IT Service Management

Foundation Level TTT Course

SAMPLE 1
ITIL V3 QUESTIONS

Version 1.2

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 TOC of ITIL Questions (Module Wise)
1 Service Strategy..........................................................................................3
1.1 Generic...................................................................................................3
1.2 Financial Management..............................................................................4
1.3 Service Portfolio Management....................................................................5
1.4 Demand Management...............................................................................6
2 Service Design............................................................................................7
2.1 Generic...................................................................................................7
2.2 Service Catalogue Management.................................................................8
2.3 Service Level Management........................................................................9
2.4 Capacity Management.............................................................................12
2.5 Availability Management..........................................................................13
2.6 IT Service Continuity Management...........................................................14
2.7 Information Security Management............................................................16
2.8 Supplier Management.............................................................................17
3 Service Transition.....................................................................................18
3.1 Generic.................................................................................................18
3.2 Change Management..............................................................................18
3.3 Service Asset & Configuration Management...............................................22
3.4 Release & Deployment Management.........................................................24
4 Service Operation.....................................................................................26
1.1 Generic.................................................................................................26
4.2 Event Management.................................................................................29
4.3 Incident Management.............................................................................30
4.4 Request Fulfillment.................................................................................31
4.5 Problem Management.............................................................................32
4.6 Access Management...............................................................................34
5 Continual Service Improvement................................................................35
5.1 Generic.................................................................................................35
5.2 7-step Improvement Process...................................................................36
5.3 Service Measurement..............................................................................38
5.4 Service Reporting...................................................................................38
6 GENERIC...................................................................................................40

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1 Service Strategy

1.1 Generic

1. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the

following elements of the Service Lifecycle?

a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation
and Continual Service Improvement

2. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?

a) The service is fit for purpose

b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with
the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of
time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity,
continuity and security

3. During the Service Strategy, which of the following are considered?

a) Resource and Components

b) Requirements and Resources
c) Components and Requirements
d) Requirements, Resources and Components

4. Which of the following ITIL Core volumes covers the design principles
and methods for converting strategic objectives in to portfolios of services
and service assets?

a) Continual Service Improvement

b) Service Transition

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 c) Service Design
d) Service Strategy

1.2 Financial Management

1. Give one reason why charging for IT services is an important element of

Financial Management?

a) The availability of an IT service can be measured.

b) The resources needed for an application can be determined.
c) The use of IT services can be influenced.
d) Scenarios for capacity planning can be investigated.

2. Which ITIL process is responsible for drawing up a charging system?

a) Availability Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Capacity Management
d) Financial Management for IT Services

3. By introducing budgeting and accounting for IT services, which of the

following will be a DIRECT benefit?

a) Better value for money

b) Clearer charging policies
c) Improved financial forecasting
d) Higher quality support

4. Which ITIL process is responsible for annually allocating the costs of

underpinning contracts?

a) Capacity Management
b) Availability Management
c) Financial Management for IT services
d) Service Level Management

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5. Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation
system?

a) Availability Management
b) Financial Management for IT Services
c) Capacity Management
d) Service Level Management

1.3 Service Portfolio Management

1. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within

the Service Lifecycle?

a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue

b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue
c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio
d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System

2. Application Portfolio

1. A database or structured Document is used to manage Applications throughout

their Lifecycle.
2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.
3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service
Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System.

Which of the above statements is correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 & 3only
c) All of above
d) 1 & 2 only

3. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio

Management?

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 a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What opportunities are there in the market?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?

1.4 Demand Management

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of

demand generated by the customer’s business?

a) They are driven by patterns of business activity

b) It is impossible to predict how they behave
c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns
d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity
management

2. Demand Management is primarily used to?

a) Increase customer value

b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT
d) Align business with IT cost

3. Differential charging is a technique used in.................

a) FTA
b) Status Accounting
c) Demand Management
d) Financial Management

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2 Service Design
2.1 Generic

1. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Strategy?

1. Perspectives
2. Positioning
3. Plan
4. ???

a) People
b) Product
c) Patterns
d) Partners

2. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the
Service Design phase of the Lifecycle?

1. Hardware and Software design

2. Environmental design
3. Process design
4. Data design

a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

3. A Service Level Package is best described as?

a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core service

package
b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level
Agreement
c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are
willing to pay
d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed
reporting period

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4. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?

1. The design of services

2. The design of Service Management systems and tools
3. The design of technology architecture and management systems
4. The design of the processes required
5. ?

a) The design of Functions

b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics

5. Consider the following activities:

a) The analysis of raw data

b) The identification of trends
c) The definition of Service Management processes
d) The implementation of preventive measures

Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service

Management software tool?

A. 1, 2 & 4
B. 2 & 3
C. All of them
D. None of them

2.2 Service Catalogue Management

1. What document will list the Services currently provided to the

Customers?

a) Service Level Agreement

b) Service Level Requirements
c) Services Catalogue
d) Services Contract

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2. Which of these statements is correct?

A. An SLA is a contract drawn up by the IT department which states what the customer
may and may not do with his computer.
B. A Service Catalogue describes concisely and specifically the IT services that the IT
department can offer a customer.

a) Only the first

b) Only the second
c) Both
d) Neither

3. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?

a) The version information of all software

b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services

2.3 Service Level Management

1. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level

Management process?

a) By checking contracts with suppliers

b) By measuring customer satisfaction
c) By defining service levels
d) By reporting on all incidents

2. Which of the following best describes the goal of the Service Level
Management?

a) To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business

requirements
b) To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with
Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and
ensuring performance does not exceed these targets

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 c) To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and
continuously improve on this through ensuring all services operate at
maximum availability
d) To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost

3. Service Level Requirements are used in the Service Level Management

process. Which statement best describes what these Service Level
Requirements represent?

a) The amount of defined IT service that the customer requires.

b) What the IT organization expects of the customer.
c) The conditions required for the Service Level Agreement (SLA).
d) A paragraph of the SLA with additional specifications required to execute
the SLA.

4. Which of the following activities is Service Level Management

responsible for?

a) Design the configuration management system from a business

perspective
b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Create a customer facing service catalogue
d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service

5. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a

regular basis?

a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management

6. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Service Level Agreements are between user departments and technical

support providers and are written in business language
b) Operational Level Agreements are between internal service
providers and may be written in technical language

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 c) Operational Level Agreements are between Service Level Management
and external providers and are written in business language
d) Service Level Agreements are between user departments and Service
Level Management and are written in technical language

7. Contract relating to an outsourced data center would be managed by?

a) Technical management
b) Service Desk
c) IT Operations
d) Facilities Management

8. A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:

a) An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
b) SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business
language
c) An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that
use that Service
d) An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the
services they use

9. There are strong links between Service Level Management and:

a) Incident Management
b) Availability Management
c) Configuration Management
d) IT Service Continuity Management
e) Change Management

A. 1, 3 & 5
B. 2 & 4
C. 2, 3 & 5
D. All of them

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10. The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:

a) Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals

b) A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be
understood by everyone
c) Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.
d) Legally worded as they must be contractually binding

2.4 Capacity Management

1. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?

a) Capacity Forecasts
b) Recommendations
c) Components and resource forecasts
d) Countermeasures for risks

2. Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware

necessary in order to support an application?

a) Capacity Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Change Management
d) Availability Management

3. “A steel company merges with a competitor. The IT departments, along

with the IT infrastructures of both companies will be combined. “ Which
process is responsible for determining the required disk and memory space
required for applications running in the combined IT infrastructure?

a) Application Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Computer Operations Management
d) Release Management

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4. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?

a) Options
b) Management summary
c) Business workload forecasts
d) Back out plans

A. 2, 3 and 4
B. All of them
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and3

5. Consider the following list:

a) Modeling
b) Risk Analysis
c) Application Sizing
d) DSL maintenance

Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of
Capacity Management?

A. 1 & 2
B. 1 & 3
C. 3 & 4
D. 2 & 4

2.5 Availability Management

1. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?

a) Application Management
b) Operations Management
c) Service Desk
d) Availability Management

2. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?

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 a) Services and Resources
b) Services and Business Processes
c) Resources and Business Processes
d) Services, Resources and Business Processes

3. The main objective of Availability Management is?

a) To monitor and report availability of services and components

b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed
needs of the business

4. Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management?

a) Verification
b) Security
c) Reliability
d) Maintainability

5. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best

defined?

a) The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components
operable
b) The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
c) The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is
available
d) The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide
for parts of the IT infrastructure

2.6 IT Service Continuity Management

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1. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are
taken, for example using an emergency power provision.

Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of
measure?

a) Availability Management
b) Capacity management
c) Change Management
d) Incident Management

2. Which if the following would you NOT expect to see in an IT Service

Continuity Plan?

a) Contact lists
b) The version number
c) Full Service Level Agreements
d) Reference to change control procedures

3. Which activity is NOT the responsibility of IT service continuity

management?

a) Drawing up back-out scenarios

b) Analyzing risks
c) Testing back-out arrangements
d) Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out
facilities

4. Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access

to data?

a) IT service continuity management

b) Availability management
c) Release management
d) Information Security management

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5. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following
time periods?

a) 4 to 24 hours
b) More than 72 hours
c) 24 to 72 hours
d) 4 to 8 hours

2.7 Information Security Management

1. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security

Management Process?

a) To align IT security with business security and ensure that

information security is effectively managed in all service and Service
Management activities’.
b) To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately
managed and enterprise information resources are used responsibly.
c) To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security
activities.
d) To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures
objectives are achieved

2. Every time when Susan (the database administrator) checks the HR

database, some records seem to be missing. After some further
investigation it looks like someone has been accessing the data without
proper authorization.

We seem to have a/an _____ issue.

a) Availability
b) Integrity
c) Stability
d) Confidentiality

3. Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access

to data?

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 a) IT service continuity management
b) Availability management
c) Release management
d) Information Security management

4. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of

people?

a) Senior business managers and all IT staff

b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only

2.8 Supplier Management

1. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is

INCORRECT?

a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to

support the delivery of services
b) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts
Database
d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service
lifecycle, from Strategy through Design and Transition to Operations and
Improvement

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3 Service Transition

3.1 Generic

1. Consider the following statements:

1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into
production
2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing
3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external
service provider

Which of the above statements is CORRECT?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only

2. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the
Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?

a) Data mining and workflow tools

b) Measurement and reporting systems
c) Release and Deployment technology
d) Process Design

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above

3.2 Change Management

1. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk

representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that
according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three
hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced
within three hours?

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 a) Availability Management
b) Change Management
c) Configuration Management
d) Service Level Management

2. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a) The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error

Data Base (KEDB)
b) The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
c) The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
d) The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

3. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and

Change Management. What information is this?

a) Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change

Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
b) RFCs resulting from Known Errors
c) RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change
Management
d) RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to
Change Management

4. Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category

for a change?

a) The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial,

significant, etc.
b) The speed with which the change is made
c) The sequence in which the change is made
d) The Request for Change number that the change is assigned

5. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure

called?

a) Replacement Request
b) Request for Change

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 c) Request for Release
d) Service Request

6. In the change management process, which role is ultimately responsible

for the entire process?

a) Change Advisory Board

b) IT Manager
c) Change Manager
d) Change Coordinator

7. "...a change to the infrastructure that follows an established path, is

relatively common, and is the accepted solution to a specific requirement
or set of requirements." Which change are we referring to?

a) Standard Change
b) Urgent Change
c) Normal Change
d) Service Request

8. For which ITIL process is the determination of priorities based on impact

and urgency an essential activity

a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Financial Management for IT Services
d) Service Level Management

9. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?

a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are

made during particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and
to decide whether the change should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change
process so that no unacceptable delays occur.

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10. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately
described as?

a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and

implemented in a controlled manner
b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and
effectively
c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of
failure
d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made

11. The Change Management function is NOT responsible for:

a) Scheduling a change to the network

b) Ensuring that a change to an application is prioritized
c) Ensuring that the impact of a change to hardware is fully assessed
d) Implementing the release of a software change

12. What is missing in the 7 R’s of Change Management?

Raised, Reason, Return, Risks, Resources, _________, _________

a) Responsible and Remedy

b) Responsible and Relationship
c) Remove and Refurbish
d) Remove and Remedy

13. 7 R’s of Change Management is used for

a) Change Analysis
b) Evaluation
c) Change Approval
d) Change Authorization

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3.3 Service Asset & Configuration Management

1. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?

a) Account for all financial assets of the organization

b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and
different IT components needed to deliver the services
c) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementations
d) Implement ITIL across the organization

2. What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?

a) To standardize operation
b) For knowing the cost of services provided
c) For roles and responsibility to be clear
d) For later comparison

3. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?

a) The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to

operate correctly after Failure of a Component part.
b) The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract.
Often this contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability
and/or maintainability for a supporting service or component.
c) A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can
be restored to normal working after a failure.
d) A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed
function without interruption

4. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most

accurately described as?

a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and

Configuration Items (CIs) in order to maximize their contribution to service
levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective

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 c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were
designed to achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure
and maintain accurate configuration records

5. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services
by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?

a) Capacity Management
b) Change Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Financial Management for IT services

6. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of

an interruption of a Configuration Item?

a) Availability Manager
b) Incident Manager
c) Problem Manager
d) Service Level Manager

7. “Optimize the service assets, IT configurations, capabilities and

resources” is the goal of which process area

a) IT Service Continuity Management

b) Service Asset and Configuration Management
c) Information Security Management
d) Capacity Management

8. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:

a) Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced

to avoid spending a lot of money
b) Be as high level as possible
c) Match the organization’s requirement for information to be held
d) Vary according to cost

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9. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and
depth of the information to be held in a CMDB?

a) You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types
of CIs
b) You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not
under Change Control
c) You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is
to get the database loaded
d) You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff

10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational

Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?

a) Develop Procedures and Initial Testing

b) Education and Awareness
c) Review, Audit and Assurance
d) Ongoing Training and Testing

3.4 Release & Deployment Management

1. The following options are considered within which process?

1. Big bang vs. Phased

2. Push and Pull
3. Automated vs. Manual

a) Incident Management
b) Release and Deployment Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Service Catalogue Management

2. What is the first activity when implementing a release?

a) Designing and building a release

b) Testing a release
c) Compiling the release schedule
d) Communicating and preparing the release

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3. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and
Deployment Management?

a) To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services

specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the
stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the Intended objectives
b) To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design
consists of a set of related assets and service components that are
compatible with each other
c) To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked,
installed, tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
d) To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or
changed service

4. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment

Management process?

a) To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans

b) To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations
and support staff
c) To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production
services
d) To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs
of the business

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

5. Who provides the resources during the Release & Deployment?

a) Release & Deployment Manager

b) Evaluation
c) Capacity Manager
d) Early Life Support

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6. What is the entry point or the first level of V model?

a) Service Requirements
b) Customers/Business needs
c) Service Solution
d) Service Release

7. The scope of a Release can best be defined by:

a) The RFCs that it satisfies

b) The number of updates to the OHS
c) Service Level metrics
d) The DSL configuration

4 Service Operation

1.1 Generic

1. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?

a) Thorough testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet

business needs
b) To deliver and support IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

2. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?

1. Incident Management
2. Problem Management
3. Access Management
4. ?
5. ?

a) Event management and Request Fulfillment

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 b) Event Management and Service Desk
c) Facilities Management and Event Management
d) Change Management and Service Level Management

3. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are

CORRECT?

1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication

between IT and its users for all operational issues

2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process

a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

4. Which activity is NOT a Service Desk activity?

a) Relating an incident to a Known Error

b) Registering incidents
c) Solving a problem
d) Applying temporary fixes

5. Application Management is NOT responsible for?

a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and

support Applications
b) Managing applications through their lifecycle
c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software
d) Developing operational functionality required by the business

6. Functions are best described as?

a) Without their own body of knowledge

b) Closed loop systems
c) Self-Contained units of organizations
d) Focusing on transformation to a goal

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7. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?

a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure

b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and
support the IT infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures

8. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out

Service Operations?

a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to

monitor and manage the infrastructure
b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT
view and an external business view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the
place where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the
services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute
processes defined by Service Design

9. Which is a good metric to measure the performance of Service Desk

a) Customer Satisfaction

b) Number of incidents resolved

c) Number of issues resolved to number of issues resolved per

engineer

d) Number of issues resolved within the agreed timelines

10. Consider the following:

a) Incident diagnostic scripts

b) A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents

c) A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure

supported

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 d) A Forward Schedule of Change

Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?

A. 1&2

B. 3&4

C. 1, 2 &3

D. All four

4.2 Event Management

1. The BEST definition of an EVENT is?

a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an

agreed Service Level has already been impacted
b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT
infrastructure or delivery of services
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports
d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service
or improvement program

2. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event

Management?

a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the
appropriate control action
b) The ability to implement monitoring tools
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the
uptime of infrastructure devices

3. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?

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 a) A change of state which has significance for the management of a
Configuration Item or IT service.
b) The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by
any IT Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
c) Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and
often lead to Incidents being logged
d) All of above

4.3 Incident Management

1. The priority of an Incident refers to?

a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency

b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it
is resolved in time
d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the
incident

2. An Incident occurs when:

a) A user is unable to access a service during service hours

b) An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during
service hours
c) A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any
disruption to service
d) A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an
application

Which of the above statements is CORRECT?

a) All of the above

b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above

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3. What activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an
incident?

a) Solving and restoring

b) Analysis and diagnosis
c) Matching
d) Classification

4. Incident Management has a value to the business by?

a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technology

b) Enabling users to resolve Problems
c) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service
d) Contributing to the reduction of impact

5. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of

implementing a formal Incident Management process?

a) Improved user satisfaction

b) Incident volume reduction
c) Elimination of lost incidents
d) Less disruption to both IT support staff and users

4.4 Request Fulfillment

1. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?

a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users

b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests
d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met

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2. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?

a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge

b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the
functionality of an application
c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to
an application
d) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of
software from a list of approved options

3. What is the term for user requests which are classified as incidents, but
do not involve a failure in the IT infrastructure?

a) Service Requests
b) Non-standard Changes
c) Error Reports
d) Priority Requests

4.5 Problem Management

1. A user calls the Service Desk with a complaint that, when using a
particular application, an error always occurs that breaks his connection to
the network. Which process has overall responsibility for tracing the
underlying cause?

a) Service Desk
b) Network Management
c) Problem Management
d) System Management
e) Incident Management

2. Which of these tasks is a task of Problem Management?

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 a) Co-ordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure.
b) Approval of all changes / modifications made to the Known-Error
database.
c) Classification of Requests for Change (RFCs).
d) Recognising user's requirements and subsequently implementing changes
to the IT infrastructure.

3. The sequence of dealing with problems must be based on...

a) The category to which the problem belongs.

b) The impact of the problem.
c) The priority of the problem.
d) The urgency of the problem.

4. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of Problem

Management?

a) Co-ordinating major problem reviews

b) Determining the root cause of incidents
c) Providing management information on incidents, problems and known
errors
d) Implementing error resolutions

5. Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management?

a) A trend analysis
b) An urgent change
c) A change request
d) A report regarding the problem management process

6. Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate

structural errors?

a) Availability management
b) Problem Management
c) IT service continuity management
d) Security Management

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7. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident
Management process in place?

a) Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place

there is no reliable information available
b) No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little
importance to proactive Problem Management
c) No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing
Problems
d) Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of
accurate Incident Management information

4.6 Access Management

1. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?

e) The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services,

data, or other Assets.
f) Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and
Availability of Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to
access or modify the Assets.
g) Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or
Identity Management.
h) All of the above

2. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access

Management?

1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services

2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users
3. Defining security policies for system access
4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to

a) 3 and 4
b) 1 and 3

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 c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2

5 Continual Service Improvement

5.1 Generic

1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service

Improvement (CSI) model?

a) What is the vision?

b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?

2. Consider the following statements:

1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness

2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services
3. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service
lifecycle
4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services

Which of the above statements is CORRECT?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

3. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the

following elements of the Service Lifecycle?

a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation

and Continual Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement

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4. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
model?

a) Assess the current business situation

b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan

5. What activity happens as part of the “Where should we be” step of the
CSI model

a) Define Measurable targets to achieve

b) Baseline
c) Assign Resources
d) Verify the measures

5.2 7-step Improvement Process

1. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI)

initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a
business case?

a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and

performance modeling processes
b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident
and problem management processes
c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships
between IT and business units
d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages

2. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?

a) The Seven P’s of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)

b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data,
processing the data and using it to take corrective action

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3. Deming - one of the people behind the philosophy of TQM (Total Quality
Management) uses a cyclic model with four recognized stages. What is the
right sequence of these stages?

a) Plan - Do - Review - Check

b) Do - Check - Plan - Act
c) Plan - Do - Check - Act
d) Do - Check - Act – Plan

4. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step
Improvement Process?

a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure,
gather data and process data
b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data
c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we
get there?
d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define
what you can measure

5. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual
Service improvement (CSI) Model?

a) Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate

the Solution; continually improve
b) Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we
arrived; How do we keep the momentum going?
c) identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the
outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly
implemented; improve the solution
d) What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?;
How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the
momentum going?

6. Which of the following is the 4th step for the Continual Service
improvement (CSI) Model?

a) What is the vision?

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 b) Where are we now?
c) Where do we want to be?
d) How do we get there?

7. CSI is applicable during which of the Service Lifecycles

a) Service Strategy and Service Design

b) Service Strategy, Service Design and Service Transition
c) Continual Service Improvement
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service
Operations

5.3 Service Measurement

1. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in
Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?

1. Process Metrics
2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

5.4 Service Reporting

1. What aspects would you NOT expect to see in a Service Level report
designed for the customer?

a) The average utilization level of the Service Desk

b) The level of availability realized and the time not available per period
c) The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target

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d) The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period

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6 GENERIC

1. What is the RACI model used for?

a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a

process or activity
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service
Management

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?

a) Service Optimization
b) Service Transition
c) Service Design
d) Service Strategy

3. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology

tool?

a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product

b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product

4. What does the Service V model represent?

a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management

projects
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and
effective utilization of resources
c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Capability
d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of
services

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5. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what
attributes of the service should be considered?

a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome

b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics
c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives
d) People, Products, Technology

6. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?

a) They provide structure and stability to organizations

b) They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and
resources
c) They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control
d) They are costlier to implement compared to processes

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

7. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM

processes, what is likely to happen to support costs?

a) They are likely to increase gradually

b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level

8. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?

a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it
serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses
telecommunications and IT systems to make it appear that they are in the
same location

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9. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?

a) The desired end state of a project

b) A marker or starting point for later comparison
c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for a release

10. Operations Control refers to?

a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions

b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events
and activities
c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure
and Applications
d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of
the infrastructure when Operators are not available

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of every process?

a) It is measurable
b) It is timely
c) It delivers a specific result
d) It responds to a specific event
e) It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. All of the above

12. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Recommending improvements
b) Designing and documenting a Service
c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service
d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services

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13. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?

a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics

b) They create value for stakeholders
c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes

14. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?

a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

15. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities

for improvement?

a) Service Owner
b) Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
c) Process Owner

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. All of the above
D. d) 2 and 3 only

16. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating

value?

a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production
management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery

17. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the
following?

a) Service Portfolio Management

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 b) Demand Management
c) Financial Management

A. Service Operations
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Transition
D. Continual Service Improvement

18. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Purchasing tools to support the Process

b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met
c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process
d) Monitoring and improving the Process

19. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual

Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?

a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties

involved in the CSI program
b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program
which could otherwise be overlapping and confusing
c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be
established to implement CSI
d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial
planning

20. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within

which of the following?

a) The Glossary of Terms

b) A Service Level Agreement
c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI)

21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about ‘good practice’?

a) It can be used to drive an organization forward

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 b) It is always documented in international standards
c) It is something that is in wide industry use
d) It is always based on ITIL

22. Consider the following statements:

1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger

2. A characteristic of the “Process” is that it is performance driven and able to be
measured

Which of the above statements are CORRECT?

a) 1 only
b) All of the above
c) None of the above
d) 2 only

23. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and

Outsourcing delivery model options?

a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on

external organization(s) resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies
on internal resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on
application service provisioning

24. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve
services?

a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene

b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people

25. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?

a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed

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 b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible
c) To help enable different applications to work together
d) To help implement architectures that supports the business strategy

26. Consider the following statements:

1. “Processes” should be implemented in such a way that the “Role” and

“Function” in an organization are defined
2. The RACI model is beneficial to design a Function”

Which of the above statements are CORRECT?

a) 1 Only
b) Both of the above
c) Neither of the above
d) 2 only

27. Which of the following may be defined in a process?

1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Guidelines
5. Standards
6. Governance Framework

a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) All of the above
c) 1. 2, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only

28. A Service Provider is?

a) An organization supplying services to one or more external customers

b) An organization supplying services to one or more internal
customers or external customers
c) An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers
d) An organization supplying IT services

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29. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and
deployment of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which
of the following are NOT responsibilities included In this role?

a) Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages

b) Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved
services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems
that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the
organization
c) Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the
Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
d) Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and
supporting processes

30. What is the difference between a process and a project?

a) A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a

finite lifespan.
b) A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has
a finite lifespan
c) A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project
does not stop when the objective is met.
d) In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the
result is important

31. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?

a) The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered

b) The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
c) The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported
by maintenance contracts
d) The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement
(SLA) are complied with.

32. The PDCA cycle can be used to plan and implement Service
Management Processes:

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How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?

a) There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be
carried out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement
b) Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-
Act
c) The entire cycle should be repeated hundred times to Implement
Continual Improvement
d) There should be a single and then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be
repeated multiple times to Implement Continual improvement

33. Facilities Management refers to?

a) The Management of “utilities”, such as printers or network access

b) The Management of an Insourcing contract
c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data
Center
d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations
staff

34. According to ITIL ‘The Service Level Management Process' has a

responsibility to cover the following areas:

a) Monitoring and Reporting on Targets being met , service failures,

total cost of providing the service, Resources being used and any
shortfall, creating and updating the service catalogue
b) Non negotiation on SLA
c) 3rd party suppliers are ignored
d) negotiate with the co sourcing agency

35. DML is a

a) Data management library

b) Secure library where software that has been properly reviewed and
authorized is stored.
c) Data Migration library

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 d) Data Multiplication Linguistic

36. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the
following elements of Service Life Cycle

a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation
and Continual Service Improvement

37. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?

1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity

2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity
a) All of the above
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) None of the above

38. Business drivers and requirements for new services should be

considered during?

a) Review of the router operating system patches

b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery
c) The post implementation Review (PIR) of a change
d) Decommissioning legacy servers

39. The four stages of the Deming cycle are?

a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report

b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

40. Identify the correct sequence of the CSI improvement cycle as per the
PDCA

a) Identify Resources to perform the tasks

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 b) Measure & Verify the performance

c) Set the objectives

d) Action on the CSI activities

Correct sequence of activities as per PDCA is

A. 2, 1,4,3
B. 3,2,1,4
C. 3,1,2,4
D. 1,2,3,4

41. The best way to get automation is by adopting

a) People, Process, Partners, Technology

b) People, Patterns, Partners, Technology
c) People, Process, Products, Partners
d) People, Process, Products, Patterns

42. Best Practices is a set of activities

a) Which is followed at the organisation level

b) Which is followed by multiple organisations
c) Is easy to follow
d) Which is followed by many people

43. Automation is best suited for which area

a) Service Operation

b) Release and Deployment

c) Business critical mission tasks

d) Desktop monitoring

44. An organization “CORP” is in need of a service from an external

supplier. Two or more organizations come together to offer this service. It is
called as

a) Multi-sourcing

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 b) In-sourcing

c) Co-sourcing

d) Outsourcing

45. In ITIL V3, what statement below describing a customer is FALSE?

a) A customer pays for the service on behalf of the user

b) A customer cannot be the business itself

c) A customer can also be a user

d) A customer can be anyone who makes use of an IT service to achieve

their specific outcomes

46. Staffs in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology,

but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What
imbalance does this represent?

a) Extreme focus on responsiveness

b) Extreme focus on cost

c) Vendor focused

d) Extreme internal focus

47. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external

suppliers selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best
description of this approach?

a) The going rate that is agreed with Customers

b) Market rate

c) Cost-plus

d) Profitable

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48. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational
Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?

a) Develop Procedures and Initial Testing

b) Education and Awareness

c) Review, Audit and Assurance

d) Ongoing Training and Testing

49. A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now
complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems
with capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?

a) Network Management

b) The Service Desk

c) Capacity Management

d) Problem Management

50. An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is BEST described as:

a) A capital cost

b) A type of charging policy

c) An uplift to allocated costs

d) A revenue stream

51. Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?

a) Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against

tax

b) Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value

c) Cost centers are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)

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 d) Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity

52. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an
organization resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:

a) Root Cause Analysis

b) Business Impact Analysis

c) Service Outage Analysis

d) Component Failure Impact Analysis

QUESTION :1 Which of the following questions does

guidance in Service Strategy help answer?
1: What services should we offer and to whom?
2: How do we differentiate ourselves from competing
alternatives?
3: How do we truly create value for our customers?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.All of the above
Answer: D

QUESTION :2. Which of the following is NOT a

responsibility of the Service Design Manager?
A.Design and maintain all necessary Service Transition
packages
B.Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or
improved services, technology architecture, processes
or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current
and future IT requirements of the organisation
C.Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are
reflected in the Service Design process and the service
designs that are produced
D.Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service
Design and the supporting processes
Answer: A

QUESTION :3. Which of the following are valid examples

of business value measures?
1: Customer retention
2: Time to market
3: Service Architecture
4: Market share
A.1 and 2 only

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B.2 and 4 only
C.All of the above
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: D

QUESTION :4. Understanding customer usage of services

and how this varies over time is part of which process?
TestInside EX0-101
A.Service Portfolio Management
B.Service Level Management
C.Component Capacity Management
D.Demand Management
Answer: D

QUESTION :5. The MAIN objective of Service Level

Management is:
A.To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to
support current IT services
B.To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver
the agreed performance of services
C.To create and populate a Service Catalogue
D.To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided
for all current IT services
Answer: D

QUESTION :6. Which of the following are responsibilities

of a Service Level Manager?
1: Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
2: Designing technology architectures to support the
service
3: Ensuring required contracts and agreements are in place
A.All of the above
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.1 and 3 only
Answer: D

QUESTION :7. Which of the following is a good metric for

measuring the effectiveness of Service Level Management?
A.Customer satisfaction score
B.Average number of daily Incidents managed by each
service agent
C.Number of services in the Service Portfolio

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D.Number of services deployed within agreed times
Answer: A

TestInside EX0-101
QUESTION :8. Major Incidents require:
A.Separate procedures
B.Less urgency
C.Longer timescales
D.Less documentation
Answer: A

QUESTION :9. Which of the following should be done

when closing an Incident?
1: Check the Incident categorization and correct it if
necessary
2: Decide whether a Problem needs to be logged
A.1 only
B.Both of the above
C.2 only
D.None of the above
Answer: B

QUESTION :10. Which of the following is NOT a valid

objective of Request Fulfilment?
A.To provide information to users about what services are
available and how to request them
B.To update the Service Catalogue with services that may
be requested through the Service Desk
C.To provide a channel for users to request and receive
standard services
D.To source and deliver the components of standard
services that have been requested
Answer: B

QUESTION :11. Which of the following would NOT be a

task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process?
A.The sourcing and delivering of the components of
requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software
media)
B.Provision of a channel for users to request and receive
standard services for which a pre-defined approval and
qualification process exists
C.Provision of information to users and customers about
the availability of services and the procedure for

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obtaining them
D.Provision of information used to compare actual
performance against design standards
Answer: D

QUESTION :12. How many numbered steps are in the

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process?
A.7
B.4
C.6
D.11
Answer: A

QUESTION :13. Which Functions are included in IT

Operations Management?
A.Network Management and Application Management
B.Technical Management and Application Management
C.IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D.Facilities Management and Technical Management
Answer: C

QUESTION :14. The ITIL CORE publications are structured

around the Service Lifecycle. Which of the following
statements about the ITIL COMPLEMENTARY guidance is
CORRECT?
A.It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle
B.It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and
types of organization
C.It consists of five publications
D.It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated
approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000
Answer: B

QUESTION :15. Which of the following should be

supported by technology?
1: Verification of Configuration Management System (CMS)
data
2: Control of user desk-tops
3: Creation and use of diagnostic scripts
4: Visibility of overall IT Service performance
A.2, 3 and 4 only
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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QUESTION :16. Which of the following CANNOT be
provided by a tool?
A.Knowledge
B.Information
C.Wisdom
D.Data
Answer: C

QUESTION :17. The BEST Processes to automate are

those that are:
A.Carried out by Service Operations
B.Carried out by lots of people
C.Critical to the success of the business mission
D.Simple and well understood
Answer: D

QUESTION :18. Which of the following areas would

technology help to support during the Service Operation
phase of the Lifecycle?
1: Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when
Incidents are logged
2: Control of user desk-top PCs
3: Create and use diagnostic scripts
4: Dashboard type technology
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

QUESTION :19. Which of the following are the two

primary elements that create value for customers?
A.Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)
B.Customer and User satisfaction
C.Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
D.Utility and Warranty
Answer: D

QUESTION :20. What is the Service Pipeline?

A.All services that are at a conceptual or development
stage, or are undergoing testing
B.All services except those that have been retired
C.All services that are contained within the Service Level
Agreement (SLA)
D.All complex multi-user services
Answer: A

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QUESTION :21. What are the types of activity within
Demand Management?
A.Activity based, Access Management
B.Activity based, Business activity patterns and user
profiles
C.Analytical based, Business activity patterns and user
profiles
D.Analytical based, Shaping user behaviour
Answer: B

QUESTION :22. Which of the following is NOT a purpose

of Service Transition?
A.To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and
supported
B.To provide training and certification in project
management
C.To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and
Deployment Management
D.To plan and manage the capacity and resource
requirements to manage a Release
Answer: B

QUESTION :23. Which of the following statements BEST

describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A.A secure location where definitive hardware spares are
held
B.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of
all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and
protected
C.A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of
all software and back-ups are stored and protected
Answer: B

QUESTION :24. One organisation provides and manages

an entire business process or function for another
organisation. This is know as:
A.Business Process Management
B.Business Function Outsourcing
C.Business Process Outsourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
Answer: C

QUESTION :25. Which Service Design process makes the

most use of data supplied by Demand Management?

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A.Service Catalogue Management
B.Service Level Management
C.IT Service Continuity Management
D.Capacity Management
Answer: D

QUESTION :26. What is the BEST description of the

purpose of Service Operation?
A.To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the
Service Management Lifecycle
B.To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C.To design and build processes that will meet business
needs
D.To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to
business users and customers
Answer: D

QUESTION :27. Availability Management is responsible for

availability the of:
A.Services and Components
B.Services and Business Processes
C.Components and Business Processes
D.Services, Components and Business Processes
Answer: A

QUESTION :28. Which of the following is a sub-process of

Capacity Management?
A.Component Capacity Management
B.Process Capacity Management
C.Technology Capacity Management
D.Capability Capacity Management
Answer: A

QUESTION :29. The group that authorises Changes that

must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the:
A.Technical Management
B.Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
C.Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D.Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: B

QUESTION :30. Which of the following statements BEST

describes the aims of Release and Deployment
Management?
A.To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the

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 services specified by Service Design and that will
accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the
intended objectives
B.To ensure that each Release package specified by Service
Design consists of a set of related assets and service
components that are compatible with each other
C.To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can
be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled
or backed out if appropriate
D.To record and manage deviations, risks and issues
related to the new or changed service
Answer: A

QUESTION :31. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7

Step Improvement Process?
A.Prepare for action
B.Define what you should measure
C.Where are we now?
D.Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA)
achievement
Answer: B

QUESTION :32. Which of the following is NOT a

FUNCTION?
A.Application Management
B.Service Desk
C.Incident Management
D.Technical Management
Answer: C

QUESTION :33. Which of the following BEST describes a

Service Desk?
A.A process within Service Operation providing a single
point of contact
B.A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
C.A dedicated number of staff answering questions from
users
D.A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and
service requests
Answer: D

QUESTION :34. Which of these activities would you expect to

be performed by a Service Desk?
1: Logging details of Incidents and service requests
2: Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis

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3: Restoring service
4: Diagnosing the root-cause of problems
A.All of the above
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

QUESTION :35. Which of the following functions would be

responsible for management of a data centre?
A.Technical Management
B.Service Desk
C.IT Operations Control
D.Facilities Management
Answer: D

QUESTION :36. Governance is concerned with:

A.Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness
of processes
B.Ensuring that defined strategy is actually followed
C.Reducing the total cost of providing services
D.Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are
met
Answer: B

QUESTION :37. A risk is:

A.Something that won't happen
B.Something that will happen
C.Something that has happened
D.Something that might happen
Answer: D

QUESTION :38. Which of the following BEST describes

when a Known Error record should be raised?
A.A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary
resolution or workaround has been found
B.A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would
be useful to do so
C.As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of
the Problem will not be found
D.Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a
permanent historical record of all actions is retained in case
of a recurrence
Answer: B

QUESTION :39. IT Operations Management have been

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asked by a customer to carry out a non-standard activity,
that will cause them to miss an agreed service level target.
How should they respond?
A.Refuse the request because they must operate the
service to meet the agreed service levels
B.Make a decision based on balancing stability and
responsiveness
C.Accept the request as they must support customer
business outcomes
D.They should escalate this decision to Service Strategy
Answer: B

QUESTION :40. Which process is responsible for recording

relationships between service components?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Portfolio Management
C.Service Asset and Configuration Management
D.Incident Management
Answer: C

QUESTION :41. A single Release unit, or a structured set

of Release units can be defined within:
A.The RACI Model
B.A Release Package
C.A Request Model
D.The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
Answer: B

QUESTION :42. Which of the following might be used to

define how a future Problem or Incident could be
managed?
1: Incident Model
2: Known Error Record
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :43. Which process is responsible for low risk,

frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A.Demand Management
B.Incident Management
C.Release and Deployment Management

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D.Request Fulfilment
Answer: D

QUESTION :44. Which role is accountable for a specific

service within an organisation?
A.The Service Level Manager

B.The Business Relationship Manager

C.The Service Owner
D.The Service Continuity Manager
Answer: C

QUESTION :45. Which of the following is NOT an aim of

the Change Management process?
A.Overall business risk is optimised
B.Standardised methods and procedures are used for
efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
C.All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items
(CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management
System (CMS)
D.All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
Answer: D

QUESTION :46. Which of the following is NOT one of the

five individual aspects of Service Design?
A.The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service
Catalogue
B.The design of new or changed services
C.The design of Market Spaces
D.The design of the technology architecture and
management systems
Answer: C

QUESTION :47. One of the five major aspects of Service

Design is the design of service solutions. Which of the
following does this include?
A.Only capabilities needed and agreed
B.Only resources and capabilities needed
C.Only requirements needed and agreed
D.Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and
agreed
Answer: D

QUESTION :48. Which of the following is a valid role in

the RACI Authority Matrix?

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A.Configuration
B.Consulted
C.Complex
D.Controlled
Answer: B

QUESTION :49. What is a RACI model used for?

A.Performance analysis
B.Recording Configuration Items
C.Monitoring services
D.Defining roles and responsibilities
Answer: D

QUESTION :50. Which of the following models would be

most useful in helping to define an organisational
structure?
A.RACI Model
B.Service Model
C.Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
D.Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Answer: A

QUESTION :51. Which of the following is NOT the

responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is
accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is
accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is
consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the
Service Catalogue
Answer: B

QUESTION :52. Which of the following delivery strategies

is described as, "Formal arrangements between two
or more organisations to work together to design, develop,
transition, maintain, operate and/or support IT services"?
A.Outsourcing
B.Application Service Provision
C.Multi-sourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
TestInside EX0-101
Answer: C

QUESTION :53. To add value to the business, what are

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the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A.Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
B.Report; Manage; Improve; Extend
C.Manage; Monitor; Diagnose; Intervene
D.Plan; Predict; Report; Justify
Answer: A

QUESTION :54. Which of the following provides resources

to resolve operational and support issues during
Release and Deployment?
A.Early Life Support
B.Service Test Manager
C.Evaluation
D.Release Packaging and Build Manager
Answer: A

QUESTION :55. What does a service always deliver to

customers?
A.Applications
B.Infrastructure
C.Value
D.Resources
Answer: C

QUESTION :56. Who owns the specific costs and risks

associated with providing a service?
A.The Service Provider
B.The Service Level Manager
C.The Customer
D.Resources
Answer: A

QUESTION :57. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is

MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A.Service Design
B.Service Transition
C.Service Strategy
D.Service Operation
Answer: C

QUESTION :58. Which of the following is MOST concerned

with the design of new or changed services?
A.Change Management
B.Service Transition

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C.Service Strategy
D.Service Design
Answer: D

QUESTION :59. Which of the following are benefits that

implementing Service Transition could provide to the
business?
1: Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements
2: Reduced cost to design new services
3: Improved success in implementing changes
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.All the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :60. Which of the following sentences BEST

describes a Standard Change?
A.A Change to the service provider's established policies
and guidelines
B.A Change that correctly follows the required Change
process
C.A pre-authorised Change that has an accepted and
established procedure
D.A Change that is made as the result of an audit
Answer: C

QUESTION :61. Which of the following are activities that

would be carried out by Supplier Management?
1: Management and review of Organisational Level
Agreements (OLAs)
2: Evaluation and selection of suppliers
3: Ongoing management of suppliers
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.All of the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :62. Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does

the 7 Step Improvement Process apply to?
A.Service Operation
B.Service Transition and Service Operation
C.Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation
D.Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition,

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Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
Answer: D

QUESTION :63. Which of the following is the CORRECT

description of the Seven R's of Change Management?
A.A set of questions that should be asked to help
understand the impact of Changes
B.A seven step process for releasing Changes into
production
C.A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing
the success of a recent Change
D.A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for
Change Management
Answer: A

QUESTION :64. Which of the following statements is

CORRECT? An Event could be caused by:
1: An exception to normal operation, such as a device
exceeding a threshold or an unauthorized Configuration
Item (CI) being detected on the network
2: Normal operation, such as a user logging into an
application or an email reaching its intended recipient
A.2 only
B.1 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :65. Which of the following is the BEST

definition of the term Service Management?
A.A set of specialised organisational capabilities for
providing value to customers in the form of services
B.A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent
components that form a unified whole, operating together
for a common purpose
C.The management of functions within an organisation to
perform certain activities
D.Units of organisations with roles to perform certain
activities
Answer: A

QUESTION :66. Implementation of ITIL Service

Management requires preparing and planning the effective
and
efficient use of:

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A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners
Answer: C

QUESTION :67. "Service Management is a set of

specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services".
These specialised organisational capabilities include which
of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers
Answer: B

QUESTION :68. The left-hand side of the Service V Model

represents requirements and specifications.
What does the right-hand side of the Service V Model
represent?
A.Validation and Testing
B.The business value that can be expected from a given
service
C.Performance and capacity requirements of services and
IT infrastructure
D.Roles and responsibilities required for an effective
Service Management implementation
Answer: A

QUESTION :69. An IT department is under pressure to cut

costs. As a result, the quality of services has started
to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A.Extreme focus on cost
B.Extreme focus on quality
C.Excessively proactive
D.Excessively reactive
Answer: A

QUESTION :70. What would be the next step in the

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1: What is the vision?
2: Where are we now?
3: Where do we want to be?
4: How do we get there?

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5: Did we get there?
6: ?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?
Answer: C

QUESTION :71. Order the following Continual Service

Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct
sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act
(PDCA) model.
1: Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI
initiatives
2: Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and
its objectives are being achieved
3: Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI
4: Implement CSI enhancement
A.3-1-2-4
B.3-4-2-1
C.1-3-2-4
D.2-3-4-1
Answer: A

QUESTION :72. Which activities are carried out in the

"Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) Model?
A.Implementing service and process improvements
B.Aligning the business and IT strategies
C.Creating a baseline
D.Defining measurable targets
Answer: D

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