, in our legends, no heroism of the office clerk, no stable industrial work force of the
people who actually make the system work.
D) There is no attempt to call off the race.
E) Since our only stability is change, America seems not to honor the quiet work that achieves social
interdependence and stability.
A] AECDB B] BDECA C] CAEBD D] BEADC

AIRCAT1201
Roots Education AIRCAT1201 15
Directions for questions 55 to 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the passage given below.
Passage

Is there obvious proof that we could be alone in the Galaxy? Enrico Fermi thought so and he was a pretty smart
guy. Might he have been right?

Its been a hundred years since Fermi, an icon of physics, was born (and nearly a half-century since he died). Hes
best remembered for building a working atomic reactor in a squash court. But in 1950, Fermi made a seemingly
innocuous lunchtime remark that has caught and held the attention of every SETI (SETI, Search for Extra-
Terrestrial Intelligence) researcher since.

The remark came while Fermi was discussing with his mealtime mates the possibility that many sophisticated
societies populate the Galaxy. They thought it reasonable to assume that we have a lot of cosmic company. But
somewhere between one sentence and the next, Fermis supple brain realized that if this was true, it implied
something profound. If there are really a lot of alien societies, then some of them might have spread out.

Fermi realized that any civilization with a modest amount of rocket technology and an immodest amount of
imperial incentive could rapidly colonize the entire Galaxy. Within ten million years, every star system could be
brought under the wing of empire. Ten million years may sound long, but in fact its quite short compared with
the age of the Galaxy, which is roughly ten thousand million years. Colonization of the Milky Way should be a
quick exercise.

So what Fermi immediately realized was that the aliens have had more than enough time to pepper the Galaxy
with their presence. But looking around, he didnt see any clear indication that theyre out and about. This
prompted Fermi to ask what was (to him) an obvious question: where is everybody?

This sounds a bit silly at first. The fact that aliens dont seem to be walking our planet apparently implies that
there are no extraterrestrials anywhere among the vast tracts of the Galaxy. Many researchers consider this to be a
radical conclusion to draw from such a simple observation. Surely there is a straightforward explanation for what
has become known as the Fermi Paradox. There must be some way to account for our apparent loneliness in a
galaxy that we assume is filled with other clever beings.

A lot of folks have given this thought. The first thing they note is that the Fermi Paradox is a remarkably strong
argument. You can quibble about the speed of alien spacecraft, and whether they can move at 1 percent of the
speed of light or 10 percent of the speed of light. It doesnt matter. You can argue about how long it would take
for a new star colony to spawn colonies of its own. It still doesnt matter. Any halfway reasonable assumption
about how fast colonization could take place still ends up with time scales that are profoundly shorter than the age
of the Galaxy. Its like having a heated discussion about whether Spanish ships of the 16th century could heave
along at two knots or twenty. Either way they could speedily colonize the Americas.

Consequently, scientists in and out of the SETI community have conjured up other arguments to deal with the
conflict between the idea that aliens should be everywhere and our failure (so far) to find them. In the 1980s,
dozens of papers were published to address the Fermi Paradox. They considered technical and sociological
arguments for why the aliens werent hanging out nearby. Some even insisted that there was no paradox at all: the
reason we dont see evidence of extraterrestrials is because there arent any.

55. Which of the following best summarises Fermis argument?
A] If there were any extra-terrestrial civilizations in the universe, they would have reached the Earth
by now; since they have not, there are no extra-terrestrial civilizations.
AIRCAT1201
Roots Education AIRCAT1201 16
B] If extra-terrestrial civilizations wanted to contact humanity, they would have done so; since they
have not, there are no extra-terrestrial civilizations
C] If there were many advanced civilizations in our galaxy, it is very likely that at least one would
have reached the Earth by now; since it has not happened, very probably there are not many
advanced civilizations.
D] There is a very high probability of extra-terrestrial civilizations in the universe, but we do not
know why they have not contacted humanity.

56. Which of the following is a good argument against Fermis comment?
A] Even if there were any extra-terrestrial civilizations in the universe, they may not necessarily
wish to contact us.
B] Even if there were any extra-terrestrial civilizations in the universe, they may not have been able
to contact us yet.
C] Even if there are any advanced extra-terrestrial civilizations in our galaxy, they may not
necessarily wish to contact us.
D] Even if there are any advanced extra-terrestrial civilizations in our galaxy, they may not have
succeeded in contacting us so far.

57. Which of the following is not implicitly assumed in Fermis argument?
A] An advanced extra-terrestrial civilization would wish to spread as far as it could
B] An advanced extra-terrestrial civilization would develop the technology to travel to other planets
C] An advanced extra-terrestrial civilization would survive long enough to spread and contact others
D] An advanced extra-terrestrial civilization would have spacecraft that could travel at 1% of the
speed of light

58. If Fermis argument were to be accepted, which of the following would be adversely affected?
A] Projects to send spacecraft to other planets
B] Projects to send spacecraft to other solar systems
C] Projects to develop faster spacecraft
D] SETI, the Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence project

59. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with doing which one of the following?
A] Criticizing the SETI project and its defenders
B] Presenting Fermis paradox, and showing that the argument underlying it is very strong
D] Defending the SETI project against Fermis argument
E] Defending Fermis argument against supporters of the SETI project

60. Which of the following comparisons is central to Fermis argument?
A] The age of the human race versus the age of the Galaxy
B] The age of the Earth versus the age of the Galaxy
C] The time taken to colonise the Galaxy versus the age of the Galaxy
D] The speed of alien spacecrafts versus the speed of light
AIRCAT1201
Roots Education AIRCAT1201 17
AIRCAT1201 Solutions
1-5.
1. [B] If Sachin did a total of N ads for an amount
A, Sehwag did a 0.8N ads for amount A.
Sachins per ad earnings for the 4 brands:
P
35
30
A
;
N
Q
30
25
A
;
N
R
20
25
A
;
N
S
15
20
A
N

The maximum is for brand Q.
Sehwags per ad earnings for the 4 brands :
P
20 20
30 0 8 24
A A
. N N
=

Q
15 15
20 0 8 16
A A
. N N
=

R
35 35
25 0 8 20
A A
. N N
=

S
30 30
25 0 8 20
A A
. N N
=

The earnings per ad is maximum for Sehwag
incase of brand R, and this is higher than the
earnings per ad for Sachin from brand Q.

2. [D] From the comparison of Sachins earnings
(as in the previous question), he earns the
least per ad from brand S
15
20
A
N


3. [D] If Sehwag earns an amount A by doing N
ads this year, Sehwags earnings per ad:













You can see that an increase in earning per
ad takes place for Q and R.

4. [B] If Sachin did a total of N ads this year, his
last years ads can be compared as follows:
P
30
1 1
N
;
.
Q
25
1 05
N
;
.
R
25
1 25
N
;
.
S
20
1
N

Hence, the number of ads done by Sachin
last year was highest for brand P.

5. [D] Absolute numbers of ads by Sehwag and
Sachin cannot be compared.
69:
6. [C] Required % = {(70 49)/70} x 100 = 30

7. [C] 100 people 12.5% of 800 people
New % of R = 28 + 12.5 = 40.5; New % of P
= 49 12.5 = 36.5 People favoring R
exceeds those favoring P by
[(40.5 36.5)/36.5] x 100 10.85 %

8. [C] Required ratio = (0.55 x 0.67)/ (0.70 x 0.11)
which is closest to 33 : 7

9. [C] The people will be minimum if the people
voting Dont know for the 1
st
, 2
nd
, 3
rd
and the
4
th
questions overlap with each other in
which case maximum will be 23% of 800 =
184

10. [B] Let length of Head = x inches
length of Tail = x inches
The middle = 2x + x = 3x
Total length = 5x = 15 inches
x = 3 inches (length of the tail)

11. [A] It is clear that to make profit, the man will
have to sell the mixture at cost price of Y.
Suppose that amount of X = a
And the amount of Y is b
Total cost of mixture is = 60a + 80b
Total selling value of mixture = 80 (a + b)
Profit = 20a
[20a/ (60a + 80b)] x 100 = 17.64
a : b = 6 : 4

12. [B] Use the rule b
2
4ac > 0; Here a = 1
For b = 4, c = 1, 2, 3, 4
For b = 3, c = 1, 2
For b = 2, c = 1

13. [C] Suppose, he pays at reduced rate for x years
Effective rate of interest
= (270900 x 100)/ {180000 x 21}
= 7.167%
Applying alligation rule,
x/ (21 x) = (7.5 7.167)/ (7.167 7) where
x = no. of years at 7 % per annum.
x = 14 years


Brand This year Previous year
P
20
30
A
N

20 1 2
30 1 1
A .
. N
| || |
| |
\ .\ .

Q
15
20
A
N

15 1
20 1 15
A
. N
| || |
| |
\ .\ .

R
35
25
A
N

35 1 15
25 1 2
A .
. N
| || |
| |
\ .\ .

S
30
25
A
N

30 1 2
25 1 1
A .
. N
| || |
| |
\ .\ .


AIRCAT1201

Roots Education AIRCAT1201S
14. [A] Total possible number of words are = 16
6

First select 5 letters out of 16 letters; No. of
ways of doing this =
16
C
5
; now, select 1
letter, which will be repeated, out of these 5
letters selected; No. of ways of doing this =
5
C
1
. Now, the number of ways of arranging
these 6 letters = (6!/2!) as two of the 6 letters
repeat. No. of words with exactly 2 letters
repeating =
16
C
5
x
5
C
1
x (6!/2!)

15. [D] A = 1.5B; A C = 18000; B = 1.05 C. Also,
A + B + C = 90% of total voters on voting
list. Solve to get A, B and C.

1617:
16. [A] The maximum possible average for C will be
achieved when five people having lowest
marks in C i.e. 26, are transferred out and 5
people with highest marks in B i.e. 31 are
transferred in to C. Hence, difference in total
will be +25. So maximum possible average
= [(30 x 30) + 25]/30 = 30.833

17. [B] For the maximum possible average of B the
following operations should happen:
Five 33s from C to B, whatever comes back
from A to B goes to C [Since the lowest of B
is higher than highest of A]. Then five 23s
are transferred from B to C. This gives an
increase of 50 marks and an increase of the
average by 2.

18. [D] When neither A nor B is zero, it will be a
Quadratic equation in x 2 roots, both real
or both complex . But when either A or B = 0,
it will be a simple equation with one root. It
will be a linear equation.

1920:
19. [D] The final point is (7, 5), previous point is
(7, 5 (3)) i.e. (7, 8), and still previous
point is (7 2, 8) = (5, 8).

20. [B] L < 1 L can be negative. 2 instructions
required would be XPOSE (4) and YPOSE
(5), in any order.

2122:
21. [A] In the rectangle QRST, maximum length
between any two points out of C, D and E,
is less than the length of the diagonal of the
rectangle.
Therefore CD or CE or DE < 125
CD or CE or DE < 5 5
Minimum distance between F and C is 8 3
Hence, closest pair of points among the six
given points cannot be (F, C)
22. [B] BF = 6 5
Maximum length of CD is 5 5
Therefore, BF is always > than CD. And
since CD > DE > CE.
Therefore, (C, E) is the closest pair among
the 6 given points.

23. [C] Going by options, if we take m = 49,
Sweets to 1
st
student = 1 + (49 1)/8 = 7
Sweets to 2
nd
student = 2 + (42 2)/8 = 7
Sweets to 3
rd
student = 3 + (35 3)/8 = 7
..
Sweets to 7
th
student = 7 + (7 7)/8 = 7
n = 7

24. [D] AM = [(2
16
1)/ (2 1)]/16 = (2
16
1)/16
AM = 2
16
/ 2
4
1/16 = 2
12
1/16
2
11
< AM

< 2
12


25. [C] BC = 2 AB GF divides ABCD into 2
squares. Since E is the mid-point of AB,
Area (AEFG) = Area (Square ABFG)










Since diagonals of a square divide it into 4
triangles of equal area,
Area (AHFG) = Area (Square GFCD)
Area ( EFHG) = ( + ) Area (ABCD)
= 3/8 x Area (ABCD)

26. [C] Probability for A and B are given by




Now probability that contradict each other
= Probability (A speaks truth) x Probability
(B speaks lie) + Probability (B speaks truth)
x Probability (A speaks lie)
A
E
B
G F
H
D C
A
E
B
G F
H
D C

Truth Lie
A X/(X + 1) 1/(X+ 1)
B (X + 2)/(X + 3) 1/(X + 3)

AIRCAT1201

Roots Education AIRCAT1201S
= [X/ (X + 1)] x [1/ (X + 3)] + [1/ (X + 1)] x
[(X + 2)/ (X + 3)] = 1/3 X = 3.

27. [B] Let Ravi'ss initial amount spent on the
ticket be C and let his quotation to sell be S.
Hence expected profit = S C = P(say) -
-(1)
When sold at
S
3
Ravis expected profit
diminished by 80%
S
3
- C = 0.2 P ---- (2)
Solving (1) and (2) we get S = 6C or finally
selling price =
S
3
= 2C
Ravi sold the ticket at twice the cost.
He made one rupee per rupee

28. [A] 1152 = 2
7
3
2
1152 can be written as m n in (7 +1)
(2 +1) = 24 different ways.
i.e. Rs. 1,152 can be divided among m
people with Rs. n each in 24 ways.
[Note: Here m n is not the same as n m
since giving m people Rs. n each is not the
same as giving n people Rs. m each]
The probability of splitting 1152 as 48
24 is
1
24
= 0.0416 0.042

29. [C] Consider the above diagram, where area of
ABC = A
The height of AHI, HGI, GEI are same
as they are between the same two parallels.
Area of HGI + Area of AHI + Area of
GEI =
3
4

1
4
A
1
2
HG h +
1
2
AI h +
1
2
IE h =
3
16
A

1
2
HG h +
1
2
AE h =
3
16
A

1
2

1
2
AE h +
1
2
AE h =
3
16
A

3
2
Area of shaded portion =
3
16
A
Area of shaded portion =
1
8
A
Area of DEF =
1
3
of trapezium DEBC
=
1
3

3
4
of A =
1
4
A
required ratio =
1
8
A :
1
4
A = 1 : 2

30. [B] Let the number of wagons attached to the
engine in a trip be n, then total profit in the
trip.
= Rs.(24 + 7n
2
) lakh and average profit per
wagon per trip will be the

total profit inthetrip
numberofwagonsinthetrip
= Rs.
2
24 + 7n
n
| |
|
\ .
lakh/wagon per trip
= It is required that this value not fall below
169 lakh

2
24 + 7n
n
169 ----------------(1)
7n
2
169n + 24 0
[Note: Since we know that n (i.e. the number
of wagons) is +ve, we can cross multiply
equation (1)] (n 24) (7n 1) 0 n is
equal to or lies outside
1
7
and 24 n 24.
The minimum number of wagons that
have to be attached to ensure that the
average profit per wagon / trip does not fall
below 169 lakh is 24.

SECTION II

3132. The statements imply that no 2 delegates
spoke the same number of languages and
each language is spoken by different number
of people.








English Spanish Portuguese French Italian
A N Y Y Y N
B Y Y Y Y Y
C Y Y Y Y N
D N Y N N N
E N Y N Y N

AIRCAT1201

Roots Education AIRCAT1201S
31. [A] From statement 3, the only common
language between A and D is Spanish and
Spanish is spoken by everyone, therefore
either A or D speaks only one language. But
from statement 2, A speaks French also, so
D-1 is correct, which leaves only options [A]
and [D]. Now, from the remaining options,
either of A or B speaks all 5 languages.
From statements 1 and 2, B speaks English
but A does not. Hence, B-5 or option [A] is
correct.

32. [B]

33. [B] Since the money loss increases in every
round and at the end of 4 rounds each has
Rs.20, A had the highest amount as he won
the 1
st
game and then lost all the three.
So he has lost Rs. (2 + 3 + 4) = Rs. 9 in the
last 3 rounds and collected Rs. (1 + 1 + 1) =
Rs. 3 in the first round. Thus, his total loss =
Rs. (9 3) = Rs. 6. So he must have had Rs.
26 before the first round.


34. [D] Use options: 84 is divisible by 6, 12 and 7.
84/6 = 14 (Childhood),
84/12 = 7 (Adolescence)
84/7 = 12 (Adult before marriage)
He married at 33, and had a son at 38. The
son lived for 42 years till the man was 80
and died 4 years earlier than the man, who
died at 84.

35. [D] Tinkle studies at the school that is furthest
and at W, and X is not one of the nearby
schools Y and Z are the nearby schools
where Nonu and Haidi study. However, it is
given that Haidi does not study in Y. Hence,
she studies in Z.
Tinkle W, Cutie X, Nonu Y and
Haidi Z is the combination.

36. [D] The 4 left most are small paperback books.
The arrangement is as follows:
SP,SP,SP,SP,CB,CB,CB,LP,LB,LB,LB,LP
SP: Small paperback; LP: Large paperback
CB: Clothbound; LB: Leather bound

3740: Amit is a male and Amit and Sonu are
siblings. Since Kiran and Sukhi are not
siblings therefore one of them would be a
sibling of Amit and Sonu and the other
would be a sibling of Nusat and Chanda.
Also, Kiran and Sukhi will be of opposite
sexes and hence, both the siblings for the
one of them who is a female, will be males.
Further, both sets contain one female and
two males.
There are 2 combinations possible.
Combination 1:
Set 1: Kiran, Sonu, Amit (male)
Set 2: Sukhi, Nusrat, Chanda
Combination 2:
Set 1: Kiran, Nusrat, Chanda
Set 2: Sukhi, Sonu, Amit (male)

37. [B] If Chanda is Sukhis brother-in-law, then
Combination 1 (which treats both of them as
siblings is not possible); hence, it is
Combination 2. If Chanda is a male in
Combination 2, then Sukhi cannot be male
since Sonus only brother is Amit. If Sukhi
is female, Kiran is male and hence, Nusrat
has to be female (since all three siblings of
Set 1 cannot be males.)

38. [C] If Sonu and Nusrat are a married couple,
then they are of opposite sexes.
Combination 1:
Set 1: Kiran, Sonu, Amit (male)
Set 2: Sukhi, Nusrat, Chanda
If Nusrat is male, then Sonu would be
female and therefore, Kiran would have to
be male (which is not possible since Sonus
only brother is Amit). Hence, if Nusrat is
female, Sonu is male, Kiran is female, and
Chanda and Sukhi are males.

Combination 2:
Set 1: Kiran, Nusrat, Chanda
Set 2: Sukhi, Sonu, Amit (male)
If Nusrat is female then Sonu is male and
Sukhi is female (since one of the 3 siblings
has to be female). That would mean Kiran is
male, and Chanda is male since Nusrat is the
only female amongst the siblings. If Nusrat
is male, then Sonu is female which would
imply that Sukhi is male, which is not
possible (since Amit is Sonus only brother).
Hence, Chanda is male if Nusrat and Sonu
are married.

39. [D] Amit is male and hence cannot be anyones
sister-in-law.

AIRCAT1201

Roots Education AIRCAT1201S
40. [A] Nusrat and Sonu will have to be in different
sets since Kiran and Sukhi have to be in
different sets and Amit has to be in the same
set as Sonu (siblings)


41. [C] Allude means to make an indirect reference,
hence [A] does not fit the sentence. The need
for upgradation implies that the present state
of the rail network is not satisfactory. Hence,
rusting is a better choice than prolific or
profligate.

42. [A] [D] is incorrect as one cannot suffer from
euphoria. In [B], rabidity means enthusiasm
or rage which does not fit the sentence well
along with the second word radicalism. In
[A] and [C], the first word means the same
but starvation as the cause of suffering
makes more sense than does serendipity.

43. [D] Option [D] is the obvious choice with
backgrounds filling first blank perfectly!

44. [B] Remorse means penitence or regret.

45. [C] Knowledge and understanding run parallel;
also the neutral tone of the sentence suggests
change as a better fit for the second blank.

46. [C] Parallel construction lacking in options [B]
and [D]; tense mismatch in option [A].

47. [A] In [B], Directive principles of state policy. is
one word; therefore the comma placement is
incorrect. In [C], however should be within
commas because it is parenthetical. In [D],
lack of parallelism between to endeavor
and for securing.

48. [D] In [A], there is lack of parallel construction
due to the use of it; In [B] and [C], and is
missing since there are 2 ideas in the
sentence they have to be joined by a
conjunction, in this case and. Therefore,
[D] is the correct option.

49. [A] The paragraph mentions how different local
populations of cuckoos of the same species
make different type of nests; this suggests
lack of genetic influence of style of building
nests. Now, the evidence that the same
cuckoo population builds nests with several
common characteristics would lend credence
to the cultural factor being dominant. Hence,
[A] is the best choice.

50. [B] The argument that production of the drug
would lead to extinction of suguna trees is
based on the fact that, at present, the only
source for obtaining the drug is the bark of
suguna trees. If there are some alternative
sources from which the drug can be obtained,
continued production of the drug will not
lead to extinction of the suguna trees.

51. [D] [A] and [B] are unrelated to the context of
the argument. [C] infact might suggest a
decrease in wages as a viable route and
hence strengthen the argument. [D] presents
an argument against lowering of wages and
hence, is the best choice.

52. [C] Sentence C, which introduces a book by
Summers, is the starting sentence. E is more
holistic and hence, logically precedes A.
Hence, [C] is the best choice.

53. [A]

54. [B] B-D is a logical link with metaphor of a race
in B leading to the race in D. C-A is another
logical link.

55. [C]

56. [C]

57. [D]

58. [D]

59. [B]

60. [C]