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Ps1 Solution

This document provides the solution to Problem Set 1 from the MIT OpenCourseWare course 6.013/ESD.013J Electromagnetics and Applications taught in Fall 2005. The problem set solutions include calculations and explanations for problems related to electrostatics, magnetostatics, and electromagnetic induction. The document also provides citation instructions for referencing the course materials from MIT OpenCourseWare.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
177 views4 pages

Ps1 Solution

This document provides the solution to Problem Set 1 from the MIT OpenCourseWare course 6.013/ESD.013J Electromagnetics and Applications taught in Fall 2005. The problem set solutions include calculations and explanations for problems related to electrostatics, magnetostatics, and electromagnetic induction. The document also provides citation instructions for referencing the course materials from MIT OpenCourseWare.

Uploaded by

shafin099
Copyright
© Attribution Non-Commercial (BY-NC)
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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MIT OpenCourseWare

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6.013/ESD.013J Electromagnetics and Applications, Fall 2005

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Markus Zahn, Erich Ippen, and David Staelin, 6.013/ESD.013J


Electromagnetics and Applications, Fall 2005. (Massachusetts Institute
of Technology: MIT OpenCourseWare). http://ocw.mit.edu (accessed
MM DD, YYYY). License: Creative Commons Attribution-
Noncommercial-Share Alike.

Note: Please use the actual date you accessed this material in your citation.

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Massachusetts Institute of Technology

Department of Electrical Engineering and Computer Science

6.013 Electromagnetics and Applications

Problem Set #1 SOLUTION

Fall Term 2005

Problem 1.1

Mg Q1Q2
s ⎛ Q⎞
b. T= = where sin θ = , ⎜ Q1 = Q2 = ⎟
cos θ 4πε 0 s sin θ
2

2l ⎝ 2⎠

Mg4πε 0 ( 2l sin θ ) sin θ


2
Q1Q2
Q 2

= 1 , sin θ tan θ =
2
=
Q1Q2 cos θ 16πε 0l 2 Mg 64πε 0l 2
Mg

d ( −q ) dq dq
c. i+ =0⇒i = , v iR = R = − Rq0ω sin (ωt )
dt dt dt
Problem 1.2
Ni
b. Ampere’s integral law ∫ Cb
H ids = ∫ J i
da , H ≈
Sb 2π a
NΦ NBSb µ0 N 2 a
λ
c. L= = = =
i i i 2

di dv 1

d. v=L , i = C , v ( t = 0 ) = V ⇒ i = I sin (ωt ) , ω =


dt dt LC

V C 1 1
At t = 0 , v ( t = 0 ) = V = LI ω ⇒ I = = V
; Note : LI 2 = CV 2

Lω L 2 2

C ω 1

I =V
sin (ωt
) , f = =
L 2π 2π LC

1 1 C
e. Mv 2 = CV 2 ⇒ v = V

2 2 M

1
2 1
CV = Mgh ⇒ h = CV 2

2 2Mg

f. L = 0.1mH , I = 2000 A, v = 707m / s, h = 255m

Problem 1.3

d 2
z qE0t 2 qE0
t 2
m = qE0 ⇒ z = + v z0 t + z 0 = , vz 0
t = z0 = 0
dt 2 2m 2m

d 2x x
m 2
= 0 ⇒ x = v0t ⇒ t =

dt v0

qE0 x 2 qE0 L2
z= , z ( x = L ) = h =

2mv0 2 2mv0 2

Problem 1.4

b. The Lorentz force law F = q E + v × B ( )


In the steady state F = 0 , so: E = −v × B

⎧⎪ v y iy ; postive charge carries


v =⎨ , B = B0 iz
⎪⎩−v y iy ; negative charge carries

⎧⎪ v y B0 ix
; postive charge carries
E=⎨
⎪⎩−v y B0 ix ; negative charge carries

VH = Φ ( x = d ) − Φ ( x = 0 ) = − ∫ Ex dx = ∫ Ex dx
d 0
c.
0 d

⎧ v y B0
d ; positive charge carriers
VH = ⎨
⎩−v y B0 d ; negative charge carriers

d. As seen in part c, different polarity charge carriers have opposite polarity voltage, so the
answer is an indubitable “Yes!”.
Problem 1.5
a. As the line currents have infinite extent in the z direction the magnetic field has no
dependence on the z coordinate.
I
The magnetic field of a z-directed line current at the origin is: H = iφ
2π r
Convert cylindrical coordinates to Cartesian coordinates and move the line current to

( 0, d / 2 ) , the magnetic field is


I ⎛ ⎛ d⎞ ⎞
H= ⎜ − ⎜ y − 2 ⎟ ix + xiy ⎟
⎛ ⎛ d ⎞ ⎞⎝ ⎝
2
⎠ ⎠
2π ⎜ x 2 + ⎜ y − ⎟ ⎟

⎜ ⎝
2 ⎠ ⎟⎠

Moving the line current to ( 0, −d / 2 ) gives the magnetic field as

I ⎛ ⎛ d⎞ ⎞
H= ⎜ − ⎜ y + 2 ⎟ ix + xiy ⎟
⎛ ⎛ d ⎞ ⎞⎝ ⎝
2
⎠ ⎠
2π ⎜ x 2 + ⎜ y + ⎟ ⎟

⎜ ⎝
2 ⎠ ⎟⎠

2
The total magnetic field due to the two line currents is
I1 ⎛ ⎛ d⎞ ⎞ I2 ⎛ ⎛ d⎞ ⎞
H total = ⎜ − ⎜ y − 2 ⎟ ix + xiy ⎟ + − y + ⎟ ix + xiy ⎟
2 ⎜ ⎜
⎛ ⎛ d ⎞ ⎞⎝ ⎝
2
⎠ ⎠ ⎛ ⎛ d ⎞ ⎞⎝ ⎝ 2⎠ ⎠
2π ⎜ x 2 + ⎜ y − ⎟ ⎟ 2π ⎜ x 2 + ⎜ y + ⎟ ⎟
⎜ ⎝ 2⎠ ⎠⎟ ⎜ ⎝ 2⎠ ⎠⎟
⎝ ⎝

b. The force density on a line current (force per length) is F = I × B .

I 2 ix
At ( 0, d / 2 ) the magnetic field is: H = −
2π d
µ0 I1 I 2
F = I1 × µ0 H 2 = − iy
2π d
d d
I1 I2
c. H x ( x, y = 0 ) = 2 − 2 .
⎛ 2 ⎛ d ⎞ ⎞
2
⎛ 2 ⎛ d ⎞2 ⎞
2π ⎜ x + ⎜ ⎟ ⎟ 2π ⎜ x + ⎜ ⎟ ⎟
⎜ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎟⎠ ⎜ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎟⎠
⎝ ⎝

When I1 / I 2 = 1 , H x ( x, y = 0 ) = 0

I1 x I2 x
H y ( x, y = 0 ) =
+ ,
⎛ 2 ⎛ d ⎞ ⎞ 2
⎛ 2 ⎛ d ⎞ 2 ⎞

2π ⎜ x + ⎜ ⎟ ⎟ 2π ⎜ x + ⎜ ⎟ ⎟
⎜ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎟⎠ ⎜ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎟⎠
⎝ ⎝

When I1 / I 2 = −1 , H y ( x, y = 0 ) = 0

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