IRD Financial Modeling Dec2010 Notes
IRD Financial Modeling Dec2010 Notes
1
3 Black’s Model 28
3.1 European Bond Options . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28
3.1.1 Different volatility measures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
3.2 Caplets and Floorlets . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30
3.3 Caps and Floors . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30
3.3.1 Valuation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
3.3.2 A call/put on rates is a put/call on a bond . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
3.3.3 Greeks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 32
3.4 Stripping Black caps into caplets . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 34
3.5 Swaptions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 37
3.5.1 Valuation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
3.5.2 Greeks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
3.5.3 Why Black is useless for exotics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 39
3.6 Exercises . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40
2
5.4.2 Calibration of the parameters . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 66
3
Chapter 1
1.1 Introduction
In equity option pricing we make the assumption throughout that interest rates were previsible.
This greatly simplifies discussions of hedging and replication, and allows the use of the Black-
Scholes analysis and framework. The major implication of this assumption concerns the numeraire
in the martingale pricing formula. Recall that the chosen numeraire is the money-market account
(continuous investment/borrowing at deterministic interest rates). On application of the
[ assump-
]
𝑓 (0) ℚ 𝑓 (𝑇 ) 1
tion, we could bring the numeraire 𝐵 (𝑇 ) in the martingale pricing formula: 𝐵(0) = 𝔼0 𝐵(𝑇 ) out
𝐵(0) ℚ
of the expectation to evaluate the price of the derivative as: 𝑓 (0) = 𝐵(𝑇 ) 𝔼0 [𝑓 (𝑇 )].
This equation forms the basis of the Black-Scholes solution. The measure 𝑄 is the so-called Risk
Neutral Measure, is unique, and implies that the stochastic processes for the underlying (default-
free) securities and their derivatives have an expected drift rate of 𝑟 (the prevailing risk-free rate),
under 𝑄. (In fact, under 𝑄, ALL traded securities have an expected return of 𝑟!)
Despite our reservations, the model is extensively used, as seen for example in the extensive use of
the Black-Scholes formula for short-dated options. This is a consequence of the underlying stochastic
process (for the stock) being fairly remote from the stochastic process for the interest rate.
1 Some notation: 𝐵(𝑇 ) is the amount of money that 1 at time 0 has grown to by time 𝑇 , by continual reinvestment
at the short dated rate: 𝐵(⋅) is called the money market account, or simply the bank account. Usually this short
dated rate is taken to be the overnight rate, so money is placed in the overnight account, and left there, compounding
each day. Of course, by this, we mean the usual international meaning of the overnight account, in South Africa, a
true overnight rate does not exist, as discussed in West [2009].
𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇 ) is the discount factor for time 𝑇 as observed at time 𝑡. It is known when we reach 𝑡, from the bootstrap of
the yield curve at that time. Often, 𝑡 = 0, in which case we might abbreviate 𝑍(0, 𝑇 ) to 𝑍(𝑇 ).
𝑍(0,𝑇 )
𝑍(0; 𝑡, 𝑇 ) is the forward discount factor from time 𝑡 to time 𝑇 . As proved in West [2009], it is equal to 𝑍(0,𝑡) .
𝐶(𝑡, 𝑇 ) is the capitalisation factor for time 𝑇 as observed at time 𝑡. The same comments apply. 𝐶(0; 𝑡, 𝑇 ) is the
𝐶(0,𝑇 )
forward capitalisation factor from time 𝑡 to time 𝑇 . As proved in West [2009], it is equal to 𝐶(0,𝑡) . Note that 𝑍(⋅)
and 𝐶(⋅) are inverse.
We do not know the value of 𝐵(𝑇 ) at time 0 because interest rates are stochastic. When we price equity derivatives,
we assume that this stochasticity is removed, so 𝐵(⋅) = 𝐶(⋅).
4
However, this cannot be the case when options and derivatives are written either on interest rates,
or on securities whose values are dependent on interest rates (e.g. bond options, swaps, caps, floors
etc.) In these cases, it is exactly the fluctuation of interest rates that the option buyer seeks to
hedge; so an assumption of constancy of interest rates makes little sense. In particular, the bond
option model we saw in West [2009] is very problematic.
As we saw in West [2009] vanilla type interest rate derivatives such as deposits (JIBAR deposits),
FRAs and swaps do not require interest rate modelling, as they are priced using pure no arbitrage
considerations. They can be replicated using instruments that pay certain cash flows in the future
and consequently require no statistical modelling at all. They do require an accurate yield curve,
though. Producing this is not always as simple a task as it would appear. We saw a (naively) simple
method in West [2009]. For more information on the subtle difficulties that can arise, see Hagan
and West [2006], Hagan and West [2008].
It will be assumed that you are perfectly familiar with all of the interest rate material dealt with in
West [2009].
In order to price more complicated interest rate products that include optionality, we need to arrive
at a statistical model of the evolution of the yield curve. The models we will consider in this course
model all interest rates as dependent on a single rate, often termed the short rate. The evolution
of the short rate then governs the evolution of all rates along the entire curve. However, this is
quite a task, as a change in the yield curve is a complicated phenomenon, since it may undergo
combinations of parallel shifts, slope changes and curvature changes.
These models are roughly divided into two categories: equilibrium models and no arbitrage models.
In the equilibrium approach, if the model can be trusted to give a fundamentally correct, albeit
necessarily simplified, description of economic reality then there will be discrepancies between model
and market values. According to the model these discrepancies will reflect trading opportunities!
Equilibrium Models attempt to describe the economy of interest rates as a whole. Clearly this
approach is quiet abstract, and is not much used - although there are some equilibrium models that
can be reformulated as no arbitrage models.
The pure no arbitrage approach seeks to represent the value of a complicated interest rate derivative
in terms of vanilla instruments or cash instruments. The prices of these vanilla instruments will be
taken as given and any model must recover their actual traded prices. No Arbitrage Models take the
market prices of vanilla products as basic building blocks, and infer from them more complicated
derivative prices. However, different models could give different prices of the more complicated
instruments, even though they recover the same prices for the vanilla instruments!
Another complicating feature is that we cannot buy and sell interest rates. THE UNDERLYING
OF THE MODEL IS NOT A TRADEABLE INSTRUMENT. The construction of a “replicating”
portfolio requires more thought: it isn’t just the delta and cash, as it is for equity: both of these
factors don’t perform as we would naively like. What we can buy and sell is bonds, whose prices
are themselves derivative of interest rates.
Initially, we examine default-free securities and the term structure of interest rates. Once we have
done this, we are in a position to model the movements of the yield curve.
5
1.2 Day count conventions
Denote the generic period between two payment dates as 𝛼 parts of a year. The rules could be
different for bonds and swaps, and even for the floating and fixed legs of the swaps. Moreover, the
rules differ by jurisdiction. The relevant markets are
• The bond market: the market for the issuing of treasury bonds. Day count conventions are
relevant for the accrual of interest and hence the conversions between clean and dirty price.2
• The money market: the market for FRAs and hence the market for the floating leg of swaps.
• The swap market: the market for the fixed leg of swaps.
where Actual/Actual appears in International Swaps and Derivatives Association [25 November
1998]. This is rather tricky, they point out that at the time there were three conflicting interpre-
tations of this rule. The approach taken thus needs to be recorded when a deal is made. The
approaches are a follows:
(i) ISDA Actual/actual (historical). Split the period of interest into the years in which it occurs.
For each year, divide the number of actual days in the period by the number of days in that
year. Day count is equal to the sum of these fractions.
For example, if the period is from 20 September 2003 to 20 March 2004, and we are now at
13 January 2004, then the period day count is 102 80
365 + 366 and the time elapsed day count is
102 13
365 + 366 .
(ii) AFB Actual/Actual Euro. The numerator is the actual number of days, the denominator is
either 365 or 366 depending on whether or not the period includes a 29 February.
182 115
In the above example, the period day count is 366 and the elapsed day count is 366 .
(iii) ISMA Actual/Actual Bond. This is the actual number of days, divided by the product of the
number of days in the period and the number of periods in the year.
2 In fact it is unlikely that there will ever be a need for modelling the US Treasury curve. This is because then the
so-called TED spread needs to be measured i.e. the spread between the treasury and AAA curve, which is determined
by the swaps. Secondly, the US Treasury is retiring a lot of its debt, so the treasury curve is very illiquid.
3 Actual/Actual and Actual/360 also occur.
6
1
In the above example, the period day count is 2 (as there are two periods in a year) and the
115
elapsed day count is 182⋅2 .
This may be the most common convention, and is also known as ISMA Rule 251. Thus, for
this calculation let the start date of the period of interest be 𝑡1 , the date of interest 𝑡, and the
end date of the period of interest be 𝑡2 . Then on an Actual/Actual basis
𝑡 − 𝑡1
Accrued period = (1.1)
(𝑡2 − 𝑡1 ) ⋅ round( 𝑡2365
−𝑡1 , 0)
𝑡2 − 𝑡
Period remaining = (1.2)
(𝑡2 − 𝑡1 ) ⋅ round( 𝑡2365
−𝑡1 , 0)
The EURIBOR quotation will be a representative rate for euro deposits based on quotations from
a pan-European panel of banks. The euro-LIBOR quotation will be a representative rate for euro
deposits based on quotations from a panel of 16 banks in the London market. The conventions for
both of these are the ‘Euro’ conventions above.
The act of regarding each coupon as a separate zero ensures arbitrage-free pricing. If this were not
true, the coupon bond could be synthetically replicated using zero-coupon bonds. This replication
is obviously not practically as straightforward as is made out here.
1.4 Yield-to-Maturity
Coupon-bearing bond prices are often quoted in terms of their yield-to-maturity. This is defined as
an interest rate per annum that equates the present value of the bond’s associated cash flows to the
current market price. There exists a terminology confusion here because the yield-to-maturity of a
coupon bond does not correspond directly to any value on the zero-coupon yield curve, in particular,
it is not the value at the maturity (or duration, to be defined later) on the yield curve, even taking
into account possible conversion between different NAC* quoting methods.
The yield-to-maturity is merely a convenient way of expressing the price of a coupon-bearing bond
in terms of a single interest rate. In some rough sense, the YTM represents a weighted average of
the interest rates along the current zero-coupon yield curve.
7
If payments are made semi-annually (the most common) then 𝑦 - the semi-annually compounded
yield-to-maturity - is implicitly defined by:
𝑛
∑ 𝑝𝑖
𝑉 = (1.4)
𝑖=1
(1 + 𝑦2 )2𝑡𝑖
where there are payments 𝑝1 , 𝑝2 , . . . , 𝑝𝑛 ; the payment 𝑝𝑖 occurs at time 𝑡𝑖 , and time is measured
in years.
The market observables are the bond prices 𝑉 , so the value for 𝑦 must be calculated numerically.
(1.4) cannot be inverted, but Newton’s method comes to the rescue. The yield-to-maturity is the
holding period return per annum on the coupon bond.
Using the effective yield-to-maturity as the interest rate offered by the bond, implicitly assumes
that coupon reinvestment takes place at the semi-annual yield-to-maturity over the bond life. In a
world of changing interest rates it is unlikely that this will happen: there is no guarantee that the
ytm was an actual market rate at any reinvestment date, even if the yield curve does not change.
Nevertheless, the yield to maturity is a very useful concept: it enables a first order fair comparison
of different bonds trading simultaneously. So,
• Typically, the market will trade on price, but market participants will want to know the yield
to maturity of the instruments they are trading - they require a yield-given-price algorithm.
Here they use Newton’s method.
• Less typically (such as in South Africa) the market will trade on yield. We then require a very
precise formula for converting from yield to price, in order to determine the cash flows required
at the bond exchange. For repos/carrys, the yield-given-price algorithm will be needed anyway.
8
and progressing to the longer-dated coupon-bearing instruments. A mixed yield curve is shown in
Figure 1.1. The discount factors are also shown.
The South African yield curve typically has two to four turning points. It is often stated that such
mixed yield curves are signs of market illiquidity or instability. This is not the case. Supply and
demand for the instruments that are used to bootstrap the curve may simply imply such shapes.
However, many of the models that we see later in this course are driven by one factor - and intuitively
this is clearly best suited to a normal or inverted curve (because, essentially, the model dictates that
when the curve moves, it more or less moves in parallel). Thus, these models need to be analysed
carefully for their suitability in the South African market: see Svoboda [2002].
The shape of the graph for 𝑍(0, 𝑡) does not reflect the shape of the yield curve in any obvious way.
The discount factor curve must - by no arbitrage - be monotonically decreasing whether the yield
curve is normal, mixed or inverted. Nevertheless, many bootstrapping and interpolation algorithms
for constructing yield curves miss this absolutely fundamental point. See Hagan and West [2006],
Hagan and West [2008].
We now have a function 𝑡𝑛 → 𝑅𝑛 which maps maturity dates to the requisite coupon size. This
function is called the par bond curve.
But this should look familiar, and we didn’t choose 𝑅𝑛 as the notation for the annual coupon size
by chance. You see that this is EXACTLY the curve of fair swap rates trading in the market.
9
Remember that the value of the 𝑖𝑡ℎ floating payment is
𝑖
𝑉float = 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑡𝑖−1 ) − 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑡𝑖 )
[ ]
𝐶(0, 𝑡𝑖 )
= 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 ) −1
𝐶(0, 𝑡𝑖−1 )
= 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 )𝛼𝑖 𝑓𝑖𝑠
where 𝑓𝑖𝑠 is the simple forward rate for the period [𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 ]. Thus
𝑛
∑
𝑉fix = 𝑅𝑛 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑡𝑖 )𝛼𝑖
𝑖=1
𝑛
∑
𝑉float = 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 )𝛼𝑖 𝑓𝑖𝑠
𝑖=1
Thus the par coupon rates are a weighted average of the simple forward rates along the life of the
bond, where the weights are decreasing. On the other hand, we have
𝑛
∏ 𝑐
𝑒𝑟𝜏 = 𝑒𝑓𝑖 𝛼𝑖
𝑖=1
and so
𝑛
∑ 𝛼𝑖
𝑟= 𝑓𝑖𝑐 (1.8)
𝑖=1
𝜏
where now 𝑓𝑖𝑐 is the continuous forward rate for the period [𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 ], and so the zero rates are an
almost equally weighted average of the continuous forward rates along the life of the bond.
Allowing for the difference in compounding conventions, we see in general that if the yield curve is
normal then the par curve is below the zero curve which is below the forward curve, while if the
yield curve is inverted, then the par curve is above the zero curve which is above the forward curve.
10
is the no arbitrage equation: 𝐶(𝑡; 𝑡1 , 𝑡2 ) is the forward capitalisation factor for the period from 𝑡1
to 𝑡2 - it has to be this value at time 𝑡 with the information available at that time, to ensure no
arbitrage.
In a FRA the buyer or borrower (the long party) agrees to pay a fixed yield rate over the forward
period and to receive a floating yield rate, namely the 3 month JIBAR rate. At the beginning of
the forward period, the product is net settled by discounting the cash flow that should occur at the
end of the forward period to the beginning of the forward period at the (then current) JIBAR rate.
This feature - which is typical internationally - does not have any effect on the pricing.
𝑡 𝑡1 𝑡2
?
In South Africa FRA rates are always quoted for 3 month forward periods eg 3v6, 6v9, . . . , 21v24
or even further. The quoted rates are simple rates, so if 𝑓 is the rate, then
𝐶(𝑡, 𝑡2 )
1 + 𝑓 (𝑡2 − 𝑡1 ) = 𝐶(𝑡; 𝑡1 , 𝑡2 ) = (1.10)
𝐶(𝑡, 𝑡1 )
Thus
( )
1 𝐶(𝑡, 𝑡2 )
𝑓= −1 (1.11)
𝑡2 − 𝑡1 𝐶(𝑡, 𝑡1 )
11
So 𝑓 (𝑡) = 𝑟(𝑡) + 𝑟′ (𝑡)𝑡, so the forward rates will lie above the yield curve when the yield curve is
normal, and below the yield curve when it is inverted. By integrating,4
∫ 𝑡
𝑟(𝑡)𝑡 = 𝑓 (𝑠) 𝑑𝑠 (1.16)
0
∫ 𝑡
= 𝑟(𝑡𝑖−1 )𝑡𝑖−1 + 𝑓 (𝑠) 𝑑𝑠 (1.17)
𝑡𝑖−1
( ∫ 𝑡 )
𝑍(𝑡) = exp − 𝑓 (𝑠) 𝑑𝑠 (1.18)
0
Also
𝑡𝑖
𝑟𝑖 𝑡𝑖 − 𝑟𝑖−1 𝑡𝑖−1
∫
1
𝑓𝑖𝑑 := = 𝑓 (𝑠) 𝑑𝑠 (1.19)
𝑡𝑖 − 𝑡𝑖−1 𝑡𝑖 − 𝑡𝑖−1 𝑡𝑖−1
which shows that the average of the instantaneous forward rate over any interval [𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 ] is equal
to the discrete forward rate for that interval.
𝑟𝑖 𝑡𝑖 − 𝑟𝑖−1 𝑡𝑖−1
𝑟(𝑡)𝑡 = 𝑟𝑖−1 𝑡𝑖−1 + (𝑡 − 𝑡𝑖−1 )
𝑡𝑖 − 𝑡𝑖−1
By writing the above expression with a common denominator of 𝑡𝑖 − 𝑡𝑖−1 , and simplifying, we get
that the interpolation formula on that interval is
𝑡 − 𝑡𝑖−1 𝑡𝑖 − 𝑡
𝑟(𝑡)𝑡 = 𝑟𝑖 𝑡𝑖 + 𝑟𝑖−1 𝑡𝑖−1 (1.20)
𝑡𝑖 − 𝑡𝑖−1 𝑡𝑖 − 𝑡𝑖−1
which explains yet another choice of name for this method: ‘linear 𝑟𝑡’; the method is linear interpo-
lation on the points 𝑟𝑖 𝑡𝑖 . Since ±𝑟𝑖 𝑡𝑖 is the logarithm of the capitalisation/discount factors, we see
that calling this method ‘linear on the log of capitalisation factors’ or ‘linear on the log of discount
factors’ is also merited.
This raw method is very attractive because with no effort whatsoever we have guaranteed that all
instantaneous forwards are positive, because every instantaneous forward is equal to the discrete
forward for the ‘parent’ interval. This is an achievement not to be sneezed at. It is only at the
points 𝑡1 , 𝑡2 , . . . , 𝑡𝑛 that the instantaneous forward is undefined, moreover, the function jumps at
that point.
4 We
∫𝑡
𝑓 (𝑠) 𝑑𝑠, so 𝑟(𝑡)𝑡 = [𝑟(𝑠)𝑠]𝑡0 =
∫
have 𝑟(𝑠)𝑠 + 𝐶 = 0 𝑓 (𝑠) 𝑑𝑠.
12
1.10 Traditional Measures of Interest Rate Risk
Traditionally interest rate (bond) traders used two measures of interest rate risk.
This time
𝑝𝑖
( 𝑦 )𝑛𝑡𝑖
1+ 𝑛
𝑤𝑡 =
𝑉
∑𝑛
and 𝐷 = 𝑖=1 𝑡𝑖 𝑤𝑖 is as before. But now something changes. This time
𝑛
𝑑𝑉 1 ∑ 𝑡𝑖 𝑝𝑖
= − 𝑦
𝑑𝑦 1+ 𝑛 𝑖=1 (1 + 𝑛𝑦 )𝑛𝑡𝑖
𝑑𝑉
so it is not true that 𝑑𝑦 = −𝐷𝑉 . So what we do is define a new quantity, called modified duration
𝐷𝑚 , by:
𝑛
1 ∑ 𝑡𝑖 𝑝𝑖
𝐷𝑚 𝑉 = 𝑦 (1.21)
1+ 𝑛 𝑖=1 (1 + 𝑛𝑦 )𝑛𝑡𝑖
so
𝑑𝑉
= −𝐷𝑚 𝑉 (1.22)
𝑑𝑦
We also have the definition of the dollar duration
𝐷$ = 𝐷𝑚 𝑉 (1.23)
1.10.2 Convexity
Of course there is a non-linear relationship between the bond price and the yield-to-maturity. For
small shifts in yield, the first order duration calculation is a good measure of the sensitivity of the
bond price. If Δ𝑦 is large, the approximation is no longer accurate.
Using a Taylor expansion to second-order we can define convexity.
Δ𝑉 = 𝑉 (𝑦 + Δ𝑦) − 𝑉 (𝑦)
𝑑𝑉 𝑑2 𝑉 2
Δ𝑦 + 21 2 (Δ𝑦) + 𝑂 Δ𝑦 3
( )
=
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦
13
and now convexity 𝐶 is defined as
𝑑2 𝑉
𝐶𝑉 = (1.25)
𝑑𝑦 2
so we have
Δ𝑉
= −𝐷𝑚 Δ𝑦 + 21 𝐶Δ𝑦 2 + 𝑂 Δ𝑦 3
( )
(1.26)
𝑉
1.10.4 pv01
The pv01 of an instrument is how much its price changes when the yield changes by 1 basis point.
We also discard the minus sign. Since a basis point is 0.0001, a general result is that
𝑑𝑉
pv01 = −0.0001 (1.27)
𝑑𝑦
Alternatively, if we have a yield curve, then it is the change in price when the curve moves in parallel
by 1 basis point. Then
𝑑𝑉
pv01 = −0.0001 (1.29)
𝑑𝑟
Duration calculations can give silly results, and usually the task at hand can best be handled with
pv01 instead.
For example, what is the duration of a swap? We can calculate ∂𝑉∂𝑦 , but to get the duration we must
(negate and) divide by 𝑉 , which could be close to (or exactly!) 0, and hence we have numerical
instability. Rather we should stick to the pv01 calculation and be done with it.
Usually the duration calculation should be done at the portfolio level, and then a swap should be
split up as short a fixed coupon bond and long a floating rate note. The fixed coupon bond duration
is found as normal and the floating rate note has a duration which is at most the time to the next
reset.
14
If one wants to have a robust definition of the duration of a swap on a stand alone basis, one should
say it is the duration of the floating rate note minus the duration of the fixed coupon bond. The
pv01 of a just starting swap is equal to the duration of the short fixed coupon bond, because the
duration of a just starting floating rate note is 0.
1.11 Exercises
1. The current discount rate, assuming a 360 day year, on a 90-day bill is 3.5%. The face value
is $1 million.
2. The continuously-compounded yield on a deposit which pays one million ZAR in 363 days’
time is 8.55%.
3. The current discount rate on a 91-day bill is 3.68 percent, assuming a 360 day year. What is
the simple interest rate, assuming a 365 day year?
4. Use excel to find the ytm of a NACS bond. So, the inputs are a bunch of cash flows, their
dates of payment, today’s date, and the total cash price; the output needs to be the ytm.
Make sure that not only newly issued bonds can be catered for. Use an actual/365 day count.
Write a macro which, each time it is played, calculates the next estimate of the ytm, based
on the previous one, using the Newton-Bailey method.
6. Show that if a newly issued bond prices at par then the ytm is equal to the coupon (with the
frequency of the ytm being the frequency of the coupon).
7. Create a spreadsheet which, given the yield curve as input, calculates the par bond curve and
the forward curve. Graph and label all three curves.
15
8. Create a spreadsheet that given a set of semi-annual bond cash flows with their dates, the ytm
of the bond, and today’s date, can calculate the duration, modified duration, and convexity
of the bond. The bond is not necessarily newly issued. Use an actual/36 day count. Fill out
the cash flows for the r153 and compare the answers you get with the answers you get from
your SAFM bond calculator.
9. A similar exercise: create a spreadsheet that given the yield curve values, a set of semi-annual
bond cash flows with their dates, and today’s date, can calculate the duration and convexity
of the bond. Do not calculate a ytm.
16
Chapter 2
2.1 Introduction
The problem of interest rate derivatives can be approached broadly in one of two ways. We can
either model the interest rate process or the bond price process. If we are modelling the interest rate
process, then we must decide which interest rate(s) it is that we will model. In either case, there
are consistency conditions that must hold because of the structure of the yield curve: in particular,
implied forward rates should be positive.
In a discrete-time framework, we can use a similar model to that used in the binomial model of stock
price movements to model the bond prices and/or the interest rates. Modelling the price of the bond
requires us to ensure that the process is arbitrage-free, consistent with the initial term-structure
and obeys the boundary condition - that the price of a maturing bond is par, plus possibly the final
coupon.
In this chapter we will model the evolution of the short-rate (defined as the continuously-compounded
rate over Δ𝑡, the discrete time period for the lattice). The yield curve evolution is then governed
by one underlying factor. Substantial literature is devoted to multifactor models, where either more
than one source of uncertainty is modelled (usually principle components or their proxies), or the
evolution of the entire forward curve is modelled.
One-factor models are simple and tractable but they are not very flexible. In particular, they will
be hampered by their inability within the model for certain yield curve shapes to occur. In the most
simple models interest rates can become negative.
17
The risk free rate 𝑟𝑖 is the NACC rate for the period [0, 𝑡𝑖 ].
The volatilities are not the bond price volatilities. They are also not the volatilities of the risk free
rates that are from my yield curve bootstrap. They are the forward volatilities of the spot rate
(over Δ𝑡) over the time period [𝑡𝑖 , 𝑡𝑖+1 ], given the spot rates at time 𝑡 = 0. In other words, they are
the volatilities for the short rate for the period [𝑡𝑖 , 𝑡𝑖+1 ] that will be observed at time 𝑡𝑖 .
Of course, there is no 𝜎0 : the spot rate for the period from time 0 = 𝑡0 to time 𝑡1 = Δ𝑡 is known.
Similarly, given that the horizon in the above example is 𝑡8 , the volatility in the period [𝑡8 , 𝑡9 ] is
irrelevant.
We use binomial trees for the Δ𝑡 rate, the general notational convention of a tree will be as in Figure
2.1.
(0, 6)
(0, 5)
*
H
j
H
(0, 4) (1, 6)
*
H
j
H
(0, 3)
*
H
j
H (1, 5)
*
H
j
H
(0, 2)
*
H
j
H (1, 4)
*
H
j
H (2, 6)
(0, 1)
*
H
j
H (1, 3)
*
H
j
H (2, 5)
*
H
j
H
(0, 0)
*
H
j
H (1, 2)
*
H
j
H (2, 4)
*
H
j
H (3, 6)
(1, 1)
*
H
j
H (2, 3)
*
H
j
H (3, 5)
*
H
j
H
(2, 2)
*
H
j
H (3, 4)
*
H
j
H (4, 6)
(3, 3) (4, 5)
*
*
H
j
H H
j
H
(4, 4)
*
H
j
H (5, 6)
(5, 5)
*
H
j
H
(6, 6)
Using the binomial assumption the spot rate in Δ𝑡 time takes one of two values: 𝑟𝑡 (0, 1) or 𝑟𝑡 (1, 1),
corresponding are the discount factors 𝑍 𝑡 (0, 1) and 𝑍 𝑡 (1, 1).1
yield curve. 𝑍 𝑡 (𝑖, 𝑗) is the discount factor for the following Δ𝑡 period given that we have evolved to node (𝑖, 𝑗). So
𝑍 𝑡 (0, 0) = 𝑍(0, 𝑡1 ) (!!).
18
Using martingale pricing theory on bond prices (analogously to stock prices) we know that there
exists a unique probability measure 𝑄 = {𝜋} such that the bond price normalised by the money-
market account follows a martingale. Under the martingale measure, the current forward bond price
is the expected price. Then
𝑍(0, 2) = 𝔼ℚ
0 [𝑍(1, 2)𝑍(0, 1)]
= 𝑍(0, 1)𝔼ℚ
0 [0] 𝑍(1, 2)
where 𝜋 denotes the probability of an up move and 1 − 𝜋 the probability of a down move.
Now the interest rates 𝑟𝑡 (1, 1) and 𝑟𝑡 (0, 1) must match the volatility term structure. Note that in
general, if a variable 𝑟 can take on two values, 𝑎 and 𝑏, with 𝑎 > 𝑏, and with probabilities 𝜋 and
1 − 𝜋 respectively, then the variance of 𝑟 is given by
So, it is very good idea to assume that 𝜋 = 21 . (As usual, the model has three free parameters and
is matching two characteristic equations, the mean and variance. So there is one degree of freedom,
which we now use up.) Then
which is two equations in two unknowns, and solves easily:2 𝑟𝑡 (1, 1) = 8.3223%, 𝑟𝑡 (1, 0) = 4.9223%.
Now extend the lattice from one to two years, and assume that the volatility is time-dependent
but not state-dependent (i.e. volatility varies from left to right and not from top to bottom).
Furthermore, we will require that the tree recombines. This information is enough to calibrate the
tree in closed inductive form.
But first, in order to explore a bit further, some information from heaven: guess that the values for
the short-rate at time 𝑡 = 2 are 𝑟𝑡 (2, 2) = 10.8523%, 𝑟𝑡 (1, 2) = 7.8583% and 𝑟𝑡 (0, 2) = 4.8583%.
What do we need to do to check that this heavenly information is correct? First, and easily, the
volatility structure:
1 𝑡
2 (𝑟 (2, 2) − 𝑟𝑡 (1, 2)) = 1
2 (0.108583 − 0.078583) = 0.015
1 𝑡 𝑡 1
2 (𝑟 (1, 2) − 𝑟 (0, 2)) = 2 (0.078583 − 0.048583) = 0.015
Now,
= 𝑍(0, 1)𝔼ℚ
0 [𝑍(1, 2)𝑍(2, 3)]
= 𝑍(0, 1)[ 12 𝑍 𝑡 (1, 1) 12 [𝑍 𝑡 (2, 2) + 𝑍 𝑡 (1, 2)] + 12 𝑍 𝑡 (0, 1) 12 [𝑍 𝑡 (1, 2) + 𝑍 𝑡 (0, 2)]
2 It doesn’t solve easily because it is two equations in two unknowns; that fact means that there should be a
solution. The ease of the solution comes from convenient facts of the exponential.
19
Exercise 2.3.1. We know from the previous steps the values of 𝑍(0, 1), 𝑍 𝑡 (1, 1) and 𝑍 𝑡 (0, 1). Check
that the heavenly values work in the above equation.
This makes the model parameters consistent with all the market information provided, and hence
the model is arbitrage free.
Hence
To proceed, define new variables 𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗). This variable is called the Arrow-Debreu price, and is the
price at time 0 of a security that pays off exactly one if we pass through the node (𝑖, 𝑗), the payoff
occurring at the moment of passing through. Thus
𝜆(0, 0) = 1 (2.6)
1 𝑡
𝜆(0, 𝑗) = 2 𝜆(0, 𝑗 − 1)𝑍 (0, 𝑗 − 1) (2.7)
1 𝑡 1 𝑡
𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗) = 2 𝜆(𝑖 − 1, 𝑗 − 1)𝑍 (𝑖 − 1, 𝑗 − 1) + 2 𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗 − 1)𝑍 (𝑖, 𝑗 − 1) (0 < 𝑖 < 𝑗) (2.8)
1 𝑡
𝜆(𝑗, 𝑗) = 2 𝜆(𝑗 − 1, 𝑗 − 1)𝑍 (𝑗 − 1, 𝑗 − 1) (2.9)
20
𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
0 1.0000 0.4699 0.2237 0.1065 0.0511 0.0245 0.0122 0.0060 0.0030
1 0.4699 0.4399 0.3099 0.1963 0.1170 0.0692 0.0396 0.0223
2 0.2162 0.3003 0.2830 0.2230 0.1636 0.1113 0.0724
3 0.0970 0.1813 0.2126 0.2061 0.1737 0.1342
4 0.0435 0.1013 0.1460 0.1627 0.1553
5 0.0193 0.0552 0.0914 0.1151
6 0.0087 0.0285 0.0533
7 0.0038 0.0141
8 0.0016
𝑍 𝑡 (𝑖, 𝑗) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
0 0.9399 0.9520 0.9526 0.9586 0.9606 0.9946 0.9891 0.9971
1 0.9201 0.9244 0.9377 0.9416 0.9749 0.9695 0.9754
2 0.8971 0.9173 0.9229 0.9556 0.9503 0.9541
3 0.8974 0.9046 0.9366 0.9315 0.9334
4 0.8867 0.9181 0.9130 0.9131
5 0.8999 0.8949 0.8932
6 0.8772 0.8738
7 0.8547
𝑡
𝑟 (𝑖, 𝑗) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
0 6.198% 4.922% 4.858% 4.231% 4.023% 0.545% 1.100% 0.295%
1 8.322% 7.858% 6.431% 6.023% 2.545% 3.100% 2.495%
2 10.858% 8.631% 8.023% 4.545% 5.100% 4.695%
3 10.831% 10.023% 6.545% 7.100% 6.895%
4 12.023% 8.545% 9.100% 9.095%
5 10.545% 11.100% 11.295%
6 13.100% 13.495%
7 15.695%
Figure 2.2: The Ho-Lee trees associated with the given data
𝑍(0, (𝑗 + 1)Δ𝑡)
𝑍 𝑡 (0, 𝑗) = ∑𝑗 (2.11)
𝑖
𝑖=0 𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗)𝐸(𝑗)
(a) Calculate 𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗) for 0 ≤ 𝑖 ≤ 𝑗 from (2.6), (2.7), (2.8) and (2.9).
21
2.5 Lognormal Distribution (Black-Derman-Toy model)
Discrete time models of interest rates where the forward rates are lognormally distributed are usually
taken to be some variation of Black et al. [1990]. The problem with the normality assumption in the
previous section is that it is possible for interest rates to become negative (even if a mean reversion
factor is introduced). Clearly, a lognormal assumption precludes this.
Assume now that the logarithm of the spot rate is normally distributed, and the volatility parameter
pertains to the logarithms of the interest rates rather than the interest rates themselves. So now
√
ln 𝑟𝑡 (𝑖 + 1, 𝑗) = ln 𝑟𝑡 (𝑖, 𝑗) + 2𝜎(𝑗) Δ𝑡
√
𝑟𝑡 (𝑖 + 1, 𝑗) = 𝑟𝑡 (𝑖, 𝑗) exp(2𝜎(𝑗) Δ𝑡) (2.12)
Hence
which are calculated in advance. To proceed, again define new variables 𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗) exactly as before:
(2.6), (2.7), (2.8), (2.9) and (2.10) are unchanged. Thus
𝑗 𝑗
∑ ∑ 𝑖
𝑍(0, (𝑗 + 1)Δ𝑡) = 𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗)𝑍 𝑡 (𝑖, 𝑗) = 𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗)𝑍 𝑡 (0, 𝑗)𝐸(𝑗)
𝑖=0 𝑖=0
which does not have a closed form solution. Hence, we need to solve this for 𝑍 𝑡 (0, 𝑗) numerically.
Let 𝑥 = 𝑍 𝑡 (0, 𝑗). Using Newton’s method, we solve
𝑥1 = 𝑍 𝑡 (0, 𝑗 − 1)
∑𝑗 𝐸(𝑗)𝑖
𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗)𝑥𝑛 − 𝑍(0, (𝑗 + 1)Δ𝑡)
𝑥𝑛+1 = 𝑥𝑛 − 𝑖=0∑𝑗 𝑖
𝑖 𝐸(𝑗) −1
𝑖=0 𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗)𝐸(𝑗) 𝑥𝑛
Convergence here is extremely rapid: to double precision in 3 or 4 iterations. The Newton function
above is near linear (in a very wide range). Moreover, the iteration can be performed simultaneously
across all 𝑗.
Note that the term structure of volatilities in this lognormal model will reflect higher values than
those under the normality assumption. We see this via the following:
Δ𝑟
ln[𝑟 + Δ𝑟] − ln[𝑟] = ln[𝑟(1 + 𝑟 )] − ln[𝑟]
Δ𝑟
= ln[1 + 𝑟 ]
≃ 3 Δ𝑟
𝑟
22
Exercise 2.5.1. Assume the following initial data, with Δ𝑡 = 14 :
𝑖 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
𝑟𝑖 6.1982% 6.4030% 6.8721% 7.0193% 7.1000% 7.2021% 7.3120% 7.3000%
𝜎𝑖 20.0000% 18.0000% 17.0000% 17.0000% 17.0000% 17.0000% 17.0000%
Check Figure 2.1.
𝜆(𝑖, 𝑗) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
0 1.0000 0.4923 0.2425 0.1193 0.0588 0.0290 0.0143 0.0071 0.0035
1 0.4923 0.4842 0.3568 0.2342 0.1443 0.0854 0.0492 0.0278
2 0.2417 0.3556 0.3496 0.2870 0.2121 0.1465 0.0966
3 0.1181 0.2319 0.2851 0.2806 0.2419 0.1912
4 0.0577 0.1416 0.2087 0.2396 0.2365
5 0.0281 0.0827 0.1422 0.1870
6 0.0136 0.0468 0.0923
7 0.0066 0.0260
8 0.0032
𝑍 𝑡 (𝑖, 𝑗) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
0 0.9846 0.9852 0.9839 0.9858 0.9871 0.9877 0.9883 0.9903
1 0.9820 0.9808 0.9832 0.9847 0.9854 0.9862 0.9885
2 0.9771 0.9801 0.9819 0.9827 0.9836 0.9864
3 0.9765 0.9785 0.9796 0.9806 0.9839
4 0.9746 0.9758 0.9771 0.9810
5 0.9714 0.9729 0.9775
6 0.9680 0.9734
7 0.9685
𝑡
𝑟 (𝑖, 𝑗) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
0 6.198% 5.950% 6.473% 5.723% 5.213% 4.961% 4.696% 3.894%
1 7.267% 7.750% 6.783% 6.179% 5.880% 5.566% 4.616%
2 9.278% 8.041% 7.325% 6.970% 6.598% 5.471%
3 9.530% 8.682% 8.261% 7.820% 6.485%
4 10.291% 9.792% 9.270% 7.687%
5 11.606% 10.987% 9.111%
6 13.023% 10.799%
7 12.800%
Table 2.1: The Black-Derman-Toy trees associated with the given data
23
on an instrument with maturity 𝑇1 where (𝑇1 > 𝑇 ).
As a simple example, consider such an option on a zero coupon bill. By arbitrage considerations,
the value of the bill at maturity of the option 𝑇 will be 𝑍(𝑇, 𝑇1 ). The value of such a bill today
is 𝑍(0; 𝑇, 𝑇1 ) ie. the forward discount value. But to value the option, we need to consider the
volatility. Then the European call and put boundary conditions are:
{
𝑍(𝑇, 𝑇1 ) − 𝐾 for 𝑍(𝑇, 𝑇1 ) > 𝐾
𝑐[𝑍(𝑇, 𝑇1 ), 0; 𝐾] = (2.16)
0 for 𝑍(𝑇, 𝑇1 ) ≤ 𝐾
{
0 for 𝑍(𝑇, 𝑇1 ) ≥ 𝐾
𝑝[𝑍(𝑇, 𝑇1 ), 0; 𝐾] = (2.17)
𝐾 − 𝑍(𝑇, 𝑇1 ) for 𝑍(𝑇, 𝑇1 ) < 𝐾
respectively.
As an example we will consider a 18 month option on a six month zero-coupon bond i.e. after 18
months we decide whether or not to buy/sell a zero-coupon bond at the strike price; the zero coupon
bond pays 1 after 2 years.
We use the Black-Derman-Toy model with the previous data. Given the tree of prices, there is very
little to do. All we need to realise is that at time 𝑡6 the bond has a value of
Alternatively we can induct backwards through the tree as usual. There are benefits to the latter
approach as it will enable us to derive hedge ratios.
Verify that, for a call option on a six month zero coupon bond, strike 0.95, we get the tree of option
values
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
0.0117 0.0146 0.0175 0.0203 0.0230 0.0255 0.0279
0.0091 0.0121 0.0152 0.0183 0.0211 0.0238
0.0065 0.0094 0.0127 0.0160 0.0191
0.0039 0.0065 0.0099 0.0134
0.0016 0.0033 0.0068
0.0000 0.0000
0.0000
and so a price of 0.0117.
Put-Call parity for bond options is analogous to that of European options written on non-dividend
paying stocks. Consider European put and call options written on zero-coupon bonds with 𝑝𝑎𝑟 = 1.
The option maturity is 𝑇 and the bond maturity is 𝑇1 , where 𝑇1 > 𝑇 . Then
24
2.7 Forwards on Zero-Coupon Bonds
The forward value of the bond is
6
∑
𝑉 (0) = 𝑝𝑖 𝑉 (𝑖, 6)
𝑖=0
where 𝑝𝑖 is the probability of arriving at the node 𝑖. These probabilities may be found using Pascal’s
triangle, or directly via combinatorial arguments; 𝑝𝑖 = 2−6 6𝑖 . Hence the forward value is
()
6 ( )
∑ 6
𝑉 (0) = 2−6 𝑉 𝑡 (𝑖, 6)
𝑖=0
𝑖
in other words
Although this appears to be an over-specified system, it isn’t really, as the first equation follows
from the others, so we discard it. Thus we have a 2 × 2 system:
[ ][ ] [ ]
1 0.9852 𝑛1 0.0146
=
1 0.9820 𝑛2 0.0091
25
Here, the last column is just the values of (2.18). We then induct to the left: the value in cell (𝑖, 𝑗) is
just the average of cells (𝑖, 𝑗 + 1) and (𝑖 + 1, 𝑗 + 1). As rates evolve, so the forward price ‘converges’
to the actual price after 18 months. Define the delta of the option with respect to the forwards
contract in the usual fashion:
𝑉 𝑡 (0, 1) − 𝑉 𝑡 (1, 1) 0.0146 − 0.0091
Δ= = = 0.8763
𝑉𝑓𝑡 (0, 1) − 𝑉𝑓𝑡 (1, 1) 0.9658 − 0.9596
Then replicate the option with a forward position and a cash account, with quanta 𝑚1 and 𝑚2
respectively:
𝑉 (0) = 𝑚1 0 + 𝑚2 1
𝑡
𝑉 (0, 1) = 𝑚1 [𝑉𝑓𝑡 (0, 1) − 𝑉𝑓𝑡 (0, 0)] + 𝑚2 𝑍(0, 1)−1
𝑉 𝑡 (1, 1) = 𝑚1 [𝑉𝑓𝑡 (1, 1) − 𝑉𝑓𝑡 (0, 0)] + 𝑚2 𝑍(0, 1)−1
in other words
0.0117 = 𝑚2
0.0146 = [0.9658 − 0.9627]𝑚1 + 1.0156𝑚2
0.0091 = [0.9596 − 0.9627]𝑚1 + 1.0156𝑚2
which implies that 𝑚1 = 0.8763, 𝑚2 = 0.0117. As usual, the hedge ratio is dynamic and we need
to re-balance the hedge portfolio at 𝑡 = 1, depending on up/down movement from 𝑡 = 0.
2.9 Exercises
1. Consider the following quarterly data, satisfying the conditions of the Black-Derman-Toy
model:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
zero 6.00% 6.50% 6.30% 7.00% 7.00% 7.00% 7.00% 7.00%
vol 20.00% 18.00% 17.00% 16.00% 15.00% 15.00% 14.00%
26
(5) Use loops to again ‘print’ the output values in excel.
(6) Price the options and forwards seen in class in vba.
27
Chapter 3
Black’s Model
We consider the Black Model for futures/forwards which is the market standard for quoting prices
(via implied volatilities). Black [1976] considered the problem of writing options on commodity
futures and this was the first “natural” extension of the Black-Scholes model. This model also is
used to price options on interest rates and interest rate sensitive instruments such as bonds. Since
the Black-Scholes analysis assumes constant (or deterministic) interest rates, and so forward interest
rates are realised, it is difficult initially to see how this model applies to interest rate dependent
derivatives.
However, if 𝑓 is a forward interest rate, it can be shown that it is consistent to assume that
The forward rates will be log-normally distributed in what is called the 𝑇 -forward measure, where
𝑇 is the pay date of the option. This model is consistent is within the domain of the LIBOR market
model. We can proceed to use Black’s model without knowing any of the theory of the LMM;
however, Black’s model cannot safely be used to value more complicated products where the payoff
depends on observations at multiple dates.
𝔸 = ℂ + 𝕀𝐴 (𝑡) (3.1)
where the accrued interest 𝕀𝐴 (𝑡) is the accrued interest as of date 𝑡, and is non-zero between coupon
dates. The forward price is a carried all-in price, not a clean price. The option strike price 𝕂 might
be a clean or all-in strike; usually it is clean. If so, we change it to a all-in price by replacing 𝕂 with
𝕂𝔸 = 𝕂 + 𝕀𝔸 (𝑇 ).
28
Applying Black’s model to the price of the bond, the value of the bond option per unit of nominal
is [Hull, 2005, §26.2]
Example 3.1.1. Consider a 10𝑚 European call option on a 1, 000, 000 bond with 9.75 years to
maturity. Suppose the coupon is 10% NACS. The clean price is 935,000 and the clean strike price
is 1,000,000. We have the following yield curve information:
Term Rate
3m 9%
9m 9.5%
10m 10%
The 10 month volatility on the bond price is 9%.
Firstly, 𝕂ℂ = 1, 000, 000 so 𝕂𝔸 = 𝕂ℂ + 𝕀𝔸 (𝑇 ) = 1, 008, 333.33. (There will be one month of accrued
interest in 10 months time.)
Secondly, 𝔸 = [ℂ + 𝕀𝔸 (0) = 960, 000.
[ (There is currently
]] three months of accrued interest.)
3 9 10
Thirdly, 𝔽𝔸 = 960, 000 − 50, 000 𝑒− 12 9% + 𝑒− 12 9.5% 𝑒 12 10% = 939, 683.97.
Hence 𝑉𝑐 = 7, 968.60 and 𝑉𝑝 = 71, 129.06.
29
3.2 Caplets and Floorlets
See [Hull, 2005, §26.3]. Suppose that a market participant loses money if the floating rate falls.
For example, they are long a FRA. The floorlet pays off if the floating rate decreases below a
predetermined minimum value, which is of course called the strike. Thus, the floorlet ‘tops-up’
the payment received in the FRA, if required, so that the net rate received is at least the strike.
The floating rate will be the prevailing 3-month LIBOR rate, which is set at the beginning of each
period, with settlement at that time by discounting, much like a FRA. Indeed, it is a FRA position
that this floorlet is hedging; the FRA date schedule is being applied.
Let the floorlet rate (strike) be 𝑟𝐾 .
Let the 𝑇0 × 𝑇1 FRA period be of length 𝛼 as usual, where day count conventions are observed.
Suppose the LIBOR rate for the period, observed at the determination date is 𝐽1 . Then the payoff
at the determination date is 1+𝐽1 1 𝛼 𝛼 max(𝑟𝐾 − 𝐽1 , 0) per unit notional; a floorlet is like a put on the
interest rate. Of course the valuation is the same whether settled in advance or arrears.
In an analogous fashion to a floorlet, we have a caplet, where the payout occurs when the floating
rate rises above 𝑟𝐾 , the cap rate.
30
3.3.1 Valuation
We value each caplet or floorlet separately off the yield curve using the implied forward rates at
𝑡 = 0, for each time period 𝑡𝑖 . Then,
𝑛
∑
𝑉 = 𝑉𝑖 (3.7)
𝑖=1
𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 )𝛼𝑖 𝜂 𝑓 (0; 𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 )𝑁 𝜂𝑑𝑖1 − 𝑟𝐾 𝑁 𝜂𝑑𝑖2
[ ( ) ( )]
𝑉𝑖 = (3.8)
𝑓 (0;𝑡𝑖−1 ,𝑡𝑖 ) 1 2
ln 𝑟𝐾 ± 2 𝜎𝑖 𝑡𝑖−1
𝑑𝑖1,2 = √ (3.9)
𝜎𝑖 𝑡𝑖−1
where 𝜂 = 1 stands for a cap(let), 𝜂 = −1 for a floor(let), and where the floating rate (swap) curve
is being used. 𝑓 (0; 𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 ) is the simple forward rate for the period from 𝑡𝑖−1 to 𝑡𝑖 . So we apply
(1.11). Cap prices are quoted with 𝜎𝑖 = 𝜎 for 𝑖 = 1, 2, . . . , 𝑛. On the other hand, if we are
assembling a set of caplets into a cap, then the 𝜎𝑖 will be different.
Note that the 𝑖𝑡ℎ caplet is being valued in the 𝑡𝑖 forward measure.
31
𝑑1 = −0.18509 and 𝑑2 = −0.18778, and hence find 𝑁 (𝑑1 ) = 0.57342 and 𝑁 (𝑑2 ) = 0.57447. Then
the value of the bond option from (3.2) is 𝑉𝑏 = 0.00116. However, we still need to take into account
the size which is given by 1 + 𝛼𝑟𝐾 = 1.03045. Multiplying the size with 𝑉𝑏 yields 0.0011952.
Differences between these two values typically occur at the 5𝑡ℎ decimal place. It is impossible,
mathematically, to have these two values equal; in the caplet model, rates are lognormal and in the
bond option model, bond prices are lognormal. These two models cannot be made compatible.
3.3.3 Greeks
Let 𝑟 denote the entire yield curve.
We need the following preliminary calculations:
∂
𝑓 (0; 𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 ) = 1 (3.10)
∂𝑟
∂
𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 ) = −𝑡𝑖 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 ) (3.11)
∂𝑟
∂
𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 ) = −𝑟𝑖 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 ) (3.12)
∂𝜏
∂ 𝑖 ∂ 𝑖 1
𝑑 = 𝑑 = √ (3.13)
∂𝑟 1 ∂𝑟 2 𝑓 (0; 𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 )𝜎𝑖 𝑡𝑖−1
∂ 𝑖 ∂ 𝑖 √
𝑑 = 𝑑 + 𝑡𝑖−1 (3.14)
∂𝜎 1 ∂𝜎 2
∂ ∂ 𝜎
𝑑𝑖 = 𝑑𝑖 + √ (3.15)
∂𝑡𝑖−1 1 ∂𝑡𝑖−1 2 2 𝑡𝑖−1
pv01
[
∂𝑉𝑖 ∂
= −𝑡𝑖 𝑉𝑖 + 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 )𝛼𝑖 𝜂 𝑓 (0; 𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 )𝑁 (𝜂𝑑𝑖1 )
∂𝑟 ∂𝑟
]
∂ ∂
+𝑓 (0; 𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 )𝑁 ′ (𝜂𝑑𝑖1 ) 𝑑𝑖1 − 𝑟𝑋 𝑁 ′ (𝜂𝑑𝑖2 ) 𝑑𝑖2
∂𝑟 ∂𝑟
= −𝑡𝑖 𝑉𝑖 + 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 )𝛼𝑖 𝜂𝑁 (𝜂𝑑𝑖1 ) [1 + 𝛼𝑖 𝑓 (0; 𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 )] (3.16)
𝑛
∂𝑉 ∑ ∂𝑉𝑖
= (3.17)
∂𝑟 𝑖=1
∂𝑟
1 ∂𝑉
Then pv01 = 10000 ∂𝑟 .
Vega
Vega is ∂𝑉∂𝜎 . It is the Greek w.r.t. the cap volatility; it is not a Greek with respect to the caplet
volatilities, so 𝜎𝑖 = 𝜎 for 𝑖 = 1, 2, . . . , 𝑛.
32
[ ]
∂𝑉𝑖 ′ 𝑖 ∂ 𝑖 ′ 𝑖 ∂ 𝑖
= 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 )𝛼𝑖 𝑓 (0; 𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 )𝑁 (𝑑1 ) 𝑑1 − 𝑟𝑋 𝑁 (𝑑2 ) 𝑑2
∂𝜎 ∂𝜎 ∂𝜎
′ 𝑖
√
= 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 )𝛼𝑖 𝑓 (0; 𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 )𝑁 (𝑑1 ) 𝑡𝑖−1 (3.18)
𝑛
∂𝑉 ∑ ∂𝑉𝑖
= (3.19)
∂𝜎 𝑖=1
∂𝜎
For sensitivities to caplet volatilities, we would be looking at a bucket risk type of scenario. This
∂𝑉
would be ∂𝜎 𝑖
, and this only makes sense of course in the case where we have individual forward-
forward volatilities rather than just a flat cap volatility.
∂𝑉𝑖
𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 )𝛼𝑖 𝑓 (0; 𝑡𝑖−1 , 𝑡𝑖 )𝑁 ′ (𝑑𝑖1 ) 𝑡𝑖−1
√
=
∂𝜎𝑖
where now it is the caplet volatility 𝜎𝑖 being used, not the cap volatility 𝜎.
Theta
Theta can only be calculated w.r.t. some explicit assumptions about yield curve evolution. The
assumption can be that when time moves forward, the bootstrapped continuous curve will remain
constant. By full revaluation we can then calculate the theta of the position with one day of time
decay.
We require the ‘with delta’ value of a cap or floor. Often the client wants to do the deal ‘with
delta’, which means that the ‘linear’ hedge comes with the option trade. Thus we quote delta based
on hedging the cap/floor with a (forward starting) swap with the same dates, basis and frequency.
Then
∂𝑉 (cap)
∂𝑟 pv01(cap)
Δ= ∂𝑉 (swap)
= (3.20)
pv01(swap)
∂𝑟
The numerator is found in (3.17). For the denominator: the value of the swap fixed receiver, fixed
rate 𝑅 having been set, is
𝑛
∑
𝑉 (swap) = 𝑅 𝛼𝑖 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 ) − 𝑍(0, 𝑡0 ) + 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑛 ) (3.21)
𝑖=1
33
Figure 3.1: A cap with its forward swap hedge
Since each caplet is valued separately we expect a different volatility measure for each. Cap volatil-
ities are always quoted as flat volatilities where the same volatility is used for each caplet, which
in some sense will be a weighted average of the individual caplet volatilities. Thus, we use 𝜎 = 𝜎𝑖
for 𝑖 = 1, 2, . . . , 𝑛. Most traders work with independent volatilities for each caplet, though, and
these are called forward-forward vols. There exists a hump at about 1 year for the forward-forward
vols (and, consequently, also for the flat vol, which can be seen as a cumulative average of the
forward-forward vols). This can be observed or backed out of cap prices: see Figure 3.2.
Figure 3.2: Caplet (fwd-fwd) and cap (flat fwd-fwd) volatility term structure
Thus, from a set of caplet volatilities 𝜎1 , 𝜎2 , . . . , 𝜎𝑛 we may need to determine the corresponding
cap volatility 𝜎. This of course is a uniquely determined implied volatility problem. It only makes
sense if the strikes of all the caplets are equal to the strike of the cap; this won’t be the case in
34
general (typically quoted volatilities will be at the money).
A far more difficult problem is the specification of the term structure of caplet volatilities given an
incomplete term structure of cap volatilities. This is a type of bootstrap problem: there is insufficient
information to determine a unique solution. For example, only 3x6, 6x9 and 9x12 caplets and 1y,
2y, 3y , 4y caps might be available. This critical point is generally not really well dealt with in the
textbooks.
Instantaneous forward rate volatilities will be specified. Suppose the instantaneous volatility of
𝐹𝑘 (𝑡) is modelled as 𝜎𝑘 (𝑡). Having done so, one now has the implied volatility of the 𝑇𝑘−1 × 𝑇𝑘
caplet given by
√
∫ 𝑇𝑘−1
1
𝜎𝑘,imp = 𝜎𝑘 (𝑡)2 𝑑𝑡 (3.23)
𝑇𝑘−1 0
Some forms will allow us to calibrate to given cap or caplet term structures exactly. Clearly,
and as emphasised in [Brigo and Mercurio, 2006, §6.2], the pricing of caps is independent of the
joint dynamics of forward rates. However, that does not mean that calibration should also be an
independent process. There are such straightforward formulations of the calibration of caps, so
then the only parameters left to tackle swaptions calibration are the instantaneous correlations of
forward rates, and this will typically be inadequate for use in the LMM.
[Brigo and Mercurio, 2006, §6.3.1] discuss seven different formulations for calibrating cap term
structures which allow for more or less flexibility later in the swaption calibration.
The approach suggested in [Rebonato, 2002, Chapter 6], [Rebonato, 2004, Chapter 21] is to specify
a parametric form for the instantaneous volatility such as
This form is flexible enough to reproduce the typical shapes that occur in the market. It can
accommodate either a humped form or a monotonically decreasing volatility. The model is time
homogeneous, and the parameters have some economic interpretation, as described in Rebonato
[2002]. For example, the time-0 volatility is 𝑎 + 𝑑 and the long run limit is 𝑑. Furthermore, within
the context of models such as LMM, calculus is easy enough: for example
∫ ( )( )
(𝑎 + 𝑏(𝑇𝑖 − 𝑡))𝑒−𝑐(𝑇𝑖 −𝑡) + 𝑑 (𝑎 + 𝑏(𝑇𝑗 − 𝑡))𝑒−𝑐(𝑇𝑗 −𝑡) + 𝑑 𝑑𝑡
𝑎𝑑 ( 𝑐(𝑡−𝑇𝑖 ) ) 𝑏𝑑 ( )
= 𝑒 + 𝑒𝑐(𝑡−𝑇𝑗 ) + 𝑑2 𝑡 − 2 𝑒𝑐(𝑡−𝑇𝑖 ) [𝑐(𝑡 − 𝑇𝑖 ) − 1] + 𝑒𝑐(𝑡−𝑇𝑗 ) [𝑐(𝑡 − 𝑇𝑗 ) − 1]
𝑐 𝑐
𝑐(2𝑡−𝑇𝑖 −𝑇𝑗 ) [
𝑒
2𝑎2 𝑐2 + 2𝑎𝑏𝑐(1 + 𝑐(𝑇𝑖 + 𝑇𝑗 − 2𝑡)) + 𝑏2 (1 + 2𝑐2 (𝑡 − 𝑇𝑖 )(𝑡 − 𝑇𝑗 ) + 𝑐(𝑇𝑖 + 𝑇𝑗 − 2𝑡))
]
+ 3
4𝑐
=: 𝐼(𝑡, 𝑇𝑖 , 𝑇𝑗 ) (3.25)
as in [Rebonato, 2002, §6.6 - correcting for the typo], [Jäckel, 2002, (12.13)]. Then as in (3.23)
√
1
𝜎𝑘,imp = (𝐼(𝑇𝑘−1 , 𝑇𝑘−1 , 𝑇𝑘−1 ) − 𝐼(0, 𝑇𝑘−1 , 𝑇𝑘−1 )) (3.26)
𝑇𝑘−1
Now the problem has gone from being under-specified to over-specified; an error minimisation
algorithm will be used. Financial constraints are that 𝑎 + 𝑑 > 0, 𝑐 > 0, 𝑑 > 0. What we do here is,
for any choices of 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 and 𝑑,
35
• determine the caplet volatilities for every caplet using (3.26).
• find the model price of all the caplets using the caplet pricing formula.
• find the model price of the caps that are trading in the market (for example, the 1y, 2y, ...
caps).
• We can then formulate an error function which measures the difference between model and
market prices. This function will be something like
∑
err𝑎,𝑏,𝑐,𝑑 = ∣𝑉𝑖 (𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐, 𝑑) − 𝑃𝑖 ∣ (3.27)
𝑖
The 𝑖 varies only over those caps that actually trade (are quoted) in the market.
• Minimise the error. Solver might be used, but it might need to be trained to find a reasonable
solution. Use of Nelder-Mead is suggested.
Some care needs to be taken here. The inputs will be at the money cap volatilities. For each cap,
the at the money level (the forward swap rate) will probably be different. These are the forwards
that need to be used in the cap pricing formula. The output is a parametric form for at the money
caplet volatilities, and for each of these the at the money level will be different. This difference is
usually ignored, as we are pricing without any skew anyway.
Having found the parameters, one still wants to price instruments that trade in the market exactly.
Thus, after the parameters 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐, 𝑑 have been found, the model is re-specified as
[ ]
𝜎𝑘 (𝑡) = 𝐾𝑘 (𝑎 + 𝑏(𝑇𝑘−1 − 𝑡))𝑒−𝑐(𝑇𝑘−1 −𝑡) + 𝑑 (3.28)
Equivalently,
√
1
𝜎𝑘,imp = 𝐾𝑘 (𝐼(𝑇𝑘−1 , 𝑇𝑘−1 , 𝑇𝑘−1 ) − 𝐼(0, 𝑇𝑘−1 , 𝑇𝑘−1 )) (3.29)
𝑇𝑘−1
We assume that 𝐾𝑘 is a piecewise constant function, changing only at the end of each cap i.e. as
a cap terminates and a new calibrating cap is applied. For example, if we have a 1y and a 2y cap
(and others of later tenor) then 𝐾2 = 𝐾3 = 𝐾4 , and 𝐾5 = 𝐾6 = 𝐾7 = 𝐾8 .
With these assumptions, 𝐾𝑘 is found uniquely. For caplets, the value of 𝐾𝑘 is found directly. For
caps, we note that there is one root find for each set of equal 𝐾𝑘 ’s; we proceed from smallest to
largest 𝑘. Thus
• vary 𝐾𝑘 to match this model price with the market price. As the model price is an increasing
function of 𝐾𝑘 , the root is unique. We use a root finder such as Brent’s method.
The model is no longer time homogeneous, and the deviation from being so is in some sense measured
by how far the 𝐾𝑘 deviate from 1. The better the fit of the model, the closer these values are to 1,
one would hope to always have values of 𝐾𝑘 between 0.9 and 1.1 say. This correction is discussed
in [Rebonato, 2004, §21.4].
36
3.5 Swaptions
A swaption is an option to enter into a swap. We consider European swaptions. (Bermudan
swaptions also exist.) Thus, at a specified time 𝑡0 , the holder of the option has the option to enter
a swap which commences then (the first payment being one time period later, at 𝑡1 , and lasts until
time 𝑡𝑛 ).
Of course, we have two possibilities
(a) a payer swaption, which gives the holder the right but not the obligation to receive floating,
and pay a fixed rate 𝑟𝐾 (a call on the floating rate).
(b) a receiver swaption, which gives the holder the right but not the obligation to receive a fixed
rate 𝑟𝐾 , and pay floating (a put on the floating rate).
Let 𝑓 be the fair (par) forward swap rate for the period from 𝑡0 to 𝑡𝑛 . The date schedule for swaptions
is the swap schedule. The time of payments of the forward starting swap are 𝑡1 , 𝑡2 , . . . , 𝑡𝑛 , where
𝑡0 , 𝑡1 , . . . , 𝑡𝑛 are successive observation days, for example, quarterly, calculated according to the
relevant day count convention and modified following rules. As usual, let 𝑡𝑖 − 𝑡𝑖−1 = 𝛼𝑖 , measured
in years, for 𝑖 = 1, 2, . . . , 𝑛.
Note that if 𝑛 = 1 then we have a one period cap (a payer swaption) or a one period floor (a receiver
swaption). Thus, modulo the date schedule and the advanced/arrears issue, a caplet or floorlet.
Note that in general a swap (forward starting or starting immediately; in the later case 𝑡0 = 0) with
a fixed rate of 𝑅 has the fixed leg payments worth
𝑛
∑
𝑉fix = 𝑅 𝛼𝑖 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 ) (3.30)
𝑖=1
Hence the fair forward swap rate, which equates the fixed and floating leg values, is given by
𝑍(0, 𝑡0 ) − 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑛 )
𝑓 = ∑𝑛 (3.32)
𝑖=1 𝛼𝑖 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 )
Of course, these values are derived from the existing swap curve. Thus, the fair forward swap rate
is dependent upon the bootstrap and interpolation method associated with the construction of the
yield curve. Nevertheless, empirically it is found that the choice of interpolation method will only
affect the result to less than a basis point, and typically a lot less. Also, let
𝑛
∑
𝐿= 𝛼𝑖 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 ) (3.33)
𝑖=1
37
Figure 3.3: A Reuter’s page for at the money volatility quotes for caps/floors, caplet/floorlets, and
swaptions. In the swaption table 3mnth, 6mnth, 1year, 2year refers to the expiry date of the option;
1yr, 2yr, 3yr, 5yr refers to the tenor of the swap.
3.5.1 Valuation
The value of the swaption per unit of nominal is [Hull, 2005, §26.4]
where 𝜂 = 1 stands for a payer swaption, 𝜂 = −1 for a receiver swaption. Here 𝜎 is the volatility of
the fair forward swap rate, and is an implied variable quoted in the market.
3.5.2 Greeks
Delta
Δ = 𝜂𝑁 (𝜂𝑑1 ) (3.36)
pv01
This is given by
[ ]
∂𝑉 ∂𝐿 ∂𝑓 ′ ∂𝑑1 ′ ∂𝑑2
=𝜂 [𝑓 𝑁 (𝜂𝑑1 ) − 𝑟𝐾 𝑁 (𝜂𝑑2 )] + 𝜂𝐿 𝑁 (𝜂𝑑1 ) + 𝑓 𝑁 (𝜂𝑑1 )𝜂 − 𝑟𝐾 𝑁 (𝜂𝑑2 )𝜂
∂𝑟 ∂𝑟 ∂𝑟 ∂𝑟 ∂𝑟
∂𝐿 ∂𝑓
=𝜂 [𝑓 𝑁 (𝜂𝑑1 ) − 𝑟𝐾 𝑁 (𝜂𝑑2 )] + 𝜂𝐿 𝑁 (𝜂𝑑1 ) (3.37)
∂𝑟 ∂𝑟
38
We now apply several times the fact that
∂
𝑍(0, 𝑡) = −𝑡𝑍(0, 𝑡) (3.38)
∂𝑟
Firstly
𝑛
∂𝐿 ∑
= −𝑡𝑖 𝛼𝑖 𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑖 ) (3.39)
∂𝑟 𝑖=1
(3.40)
𝑔(𝑟,𝜏 )
Also, if we have a function ℎ(𝑟,𝜏 ) , then
( 𝑔 )′
= 𝑔 ′ ℎ−1 − 𝑔ℎ−2 ℎ′ (3.41)
ℎ
(3.42)
where the differentiation is with respect to 𝑟. We apply (3.38) and this to (3.32).
1 ∂𝑉
Then pv01 = 10000 ∂𝑟 .
Vega
[ ]
∂𝑉 ′ ∂𝑑1 ′ ∂𝑑2
= 𝐿𝜂 𝑓 𝑁 (𝜂𝑑1 )𝜂 − 𝑟𝐾 𝑁 (𝜂𝑑2 )𝜂
∂𝜎 ∂𝜎 ∂𝜎
′
√
= 𝐿𝑓 𝑁 (𝑑1 ) 𝜏 (3.43)
Theta
As before.
39
3.6 Exercises
1. A company caps three-month JIBAR at 9% per annum. The principal amount is R10 million.
On a reset date, namely 20 September 2004, three-month JIBAR is 10% per annum.
2. Use Black’s model to value a one-year European put option on a bond with 9 years and 11
months to expiry. Assume that the current cash price of the bond is R105, the strike price
(clean) is R110, the one-year interest rate is 10%, the bond’s price volatility measure is 8%
per annum, and the coupon rate is 8% NACS.
3. Consider an eight-month European put option on a Treasury bond that currently has 14.25
years to maturity. The current cash bond price is $910, the exercise price is $900, and the
volatility measure for the bond price is 10% per annum. A semi-annual coupon of $35 will be
paid by the bond in three months. The risk-free interest rate is 8% for all maturities up to
one year.
(a) Use Black’s model to determine the price of the option. Consider both the case where the
strike price corresponds to the cash price of the bond and the case where it corresponds
to the clean price.
(b) Calculate delta, gamma (both with respect to the bond price 𝐵) and vega in the above
problem when the strike price corresponds to the quoted price. Explain how they can be
interpreted.
4. Using Black’s model calculate the price of a caplet on the JIBAR rate. Today is 20 September
2004 and the caplet is the one that corresponds to the 9x12 period.
The caplet is struck at 9.4%. The current JIBAR rate is 9.3%, the 3x6 FRA is 9.4% and the
6x9 FRA is 9.34%, and the 9x12 FRA is 9.20%.
Interest-rate volatility is 15%.
Also calculate delta, gamma (both with respect to the 9x12 forward rate) and vega in the
above problem.
where 𝑑𝑧 is a standard Wiener process under some measure. Use Ito’s Lemma to show that
the volatility of the discount bond price declines to zero as it approaches maturity, irrespective
of the level of interest rates.
6. The price of a bond at time 𝑇, measured in terms of its yield, is 𝐺 (𝑦𝑇 ) . Assume geometric
Brownian motion for the forward bond yield, 𝑦, in a world that is forward risk-neutral with
respect to a bond maturing at time 𝑇. Suppose that the growth rate of the forward bond yield
is 𝛼 and its volatility is 𝜎𝑦 .
40
(a) Use Ito’s Lemma to calculate the process for the forward bond price, in terms of 𝛼, 𝜎𝑦 ,
𝑦 and 𝐺 (𝑦) .
(b) The forward bond price should follow a martingale in the world we are considering. Use
this fact to calculate an expression for 𝛼.
(c) Assume an initial value of 𝑦 = 𝑦0 . Now show that the expected value of 𝑦 at time 𝑇 can
be directly calculated from the above expression.
41
Chapter 4
This chapter is derived from components of [Wilmott, 2000, Chapters 40, 41], Svoboda [2002],
Svoboda [2003]; amongst others.
The fundamental complicating factor in interest rate models is the non-traded nature of rates.
Coupled to this is the non-linear, inverse relationship between bond prices and yields. If a derivative
is dependent on one or more interest rates, the rather neat consequences of the Black-Scholes model
for equity derivatives, where the expected rate of return 𝜇 drops out of the pricing formula and is
‘replaced’ by risk-neutral valuation and a return of 𝑟, will almost certainly not be valid. What is
more, in that Black-Scholes differential equation it was exactly that 𝑟 which was a constant, it is
now a variable.
We develop models of the short rate. The short rate will be denoted 𝑟. The short rate itself is
quite a theoretical concept: at time 𝑡, 𝑟(𝑡) is the yield on a bond which matures at time 𝑡 + 𝑑𝑡. In
practice, a rate that truly exists, such as the overnight, one month or even three month rate, will
be used as a surrogate for this rate.
We will now have a new variable, known as the market price of risk; knowing the market price of
risk is equivalent to knowing the expected rate of return.
where 𝑑𝑧 has the usual properties. (4.1) is sufficiently general for a broad spectrum of possible
models.
42
Recall that if 𝑉 = 𝑉 (𝑟, 𝑡) is a sufficiently well behaved function then Itô’s lemma tells us
2
( )
∂𝑉 ∂𝑉 1 2∂ 𝑉
𝑑𝑉 = 𝑑𝑟 + + 2𝜎 𝑑𝑡
∂𝑟 ∂𝑡 ∂𝑟2
∂2𝑉
( )
∂𝑉 ∂𝑉 ∂𝑉
= + 𝜇 + 12 𝜎 2 2 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎 𝑑𝑧
∂𝑡 ∂𝑟 ∂𝑟 ∂𝑟
:= 𝜇𝑉 𝑉 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎𝑉 𝑉 𝑑𝑧
Assume that 𝑉1 and 𝑉2 are sufficiently well behaved. The underlying stochastic process 𝑟 is non-
traded, so the only possible way of creating a riskless portfolio is by using both 𝑉1 and 𝑉2 . Let Π
be the portfolio which is long 1 of instrument 1 and is short 𝜎𝜎12 𝑉𝑉12 of instrument 2. Then, the risky
component (the part with 𝑑𝑧) has been eliminated, so as usual
( )
𝜎1 𝑉1 𝜎1 𝑉 1
𝜇1 𝑉1 − 𝜇2 𝑉2 = 𝑟 𝑉1 − 𝑉2
𝜎2 𝑉2 𝜎2 𝑉 2
( )
𝜎1 𝜎1
𝜇1 − 𝜇2 =𝑟 1−
𝜎2 𝜎2
𝜇1 − 𝑟 𝜇2 − 𝑟
= (4.2)
𝜎1 𝜎2
and so the quantity
𝜇𝑉 − 𝑟
𝜆 := (4.3)
𝜎𝑉
is independent of the choice of bond, and called the market price of risk. Now
𝜇𝑉 𝑉 − 𝜆𝜎𝑉 𝑉 = 𝑟𝑉
and so
∂𝑉 ∂𝑉 ∂2𝑉 ∂𝑉
+ 𝜇 + 12 𝜎 2 2 − 𝜆 𝜎 = 𝑟𝑉
∂𝑡 ∂𝑟 ∂𝑟 ∂𝑟
∂𝑉 ∂𝑉 ∂2𝑉
+ (𝜇 − 𝜆𝜎) + 21 𝜎 2 2 − 𝑟𝑉 = 0 (4.4)
∂𝑡 ∂𝑟 ∂𝑟
Note well - the drift, volatility here are those of (4.1), and not of (4.2).
This is the Black-Scholes type equation for interest rate derivatives when the yield curve is modelled
by a one-factor process of the type (4.1). Note that a vanilla bond is a derivative; options on bonds
are derivatives of derivatives. The underlying here is the short rate.
It is possible to apply (4.4) to bonds that have coupons by adding 𝐾(𝑟, 𝑡) to the left-hand side, where
𝐾(𝑟, 𝑡) 𝑑𝑡 represents the amount of coupon received in the period 𝑑𝑡. (This may be continuous or
discrete; in the latter case we will be using a finite difference scheme with specified jumps in value
to the bond as it goes ex coupon.)
We require two “spatial” boundary conditions and one final boundary condition to fully specify the
model. For example, we know that if 𝑉 (𝑟, 𝑡, 𝑇 ) is the price of a bond with par value 1, 𝑉 (𝑟, 𝑇, 𝑇 ) = 1.
Other examples would be the terminal intrinsic value of a vanilla option, etc.
Using the Feynman-Kac theorem (4.4) is the solution to the expectation of the 𝑟-discounted value
of 𝑉 (𝑇 ) where 𝑟 is subject to the Itô process
43
The Brownian motion here is not the same as the original one: 𝑑𝑧 = 𝜆𝑑𝑡 + 𝑑𝑧. The drift here is
𝜇 − 𝜆𝜎; the original (real world) drift was of course 𝜇.
44
4.3.1 GBM model
Dothan [1978], Rendelman and Bartter [1980]
This is simply
𝑑𝑟 = 𝜇𝑟𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎𝑟𝑑𝑧 (4.6)
which is the same as the usual log-normal stock price model. However, an obvious problem that
arises is that of mean-reversion: interest rates appear to be pulled back to some long-run average
level over time.
45
If we differentiate this equation twice with respect to 𝑟, and divide through by 𝐵, we arrive at
1 ∂2 2 ∂2
2 ∂𝑟 2 𝜎
𝐵 − (𝜇 − 𝜆𝜎) = 0.
∂𝑟2
In this the expiry date 𝑇 is arbitrary, so the coefficients must be separately zero:
∂2 2
𝜎 =0
∂𝑟2
∂2
(𝜇 − 𝜆𝜎) = 0
∂𝑟2
and so we can find functions 𝛼(𝑡), 𝛽(𝑡), 𝜃(𝑡) and 𝛾(𝑡) which are function of 𝑡 alone (and not of 𝑟)
such that
𝐴(𝑇, 𝑇 ) = 0
𝐵(𝑇, 𝑇 ) = 0
46
Now, we can write
𝑑𝐴 𝜃𝐵 − 21 𝛽𝐵 2
= 1 2
2 𝛼𝐵 + 𝛾𝐵 − 1
𝑑𝐵
and so
1 𝐵+𝑏 1
2 𝛼𝐴 = 𝑎𝜓2 ln(𝑎 − 𝐵) + (𝜓2 + 12 𝛽)𝑏 ln − 2 𝛽𝐵 − 𝑎𝜓2 ln 𝑎
𝑏
𝜃 − 12 𝑎𝛽
𝜓2 =
𝑎+𝑏
√
±𝛾 + 𝛾 2 + 2𝛼
𝑏, 𝑎 =
𝛼
Note that here we have incorporated the final conditions.
Obviously 𝐴 and 𝐵 are functions of 𝜏 = 𝑇 − 𝑡, and not functions of 𝑡 and 𝑇 separately.
The short rate mean reverts to 𝜇 at a ‘speed’ of 𝛾. This model is very tractable, and there are
explicit solutions for a number of derivatives based on it. Unfortunately, the Vasicek model permits
negative interest rates.
Now (4.12) and (4.13) become
𝑑𝐴
= 𝜃𝐵 − 21 𝛽𝐵 2
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝐵
= −1 + 𝛾𝐵
𝑑𝑡
(there is no dependency on 𝑟 in the parameters - 𝑡 is the only variable in play, and partial differen-
tiation is the same as total differentiation) and so (again, after some work)
1
𝐵(𝑡, 𝑇 ) = (1 − exp(−𝛾(𝑇 − 𝑡)))
𝛾
( 1 𝛽 − 𝜃𝛾)((𝑇 − 𝑡) − 𝐵) 𝛽𝐵 2
𝐴(𝑡, 𝑇 ) = 2 −
𝛾2 4𝛾
It is possible to generate increasing, decreasing or humped curves under this model. See Figure 4.1.
We can solve for the distribution of the short rate. First, put 𝑓 (𝑟, 𝑡) = 𝑟𝑒𝛾𝑡 - here we are using an
47
Figure 4.1: Possible yield curves under the Vasicek model, varying only 𝜃.
𝑑𝑓 = 𝑒𝛾𝑡 𝑑𝑟 + 𝛾𝑒𝛾𝑡 𝑟 𝑑𝑡
= 𝑒𝛾𝑡 [𝛾 (𝜇 − 𝑟) 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎𝑑𝑧] + 𝛾𝑒𝛾𝑡 𝑟 𝑑𝑡
= 𝑒𝛾𝑡 𝛾𝜇𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎𝑒𝛾𝑡 𝑑𝑡
∫ 𝑡 ∫ 𝑡
𝑓 (𝑡) − 𝑓 (0) = 𝛾𝜇 𝑒𝛾𝑠 𝑑𝑠 + 𝜎 𝑒𝛾𝑠 𝑑𝑧(𝑠)
0 0
∫ 𝑡
𝑟𝑡 𝑒𝛾𝑡 − 𝑟0 = 𝜇 𝑒𝛾𝑡 − 1 + 𝜎 𝑒𝛾𝑠 𝑑𝑧(𝑠)
[ ]
0
∫ 𝑡
−𝛾𝑡
+ 𝜇 1 − 𝑒𝛾𝑡 + 𝜎 𝑒𝛾(𝑠−𝑡) 𝑑𝑧(𝑠)
[ ]
𝑟𝑡 = 𝑟0 𝑒
0
and so
𝜎2 (
( )
𝑟𝑡 ∼ 𝜙 𝜇 + 𝑒−𝛾𝑡 (𝑟0 − 𝜇), 1 − 𝑒−2𝛾𝑡
)
(4.16)
2𝛾
In particular, it is possible to obtain negative rates under this model.
Under the Vasicek model we can value European options on default-free bonds exactly Jamshidian
[1989]. Consider a call option on an 𝑇2 −maturity discount bond with exercise price 𝐾 and expiration
𝑇1 < 𝑇2 . Using risk-neutral valuation, the vanilla option price is:
where 𝑍 is the zero coupon price for expiry 𝑇2 as observed at time 𝑇1 . It has current forward value
𝑍(𝑟, 𝑡, 𝑇2 )
𝑓 (𝑍) = .
𝑍(𝑟, 𝑡, 𝑇1 )
48
It turns out that we obtain a ‘Black-like’ option pricing formula:
Remarkably, the valuation of options on coupon-bearing bonds is also possible. Although the model
was originally posited with the underlying stochastic process being Vasicek’s model, it can be applied
to any derivative where the value of zero-coupon bonds is dependent on the short rate only. The
intuition is that a set of mini-options on each of the coupons and the bond can be constructed which
will have the same value as the total option. Because the movements of the entire yield curve are
perfectly correlated there is currently no additional value to having this decomposition. Thus, the
value of the option on the coupon bearing bond can be decomposed into a portfolio of options on
zero coupon bonds.
This procedure only works if the option is European.
Consider a European call with exercise price 𝐾 and maturity 𝑇 , on a coupon-bearing bond. Suppose
that the bond provides cashflows 𝑐1 , 𝑐2 , . . . , 𝑐𝑛 at times 𝑡1 , 𝑡2 , . . . , 𝑡𝑛 after the maturity 𝑇 of the
option. The payoff of the option at time 𝑇 is
[ 𝑛 ]
∑
max 0, 𝑐𝑖 𝑍(𝑟, 𝑇, 𝑡𝑖 ) − 𝐾 (4.21)
𝑖=1
where 𝑟 is the short rate as observed at time 𝑇 ; of course unknown at time 𝑡. Let 𝑟∗ be the value of
the short rate at time 𝑇 which causes the coupon-bearing bond price to equal the strike price. 𝑟∗
is the solution of
∑𝑛
𝐾= 𝑐𝑖 𝑍(𝑟∗ , 𝑇, 𝑡𝑖 ) (4.22)
𝑖=1
We calculate 𝑟∗ now using Newton’s method. (Just using goalseek in excel will suffice for simple
problems.) Since zero prices are decreasing functions of 𝑟, it follows that the option expires in the
money for all 𝑟 < 𝑟∗ , and out of the money for all 𝑟 > 𝑟∗ . Then
[ 𝑛 ]
∑
payoff = max 0, 𝑐𝑖 𝑍(𝑟, 𝑇, 𝑡𝑖 ) − 𝐾
𝑖=1
[ 𝑛 𝑛
]
∑ ∑
= max 0, 𝑐𝑖 𝑍(𝑟, 𝑇, 𝑡𝑖 ) − 𝑐𝑖 𝑍(𝑟∗ , 𝑇, 𝑡𝑖 )
𝑖=1 𝑖=1
𝑛
∑
= 𝑐𝑖 max[0, 𝑍(𝑟, 𝑇, 𝑡𝑖 ) − 𝑍(𝑟∗ , 𝑇, 𝑡𝑖 )]
𝑖=1
Thus the call on the coupon-bearing bond is reduced to the sum of separate calls on the underlying
zeros. This technique is called the ‘Jamshidian trick’.
49
√
Example 4.4.1. Suppose that 𝜎 = 𝛽 = 0.02, 𝛾 = 0.1, 𝜃 = 0.01 and the short rate be 10%.
Consider a 3-year European put option on a 5-year bond with a coupon of 10% NACS, strike price
𝐾 = 98, par 100.
At the end of 3 years there will be four cashflows remaining, namely
where the functional form of 𝐴(𝑡, 𝑇 ) and 𝐵(𝑡, 𝑇 ) are known - the only unknown here is 𝑟(3), the
value of the short rate that will actually be observed at time 3.
Solving (4.22) for 𝑟∗ = 𝑟(3), where 𝐾 = 98 gives 𝑟∗ = 0.1095222.
50
The spot rate again has a mean reversion level of 𝛾𝜃 , with reversion occurring at a rate of 𝛾 but,
unlike the Vasicek model, the steady-state distribution is not a special case of the normal distribution
(since the volatility is now rate dependent). The CIR model does not permit negative interest rates,
provided the technical condition 𝜃 > 12 𝛼 holds. CIR give explicit solutions for some interest rate
derivatives but the solutions are complicated and sometimes involve integrals that do not have exact
solutions (and have to be estimated numerically).
For the pricing of discount bonds under the affine model (4.7) the bond pricing equations (4.13)
and (4.12) reduce to:
𝑑𝐵
= 12 𝛼𝐵 2 + 𝛾𝐵 − 1
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝐴
= 𝜃𝐵
𝑑𝑡
which has the solution:
2(exp(𝜓1 (𝑇 − 𝑡)) − 1)
𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇 ) =
(𝛾 + 𝜓1 )(exp(𝜓1 (𝑇 − 𝑡)) − 1) + 2𝜓1
√
𝜓1 = 𝛾 2 + 2𝛼
2𝜃 2𝜓1 exp((𝛾 + 𝜓1 )(𝑇 − 𝑡)/2)
𝐴(𝑡, 𝑇 ) = ln
𝛼 (𝜓1 + 𝛾)(exp(𝜓1 (𝑇 − 𝑡)) − 1) + 2𝜓1
For specific values of 𝛼, 𝛾 and 𝜃 we can generate yield curves of various shapes. Again, 𝐴 and 𝐵
are functions only of 𝑇 − 𝑡. We can use a similar approach to Jamshidian’s to value European style
options on coupon-bearing bonds.
Consider a call option on an 𝑇2 −maturity discount bond with exercise price 𝐾 and expiration
𝑇1 < 𝑇2 . Using risk-neutral valuation, the vanilla option price is:
where
𝑍(𝑟, 𝑡, 𝑇2 )
𝑓 (𝑍) =
𝑍(𝑟, 𝑡, 𝑇1 )
Then,
𝑉𝑐 [𝑟, 𝑡, 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 ; 𝐾] = 𝑍(𝑟, 𝑡, 𝑇1 ) 𝑓 (𝑍)𝜒2 (ℎ1 ) − 𝐾𝜒2 (ℎ2 )
[ ]
where 𝜒2 is the non-central chi-squared distribution. The parameters ℎ1 and ℎ2 have a complicated
dependence on 𝛼, 𝛾 and 𝜃.
51
4.6 Equilibrium models of the logarithm of the short rate
Also [ √ ]
𝑟(𝑖 + 1, 𝑗) = 𝑟(𝑖, 𝑗) exp 2𝜎(𝑗) Δ𝑡
and hence, we find each of the two possible rates as an offset from the median rate of interest,
𝑟𝑚 (𝑖, 𝑗)
[ √ ]
𝑟(𝑖 + 1, 𝑗) = 𝑟𝑚 (𝑖, 𝑗) exp 𝜎(𝑗) Δ𝑡
[ √ ]
𝑟(𝑖, 𝑗) = 𝑟𝑚 (𝑖, 𝑗) exp −𝜎(𝑗) Δ𝑡
where
To examine the nature of the stochastic process driving the short term interest rate we must examine
the evolution of 𝑓 (𝑧, 𝑡) = ln 𝑟(𝑡) = ln(𝑢(𝑡)) + 𝜎(𝑡)𝑧(𝑡). So
𝑑𝑓 = 𝑑 ln 𝑢(𝑡) + 𝑑(𝜎(𝑡)𝑧(𝑡))
∂ ln 𝑢(𝑡)
= 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎 ′ (𝑡)𝑧(𝑡) 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎(𝑡) 𝑑𝑧(𝑡)
∂𝑡
𝑢′ (𝑡) ln 𝑟(𝑡) − ln 𝑢(𝑡)
= 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎 ′ (𝑡) 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎(𝑡) 𝑑𝑧(𝑡)
𝑢(𝑡) 𝜎(𝑡)
[ ′
𝑢 (𝑡) 𝜎 ′ (𝑡)
]
= + (ln 𝑟(𝑡) − ln 𝑢(𝑡)) 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎(𝑡) 𝑑𝑧(𝑡)
𝑢(𝑡) 𝜎(𝑡)
𝜎 ′ (𝑡)
= [ln 𝑟(𝑡) − 𝜃(𝑡)] 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎(𝑡) 𝑑𝑧(𝑡)
𝜎(𝑡)
𝑢′ (𝑡) 𝜎(𝑡)
𝜃(𝑡) := − + ln 𝑢(𝑡)
𝑢(𝑡) 𝜎 ′ (𝑡)
52
See [Cairns, 2004, §5.2.3].
It is tempting to work one-factor models in order to match not only the term structure but also
to match the price of caps (liquid instruments) and swaptions. However, this amounts to over-
parameterisation and leads to a non-stationary volatility structure. The corresponding volatility
term structure implied by the model is unlikely to be anything like the existing volatility structure
and can create derivative mispricing.
See [Cairns, 2004, §5.2.3]. Now let 𝑌 (𝑡) = ln 𝑟(𝑡) in the equation above so that
Then 𝑟 = 𝑒𝑌 so
𝑑𝑟 = 𝑒𝑌 𝑑𝑌 + 21 𝑒𝑌 ⟨𝑑𝑌, 𝑑𝑌 ⟩
= 𝑟(𝑡) [𝛼(𝑡)(ln 𝜇(𝑡) − 𝑌 (𝑡))𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎(𝑡)𝑑𝑧(𝑡)] + 21 𝑟(𝑡)𝜎 2 (𝑡) 𝑑𝑡
= 𝑟(𝑡) 𝛼(𝑡)(ln 𝜇(𝑡) − ln 𝑟(𝑡)) + 21 𝜎 2 (𝑡) 𝑑𝑡 + 𝑟(𝑡)𝜎(𝑡)𝑑𝑧(𝑡)
[ ]
Alternatively, we can solve for the dynamics of 𝑌 . This time the integrating factor is 𝑒𝐴(𝑡) where
∫𝑡
𝐴(𝑡) = 0 𝛼(𝑠) 𝑑𝑠. So let 𝑓 (𝑦, 𝑡) = 𝑦𝑒𝐴(𝑡) .
This allows for a fairly rich calibration mechanism, using inter alia the caplet volatilities.
53
4.7.1 The Continuous time version of the Ho-Lee model
Rebonato [1998] presents a simple analysis by which the continuous time equivalent of any discrete
time model, modelled within a binomial lattice, may be found. See also [Svoboda, 2003, §10.4.1].
Given that we are in state (𝑖, 𝑗 − 1), we can only move in the next time step to state (𝑖, 𝑗) or state
(𝑖 + 1, 𝑗). Given the assumption that the short term interest rate follows a Gaussian process we
have
√
𝑟(𝑖 + 1, 𝑗) = 𝑟(𝑖, 𝑗) + 2𝜎(𝑗) Δ𝑡 (4.26)
where 𝜎(𝑗) is the volatility of the one period rate that is earned in the period [𝑗 Δ𝑡, (𝑗 + 1) Δ𝑡].
Let 𝑟𝑚 (𝑖, 𝑗) be the expected interest rate at time 𝑗 given where we are at time 𝑗 − 1, hence:
1
𝑟𝑚 (𝑖, 𝑗) = [𝑟(𝑖 + 1, 𝑗) + 𝑟(𝑖, 𝑗)]
2
√
⇒ 𝑟(𝑖 + 1, 𝑗) = 𝑟𝑚 (𝑖, 𝑗) + 𝜎(𝑗) Δ𝑡
√
𝑟(𝑖, 𝑗) = 𝑟𝑚 (𝑖, 𝑗) − 𝜎(𝑗) Δ𝑡
We may apply Itô’s Lemma to determine the stochastic process for the short term interest rate, and
if we assume that the volatility is also not time dependent then
∂𝑟 ∂𝑟 ∂2𝑟
𝑑𝑟 = 𝑑𝑡 + 𝑑𝑧 + 12 2 (𝑑𝑧)2
∂𝑡 ∂𝑧 ∂𝑧
∂𝑟
= 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎𝑑𝑧
∂𝑡
and so have our favoured affine form: we have 𝛽 > 0 constant, 𝛼 = 0 = 𝛾, but 𝜃 a function of time:
√
𝑑𝑟 = 𝜃(𝑡)𝑑𝑡 + 𝛽𝑑𝑧 (4.27)
There is no mean reversion in the model which means that the process for 𝑟 has unbounded variance.
The function 𝜃(𝑡) can be determined analytically and calibrated from the initial term structure of
interest rates. (4.12) and (4.13) have become
∂𝐴
= 𝜃(𝑡)𝐵 − 12 𝛽𝐵 2 (4.28)
∂𝑡
∂𝐵
= −1 (4.29)
∂𝑡
and so
𝐵(𝑡, 𝑇 ) = 𝑇 − 𝑡 (4.30)
∫ 𝑇
𝐴(𝑡, 𝑇 ) = − 𝜃(𝑠)(𝑇 − 𝑠) 𝑑𝑠 + 61 𝛽(𝑇 − 𝑡)3 (4.31)
𝑡
We can calibrate 𝜃(⋅) so that the observed yield curve (found from our yield curve bootstrap) fits
exactly. The best way to work with this is to think of 𝑡 as today, so 𝑡 = 0 and that the variable in
play is 𝑇 . Thus
−𝑇 r(𝑟, 0, 𝑇 ) = 𝐴(0, 𝑇 ) − 𝑟𝐵(0, 𝑇 )
54
We use (4.30) and (4.31) in this, and then differentiate twice w.r.t. 𝑇 .2 The result is
where 𝑓 (0, 𝑇 ) refers to the continuous forward rate for time 𝑇 , as seen at time 0 (with the world in
state 𝑟 = 𝑟(0)). Of course, here the interpolated curve needs to be twice differentiable. Most cubic
spline interpolation schemes satisfy this property, but of course there are plenty of problems with
such interpolation schemes. The best approach might be to use the method of Svensson [1994].
Under the Ho-Lee model we can value European options on default-free bonds in exactly the same
way as before. Consider a call option on an 𝑇2 −maturity discount bond with exercise price 𝐾 and
expiration 𝑇1 < 𝑇2 . Using risk-neutral valuation, the vanilla option price is:
where 𝑍 is the zero coupon price for expiry 𝑇2 as observed at time 𝑇1 . It has current forward value
𝑍(𝑟, 𝑡, 𝑇2 )
𝑓 (𝑍) = .
𝑍(𝑟, 𝑡, 𝑇1 )
It turns out that we obtain a ‘Black-like’ option pricing formula:
The extended Vasicek model with constant volatility is analytically tractable and results in a richer
volatility structure for forward rates, spot rates and discount bonds.
(4.12) and (4.13) have become
∂𝐴
= 𝜃(𝑡)𝐵 − 12 𝛽𝐵 2
∂𝑡
∂𝐵
= −1 + 𝛾𝐵
∂𝑡
2 Here we are using the Leibnitz rule, for differentiation of a definite integral with respect to a parameter [National
55
and so
In other words,
∫ 𝑇 ∫ 𝑇
𝜃(𝑠)𝐵(𝑠, 𝑇 ) 𝑑𝑠 = 12 𝛽 𝐵(𝑠, 𝑇 )2 𝑑𝑠 − 𝑟𝐵(0, 𝑇 ) + r(𝑟, 0, 𝑇 )𝑇
0 0
𝛽
𝜃(𝑇 ) = 𝑓 ′ (0, 𝑇 ) + 𝛾𝑓 (0, 𝑇 ) + (1 − 𝑒−2𝛾𝑇 ) (4.39)
2𝛾
Option pricing formulae are the same as in §4.4.2. Note that 𝜃 was not a parameter in the option
price there and 𝜃(𝑡) is not here - this information is reflected in the formulae through the zero
coupon bond prices.
In order to calibrate this model, we still need to find the short rate volatility 𝜎, and the mean
reversion speed 𝛾.
• For any given value of 𝜎 and 𝛾, the puts on bonds have prices as functions of 𝛽 and 𝛾 and the
current yield curve, which is given and fixed. These formulae appear earlier in this section,
and refer back to the formulae of §4.4.2.
• We can then formulate a function an error function which measures the difference between
model and market (as stripped) prices. This function will be something like
∑
err𝜎,𝛾 = ∣𝑉𝑖 (𝜎, 𝛾) − 𝑃𝑖 ∣ (4.40)
𝑖
One will often find that a stable minimum is not easily found, and so one can fix one of the
parameters (such as putting 𝛾 = 0.03; apparently the Bloomberg solution) and then solve for just
the one free parameter 𝜎.
These are also the parameters one will need to use in the market standard convexity adjustment
that makes futures prices like forward prices.
3 In showing this, one must be careful to distinguish the cases 𝛾𝐵 − 1 <> 0.
56
4.7.3 The need for the convexity adjustment
The forward price of a contract is not the same as the futures price. As the underlying rate is
positively correlated with spot interest rates, futures prices are higher than forward prices. To
understand the nature of the bias between forward and futures contracts when the underlying is an
interest rate, consider a money market futures contract and a forward rate agreement (FRA) on a
certain forward rate.
An investor holding futures contracts realises the gains/losses resulting from a change in the po-
sition’s value daily. On the other hand, an investor holding forward rate agreements realises the
gains/losses only at the maturity of the underlying interest rate; the value of these gains/losses is
the present value thereof. The gains realised on a long FRA position when the forward rate increases
will be discounted at a higher interest rate. The losses realised on a long FRA position when the
forward rate decreases will be discounted at a lower interest rate. This has the effect of decreasing
the gains and increasing the losses for a long FRA position compared to the long futures position.
If the discount rate was unaffected by the change in the FRA rate, then a long position in a
future could be perfectly hedged by a short position in 𝐶(0, 𝑡) many positions in a FRA, where 𝑡
is the commencement date of the FRA. However, as the spot rate (and hence the factor 𝐶(0, 𝑡)) is
positively correlated with the FRA rate, the actual p&l of this position should be positive (in the
simplest case of perfect correlation, the p&l is positive for all moves in the rate. See Figure 4.2.)
Figure 4.2: The p&l of a futures position hedged with short forwards, assuming the rates are equal
and correlation between rates is perfect.
An alternative intuitive explanation for this phenomenon is as follows: the long party to the futures
contract will tend to receive margin payments on days when interest rates rise, and make margin
payments on days when interest rates decline. That investor will then invest profits they receive at
higher interest rates, and fund losses they make at lower interest rates.
In either case we see that if futures and FRAs had the same rate, the future is far more attractive.
Thus the fixed rate in the FRA should be lower in order to restore the attractiveness of the FRA.
However, recent research shows that this factor might not be taken into account in general i.e. that
57
futures and forwards do not trade relative to each other in this way - see Poskitt [2008].
𝐹 (𝑡; 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 ) = 𝔼ℚ
𝑡 [𝑓 (𝑇1 ; 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 )] (4.41)
where 𝔼ℚ𝑡 [⋅] is the expectation under the risk-neutral measure and 𝑓 (𝑡; 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 ) is the forward rate
at time 𝑡, for the time interval [𝑇1 , 𝑇2 ]. We can only solve this equation by introducing an interest
rate model. These models will require some differentiability of the curve.
Ho-Lee Model
where 𝜎 is the volatility of the short rate, and 𝑊 (𝑡) is standard Brownian motion under the risk-
neutral measure. The 𝜃(𝑡) function is determined from the initial term structure as
where 𝑓 ′ (0, 𝑡) is the derivative with respect to 𝑡 of the instantaneous forward rate for maturity 𝑡, as
seen today. Under the Ho-Lee model, the price of a zero-coupon bond, 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇 ) is given by
where
𝑍(0, 𝑇 ) ∂ ln 𝑍(0, 𝑡) 1 2
𝐴(𝑡, 𝑇 ) = ln − (𝑇 − 𝑡) − 𝜎 𝑡(𝑇 − 𝑡)2
𝑍(0, 𝑡) ∂𝑡 2
Using Itô’s lemma one shows that
𝑑𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇 )
2
= 𝑍𝑡 (𝑡, 𝑇 )𝑑𝑡 + 𝑍𝑟 (𝑡, 𝑇 )𝑑𝑟(𝑡) + 12 𝑍𝑟𝑟 (𝑡, 𝑇 ) (𝑑𝑟(𝑡))
[ ]
= 𝑒𝐴(𝑡,𝑇 ) 𝑒−𝑟(𝑡)(𝑇 −𝑡) 𝐴𝑡 (𝑡, 𝑇 ) + 𝑒𝐴(𝑡,𝑇 ) 𝑒−𝑟(𝑡)(𝑇 −𝑡) 𝑟(𝑡) 𝑑𝑡 − 𝑒𝐴(𝑡,𝑇 ) 𝑒−𝑟(𝑡)(𝑇 −𝑡) (𝑇 − 𝑡)𝑑𝑟(𝑡)
58
and since
it follows that
𝑑𝑓 (𝑡; 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 )
= 𝑓𝑡 (𝑡; 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 )𝑑𝑡 + 𝑓𝑟 (𝑡; 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 )𝑑𝑟(𝑡) + 21 𝑓𝑟𝑟 (𝑡; 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 )(𝑑𝑟(𝑡))2
[ ]
1 𝐴𝑡 (𝑡, 𝑇1 )𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇1 ) + 𝑟(𝑡)𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇1 ) 𝐴𝑡 (𝑡, 𝑇2 )𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇2 ) + 𝑟(𝑡)𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇2 )
= − 𝑑𝑡
𝑇2 − 𝑇1 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇1 ) 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇2 )
[ ]
1 (𝑇1 − 𝑡)𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇1 ) (𝑇2 − 𝑡)𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇2 )
+ − + (𝜃(𝑡)𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎𝑑𝑊 (𝑡)) + 0𝑑𝑡
𝑇2 − 𝑇1 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇1 ) 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑇2 )
1
= [𝐴𝑡 (𝑡, 𝑇1 ) − 𝐴𝑡 (𝑡, 𝑇2 )] 𝑑𝑡 + 𝜃(𝑡)𝑑𝑡 + 𝜎𝑑𝑊 (𝑡)
𝑇2 − 𝑇1
Hull-White Model
𝐵(𝑇2 − 𝑇1 ) 𝜎 2 [
𝐵(𝑇2 − 𝑇1 )𝐵(2𝑇1 ) + 2𝐵(𝑇1 )2
]
𝐹 (0; 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 ) = 𝑓 (0; 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 ) +
𝑇2 − 𝑇1 4
59
4.8 Exercises
1. In the course of deriving the solution to the bond equation we arrive at two ordinary differential
equations for the functions 𝐴(𝑡, 𝑇 ) and 𝐵(𝑡, 𝑇 ): equations (4.19) and (4,20). Assume 𝛼(𝑡) and
𝛾(𝑡) are constants. Integrate the equation (4.20) with boundary condition 𝐵(𝑇, 𝑇 ) = 0 to
obtain a closed form solution for 𝐵(𝑡, 𝑇 ).
2. Write down the form of the Bond-pricing equation when the short rate satisfies the following
Vasicek model
√
𝑑𝑟 = (𝜃 − 𝛾𝑟) 𝑑𝑡 + 𝛽𝑑𝑧.
Solve the resulting ordinary differential equations for 𝐴(𝑡, 𝑇 ) and 𝐵(𝑡, 𝑇 ). Express the solution
for 𝐴(𝑡, 𝑇 ) in terms of 𝐵(𝑡, 𝑇 ).
3. (a) What is the difference between an equilibrium short-term interest rate model and a no-
arbitrage model?
(b) If a stock price followed a mean-reverting or path-dependent process, there would be
market inefficiency. Why is this NOT the case when short-term interest rate models are
mean-reverting or path-dependent?
(c) Suppose that the short rate is currently 3.5% and its volatility measure is 0.95% per
annum. What happens to the volatility measure when the short rate increases to 10.5%
in (i) Vasicek’s model; (ii) Rendleman and Bartter’s model; and (iii) the Cox, Ingersoll,
Ross model?
4. (a) Given the following parametrisations of the Vasicek and CIR models:
√
𝑑𝑟 = (𝜃 − 𝛾𝑟)𝑑𝑡 + 𝛽𝑑𝑧
√
𝑑𝑟 = (𝜃 − 𝛾𝑟)𝑑𝑡 + 𝛼𝑟 𝑑𝑧,
respectively. Suppose that 𝛾 = 0.15 and 𝜃 = 0.015, and that the initial short rate is
𝑟 = 10%. Let the initial volatility measure for the short rate be 2%. Compare the two
different values given by the models for the 8-year discount factor. What is the associated
8-year, continuously-compounded interest rate in each instance?
(b) What happens to the values above when 𝑟 = 9.99%? Calculate the present value of a one
basis point shift (𝑃 𝑉 01) of a par 100 zero-coupon bond in each instance.
6. (a) Suppose that 𝑎 = 0.25, 𝑏 = 0.06, and 𝜎 = 0.022 in Vasicek’s model with the initial
short-term interest rate being 𝑟(0) = 5.8%. Calculate the price of a 2.20 year European
call option on a coupon-bearing bond that will mature in three years’ time. Suppose that
the bond pays a coupon of 6% semi-annually. The par value of the bond is 100 and the
strike price of the option is 99. The strike price is the cash price (not the quoted price)
that will be paid for the bond.
(b) Use the answer to (a) and put-call parity arguments to calculate the price of a put option
that has the same terms as the call option.
60
(c) Plot the yield curve for these values of 𝛾, 𝑏, 𝜎 and 𝑟 out to 5 years.
8. Suppose we are using Vasicek’s model with a volatility of 4%, 𝛾 = 15%, 𝜂 = 2% and short
rate 𝑟 = 10%.
61
Chapter 5
The input is a model for the LIBOR forward rates. These forward rates are of course extracted
from the bootstrapped yield curve, while the volatilities are found from the cap/caplet Black model
Black [1976] inputs.
In each Black model for maturity date 𝑇 , the forward rates will be log-normally distributed in what
is called the 𝑇 -forward measure, where 𝑇 is the pay date of the option. The fact that we can ‘legally’
discount the expected payoff under this measure using today’s yield curve is a consequence of some
profound academic work of Geman et al. [1995]. We can proceed to use Black’s model without
knowing any of the theory of the LMM (or of Geman et al. [1995]); however, the Black model
cannot safely be used to value more complicated products where the payoff depends on observations
at multiple dates.
The LIBOR market model is then a collection of Black models. Each of these models will have its
own pricing measure. However, one can move from any one of these measures to any other by using
a Radon-Nikodym change of measure. By changing all of the measures to a single measure (the one
of furthest tenor) enables us to consider a single pricing measure.
In addition to the volatility inputs, the matrix of correlations between each of these forward rates
is required - the correlations are the linkers between the forward rates. These correlations are not
observable in the market. They either need to be determined from market data in the calibration
step, or are given by exogenous considerations and then are inputs to further calibration routines.
In the latter case, the fit to the market will be less satisfactory than in the former, but these models
may subsequently perform in a more realistic fashion than methods where the fit is tighter.
The LIBOR market model is also commonly known as the BGM model after Brace et al. [1997].
The model was also initially developed by Miltersen et al. [1997] and Jamshidian [1997].
The LMM has become a standard in the banking industry, and is commonly used for pricing most
exotic interest rate derivatives. Even in the case where other models would clearly be easier to
use, the industry prefers to extend this model: possibly because it is a natural extension of the
Black-Scholes world, and the amenability of Monte Carlo pricing for almost any product variation.
Nevertheless, the ability of these models to capture rate curve dynamics is more than questionable
Manuel Huyet [2007]: in reality there is clear evidence of jumps, regimes, and skew. The normali-
62
ty/lognormality assumption is of course quite questionable. The LMM is only now being extended
to a regime which is skew aware e.g. Svoboda-Greenwood [2007], Rebonato [2007].
where 𝑡 is today, 𝐶(𝑡, ⋅) are the capitalisation factors extracted from the yield curve, 𝛼𝑖 is the time
from 𝑡𝑖−1 to 𝑡𝑖 in years, observing the relevant day count convention. It follows that
[ ]
1 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑡𝑖−1 )
𝐿𝑖 (𝑡) = −1 (5.2)
𝛼𝑖 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑡𝑖 )
1
𝑍(𝑡, 𝑡𝑖 )𝐿𝑖 (𝑡) = [𝑍(𝑡, 𝑡𝑖−1 ) − 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑡𝑖 )] (5.3)
𝛼𝑖
Of course this is just §1.7 again. In particular, 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑡𝑖 )𝐿𝑖 (𝑡) is a tradeable asset. If we consider the
measure for which 𝑍(𝑡, 𝑡𝑖 ) is the numeraire - this is known as the 𝑡𝑖 -forward measure - then 𝐿𝑖 (𝑡) is
a martingale under this measure. It now follows from the Martingale Representation Theorem1
63
Thus the value of a caplet with strike 𝐾 is given by
ln 𝐿(𝑡;𝑡𝐾
𝑖−1 ,𝑡𝑖 )
± 21 Σ𝑖
𝑑𝑖± = √
Σ𝑖
∫ 𝑡𝑖−1
Σ𝑖 = ∥𝑣𝑖 (𝑠)∥2 𝑑𝑠
𝑡
This shows that the LMM is in every way consistent with the Black model, and this model can
recover all of the Black model inputs that are used for calibration.
Now
𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑗 )
𝑑𝜂(𝑡) = 𝛼𝑗 𝑑𝐿𝑗 (𝑡)
𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑗−1 )
𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑗 )
= 𝛼𝑗 𝐿𝑗 (𝑡)𝑣𝑗 (𝑡)′ 𝑑𝑊 𝑗 (𝑡)
𝑍(0, 𝑡𝑗−1 )
𝛼𝑗 𝐿𝑗 (𝑡)
= 𝜂(𝑡) 𝑣𝑗 (𝑡)′ 𝑑𝑊 𝑗 (𝑡)
1 + 𝛼𝑗 𝐿𝑗 (𝑡)
64
and so by Girsanov’s theorem
𝛼𝑗 𝐿𝑗 (𝑡)
𝑑𝑊 𝑗−1 (𝑡) = 𝑑𝑊 𝑗 (𝑡) − 𝑣𝑗 (𝑡) 𝑑𝑡
1 + 𝛼𝑗 𝐿𝑗 (𝑡)
By induction,
𝑛
∑ 𝛼𝑗 𝐿𝑗 (𝑡)
𝑑𝑊 𝑖 (𝑡) = 𝑑𝑊 𝑛 (𝑡) − 𝑣𝑗 (𝑡) 𝑑𝑡
𝑗=𝑖+1
1 + 𝛼𝑗 𝐿𝑗 (𝑡)
Note that the last equation is one of 𝑛 × 1 column vectors. It follows that
⎡ ⎤
𝑛
∑ 𝛼 𝐿
𝑗 𝑗 (𝑡)
𝑑𝐿𝑖 (𝑡) = 𝐿𝑖 (𝑡)𝑣𝑖 (𝑡)′ ⎣𝑑𝑊 𝑛 (𝑡) − 𝑣𝑗 (𝑡) 𝑑𝑡⎦ (5.5)
𝑗=𝑖+1
1 + 𝛼𝑗 𝐿𝑗 (𝑡)
• Use Monte Carlo to evolve the forward rates to the first cash flow at 𝑡𝑖 in the derivative.
• Future value these cash flows forward to time 𝑡𝑛 by using the capitalisation factors that have
arisen from the experiment, NOT using today’s forward capitalisation factor 𝐶(𝑡; 𝑡𝑖 , 𝑡𝑛 ).
Also
𝛼2 𝐿2 (𝑡)
𝑑𝑊 1 (𝑡) = 𝑑𝑊 2 (𝑡) − 𝑣2 (𝑡) 𝑑𝑡
1 + 𝛼2 𝐿2 (𝑡)
[ ]
′ 2 𝛼2 𝐿2 (𝑡)
⇒ 𝑑𝐿1 (𝑡) = 𝐿1 (𝑡)𝑣1 (𝑡) 𝑑𝑊 (𝑡) − 𝑣2 (𝑡) 𝑑𝑡
1 + 𝛼2 𝐿2 (𝑡)
65
Thus
𝛼2 𝐿2 (𝑡)
𝑑𝐿1 (𝑡) = 𝐿1 (𝑡)𝑣11 (𝑡)𝑑𝑊12 (𝑡) − 𝐿1 (𝑡) 𝜌𝑣11 (𝑡)𝑣22 (𝑡) 𝑑𝑡
1 + 𝛼2 𝐿2 (𝑡)
𝑑𝐿2 (𝑡) = 𝐿2 (𝑡)𝑣22 (𝑡)𝑑𝑊22 (𝑡)
𝜌 𝑑𝑡 = 𝑑𝑊12 (𝑡)𝑑𝑊22 (𝑡)
To find a solution of this scheme, we can proceed as follows: we find 𝑑𝑊12 and 𝑑𝑊22 using the
Cholesky decomposition.2 We then calculate 𝑑𝐿1 and 𝑑𝐿2 and the new values of 𝐿1 and 𝐿2 (we
are now at time 𝑡1 ). If 𝐿1 < 10.5% we can exit - the option expires worthless. If not, we generate
another 𝑑𝑊22 and another 𝑑𝐿2 and the new value of 𝐿2 (we are now at time 𝑡2 ). We then determine
the payoff of the caplet with the strike of 10%. The payoff is in advance, so we capitalise the payoff
with the observed value of 𝐿2 to time 𝑡3 .
We take averages in our Monte Carlo experiment, and discount to today using the current 9m
discount factor.
We have used the most naı̈ve discretisation of the scheme. In reality, smaller time steps need to be
taken. For details see [Brigo and Mercurio, 2006, §6.10].
• Volatilities need to be determined from information in the market. This is the same cap to
caplet problem seen in §3.4.
• For the Monte Carlo we need low discrepancy sequences in high dimensions. Sobol’ sequences
are most suitable here, see [Jäckel, 2002, Chapter 8].
2 Suppose there are two underlyings. Using excel/vba, we first extract pairs of uniformly distributed random
numbers 𝑈1 , 𝑈2 , then transform them into pairs of independent normally distributed random numbers 𝑍1 , 𝑍2 by
using the inverse of the cumulative normal distribution. We then apply the Cholesky decomposition:
√
𝑊1 = 𝑍1 , 𝑊2 = 𝜌𝑍1 + 1 − 𝜌2 𝑍2 (5.6)
66
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