GENERAL CHEMISTRY

UNIT 1: ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND PERIODIC TABLE

Select the lettered item which best completes or answers the following:
1. Cathode rays were discovered by
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) R.A. Milikan (c) Johnstone stoney (d) Rutherford
2. Which of the following statements about cathode rays is wrong ?
(a) The rays produced a mechanical effect
(b) The charge/mass ratio is independent of the nature of the gas
(c) The charge/mass ratio for these rays is considerably smaller than for positive rays
(d) The rays carry a negative charge
3. The charge of the electron was determined experimentally by
(a) J.J. Thomson
(b) R.A. Milliken
(c) E. Goldstein
(d) James Chadwick
4. The charge and mass of electrons are
(a) –1.602 × 10–19 and 9.109 × 10–31 kg
(b) +1.602 × 10–19 C and 1.6726 × 10–27 kg
(c) 1.602 × 10–19 C and 1.6749 × 10–27 kg
(d) 4.80 × 10–10 and 9.10 × 10–23 kg
5. Which statement about positive rays is false?
(a) Positive rays are produced simultaneously with cathode rays
(b) The charge to mass ratio for these positive rays is not constant but that it varies with the
residual gas in the tube
(c) The largest value of e/m for positive rays is obtained when hydrogen is the residual gas
(d) Various positive particles have same e/m value.
6. Which ion would be deflected most by the field in a mass spectrometer?
(a) 42 He2+ (b) 147 N2+ (c) 146 C2+ (d) 3
1 H+
7. Millikan’s oil-drop experiment is used to find
(a) e/m ratio of an electron
(b) electronic charge
(c) mass of an electron
(d) velocity of electron
8. Rutherford’s alpha ray scattering experiments with thin foils of gold showed that
(a) the atom was primarily empty space with a small massive core of nucleus from which a
few alpha-particles (1 : 10,000) were deflected
(b) atomic radius is of the order of 10–2 cm
(c) nuclear radius is of the order of 10–13 cm
(d) all of these
9. If nuclear radius is 10–13 cm and atomic radius is 10–8 cm, the ratio of atomic volume to nuclear
volume would be
(a) 10+12 (b) 10+15 (c) 10+8 (d) 10+20

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10. The mass of a nucleus is 20 times the mass of proton which is 1.67 × 10–24 g, From this, it follows
that the mass of nuclear matter is of the order of
(a) 1 g per ml (b) 20 g per ml (c) 107 per ml (d) 1015 g per ml

11. Mosley’s name is associaated with the discovery of

(a) atomic numbers (b) mass numbers (c) atomic weights (d) protons
12. The basic conclusion that may be drawn from the experimental studies with x-rays carried out by
Mosley is that
(a) the frequency of vibration is independent of atomic number
(b) the frequency of vibration is inversely proportional to the atomic number
(c) the atomic number is equal to the charge on the nucleus
(d) the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus are nearly equal
13. Mosley found that the frequency, of a characteristic line of x-ray spectrum of an element is
related to the number Z of the element as: = (a – nb) where a and b are constants. What is the
atomic number of an element for which the corresponding line in the x-ray spectrum occurs at a
wave length of 0.657 Å ? Given a is 5.0 × 103 and b is 1.0.
(a) 21 (b) 39 (c) 43 (d) 57
14. The most recent atomic weight scale is based on
(a) 16O = 16 (b) O = 16 (c) C = 12 (d) 12C = 12
15. Calculate the chemical atomic weight from the following data obtained from spectroscope?
Isotope Abundance Mass (amu)
16
8 O 0.99759 15.9995
17
8O 0.00037 16.991
18
8O 0.00204 17.9991
The chemical atomic weight of oxygen is computed to be
(a) 15.999 amu (b) 16.0001 amu (c) 15.888 amu (d) 16.101
16. Which of the following is group of isotones
(a) 35Cl, 37Cl (b) 40Ar, 40Ca (c) 14Si30, 15P31, 16S32 (d) None of these
17. The separation of isotopes by mass spectrograph is based on the fact that
(a) various positive particles have different e/m values
(b) isotopes differ in number of neutrons
(c) isotopes have same nuclear charge
(d) isotopes have same atomic number
18. In alpha-ray scattering experiments, one in 10,000 was deflected back. Most of the alpha particles
which were not deflected back
(a) caused the gold-foil to become radioactive
(b) were absorbed by the gold foil
(c) passed throgh the extra-nuclear part of the atom
(d) were neutralised by the negative electrons
19. The mass of an atom is
(a) spread uniformly throughout
(b) concentrated mainly in the electrons
(c) concentrated mainly in the nucleus
(d) zero, because there are as many electrons as positive charges

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20. In alpha-ray scattering experiment, 8.15 × 1012 helium nuclei strike the ZnS screen per second
during which time 1.35 × 10–11 moles of helium gas is evolved. The Avogadro’s number can be
calculated as:
(a) 8.15 × 1012 / 1.35 × 10–11
(b) 1.35 × 10–11 / 8.15 × 1012
(c) 1.35 × 10–11 × 1012

21. Radiant energy includes all electromagnetic radiation:

x-rays, gamma rays (high frequency), U.V., visible, I.R., radio-waves (low frequency). Which of
the following is the correct relation between wave number/frequency (ν) and ( ν = 1 / λ ), speed (c)
of light ?
(a) ν = c / v (b) c(ν)1 / 2 = ν (c) v = c × ν (d) ν = v × c
22. Which is the correct order of the wave number of the following radiations:
I.R., U.V., radio-waves, x-rays and visible light
(a) x-rays > U.V. > I.R. > Visible > radio-wave
(b) x-rays > U.V. > visible > I.R. > radio-waves
(c) radio-waves > I.R. > Visible > U.V. > x-rays
(d) x-rays > radio-waves > Visible > U.V. > I.R.
23. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding electro-magnetic spectrum ?
(a) Cosmic rays have shorter wave length than radio-waves
(b) x-rays have smaller wave number than cosmic rays
(c) The velocity of x-rays is more than that of micro-waves
(d) The frequency of microwaves is less than that of U.V. rays
24. Wave lengths of electrons confined to atoms are of the order
(a) 1014 m (b) 10–1 m (c) 10–10 m (d) 10 m
25. Which of the following radiation of the visible part of the spectrum has lower frequency and
larger wave length ?
(a) red (b) violet (c) green (d) yellow
26. The energy associated with a photon of light wave length 400 nm is
(a) 4.97 × 10–19 J (b) 2.495 × 10–19 J (c) 4.97 × 10–17 J (d) 2.495 × 10–17 J
27. Which one of the following requires a corpuscular interpretation of light ?
(a) Bragg’s diffraction law
(b) Photo-electric effect
(c) interference
(d) reinforcement
28. Energy of a quantum of light is given by
(a) c2/E/m (b) ν = E/h (c) E = (h × C2) × λ (d) E = h/λ
29. Relation connecting mass and energy is given by
(a) λ = h2/mv (b) E = hm (c) E = m2C(d) c = (E/m)1/2
30. Which of the following wave-lengths will have higher energy per quantum ?
(a) 6000 Å (b) 4000 Å (c) 4500 Å (d) 5000 Å
31. One Einstein is

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(a) 1 mole of quanta (b) E = nhν (c) E = Nh c/λ (d) all of these
32. Which of the following energies cannot be possessed by an oscillator ?
(a) 1 hv (b) 1.5 hv (c) 2 hv (d) 3 hv
33. Which of the following concerning photoelectric effect is false?
(a) it displays the particle nature of light
(b) electrons are emitted only if light has a frequency above that of a critical frequency
(c) changing the intensity of the light changes the energies of the electrons
(d) changing the intensity of light changes the number of electrons ejected per second
34. The wave length of x-rays is of the order of
(a) 1 metre (b) 1 centimeter (c) 1 Angstrom (d) 1 micron
13
35. The frequency 6.4 × 10 cycles per second lies in which of the following regions of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) Infra-red (b) U.V. (c) x-rays (d) radio-waves
36. The threshold frequency for photo electric emission of electrons from platinum is 1.3 × 1015 sec–1.
What is the minimum energy that photons of a particular radiation must possess to produce the
photoelectric effect with platinum metal ?
(a) energy must be equal to 6.63 × 10–34 × 1.3 × 1015 J
(b) energy must be greater than 6.63 × 1034 × 1.3 × 1015 J
(c) energy corresponding to 400 nm
(d) none of these

37. Calculate the work function for Na if threshold frequency is 4.39 × 1014 sec–1.
(a) hv0
(b) h × c/λ0
(c) 6.63 × 10–34 × 4.39 × 1014
(d) all of these
38. The line spectrum is
(a) given by element
(b) characteristic of an element
(c) used to identify an element
(d) all of these
39. Which of the following is not a wave property ?
(a) light beam slows down on entering glass from air
(b) light releases photoelectrons with no time delay
(c) electron beams form an interference pattern
(d) light can be polarized
40. Light displays particle properties when
(a) it passes through a lens
(b) it is dispersed by a spectroscope
(c) it reflects from a mirror
(d) it is absorbed or emitted by matter
41. Violet light is more effective than red light in releasing photo electrons because
(a) it has more total energy
(b) it has a longer wave length
(c) it is brighter
(d) it has more energy per photon

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42. Planck’s constant is expressed in

(a) Joules/sec (b) inverse seconds (c) Joules-seconds (d) Joules
43. When photoelectric emission is taking place, increasing the intensity of the light will
(a) have no effect
(b) increased the number of electrons released
(c) increase the maximum energy per electron
(d) cause a time delay in the emission of electrons
44. The maximum energy of emitted electrons is measured by
(a) the largest potential difference they can transverse
(b) the current they produce
(c) the potential difference they produce
(d) the speed with which they emerge

45. The electron volt is a measure of

(a) energy (b) current (c) potential difference (d) charge
46. One electron volt of energy is equivalent to a photon with a wave length of about
(a) 400 Å (b) 60 Å (c) 5000 Å (d) 12000 Å
47. Energy equivalent of rest mass of an electron is about
(a) 5 ergs (b) 10–1 ergs (c) 10–6 ergs (d) 10–20 ergs
48. In nuclear reaction, the unit of effective cross-section is a barn which is
(a) 10–24 cm2 (b) 10–18 cm2 (c) 10–12 cm2 (d) 10–15 cn2
49. The momentum of a photon
(a) depends on Planck’s constant
(b) depends on its speed
(c) increases as the frequency decreases
(d) increases as the wave length decreases
50. Visible-light photons would not show the compton effect because they
(a) have no momentum
(b) travel too slowly
(c) have too small a mass
(d) have larger wave length
51. When X-ray photons collide with electrons
(a) they slow down
(b) their mass increases
(c) their wave length increases
(d) their energy increases
52. In order to observe the wave properties of particles, it is necessary to use particles that
(a) have large mass and velocity
(b) have large mass and small velocity
(c) have small mass and large velocity
(d) have a small mass and velocity
53. Diffraction of electron beam is evident that
(a) matter has wave properties

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(b) electrons repel each other

(c) electrons are a form of light
(d) electrons have momentum
54. As the frequency of photons increases
(a) their energy and wave length increases
(b) their mass increases and their energy decreases
(c) their energy, mass and velocity increases
(d) their energy and momentum increases
55. Caesium metal emits electrons when exposed even to red light but Zn requires violet light. From
this, we conclude that
(a) Cs has a lower work function
(b) electrons emitted from Zn have more energy
(c) electrons emitted from Cs have more energy
(d) Zinc has a lower work function

56. Photoelectric current is proportional to

(a) the work function of the light
(b) the frequency of the light
(c) the intensity of the light
(d) Planck’s constant
57. Newton proposed that light consists of
(a) a stream of particles
(b) photons
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) waves of an unknown nature
58. The measured value of the speed of light in a vacuum is consistent with the assumption that light
consists of
(a) a stream of particles
(b) photons
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) photo-electric effect
59. Which of the following is not a photon property ?
(a) compton collisions
(b) line spectra
(c) interference
(d) photo-electric effect
60. If an electron can be stopped by a potential of 20 volts, its K.E. is
(a) 20 eV (b) 20 volts (c) 20 calories (d) 20 joules
61. The momentum of photons can be demostrated by the fact that a light beam
(a) can be polarized
(b) has a definite frequency
(c) can cause the emission of electrons

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(d) exert pressure

62. If the radiation from a radio-active material is passed through an electric field
(a) all three kinds of rays will be deflected
(b) only the gamma rays are deflected
(c) the alpha and beta rays are deflected
(d) only the alpha is deflected
63. The particles of gamma radiations are
(a) photons (b) electrons (c) protons (d) helium nuclei
64. When alpha particles pass through a thin foil,
(a) they all pass straight through
(b) they are all deflected
(c) most of them are deflected
(d) most of them pass straight through
65. The deflection of alpha particles passing through a thin foil is caused by
(a) electrostatic repulsion by the nucleus
(b) collision with nucleus
(c) interaction with electrons
(d) attraction towards the nucleus

66. Alpha particles that come closer to the nucleus

(a) are deflected more
(b) are deflected less
(c) make more collisions
(d) are slowed down more
67. If an alpha particle is headed straight for a nucleus, it comes to rest when
(a) its total energy is zero
(b) it strikes the nucleus
(c) it strikes the electronic shells
(d) the K.E. it has lost is equal to the electrical P.E. it has gained
68. The expression Ze gives
(a) the charge on a nucleus of atomic number Z
(b) the charge on an electron
(c) the charge on an alpha particles
(d) the K.E. of an alpha particle
69. The electron of Rutherford’s atomic model would be expected to lose energy because they
(a) are atracted by the nucleus
(b) strike each other
(c) are accelerated
(d) are in motion
70. A gas that accumulates around the reactive material is
(a) H2 (b) N2 (c) He (d) Ar

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71. The angle through which an alpha particle is deflected

(a) increases as the atomic number increases
(b) is independent of the atomic number and mass
(c) increases as the atomic mass increases
(d) increases as the atomic number decreases
72. Rutherford’s model of atom is unstable because
(a) nuclei tend to break down
(b) orbiting electrons radiate energy
(c) electrons are attracted to the nucleus
(d) the electrostatic force is insufficient to held the electrons in orbit
73. A dark line spectrum is produced by
(a) passing white light through a cold gas
(b) exciting gases to higher energy levels
(c) passing light through a hot gas
(d) bombarding gases with electrons
74. Bohr’s atomic model violated the moles of classical physics because it assured that
(a) all electrons have the same charge
(b) the nuclear charge is quantized
(c) electrons can go into an orbit around the nucleus
(d) a charged particle can accelerate without producing radiation
75. The planetary model of the atom is known as the
(a) Simple model of the atom
(b) Bohr model of the atom
(c) Orbital model of the atom
(d) Valency bond model of the atom

76. The radii of first 2nd and 3rd allowed Bohr’s orbit for hydrogen are in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1:4:9
(c) 1 : 1/2 : 1/3 (d) none of these
77. The radius of Bohr’s fifth orbit for hydrogen is
(a) 52 × r1
(b) 25 × 0.529 Å
(c) 25 × 0.529 × 10–19 m
(d) all of these
78. The radius of Bohr’s fifth orbit for He– is
(a) 25 × 0.529 Å (b) 4 × 0.529 Å (c) 25 × 0.529 × 4 Å (d) 25 × 0.529/2
79. The energy of an electron (in eV) in Bohr’s fifth orbit for H-atom, He+, Li3+ respectively is
(a) –13.6/25, 4 × (13.6/25), (–13.6/25) × 9
(b) 13.6, 4 × 13.6, 9 × 13.6
(c) –13.6/25, (–13.6/25) × ¼, (–13.6/29 × 1/9)
(d) none of these
80. The ionization energies of H, He+ and Li2+ are in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 4 : 9 (b) 1 : 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 1/4 : 1/9 (d) 1 : 1 : 1

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81. By what factor the velocity of an electron in a Bohr’s orbit for a hydrogen atom will change if the
value of principal quantum number is doubled ?
(a) velocity is halved
(b) velocity is doubled
(c) velocity is quadrupled
(d) velocity remains unchanged
82. Bohr’s atomic model added to the Rutherford atom the restriction that
(a) only certain electron orbits are allowed
(b) all nuclei of a given element have the same charge
(c) all electrons have the same mass
(d) light is emitted by orbiting electron
83. An electron emits energy
(a) because it is in orbit
(b) when it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) the electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits
84. Each line of the Balmer series represents a (an)
(a) electron orbit
(b) energy level
(c) angular momentum
(d) jump from one orbit to another
85. If an electron drops from 7.9 ev leve to the 5.0 ev, it
(a) gains 2.9 ev of K.E.
(b) gains 2.9 ev of P.E.
(c) emits a 2.9 ev photon
(d) emits a 2.9 ev electron
86. Bracket series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the
(a) Far infra red region (b) visible region (c)u.v. region (d) near infra-red region

87. The second member of Paschen series in hydrogen spectrum is due to electronic transition from
(a) n = 3 to n = 2 (b) n = 4 to n = 3 (c) n = 5 to n = 3 (d) n = 5 to n = 4
88. The energy of an electron in nth Bohr’s orbit for hydrogen atom is
(a) 13.6/n4 eV (b) 13.6/n3 eV (c) –13.6/n2 eV (d) –13.6/neV
89. The maximum difference in energy for H-atom is between
(a) n = 5 and n = 4 (b) n = 5 and n = 3 (c) n = 5 to n = 2 (d) n = 2 and n = 1
90. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular momentum for an electron is
(a) 2.5 h/π (b) 5 h/π (c) 25 h/2π (d) 5 π/2h
91. The Rydberg relation between all hydrogen atoms spectral lines is 1 / λ = R [1 / n 12 − 1 / n 22 ] . The
shortest wave length of a photon that can be emitted when an electron jumps from the n=4 state is
(a) 1/R (b) 16/15 R (c) 36/5 R (d) 144/7 R
92. Consider the three electron jumps for the H-atom
(A) n = 2 to n = 1 (B) n = 3 to n = 2 (C) n = 4 to n = 3

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In which electronic transition, photon of highest wavelength is emitted, and electron experiences
largest change in orbit radius?
(a) A, A (b) A, B (c) B, C (d) C, C
93. Which electron configuration would allow a hydrogen atom to absorb a photon of radiant energy,
but not emit a photon?
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 35 (d) none of these
94. Classical mechanics is expected to be inadequate to explain the behaviour of
(a) air at 25ºC, 1 atm
(b) a ping pong ball
(c) the earth’s rotation around the sun
(d) a nitrogen atom in a N2 molecule
95. The spectral line obtained when an electron jumps from n = 5 to n = 2 belongs to the
(a) Balmer series (b) Lyman series (c) Paschen series (d) Pfund series
96. The energy of an electron in 2nd Bohr’s orbit for H-atom is –3.42 ev. The energy of the 2nd orbit
of the He– ion will be
(a) –6.82 ev (b) –13.62 ev (c) –1.70 ev (d) –0.85 ev
97. The energy of the nth Bohr orbit for H-atom is given by E0 = –2.18 ×10–18/n2 J. The frequency of
the light emitted when an electron jumps from the n = 3 to n = 1 is
(a) 1.65 × 1015 sec–1 (b) 1.65 × 1016 sec–1 (c) 1.65 × 1017 sec–1 (d) 1.65 × 1010 sec–1
98. What is the size of the quantum of radiant energy (in ev) that would cause an electron to jump
from the first to the second energy level in hydrogen ?
(a) 10.18 ev (b) 1.62 × 10–11 J (c) 1.62 × 10–19 J (d) none of these
99. Which one of the following species will give a series of spectral lines similar to that of Mg2+?
(a) Al3+ (b) Na (c) Mg+ (d) F
100. In Rydberg’s equation for H-atom, what is the value of n1 for observations made in the visible
region?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
101. Which of the following statements regarding the spectrum of mono hydrogen is false
(a) The lines can be desired by quantum numbers
(b) the line of largest wavelength in the Balmer series corresponds to a transition between the
n = 2 and n = 3 levels
(c) the spectral lines are closer together at longer wave lengths
(d) a continuous occurs at n =

102. An electron moves with a speed of 0.01 times the speed of light. Its de-Broglies wave length is
calculated to be
(a) 1.2 × 10–10 m (b) 2.4 × 10–10 m (c) 27.3 × 10–25 m (d) 2.4 × 10–16 m
103. A hydrogen molecule at 200ºC is moving with a speed of 2.4 × 105 cm per sec. The de-Broglie’s
wave length is of the order of
(a) 10,000 Å (b) 1. Å (c) 5.000 Å (d) 5 Å
104. A particle shall have associated with it a longer wave length when it is moving at
(a) 103 m/sec (b) 104 m/sec (c) 105 m/sec (d) 106 m/sec
105. The wave nature of an electron was verified experimentally by
(a) Einstein (b) Germer (c) de-Broglie (d) Planck
106. The construction of electron microscope is based upon

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(a) de-Broglie’s concept

(b) Uncertainty principle
(c) Pauli’s principle
(d) Hund’s rule
107. In the de-Broglie model, the circumference of each electron orbit must be equal to
(a) the diameter of an electron
(b) the electron wave-length
(c) an integral number of electron wave lengths
(d) Planck’s constant divided by 2
108. The Franck-Hertz experiment showed that
(a) electrons can have only certain values of energy
(b) atoms can accept energy only in certain discrete amounts
(c) the energy of an electron can be measured
(d) the energy of an electron is the same as that of an emitted photon
109. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle precludes the exact simultaneous measurement of
(a) charge density and probability
(b) position and momentum
(c) position and direction
(d) velocity and energy

110. The uncertainty in the momentum of an electron is 1 × 10–6 kg m sec–1. The uncertainty in
position would be
(a) 1.05 × 10–23 m (b) 2.1 × 10–25 m (c) 1.05 × 10–27 m (d) 1.05 × 10–25 m
111. Which of the following orbits do not make sense according to wave mechanics ?
(a) 2d (b) 4f (c) 6h (d) 7g
112. Which of the following quantum numbers does not follow from SWE ?
(a) principal quantum number, n
(b) azimuthal quantum number, 1
(c) magnetic quantum number, m
(d) spin quantum numbers
113. Spin quantum number was introduced experimentally by
(a) Niels Bohr
(b) Sommerfield
(c) Zeeman
(d) Stern and Gerlach
114. The splitting of lines under the influence of magnetic field is called
(a) Zeeman effect (b) Raman effect (c) Thompson effect (d) Stark effect

115. Which one of the following statements is wholly correct ?

(a) all electrons in each valency shell are defined by the same principal quantum number
(b) px, py, pz orbitals defined by the same principal quantum number differ very slightly in
energy
(c) there is a reasonable chance of finding an electron in a nodal region
(d) electrons of highest energy those nearest to the nucleus
116. The term atomic orbital refers to

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(a) a circular path

(b) an elliptical path
(c) an energy level
(d) a volume of space
117. The atomic number of an element is related to
(a) its atomic weight
(b) the number of neutrons in the nucleus
(c) its mass number
(d) the x-ray spectrum of the element
118. Elements have been identified by their recurring spectra. This happens because
(a) protons have definite energy levels
(b) electrons have definite energy levels
(c) every element reflects light differently
(d) every element has a fixed ratio of isotopes
119. Radiant energy is emitted from an atom when electrons fall back to lower energy levels. The
electron change that would release the most energy occurs when an electron jumps from
(a) L to K shell (b) M to L shell
(c) M to K shell (d) M to N shell
120. The Pauli exclusion principle states that
(a) two and only two electrons of the same atom can occupy the same principal quantum
level
(b) no more than two electrons of the same atom can have identical sets of four quantum
numbers
(c) no two electrons of the same atom can occupy the same principal quantum level
(d) no two electrons of the same atom can have identical sets of four quantum numbers
121. The maximum number of electrons in the second quantum level is
(a) 10 (b) 2 (c) 8 (d) 6
122. The number of electrons which can be accomodated in an electronic sub-level with 1 = 2 is
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 14
123. The maximum number of electrons in the 3rd orbital is
(a) 2 (b) 6
(c) 5 (d) 10
124. What is the total electron capacity of the energy level for which n = 4 ?
(a) 8 (b) 16
(c) 18 (d) 32
125. The possible values of the magnetic quantum number m of a 2p electrons are
(a) 0, 1, 2
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) –1, 0, +1
(d) –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
126. The maximum number of electrons which occupy a dz2 orbital is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 5

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127. Consider the four orbitals in a calcium atom 2p, 3p, 3d and 4s. These orbitals are arranged in
order of increasing energy is
(a) 2p < 3p < 3d < 4s
(b) 2p < 3p < 4s < 3d
(c) 2p < 4s < 3p < 3d
(d) 4s < 2p < 3p < 3d
128. Which of the following orbital is impossible according to wave mechanics >
(a) 3f (b) 4f
(c) 5g (d) 6h
129. The element whose neutral isolated atoms have three half filled 2p orbitals is
(a) 5B (b) 6C
(c) 7N (d) 8O

130. Which one of the following species has the same electronic configuration as (isoelectronic) with
the argon atom ?
(a) Ne (b) Na
2+
(c) S (d) Cl–
131. Which one of the following group of atom or ions is not iso-electronic
(a) He, H–, Li+ (b) Na+, Mg2+, Al3–
– 2– 3–
(c) F , O , N (d) K+, Ca2+, Ne
132. Which one of the following is sio-electronic?
(a) K–, Ca2+, Ar (b) Cl–, S2–, N3–
– – –
(c) F , Cl , Br (d) Al3+, Ca2+, Ar
133. The Ca2+ ion has the same number of electrons as
(a) V3+ (b) Ne
(c) C2H6 (d) Mg2+
134. Which halogen has the greatest electron affinity ?
(a) F (b) Cl
(c) Br (d) I
135. Which halogen has the greatest electron-negativity ?
(a) F (b) Cl
(c) Br (d) I
136. The electronic configuration of the oxide ion, O2–, may be represented as
(a) 12 2s2 2p4
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p6
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
137. Which of the following represents a reasonable set of quantum number of a 3d electron ?
(a) 3, 2, –2, +1/2 (b) 4, 2, –2, +1/2
(c) 3, 2, 0, –1/2 (d) 3, 2, –1, +1/2
138. The last electron of an element has n = 4, l = 3, m = –2, s = +1/2. What is the atomic number of
the element ?
(a) 21 (b) 39
(c) 58 (d) 57

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139. The proper set of four quantum numbers for valency electron of 37Rb is
(a) 5, 0, 0, +1/2 (b) 5, 1, 0, +1/2
(c) 5, 1, 1, +1/2 (d) 6, 0, 0, +1/2
140. The electronic configuration which represents an alkaline earth metal is
(a)(Ar) 4s–1 (b)(Ar) 4s2
(c)(Ar) 3d10 4s2 (d)(Ar) 4s2 4p2
141. Which is the electronic configuration of the most reactive non-metal ?
(a)(Ne) 3s1 (b)(Ne) 3s2 3p5
(c)(Ne) 3s2 (d)(Ne) 3s2 3p1
142. What is the electronic configuration of first transition metal ?
(a)(Ar)18 3d1 4s2 (b)(Kr)36 4d1 5s2
(c)(Xe)54 5d1 6s2 (d)(Xe) 4f1 5d1 6s2
143. Which transitional metal has outer 3d6 4s2 configuration ?
(a) Mn (b) Cr
(c) Fe (d) Co
144. The magnetic moment of Cr atom (in Bohr’s magnetron) is
(a) 1.73 (b) 2.83
(c) 3.87 (d) 6.92
145. The number of unpaired electrons in Ni2+ ion is
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
146. Which one of the following ions has the largest number of unpaired electrons ?
(a) Mn2+ (b) Fe2+
(c) Cu2+ (d) Zn2–
147. Which one of the following species would have an odd number of electrons ?
(a) N (b) N–
(c) NO– (d) NO −2

148. The electronic configuration of Cu is

(a)(Ar) 3d9 4s2 (b)(Ar) 3d10 4s1
8 2 1
(c)(Ar) 3d 4s 4p (d) none of these
149. Which one of the following ions has only one unpaired electron ?
(a) Cu2+ (b) Cr3+
2+
(c) Fe (d) Cu+
150. Which are of the group of ions does not have fully-filled d-orbitals ?
(a) Cu+, Ag+, Au3+ (b) Zn2+, Cd2+, Hg2+
(c) Pd0, Au3+, Hg2+ (d) 3+
M 30+ , Cr , Fe
3+

151. Which one of the following is the ground state electronic configuration of gadolimum (Z) ?
(a)(Xe) 4f1 5d1 6s2
(b)(Xe) 4f0 5d1 6s2
(c)(Xe) 4f14 5d1 6s2
(d)(Xe) 4f14 5d2 6s2

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152. The electronic configuration of element which follows the lanthanides is

(a)(Xe) 4f14 5d1 6s2 (b)(Xe) 4f0 5d1 6s2
(c)(Xe) 4f1 5d1 6s2 (d)(Xe) 4f14 5d2 6s2
153. The approximate atomic weights of elements was determined by use of
(a) Dulong-Petit’s Law
(b) Mass spectrograph
(c) Cannizaro’s principle
(d) V.D. measurement
154. The first attempt at classification of elements using atomic weights as the basis of classification
was due to
(a) Doberneir (b) Lother Meyer
(c) Mendeleev (d) Moseley
155. Mendeleev’s classification of elements was useful
(a) in prediction of new elements
(b) corrections of doubtful atomic weights
(c) as stimulus in research
(d) all of these
156. Mendeeleev’s periodic table failed to find position for
(a) isotopes
(b) lanthanides
(c) isotopes of hydrogen
(d) all of these
157. The modern classification of element is based upon
(a) atomic weight (b) atomic number
(c) atomic volume (d) density
158. Isotopes of hydrogen atoms differ in the number of
(a) electrons (b) protons
(c) neutrons (d) energy-levels
159. Decimal atomic masses are due to mixture of
(a) isomers (b) impurities
(c) allotropes (d) isotopes
160. The mass of one atom of iodine is
(a) 127/N (b) 254/N (c) N/127 (d) N/254
161. In a given row of the periodic table, the atomic number of the elements increases, the first
ionization energy of each element generally
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(d) first decreases, then increases
(e) remains the same
162. Given the data for ionization energies for atom X
I.E. k cals/mole
1st 258
2nd 555

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3rd 1075
th
4 1480
th
5 9350
The most probable number of valency electrons for atom X is
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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