BASIC ELECTRONICS

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

UNIT 1: SEMICONDUCTOR DIODES & APPLICATIONS

1.] Flow of electrons is generally termed as _____________.

a) electric current b) electric shock
c) semiconductor d) none of the above

2.] A _______________ is a material which offers very little resistance to the

flow of current through it.
a) good conductor b) insulator
c) semiconductor d) none of the above

3.] The resistance offered by ______________ is extremely large for the flow of
current through it.
a) good conductor b) insulator
c) semiconductor d) none of the above

4.] The materials which behave like perfect insulators at low temperatures & at
higher temperatures, they behave like a good conductors are termed as ________.
a) good conductor b) insulator
c) semiconductor d) none of the above

5.] The conductivity of a semiconductor _____________ with temperature.

a) increases b) decreases
c) can’t say d) none of the above

6.] The conductivity of a good conductor _____________ with temperature.

a) increases b) decreases
c) can’t say d) none of the above

7.] The resistance of a semiconductor _____________ with temperature.

a) increases b) decreases
c) can’t say d) none of the above

8.] The resistance of a good conductor _____________ with temperature.

a) increases b) decreases
c) can’t say d) none of the above

9.] The charge of an electron is ___________________.

a) 1.602*10+27 Coulomb b) 1.602*10-27 Coulomb
+19
c) 1.602*10 Coulomb d) 1.602*10-19 Coulomb

10.] The total number of electrons in an atom depends upon ____________.

a) the atomic mass b) the atomic weight
c) the atomic number d) the atomic size

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11.] In any atom, the number of electrons in the last orbit (i.e., the outermost
orbit or the valence orbit) is limited to ________________.
a) 4 b) 8
c) 10 d) 12

12.] In any atom, the outermost orbit is called ______________.

a) valence orbit b) energy band
c) conduction band d) forbidden band

13.] The electrons present in the valence orbit are termed as _______________.
a) valence electrons b) free electrons
c) can’t say d) none of the above

14.] The range of energies possessed by the electrons of any one orbit of all
atoms is referred as _____________________.
a) valence band b) energy band
c) conduction band d) forbidden band

15.] The energy band in relation to valence electrons is termed as ___________.

a) valence band b) energy band
c) conduction band d) forbidden band

16.] Electrons which are removed from the valence orbits of atoms, which are
freely available for conduction, are termed as __________________.
a) valence electrons b) free electrons
c) can’t say d) none of the above

17.] The range of energies possessed by the free electrons is termed as ______.
a) valence band b) energy band
c) conduction band d) forbidden band

18.] The void (or gap) separating conduction band and valence band, and no
electron can exist in this void is termed as ______________.
a) valence band b) energy band
c) conduction band d) forbidden band

19.] In a metal, the number of valence electrons is ___________.

a) less than 4 b) equal to 4
c) greater than 4 d) equal to 8

20.] In a semiconductor material, the number of valence electrons is

___________.
a) less than 4 b) equal to 4
c) greater than 4 d) equal to 8

21.] In an insulator , the number of valence electrons is ___________.

a) less than 4 b) equal to 4

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c) greater than 4 d) equal to 8

22.] The current which results in a semiconductor material due to the movement
of holes is termed as ___________________.
a) hole current b) electron current
c) negative current d) none of the above

23.] A semiconductor in its pure form is termed as __________________.

a) intrinsic semiconductor b) extrinsic semiconductor
c) p-type semiconductor d) n-type semiconductor

24.] The process of adding impurity to a pure semiconductor material, in order to

increase its conductivity is called as __________________.
a) dancing b) doping
c) creating holes d) creating electrons

25.] A semiconductor to which an impurity is added with view to increase its

conductivity is termed as __________________.
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) extrinsic semiconductor
c) p-type semiconductor d) n-type semiconductor

26.] If a pentavalent impurity like arsenic or antimony or phosphorus is added to

pure germanium or silicon, a _____________________ results.
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) extrinsic semiconductor
c) p-type semiconductor d) n-type semiconductor

27.] In a n-type semiconductor material electrons are ________________.

a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms

28.] In a n-type semiconductor material holes are ________________.

a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms

29.] The pentavalent impurity atom, like arsenic, added to pure germanium
material is termed as ____________.
a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms

30.] If a trivalent impurity like gallium or indium or aluminium is added to pure

germanium or silicon, a _____________________ results.
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) extrinsic semiconductor
c) p-type semiconductor d) n-type semiconductor

31.] In a p-type semiconductor material holes are ________________.

a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms

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32.] In a p-type semiconductor material electrons are ________________.

a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms

33.] The trivalent impurity atom, like gallium, added to pure germanium material
is termed as ____________.
a) majority charge carriers b) minority charge carriers
c) donor atoms d) acceptor atoms

34.] In extrinsic semiconductors, conduction of current is due to ____________.

a) electrons only b) holes only
c) both electrons and holes d) neither electrons nor holes

35.] Doping an intrinsic semiconductor with pentavalent impurity atom

__________________.
a) raises the Fermi level b) lowers the Fermi level
c) do not affect the Fermi level d) none of the above

36.] Doping an intrinsic semiconductor with trivalent impurity atom __________.

a) raises the Fermi level b) lowers the Fermi level
c) do not affect the Fermi level d) none of the above

37.] In a pure semiconductor, the Fermi level lies _____________ of the

forbidden energy gap.
a) exactly in the middle b) at the lower part
c) at the upper part d) none of the above

38.] In a p-n junction, the potential built across the junction, after diffusion has
stopped, is termed as _______________.
a) barrier potential b) developed potential
c) p-n potential d) none of the above

39.] The barrier potential is about ______________ of germanium.

a) 0.1V b) 0.3V
c) 0.7V d) 1.5V

40.] The barrier potential is about ______________ of silicon.

a) 0.1V b) 0.3V
c) 0.7V d) 1.5V

41.] If an external voltage is applied across the p-n junction such that it
neutralizes the barrier potential and causes conduction through the junction, the p-
n junction is said to be ______________.
a) forward biased b) reverse biased
c) un-biased d) no-biased

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42.] If an external voltage is applied across the p-n junction such that the
depletion layer widens and the barrier potential increases, the p-n junction is said
to be ______________.
a) forward biased b) reverse biased
c) un-biased d) no-biased

43.] A p-n junction conducts when it is _________________.

a) forward biased b) reverse biased
c) un-biased d) no-biased

44.] A p-n junction blocks conduction when it is ________________.

a) forward biased b) reverse biased
c) un-biased d) no-biased

45.] The direction of conventional current is always ____________ to the

direction of drifting electrons.
a) same b) opposite
c) can’t say d) none of the above

46.] The slope of DC load line is _______________.

a) – 1/IL b) – 1/VL
c) – 1/RL d) – 1/If

47.] The Iav for a half-wave rectifier is _____________.

a) Im/ b) Im/2
c) 2Im/ d) Im/2

48.] The IRMS for a half-wave rectifier is ______________.

a) Im/ b) Im/2
c) 2Im/ d) Im/2

49.] The Iav for a full-wave rectifier is _____________.

a) Im/ b) Im/2
c) 2Im/ d) Im/2

50.] The IRMS for a full-wave rectifier is _____________.

a) Im/ b) Im/2
c) 2Im/ d) Im/2

51.] The efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is _____________.

a) 40.6% b) 81.2%
c) 0.483% d) 1.21%

52.] The efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is _____________.

a) 40.6% b) 81.2%
c) 0.483% d) 1.21%

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53.] The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is _____________.

a) 40.6 b) 81.2
c) 0.483 d) 1.21

54.] The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier is _____________.

a) 40.6 b) 81.2
c) 0.483 d) 1.21

55.] An inductor ___________ to pass through it.

a) allows DC b) blocks DC
c) allows AC d) blocks AC

56.] A capacitor ___________ to pass through it.

a) allows DC b) blocks DC
c) allows AC d) blocks AC

57.] The switch off time of diodes is longer due to _______________.

a) the diffusion capacitance b) the forward bias
c) the reverse bias d) none of the above

UNIT 2 & 3: TRANSISTORS & BIASING METHODS

1.] The direction of arrow head placed on the emitter of a transistor represents
________________.
a) the direction of motion of holes b) the direction of motion of electrons
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above

2.] The direction of flow of electrons is ____________ to the direction of motion

of holes.
a) same as b) opposite
c) parallel d) perpendicular

3.] During normal working of transistor as amplifier, the emitter diode is

______________.
a) unbiased b) forward biased
c) reverse biased d) none of the above

4.] During normal working of transistor as amplifier, the collector diode is

______________.
a) unbiased b) forward biased
c) reverse biased d) none of the above

5.] The reverse current which results in a transistor due to minority charge
carriers across the collector-to-base junction is called as ________________.
a) base current b) emitter current

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c) collector current d) collector-to-base leakage current

6.] A transistor can be visualized as a ___________ port network.

a) one b) two
c) three d) four

7.] Varying the input current by varying the input voltage at constant output
voltage is _____________________.
a) static input characteristics b) static output characteristics
c) transistor i/o characteristics d) none of the above

8.] Varying the output current by varying the output voltage at constant input
current is _____________________.
a) static input characteristics b) static output characteristics
c) transistor i/o characteristics d) none of the above

9.] The ratio of change in collector current to the change in emitter current at
constant collector to base voltage is ___________.
a) α b) β
c) γ d) π

10.] The ratio of change in collector current to the change in base current at
constant collector to emitter voltage is ___________.
a) α b) β
c) γ d) π

11.] The ratio of change in emitter current to the change in base is ___________.
a) α b) β
c) γ d) π

12.] A ______________ circuit has a very high input resistance and very low
output resistance.
a) common base b) common emitter
c) common collector d) none of the above

13.] In the saturation region, the emitter-base & collector-base junctions are
_________________ biased.
a) forward b) reverse
c) unbiased d) none of these

14.] In the cut-off region, the emitter-base & collector-base junctions are
_________________ biased.
a) forward b) reverse
c) unbiased d) none of these

15.] The intersection of DC load line and the output characteristics of a transistor
is called _____________________.
a) Q – Point b) quiescent Point

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c) operating Point d) all of these

16.] The biasing circuit which gives most stable operating point is _________.
a) base bias b) collector-to-base bias
c) voltage-divider bias d) none of these

17.] The collector-to-base bias circuit is also known as _______________.

a) base bias b) voltage-divider bias
c) voltage feedback bias circuit d) none of these
0
18.] The reverse saturation current doubles for every _________ C rise in
temperature.
a) 40 b) 30
c) 20 d) 10

19.] The reverse saturation current __________ for every 10 0C rise in

temperature.
a) doubles b) triples
c) quadruples d) none of these

20.] ICBO doubles for every _________ 0C rise in temperature.

a) 40 b) 30
c) 20 d) 10

21.] ICBO __________ for every 100C rise in temperature.

a) doubles b) triples
c) quadruples d) none of these

22.] The stability factor ‘S’ is the rate change of _____________ current with
respect to reverse saturation current.
a) emitter b) base
c) collector d) none of these

23.] α is the ratio of change in __________ current to the change in emitter

current at constant collector to base voltage.
a) emitter b) base
c) collector d) none of these

24.] β is the ratio of change in __________ current to the change in base current
at constant collector to emitter voltage.
a) emitter b) base
c) collector d) none of these

25.] γ is the ratio of change in __________ current to the change in base current.
a) emitter b) base
c) collector d) none of these

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26.] α is the ratio of change in collector current to the change in _________

current at constant collector to base voltage.
a) emitter b) base
c) collector d) none of these

27.] β is the ratio of change in collector current to the change in _________

current at constant collector to emitter voltage.
a) emitter b) base
c) collector d) none of these

28.] γ is the ratio of change in emitter current to the change in _________

current.
a) emitter b) base
c) collector d) none of these

29.] The emitter area in a transistor is considerably __________ than the

collector area.
a) smaller b) greater
c) smaller or greater d) none of these

30.] The collector area is slightly _________ doped than the emitter.
a) more b) less
c) more or less d) none of these

31.] The depletion layer width at the collector junction is _________ than the
depletion layer width at the emitter junction.
a) more b) less
c) more or less d) none of these

32.] In a transistor, the emitter area is _________ doped.

a) heavily b) lightly
c) moderately d) none of these

33.] In a transistor, the base region is _________ doped.

a) heavily b) lightly
c) moderately d) none of these

34.] In a transistor, the collector area is _________ doped.

a) heavily b) lightly
c) moderately d) none of these

35.] In a transistor, the depletion layer penetrates deeply into the __________
region.
a) base b) emitter
c) collector d) none of these

36.] In a ______________, the current is mainly due to electrons.

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a) PNP transistor b) NPN transistor

c) BJT transistor d) UJT transistor

37.] In a ______________, the current is mainly due to holes.

a) PNP transistor b) NPN transistor
c) BJT transistor d) UJT transistor

38.] In CB configuration, when reverse bias voltage VCB increases, the width of
the depletion region also increases, which reduces the electrical base width. This
effect is called as _________________.
a) early effect b) base width modulation
c) (a) or (b) d) none of these

39.] In CB configuration, when reverse bias voltage VCB increases above the
VCB max, increase in depletion region is such that it penetrates into base until it
makes contact with emitter-base depletion region. This condition is called _______.
a) punch-through effect b) reach-through effect
c) (a) or (b) d) none of these

40.] The collector-to-base bias provides __________ stability than the base bias
circuit.
a) more b) less
c) more or less d) none of these

41.] The voltage divider bias provides the _______ stability against hFE variations.
a) least b) greatest
c) more or less d) none of these

UNIT 5: AMPLIFIERS & OSCILLATORS

1.] Audio amplifiers can amplify signals of frequencies which lie in the range of
_____________.
a) 20Hz to 20KHz b) 20Hz to 20MHz
c) 20Hz to 200KHz d) 20Hz to 200MHz

2.] In a _________ amplifier, the collector current flows throughout the input
signal cycle.
a) class A b) class B
c) class C d) class AB

3.] In a __________ amplifier, the collector current flows only during the
positive half cycles of the input signal.
a) class A b) class B
c) class C d) class AB

4.] In a ____________ amplifier, the collector current flows for less than half of
the period of the input signal.

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a) class A b) class B
c) class C d) class AB

5.] In a ____________ amplifier, the collector current flows for more than half
of the input signal period, but not throughout the full cycle.
a) class A b) class B
c) class C d) class AB

6.] The coupling capacitor, CC, in a R-C coupled amplifier is used to _________.
a) bypass the output to ground b) couple the output to next stage
c) bypass the emitter current d) couple the emitter current to next stage

7.] The range of frequencies in which the amplifier gain is either equal to greater
than 70.7% of the maximum gain is called as _______________.
a) channel-width b) frequency-width
c) band-width d) none of these

8.] The range of frequencies at the limits of which, the voltage gain falls by 3dB
is called as _______________.
a) channel-width b) frequency-width
c) band-width d) none of these

9.] In a common-emitter amplifier, there is a phase shift of _________ between

input and output voltages.
a) 900 b) 1800
c) 3600 d) 00

10.] When the phase of the feedback signal is same as that of the input, then it is
called ______________.
a) positive feedback b) negative feedback
c) no feedback d) none of these

11.] When the phase of the feedback signal is out of phase with that of the input,
then it is called ______________.
a) positive feedback b) negative feedback
c) no feedback d) none of these

12.] Tank circuit comprises of _____________.

a) an inductor in parallel with a capacitor
b) an inductor in series with a capacitor
c) an inductor in parallel with a resistor d) an inductor in series with a resistor

13.] R-C oscillators are usually used in ___________ range.

a) audio frequency b) radio frequency
c) video frequency d) ultra high frequency

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UNIT 6: OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIERS

1.] The characteristics of ______________ changes with application of external

voltage.
a) an active element b) a passive element
c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)

2.] The characteristics of ______________ will not change on application of

external voltage.
a) an active element b) a passive element
c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)

3.] In _____________, the outputs are proportional to inputs.

a) digital ICs b) linear ICs
c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)

4.] In a _____________, the inputs and outputs can take only two values; 0 and
1.
a) digital ICs b) linear ICs
c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)

5.] The voltage gain of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________.

a) infinity b) zero
c) very high d) very low

6.] The input impedance of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________.

a) infinity b) zero
c) very high d) very low

7.] The output impedance of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________.

a) infinity b) zero
c) very high d) very low

8.] The bandwidth of an ideal Op-Amp is _____________.

a) infinity b) zero
c) very high d) very low

9.] When equal voltages are applied to two input terminals of an ideal Op-Amp,
the output is ____________.

a) infinity b) zero

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c) very high d) very low

10.] The voltage gain of a practical Op-Amp is _____________.

a) infinity b) zero
c) very high d) very low

11.] The input impedance of a practical Op-Amp is _____________.

a) infinity b) zero
c) very high d) very low

12.] The output impedance of a practical Op-Amp is _____________.

a) infinity b) zero
c) very high d) very low

13.] When equal voltages are applied to two input terminals of a practical Op-
Amp, the output is ____________.

a) infinity b) zero
c) very high d) very low

14.] The ratio of the differential gain of an Op-Amp to its common mode gain is
______________.
a) PSRR b) input off-set current
c) output off-set current d) CMRR

15.] In a practical Op-Amp, there will be a small output voltage even when the
inputs are zero. This is called _____________.
a) output off-set current b) output off-set voltage
c) input off-set current d) input off-set voltage

16.] The DC voltage which makes the output off-set voltage zero, when the other
terminal is zero is called _____________.
a) output off-set current b) output off-set voltage
c) input off-set current d) input off-set voltage

17.] The maximum rate at which the Op-Amp output can change is ___________.
a) run rate b) ratio rate
c) slew rate d) none of these

18.] Slew rate is expressed in terms of ______________.

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a) volts/µs b) volts-µs
c) µs/volts d) µs-volts

19.] The time period for which the trace remains on a fluorescent screen after the
applied signal becomes zero is known as ____________.
a) existence b) shadow
c) persistence d) trace

20.] The time-base generator in a CRO is used to generate _______________.

a) the saw-tooth voltage b) the square wave
c) the DC voltage d) the AC voltage

21.] When the input is applied to the inverting input terminal of an Op-Amp, then
the output is ______________ with the input.
a) 900 out of phase b) 1800 out of phase
c) 3600 out of phase d) in phase

22.] When the input is applied to the non-inverting input terminal of an Op-Amp,
then the output is ______________ with the input.
a) 900 out of phase b) 1800 out of phase
c) 3600 out of phase d) in phase

UNIT 7: COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS & NUMBER SYSTEMS

1.] If the amplitude of the carrier wave is altered in accordance with the strength
of the modulating signal, then it is _________________.
a) amplitude modulation b) frequency modulation
c) amplitude communication d) frequency communication

2.] If the frequency of the carrier wave is altered in accordance with the strength
of the modulating signal, then it is _________________.
a) amplitude modulation b) frequency modulation
c) amplitude communication d) frequency communication

3.] The process of getting back the modulating signal from the modulated wave
is _________________.
a) modulation b) re-modulation
c) demodulation d) none of these

4.] The modulation index ‘m’ for amplitude modulation is _____________.

a) Vc/Vm b) Vc * Vm
c) Vm + Vc d) Vm/Vc

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5.] The modulation index ‘mf’ for frequency modulation is _____________.

a) f/fm b) f * fm
c) f - fm d) fm/f

6.] Usually, the intermediate frequency is _______________.

a) 455 MHz b) 455 KHz
c) 455 Hz d) 455 GHz

9.] The decimal equivalent of binary number 1110 is ________________.

a) 15 b) 16
c) 18 d) 14

10.] 110112 = X10, then

a) X = 27 b) X = 37
c) X = 17 d) X = 12

11.] The 1’s compliment of 1110 is __________.

a) 1111 b) 0001
c) 0010 c) 0000

12.] The 2’s compliment of 1110 is ____________.

a) 1111 b) 0001
c) 0010 d) 0000
13.] If 4710 = X8, then
a) X = 37 b) X = 27
c) X = 74 d) X = 57

14.] The octal equivalent of 001001011011 (2) is _________________.

a) 3311(8) b) 3113(8)
c) 1133(8) d) 1331(8)

15.] If 110211102 = X16, then

a) X = AB b) X = CD
c) X = EF d) X = DE

16.] If 5810 = XBCD, then

a) X = 01011000 b) X = 01010001
c) X = 10101000 c) 10100001

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UNIT 8: DIGITAL ELECTRONICS

1.] The OR operation implies ______________.
a) boolean addition b) boolean multiplication
c) Boolean subtraction d) boolean division

2.] The AND operation implies ______________.

a) boolean addition b) boolean multiplication
c) Boolean subtraction d) boolean division

3.] The output of a NAND gate is ___________, when all the inputs are high.
a) low b) high
c) low or high d) none of these

4.] The output of a NOR gate is ___________, when all the inputs are low.
a) low b) high
c) low or high d) none of these

5.] A bubbled AND gate and a _____________ are equivalent.

a) XOR gate b) XNOR gate
c) NOR gate d) NAND gate

6.] A bubbled OR gate and a _____________ are equivalent.

a) XOR gate b) XNOR gate
c) NOR gate d) NAND gate

____________***____________

By – MAHESH PRASANNA K.,

Dept. of E & C, AIET.

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