DCF Aswath
DCF Aswath
DCF Aswath
Aswath Damodaran
Aswath Damodaran
Aswath Damodaran
Aswath Damodaran
Aswath Damodaran
What currency should the discount rate (risk free rate) be in?
Aswath Damodaran
If your rm is
large and growing at a rate close to or less than growth rate of the economy, or constrained by regulation from growing at rate faster than the economy has the characteristics of a stable rm (average risk & reinvestment rates) Use a Stable Growth Model is large & growing at a moderate rate ( Overall growth rate + 10%) or has a single product & barriers to entry with a nite life (e.g. patents)
If your rm
If your rm
is small and growing at a very high rate (> Overall growth rate + 10%) or has signicant barriers to entry into the business has rm characteristics that are very different from the norm
Aswath Damodaran
Aswath Damodaran
FCFE
FCFF
Yes Adjust margins over time to nurse firm to financial health Yes
Aswath Damodaran
Companies Valued
Company
Con Ed
ABN Amro
S&P 500
Nestle
Tsingtao
Model Used
Stable DDM
2-Stage DDM
2-Stage DDM
2-Stage FCFE
3-Stage FCFE
Remarks Dividends=FCFE, Stable D/E, Low g FCFE=?, Regulated D/E, g>Stable Collectively, market is an investment DividendsFCFE, Stable D/E, High g DividendsFCFE, Stable D/E,High g Normalized Earnings; Stable Sector The value of growth? Emerging Market company (not) Dealing with Distress Varying margins over time
DaimlerChrysler Stable FCFF Tube Investments 2-stage FCFF Embraer Global Crossing Amazon.com 2-stage FCFF 2-stage FCFF n-stage FCFF
Aswath Damodaran
General Information
The risk premium that I will be using in the latest valuations for mature equity markets is 4%. This is the average implied equity risk premium from 1960 to 2003 as well as the average historical premium across the top 15 equity markets in the twentieth century. For the valuations from 1998 and earlier, I use a risk premium of 5.5%.
Aswath Damodaran
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The rm is in stable growth; based upon size and the area that it serves. Its rates are also regulated; It is unlikely that the regulators will allow prots to grow at extraordinary rates. Firm Characteristics are consistent with stable, DDM model rm
The beta is 0.80 and has been stable over time. The rm is in stable leverage. The rm pays out dividends that are roughly equal to FCFE.
Average Annual FCFE between 1999 and 2004 = $635 million Average Annual Dividends between 1999 and 2004 = $ 624 million Dividends as % of FCFE = 98%
Aswath Damodaran
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Earnings per share for 2004 = $ 2.72 (Fourth quarter estimate used) Dividend Payout Ratio over 2004 = 83.06% Dividends per share for 2004 = $2.26 Expected Growth Rate in Earnings and Dividends =2% Con Ed Beta = 0.80 (Bottom-up beta estimate) Cost of Equity = 4.22% + 0.80*4% = 7.42% Value of Equity per Share = $2.26*1.02 / (.0742 -.02) = $ 42.53 The stock was trading at $ 43.42 on December 31, 2004
Aswath Damodaran
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To estimate the implied growth rate in Con Eds current stock price, we set the market price equal to the value, and solve for the growth rate:
Price per share = $ 43.42 = $2.26*(1+g) / (.0742 -g) Implied growth rate = 2.11%
Given its retention ratio of 16.94% and its return on equity in 2003 of 10%, the fundamental growth rate for Con Ed is: Fundamental growth rate = (.1694*.10) = 1.69% You could also frame the question in terms of a break-even return on equity.
Break even Return on equity = g/ Retention ratio = .0211/.1694 = 12.45%
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When you do any valuation, there are three possibilities. The rst is that you are right and the market is wrong. The second is that the market is right and that you are wrong. The third is that you are both wrong. In an efcient market, which is the most likely scenario?
Assume that you invest in a misvalued rm, and that you are right and the market is wrong. Will you denitely prot from your investment? Yes No
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As a nancial service institution, estimating FCFE or FCFF is very difcult. The expected growth rate based upon the current return on equity of 16% and a retention ratio of 51% is 8.2%. This is higher than what would be a stable growth rate (roughly 4% in Euros)
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Market Inputs
Long Term Riskfree Rate (in Euros) = 4.35% Risk Premium = 4% (U.S. premium : Netherlands is AAA rated)
Current Earnings Per Share = 1.85 Eur; Current DPS = 0.90 Eur; Variable High Growth Phase Stable Growth Phase Length 5 years Forever after yr 5 Return on Equity 16.00% 8.35% (Set = Cost of equity) Payout Ratio 48.65% 52.10% (1 - 4/8.35) Retention Ratio 51.35% 47.90% (b=g/ROE=4/8.35) Expected growth .16*.5135=..0822 4% (Assumed) Beta 0.95 1.00 Cost of Equity 4.35%+0.95(4%) 4.35%+1.00(4%) =8.15% = 8.35%
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Expected EPS in year 6 = 2.75(1.04) = 2.86 Eur Expected DPS in year 6 = 2.86*0.5210=1.49 Eur Terminal Price (in year 5) = 1.49/(.0835-.04) = 34.20 Eur PV of Terminal Price = 34.20/(1.0815)5 = 23.11Eur Value Per Share = 0.90 + 0.90 + 0.90 + 0.90 + 0.90 + 23.11 = 27.62 Eur The stock was trading at 18.55 Euros on December 31, 2003
Aswath Damodaran 19
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In any valuation model, it is possible to extract the portion of the value that can be attributed to growth, and to break this down further into that portion attributable to high growth and the portion attributable to stable growth. In the case of the 2-stage DDM, this can be accomplished as follows:
Value of High Growth DPSt = Expected dividends per share in year t r = Cost of Equity Pn = Price at the end of year n gn = Growth rate forever after year n
Assets in Place
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Value of Assets in Place = Current DPS/Cost of Equity = 0.90 Euros/.0835 = 10.78 Euros
= 10.74 Euros (A more precise estimate would have required us to use the stable growth payout ratio to re-estimate dividends) Value of High Growth = Total Value - (10.78+10.74) = 27.62 - (10.78+ 10.74) = 6.10 Euros
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While markets overall generally do not grow faster than the economies in which they operate, there is reason to believe that the earnings at U.S. companies (which have outpaced nominal GNP growth over the last 5 years) will continue to do so in the next 5 years. The consensus estimate of growth in earnings (from Zacks) is roughly 8% (with top-down estimates) Though it is possible to estimate FCFE for many of the rms in the S&P 500, it is not feasible for several (nancial service rms). The dividends during the year should provide a reasonable (albeit conservative) estimate of the cash ows to equity investors from buying the index.
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General Inputs
Long Term Government Bond Rate = 4.22% Risk Premium for U.S. Equities = 4% Current level of the Index = 1211.92
Inputs for the Valuation High Growth Phase 5 years 1.60% 8.5% 1.00 Stable Growth Phase Forever after year 5 1.60% 4.22% (Nominal g) 1.00
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Expected Dividends = Expected Terminal Value = Present Value = Intrinsic Value of Index =
Cost of Equity = 4.22% + 1(4%) = 8.22% Terminal Value = 29.18*1.0422/(.0822 -.0422) = 760.28
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The index is at 1212, while the model valuation comes in at 610. This indicates that one or more of the following has to be true.
The dividend discount model understates the value because dividends are less than FCFE. The expected growth in earnings over the next 5 years will be much higher than 8%. The risk premium used in the valuation (4%) is too high The market is overvalued.
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estimated the free cashows to equity for each rm in the index and averaged the free cashow to equity as a percent of market cap. The average FCFE yield for the index was about 2.90% in 2004.
With
Expected Dividends & Buybacks = Expected Terminal Value = Present Value = Intrinsic Value of Index =
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Earnings per share at the rm has grown about 5% a year for the last 5 years, but the fundamentals at the rm suggest growth in EPS of about 11%. (Analysts are also forecasting a growth rate of 12% a year for the next 5 years) Nestle has a debt to capital ratio of about 37.6% and is unlikely to change that leverage materially. (How do I know? I do not. I am just making an assumption.) Like many large European rms, Nestle has paid less in dividends than it has available in FCFE.
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General Inputs
Long Term Government Bond Rate (Sfr) = 4% Current EPS = 108.88 Sfr; Current Revenue/share =1,820 Sfr Capital Expenditures/Share=114.2 Sfr; Depreciation/Share=73.8 Sfr High Growth
5 years
0.85
23.63%
65.10% (Current)
23.63%*.651= 15.38%
9.30% (Existing)
37.60%
Current Ratio
Stable Growth Forever after yr 5 0.85 16% NA 4.00% 9.30% (Grow with earnings) 37.60% 150%
Length Beta Return on Equity Retention Ratio Expected Growth WC/Revenues Debt Ratio Cap Ex/Deprecn
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Risk Premium
Rest of W. Europe
Nestle: Valuation
1
$125.63
$29.07
$16.25
$80.31
$74.04
2
$144.95
$33.54
$18.75
$92.67
$78.76
3
$167.25
$38.70
$21.63
$106.92
$83.78
4
$192.98
$44.65
$24.96
$123.37
$89.12
5
$222.66 $51.52 $28.79 $142.35 $94.7
Earnings per Share in year 6 = 222.66(1.04) = 231.57 Net Capital Ex 6 = Deprecnn6 * 0.50 =73.8(1.1538)5(1.04)(.5)= 78.5 Sfr Chg in WC6 =( Rev6 - Rev5)(.093) = 1820(1.1538)5(.04)(.093)=13.85 Sfr FCFE6 = 231.57 - 78.5(1-.376) - 13.85(1-.376)= 173.93 Sfr Terminal Value per Share = 173.93/(.0847-.04) = 3890.16 Sfr Value=$74.04 +$78.76 +$83.78 +$89.12 +$94.7 +3890/(1.0847)5=3011Sf
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In our valuation of Nestle, we assumed that cap ex would be 150% of depreciation in steady state. If, instead, we had assumed that net cap ex was zero, as many analysts do, the terminal value would have been:
FCFE6 = 231.57 - 13.85(1-.376) = 222.93 Sfr Terminal Value per Share = 222.93/(.0847 -.04) = 4986 Sfr Value= $74.04 +$78.76 +$83.78 +$89.12 +$94.7 + 4986/(1.0847)5= 3740.91 Sfr
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No valuation is timeless. Each of the inputs to the model are susceptible to change as new information comes out about the rm, its competitors and the overall economy.
Market Wide Information
Interest Rates Risk Premiums Economic Growth
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Assume that Nestle makes an earnings announcement which includes two pieces of news:
The earnings per share come in lower than expected. The base year earnings per share will be 105.5 Sfr instead of 108.8 Sfr. Increased competition in its markets is putting downward pressure on the net prot margin. The after-tax margin, which was 5.98% in the previous analysis, is expected to shrink to 5.79%. The drop in earnings will make the projected earnings and cash ows lower, even if the growth rate remains the same The drop in net margin will make the return on equity lower (assuming turnover ratios remain unchanged). This will reduce expected growth.
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Why three stage? Tsingtao is a small rm serving a huge and growing market China, in particular, and the rest of Asia, in general. The rms current return on equity is low, and we anticipate that it will improve over the next 5 years. As it increases, earnings growth will be pushed up. Why FCFE? Corporate governance in China tends to be weak and dividends are unlikely to reect free cash ow to equity. In addition, the rm consistently funds a portion of its reinvestment needs with new debt issues.
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Background Information
In 2000, Tsingtao Breweries earned 72.36 million CY(Chinese Yuan) in net income on a book value of equity of 2,588 million CY, giving it a return on equity of 2.80%. The rm had capital expenditures of 335 million CY and depreciation of 204 million CY during the year. The working capital changes over the last 4 years have been volatile, and we normalize the change using non-cash working capital as a percent of revenues in 2000:
Normalized change in non-cash working capital = (Non-cash working capital2000/ Revenues 2000) (Revenuess2000 Revenues1999) = (180/2253)*( 2253-1598) = 52.3 million CY Normalized Reinvestment = Capital expenditures Depreciation + Normalized Change in non-cash working capital = 335 - 204 + 52.3= 183.3 million CY
As with working capital, debt issues have been volatile. We estimate the rms book debt to capital ratio of 40.94% at the end of 1999 and use it to estimate the normalized equity reinvestment in 2000.
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Transition Phase 5 years 0.80 --> 12%->20% Moves to 50% Moves to 10%
Length Beta 0.75 Risk Premium ROE Equity Reinv. Expected Growth
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Expected stable growth rate =10% Equity reinvestment rate in stable growth = 50% Cost of equity in stable growth = 13.96% Expected FCFE in year 11
= Net Income11*(1- Stable period equity reinvestment rate) = CY 1331.81 (1.10)(1-.5) = CY 732.50 million
Terminal Value of equity in Tsingtao Breweries = FCFE11/(Stable period cost of equity Stable growth rate) = 732.5/(.1396-.10) = CY 18,497 million
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Tsingtao: Valuation
Value of Equity
= PV of FCFE during the high growth period + PV of terminal value =-CY186.65+CY18,497/(1.14715*1.1456*1.1441*1.1426*1.1411*1.1396) = CY 4,596 million
Value of Equity per share = Value of Equity/ Number of Shares = CY 4,596/653.15 = CY 7.04 per share The stock was trading at 10.10 Yuan per share, which would make it overvalued, based upon this valuation.
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DaimlerChrysler is a mature rm in a mature industry. We will therefore assume that the rm is in stable growth. Since this is a relatively new organization, with two different cultures on the use of debt (Daimler has traditionally been more conservative and bankoriented in its use of debt than Chrysler), the debt ratio will probably change over time. Hence, we will use the FCFF model.
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In 1999, Daimler Chrysler had earnings before interest and taxes of 9,324 million DM and had an effective tax rate of 46.94%. Based upon this operating income and the book values of debt and equity as of 1998, DaimlerChrysler had an after-tax return on capital of 7.15%. The market value of equity is 62.3 billion DM, while the estimated market value of debt is 64.5 billion The bottom-up unlevered beta for automobile rms is 0.61, and Daimler is AAA rated. The long term German bond rate is 4.87% (in DM) and the mature market premium of 4% is used. We will assume that the rm will maintain a long term growth rate of 3%.
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Estimating FCFF
Expected EBIT (1-t) = 9324 (1.03) (1-.4694) =
Expected Reinvestment needs = 5,096(.42) =
Expected FCFF next year =
5,096 mil DM 2,139 mil DM
2,957 mil DM 112,847 mil DM
18,068 mil DM 130,915 mil DM
64,488 mil DM
66,427 mil DM
Valuation of Firm
Value of operating assets = 2957 / (.056-.03) =
+ Cash + Marketable Securities =
Value of Firm =
- Debt Outstanding =
Value of Equity =
Value per Share = 72.7 DM per share Stock was trading at 62.2 DM per share on June 1, 2000
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In discounting FCFF, we use the cost of capital, which is calculated using the market values of equity and debt. We then use the present value of the FCFF as our value for the rm and derive an estimated value for equity. Is there circular reasoning here? Yes No If there is, can you think of a way around this problem?
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Tube Investment: Rationale for Using 2-Stage FCFF Model June 2000
Tube Investments is a diversied manufacturing rm in India. While its growth rate has been anemic, there is potential for high growth over the next 5 years. The rms nancing policy is also in a state of ux as the family running the rm reassesses its policy of funding the rm.
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In estimating terminal value for Tube Investments, I used a stable growth rate of 5%. If I used a 7% stable growth rate instead, what would my terminal value be? (Assume that the cost of capital and return on capital remain unchanged.)
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The rm is considering changes in the way in which it invests, which management believes will increase the return on capital to 12.20% on just new investments (and not on existing investments) over the next 5 years. The value of the rm will be higher, because of higher expected growth.
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If Tube Investments is also able to increase the return on capital on existing assets to 12.20% from 9.20%, its value will increase even more. The expected growth rate over the next 5 years will then have a second component arising from improving returns on existing assets: Expected Growth Rate = .122*.60 +{ (1+(.122-.092)/.092)1/5-1} =.1313 or 13.13%
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Stockholders in Asian, Latin American and many European companies have little or no power over the managers of the rm. In many cases, insiders own voting shares and control the rm and the potential for conict of interests is huge. Would you discount the value that you estimated to allow for this absence of stockholder power? Yes No.
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We will use a 2-stage FCFF model to value Embraer to allow for maximum exibility.
High Growth
Beta
1.07
Lambda
0.27
Counry risk premium
7.67%
Debt Ratio
15.93%
Return on Capital
21.85%
Cost of Capital
9.81%
Expected Growth Rate
5.48%
Reinvestment Rate
25.04%
Stable Growth
1.00 0.27 5.00% 15.93% 8.76% 8.76% 4.17% 4.17%/8.76% = 47.62%
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Embraer has a 60% interest in an equipment company and the nancial statements of that company are consolidated with those of Embraer. The minority interests (representing the equity in the subsidiary that does not belong to Embraer) are shown on the balance sheet at 23 million BR. Estimated market value of minority interests = Book value of minority interest * P/BV of sector that subsidiary belongs to = 23.12 *1.5 = 34.68 million BR or $11.88 million dollars. Present Value of FCFF in high growth phase = $1,342.97 Present Value of Terminal Value of Firm = $3,928.67 Value of operating assets of the rm = $5,271.64 + Value of Cash, Marketable Securities = $794.52 Value of Firm = $6,066.16 Market Value of outstanding debt = $716.74 - Minority Interest in consolidated holdings =34.68/2.92 = $11.88 Market Value of Equity = $5,349.42 - Value of Equity in Options = $27.98 Value of Equity in Common Stock = $5,321.44 Market Value of Equity/share = $7.47 Market Value of Equity/share in BR = 7.47 *2.92 BR/$ = R$ 21.75 Aswath Damodaran 58
A DCF valuation values a rm as a going concern. If there is a signicant likelihood of the rm failing before it reaches stable growth and if the assets will then be sold for a value less than the present value of the expected cashows (a distress sale value), DCF valuations will understate the value of the rm. Value of Equity= DCF value of equity (1 - Probability of distress) + Distress sale value of equity (Probability of distress) There are three ways in which we can estimate the probability of distress:
Use the bond rating to estimate the cumulative probability of distress over 10 years Estimate the probability of distress with a probit Estimate the probability of distress by looking at market value of bonds..
The distress sale value of equity is usually best estimated as a percent of book value (and this value will be lower if the economy is doing badly and there are other rms in the same business also in distress).
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Stable Growth
Cap ex growth slows and net cap ex decreases Revenue Growth: 13.33% EBITDA/Sales -> 30% Stable Stable Revenue EBITDA/ Growth: 5% Sales 30% Stable ROC=7.36% Reinvest 67.93%
NOL: 2,076m
Revenues EBITDA EBIT EBIT (1-t) + Depreciation - Cap Ex - Chg WC FCFF Beta Cost of Equity Cost of Debt Debt Ratio Cost of Capital
Value of Op Assets $ + Cash & Non-op $ = Value of Firm $ - Value of Debt $ = Value of Equity $ - Equity Options $ Value per share $
Forever
Risk Premium 4%
Internet/ Retail
Operating Leverage
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Probability of distress
653 =
Probability of distress = 13.53% a year Cumulative probability of survival over 10 years = (1- .1353)10 = 23.37% Book value of capital = $14,531 million Distress sale value = 15% of book value = .15*14531 = $2,180 million Book value of debt = $7,647 million Distress sale value of equity = $ 0 Value of Global Crossing = $3.22 (.2337) + $0.00 (.7663) = $0.75
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In the conventional approach to rm valuation, we discount the cash ows back at a risk adjusted discount rate to arrive at value. There are frequent claims from both academics and practitioners of better ways of doing discounted cash ow valuation. In particular, there are two alternatives offered to the classic discounted cash ow model
The adjusted present value model, where we value the rm as if it were all equity funded and then add on the effects of debt (good and bad) to this value The excess return model, where we compute the present value of expected excess returns that the rm will earn and add it to the capital invested in the rm
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Current Cashflow to Firm EBIT(1-t) : 173 - Nt CpX 49 - Chg WC 52 = FCFF 72 Reinvestment Rate = 101/173 =58.5%
Return on Capital 19.25% Stable Growth g = 3.41%; Beta = 1.00; Country Premium= 0% Cost of capital = 6.57% ROC= 6.57%; Tax rate=33% Reinvestment Rate=51.93% Terminal Value5= 100.9/(.0657-.0341) = 3195
Op. Assets 2,897 + Cash: 77 - Debt 414 - Minor. Int. 46 =Equity 2,514 -Options 0 Value/Share 32.84
Beta 0.93
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In the adjusted present value approach, the value of the rm is written as the sum of the value of the rm without debt (the unlevered rm) and the effect of debt on rm value Firm Value = Unlevered Firm Value + (Tax Benets of Debt - Expected Bankruptcy Cost from the Debt)
The unlevered rm value can be estimated by discounting the free cashows to the rm at the unlevered cost of equity The tax benet of debt reects the present value of the expected tax benets. In its simplest form, Tax Benet = Tax rate * Debt The expected bankruptcy cost is a function of the probability of bankruptcy and the cost of bankruptcy (direct as well as indirect) as a percent of rm value.
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In the conventional approach, we valued Titan using the levered beta for the company of 0.93 and the debt to capital ratio of 17.6% to estimate a cost of capital for discounting the free cash flows to the firm. the APV approach, we use the unlevered beta of 0.80 to estimate the unlevered cost of equity, For the first 5 years, with a riskfree rate of 3.41% and a risk premium of 4.46%, this yields a cost of equity of 6.98%.
Unlevered cost of equity = 3.41% + 0.80(4.46%) = 6.98%
Beyond year 5, we will use an unlevered beta of 0.875 to correspond with the levered beta of 1 used in illustration 6.2. With the market risk premium reduced to 4%, this yields a cost of equity of 6.91%.
The levered beta used in illustration 6.2 was 1, the debt to equity ratio assumed for the stable growth period was 21.36% and the tax rate was 33%.Unlevered beta = 1.00/ (1+(1-.33)(.2136)) = 0.875 Unlevered stable period cost of equity = 3.41%+0.875 (4%) = 6.91%
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Year EBIT * (1 - tax rate) - (CapExDepreciation) -Chg. Working Capital Free Cashflow to Firm Terminal value Present Value @6.98% Value of firm =
$122 $2,759
$120
$118
$117
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The tax benefits from debt are computed based upon Titans existing dollar debt of 414 million Euros and a tax rate of 25.47%:
Expected tax benefits in perpetuity = Tax rate (Debt) = 0.2547 (414 million) = 105.45 million Euros
This captures the tax benefit on the dollar debt outstanding today and does not factor in future debt issues (or increases in the debt ratio) and the tax benefits that will accrue from that additional debt.
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Expected bankruptcy cost =Probability of bankruptcy * Cost of bankruptcy * (Unlevered firm value + Tax benefits from debt) = 0.0028*0.30*(2,759+105) = 2.41 million Euros
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In contrast, we valued the operating assets at 2,897 million Euros with the cost of capital approach. The difference between the two approaches can be attributed to the tax benefits built into each one. The APV model considers the tax benefits only on existing debt whereas the cost of capital approach adds in the tax benefits from future debt issues.
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You can present any discounted cashow model in terms of excess returns, with the value being written as:
Value = Capital Invested + Present value of excess returns on current investments + Present value of excess returns on future investments
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1,410.71 2,897.42
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We often substitute one type of information for another; for instance, in valuing Ford, we have 70 years+ of historical data, but not too many comparable rms; in valuing a software rm, we might not have too much historical data but we have lots of comparable rms.
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Unlevered beta for rms in internet retailing = Unlevered beta for rms in specialty retailing =
1.60 1.00
Amazon is a specialty retailer, but its risk currently seems to be determined by the fact that it is an online retailer. Hence we will use the beta of internet companies to begin the valuation but move the beta, after the rst ve years, towards the beta of the retailing business.
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The rating for a rm can be estimated using the nancial characteristics of the rm. In its simplest form, the rating can be estimated from the interest coverage ratio Interest Coverage Ratio = EBIT / Interest Expenses Amazon.com has negative operating income; this yields a negative interest coverage ratio, which should suggest a low rating. We computed an average interest coverage ratio of 2.82 over the next 5 years. This yields an average rating of BBB for Amazon.com for the rst 5 years. (In effect, the rating will be lower in the earlier years and higher in the later years than BBB)
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The synthetic rating for Amazon.com is BBB. The default spread for BBB rated bonds is 1.50% Pre-tax cost of debt = Riskfree Rate + Default spread
= 6.50% + 1.50% = 8.00% After-tax cost of debt right now = 8.00% (1- 0) = 8.00%: The rm is paying no taxes currently. As the rms tax rate changes and its cost of debt changes, the after tax cost of debt will change as well.
1
2
0%
3
0%
4
5
6
35%
7
35%
8
35%
9
35%
10
35% 8.00%
8.00%
8.00%
8.00%
8.00%
7.80%
7.75%
7.67%
7.50%
7.00% 16.1%
35%
Pre-tax
Tax rate 0%
After-tax 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 6.71% 5.20% 5.07% 5.04% 4.98% 4.88% 4.55%
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Equity
Cost of Equity = 6.50% + 1.60 (4.00%) = 12.90% Market Value of Equity = $ 84/share* 340.79 mil shs = $ 28,626 mil (98.8%) Cost of debt = 6.50% + 1.50% (default spread) = 8.00% Market Value of Debt = $ 349 mil (1.2%)
Debt
Cost of Capital
Amazon.com has a book value of equity of $ 138 million and a book value of debt of $ 349 million. Shows you how irrelevant book value is in this process.
Aswath Damodaran
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The operating income and revenue that we use in valuation should be updated numbers. One of the problems with using nancial statements is that they are dated. As a general rule, it is better to use 12-month trailing estimates for earnings and revenues than numbers for the most recent nancial year. This rule becomes even more critical when valuing companies that are evolving and growing rapidly. Last 10-K $ 610 million - $125 million Trailing 12-month $1,117 million - $ 410 million
Revenues EBIT
Aswath Damodaran
80
Many internet companies are arguing that selling and G&A expenses are the equivalent of R&D expenses for a high-technology rms and should be treated as capital expenditures. If we adopt this rationale, we should be computing earnings before these expenses, which will make many of these rms protable. It will also mean that they are reinvesting far more than we think they are. It will, however, make not their cash ows less negative. Should Amazon.coms selling expenses be treated as cap ex?
Aswath Damodaran
81
Aswath Damodaran
82
EBIT (Trailing 1999) = -$ 410 million Tax rate used = 0% (Assumed Effective = Marginal) Capital spending (Trailing 1999) = $ 243 million (includes acquisitions) Depreciation (Trailing 1999) = $ 31 million Non-cash Working capital Change (1999) = - 80 million Estimating FCFF (1999)
Current EBIT * (1 - tax rate) = - 410 (1-0)
= - $410 million - (Capital Spending - Depreciation)
= $212 million - Change in Working Capital
= -$ 80 million Current FCFF
= - $542 million
Aswath Damodaran
83
Aswath Damodaran
High Growth
1.60
1.20%
Negative
NMF
>100%
Stable Growth
Aswath Damodaran
85
Aswath Damodaran
86
Aswath Damodaran
87
Aswath Damodaran
88
Aswath Damodaran
89
Aswath Damodaran
90
Aswath Damodaran
91