2016 Shsat PDF

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nyc.gov/schools/highschool
It is the policy of the New York City Department of Education to provide equal educational opportunities without regard to actual or perceived
race, color, religion, ethnicity, national origin, alienage, citizenship status, age, disability, weight, marital status, gender (sex) or sexual orientation
in its educational programs, activities, and employment policies, and to maintain an environment free of harassment on the basis of any of these
grounds, as required by law. Inquiries regarding compliance with appropriate laws may be directed to: Director, Office of Equal Opportunity,
65 Court Street, Room 923, Brooklyn, New York 11201 Telephone 718-935-3320.
Cover artwork by Justin Madera, student at Bayside High School. Sample test items are taken from materials copyright
1983-2015, NCS Pearson, Inc., 5601 Green Valley Drive, Bloomington, MN 55437.
CONTENTS
MESSAGE TO STUDENTS AND PARENTS/GUARDIANS . . . . 4
SECTION 5: SHSAT DESCRIPTION & MATERIALS
SECTION 1: THE SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS
Test Description . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16
SHSAT Testing Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16
The Bronx High School of Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Arriving at the Test Site . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16
The Brooklyn Latin School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Filling in the Answer Sheet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17
Brooklyn Technical High School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
Student Misconduct . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
High School for Mathematics, Science and Engineering

at the City College of New York . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
Claims of Testing Irregularities . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
High School of American Studies at Lehman College . . . . . . 6
SHSAT Scoring . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
Queens High School for the Sciences at York College . . . . . . 7
Review Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
Staten Island Technical High School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Discovery Program . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20
Stuyvesant High School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
SECTION 6: SHSAT USEFUL TIPS FOR TESTING
Fiorello H. LaGuardia High School of Music & Art

and Performing Arts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Before Test Day . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21

Day of the Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21
SECTION 2: SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS
Specific Strategies: Verbal . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22
ADMISSIONS TEST (SHSAT) DATES AND LOCATIONS
Specific Strategies: Mathematics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28
Test Dates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9
Alternate Test Date . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9
SAMPLE SHSAT TESTS
Test Locations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10
General Directions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30
Test Results . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10
Sample Answer Sheet, Form A . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 32

Sample Test, Form A . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 34
SECTION 3: FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL
Explanations of Correct Answers for Sample Test, Form A . . 58
OF MUSIC & ART AND PERFORMING ARTS AUDITIONS
Sample Answer Sheet, Form B . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 71
Audition Dates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
Sample Test, Form B . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 72
Audition Exceptions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
Explanations of Correct Answers for Sample Test, Form B . . 96
Auditions for Students New to New York City . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
Sample Math Problems for Grade 9 Students . . . . . . . . . . . 96
Admissions Process . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
Explanations of Correct Answers for Sample Grade 9

Math Problems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 96
Registering for LaGuardia High School Auditions . . . . . . . . . 12

Audition Information for Each Studio . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12
SECTION 4: APPLYING TO THE SPECIALIZED

HIGH SCHOOLS
Steps in the Application Process . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Testing and Audition Accommodations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
Testing Accommodations on the SHSAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
Testing Accommodations for LaGuardia High School
Auditions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
Confirming Testing Accommodations for the SHSAT and
LaGuardia High School Auditions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
Students with Accommodations Who Finish the Test Before
the End of the Extended Time Period . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
Emergency Testing and/or Audition Accommodations . . . . . 15
MESSAGE TO STUDENTS AND PARENTS/GUARDIANS ABOUT
SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS ADMISSIONS

This 2015-2016 Specialized High Schools Student Handbook contains useful information, including:
Specialized High School admission procedures
egistration for the Specialized High Schools Admissions Test (SHSAT) and Fiorello H. LaGuardia
R
High School of Music & Art and Performing Arts (LaGuardia High School) auditions
Confirming testing accommodations for SHSAT and LaGuardia High School auditions
Calendar of important dates
Sample SHSAT tests with test-taking tips
There are nine Specialized High Schools in New York City. They are:
ADMISSIONS
DETERMINED
BY AUDITION(S)
FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL OF MUSIC & ART

AND PERFORMING ARTS
Dance
Drama
Instrumental Music
Technical Theatre
Fine Arts
Vocal Music
THE BRONX HIGH SCHOOL OF SCIENCE

THE BROOKLYN LATIN SCHOOL
BROOKLYN TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL
ADMISSIONS
DETERMINED
BY SHSAT
HIGH SCHOOL FOR MATHEMATICS, SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING

AT THE CITY COLLEGE OF NEW YORK
HIGH SCHOOL OF AMERICAN STUDIES AT LEHMAN COLLEGE
QUEENS HIGH SCHOOL FOR THE SCIENCES AT YORK COLLEGE
STATEN ISLAND TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL
STUYVESANT HIGH SCHOOL
These schools were established under New York State Law 2590 Section G. Entrance into these
schools is determined by the SHSAT, except for LaGuardia High School, which is based on a
competitive audition and review of academic records. Students must be residents of New York City
and current eighth grade or first-time ninth grade students in order to apply, register, sit for, and
receive results for the Specialized High Schools Admissions Test (SHSAT) and LaGuardia High School
audition(s).
The Specialized High Schools Student Handbook is a project of the New York City Department of Education.
THE SPECIALIZED
HIGH SCHOOLS
THE BRONX HIGH SCHOOL OF SCIENCE
SECTION
11
emphasizes the acquisition of core knowledge of the key

academic disciplines that students use as a foundation for
deeper exploration in the upper grades. Widely regarded around
the world as the most rigorous and comprehensive course of
study at the high school level, the International Baccalaureate
(IB) Programme is integral to the TBLS curriculum. In all classes,
students experience a strong and consistent emphasis on
structured writing and public speaking, as well as numerous
opportunities for analytical thinking, which prepares them for the
challenges of college work.
75 West 205th Street, Bronx, New York 10468

Phone: (718) 817-7700
Website: www.bxscience.edu
Email: [email protected]
Overview: The Bronx High School of Science educates an
academically gifted community of learners through a rigorous
Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics (STEM)
curriculum. All academic disciplines are taught through the lens
of inquiry to emphasize critical thinking and problem solving.
The school cultivates a diverse community of lifelong learners
who discover their passions through a collaborative and
supportive network of students, educators and alumni. Utilizing
a balance of theoretical and applied learning, students explore
complex problems and have access to a rich offering of
resources to develop solutions. Drawing upon a long tradition of
academic success, the Bronx High School of Science prepares
students to flourish in the best colleges and universities. The
school creates the leaders and visionaries of the future. Included
among the schools alumni are eight Nobel Prize winners and six
Pulitzer Prize winners.
Academic program: All students are required to complete four

years of study in Latin, history, mathematics, English, science, at
least two years of a world language, and one year of art history.
In Humanities classes, students participate in Socratic Seminars
and Declamation (public speaking exercises). Non-Humanities
classes feature labs, math expositions, discussions, and
problem sets. The IB Programmes emphasis on student-led
inquiry, global perspectives, and personal integrity conform
perfectly with the ideals on which the school was founded. In
addition to rigorous class work, IB stresses independent
thinking and community engagement. In order to earn the IB
Diploma, students are expected to complete a 4,000 word
independent essay on a subject of choice, a task which
correlates closely to college-level research writing. They are
required to take a two year epistemology course called Theory
of Knowledge (TOK) that challenges students to consider the
ways knowledge is constructed, and which culminates in a final
research paper and presentation. In addition, students are
required to engage in a total of 150 hours of creativity, action,
and service (CAS), which may include volunteering or engaging
meaningfully with the community outside TBLS. These
requirements of the IB Diploma help our students become wellrounded citizens of the world.
Academic program: The Bronx High School of Science offers

30 Advanced Placement (AP) courses and many post-AP
courses (second-year college courses). The school offers seven
foreign languages, numerous electives in biology, chemistry,
physics, mathematics, technology, the humanities, music and a
three-year independent research course in STEM or social
science. Students may also select sequences in computer
science and engineering that emphasize hands-on applications
of scientific principles. The schools website provides full course
descriptions.
Extracurricular activities: Extracurricular activities include
over 70 after-school clubs, 43 athletic teams, an internationally
acclaimed speech and debate team, mock trial team, two
robotics teams, two theatrical productions, S!NG, a newspaper
and yearbook, and scholarly journals.
Extracurricular activities: To provide enrichment for students

outside of the classroom, and to facilitate the completion of
their CAS requirements, TBLS currently supports over 40
extracurricular activities, including athletic teams such as
coed cross country, badminton and soccer, boys and girls
basketball, boys wrestling, and girls volleyball clubs; fine and
performing arts offerings like studio art, photography, literary
magazine, dance, and a cappella; and various other groups
such as the school newspaper, STOKED, Math Club, Science
Olympiad, Model United Nations, and many more.
2015 Admissions: 19,556 students listed Bronx Science as a

choice on the SHSAT, and 973 offers were made.
THE BROOKLYN LATIN SCHOOL

223 Graham Avenue, Brooklyn, New York 11206
Phone: (718) 366-0154
Website: www.brooklynlatin.org
2015 Admissions: 16,723 students listed The Brooklyn Latin

School as a choice on the SHSAT, and 384 offers were made.
Overview: Modeled after the prestigious Boston Latin school

and founded in 2006, The Brooklyn Latin School (TBLS)
provides a liberal arts curriculum, with an emphasis on the
Classics and Latin language instruction. Early instruction
BROOKLYN TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL
lessons, develop curricula, and share best practices. Their deep

professional and personal experiences enrich the learning
community; many faculty members have earned doctorates,
and all have advanced degrees. Many have distinguished
themselves in business, engineering, and other fields prior to
becoming teachers.
29 Fort Greene Place, Brooklyn, New York 11217

Phone: (718) 804-6400
Website: www.bths.edu
Overview: Brooklyn Technical High School (Brooklyn Tech)
is the nations largest public high school. Housed in a state-ofthe-art physical plant reborn for the 21st century, the school is a
national model for excellence and a stimulating environment that
fosters transformational education and personal growth. With
modern technology at its core and labs and classrooms on par
with university and industry standards, Brooklyn Tech serves as
a vibrant intellectual arena for faculty and students to explore
and embrace the ideas, technology and instructional methods
that will shape the future.
Academic program: HSMSE faculty plan lessons that include

student discussion and cooperative learning to develop and
improve problem-solving skills. All students take four years of
math and science courses. Core classes meet every other day
for 90 minutes, allowing time to engage in hands-on activities
and in-depth discussions. Students attend a 45-minute elective
enrichment course daily; course options include: Gastronomy,
Astronomy, Microsoft Office User Certification, Art, Poetry
Writing, Jazz Band, and Classical Guitar. There are three major
concentrations that students select from in the spring of their
sophomore year: Mathematics, Mount Sinai Medical Biomedical
Research Program, or Engineering. HSMSE has the largest
German Language program in New York State. College credit
courses are offered in multiple ways: Advanced Placement
courses are offered to all. CUNY courses are offered to eligible
students through the CCNY partnership and the City University
of New York (CUNY) College Now program.
Academic program: In the 9th and 10th grades, all students

take an academic core which includes college credit-bearing
courses in Design & Fabrication and Digital Electronics. In the
11th and 12th grades, Brooklyn Tech students choose one of
the following major areas of concentration: Aerospace,
Architecture, Biological Sciences, Chemistry, Civil Engineering,
College Prep, Electro-Mechanical Engineering, Environmental
Science Research, Gateway to Medicine, Industrial Design, Law
& Society, Applied Mathematics, Media & Graphic Arts, Physics,
Social Science Research, or Software Engineering. In addition,
the school offers unique electives in performance-based music,
competitive mathematics, and research opportunities.
Extracurricular activities: CCNYs Baskerville Hall faces the

college quad, giving students green space in which to eat lunch,
socialize, and relax on sunny days. Students may participate in a
wide variety of extracurricular activities and PSAL sports after
school, including Junior Statesmen of America, Moot Court,
Mock Trial, Model UN and the Key club. Additionally, HSMSE
offers ping-pong, volleyball, dance, cheerleading, and Strategy
Games clubs. HSMSE students compete in national
competitions, sponsored by the Goethe Institute and American
Association of Teachers of German, for study abroad
opportunities to Germany. Every year, at least one HSMSE
student competes successfully enough to earn two weeks free
travel to Germany. During the school year, HSMSE sponsors trips
to colleges such as Boston College, Massachusetts Institute of
Technology, Princeton, Brown and University of Michigan.
Extracurricular activities: Brooklyn Techs unparalleled learning

environment is enriched with 42 PSAL teams and more than 100
activities and clubs. Partners in industry and higher education, as
well as an active alumni community help sustain the level of
excellence through classroom enrichment, mentoring,
internships and more.
2015 Admissions: 23,100 students listed Brooklyn Tech as a
choice on the SHSAT, and 1,960 offers were made.
HIGH SCHOOL FOR MATHEMATICS,

SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING AT
THE CITY COLLEGE OF NEW YORK
2015 Admissions: 19,035 students listed HSMSE at CCNY as a

choice on the SHSAT, and 180 offers were made.
240 Convent Avenue, New York, New York 10031

Phone: (212) 281-6490
Website: www.hsmse.org
HIGH SCHOOL OF AMERICAN STUDIES

AT LEHMAN COLLEGE
2925 Goulden Avenue, Bronx, New York 10468
Phone: (718) 329-2144
Website: www.hsas-lehman.org
Overview: Founded in September 2002, The High School for

Mathematics, Science and Engineering (HSMSE) at The City
College of New York (CCNY) provides a unique and unparalleled
collaborative educational experience. The schools mission is to
encourage students to develop the habits of inquiry, written and
verbal expression, and critical thinking. HSMSE enrolls
approximately 450 students, drawn from all five boroughs,
making it one of the most ethnically diverse schools in New York
City. The academically rigorous learning environment focuses on
mathematics, science, and engineering, while emphasizing civic
responsibility and the value of acquiring knowledge for its own
intrinsic reward. HSMSE faculty work together regularly to plan
Overview: The High School of American Studies at Lehman

College (HSAS) emphasizes the study of American History and
offers students a well-rounded academic program that aims to
prepare students for admission to highly competitive colleges
and for a range of careers in politics, law, journalism, business,
science, mathematics and the arts. In all endeavors, HSAS
seeks to encourage in students a love for learning and an
inquisitive spirit.
Academic program: The academic program focuses on the

development of college-level methodologies; throughout their
time in high school, students are supported by faculty in the
process of pursuing individualized research projects. All
students engage in a three-year chronological study of American
history, so that history comes alive through the use of primary
source documents, films, biographies, literature, and creative
teaching techniques. With the support of the Gilder-Lehrman
Institute, students gain first-hand knowledge of the key events
in American History, taking trips to sites and cities of historic
importance and participating in seminars with guest speakers.
HSAS also offers honors-level and Advanced Placement
courses in mathematics, science, constitutional and criminal
law, literature, foreign languages, history, and the arts. Through
a partnership with Lehman College, students have access to the
Colleges campus library and athletic facilities and may take
credit-bearing college classes and seminars in their junior and
senior years.
students. Guidance counselors support and assist students in

all areas of concern, especially the selection of and application
to colleges.
Extracurricular activities: Since the school is located on the
campus of York College, students enjoy state-of-the-art facilities
such as the Colleges library, gymnasium, pool, theater, and
cafeteria/food court throughout their high school career. A
variety of clubs (determined by student suggestion and staff
capacity) are available to all students, including Model UN,
Amnesty International, chess, Sigma sorority, philosophy,
basketball, Key club and many others. Boys and Girls
Swimming, Girls Bowling, and Coed Tennis and Handball
comprise the schools athletic teams.
2015 Admissions: 16,648 students listed Queens High School
for the Sciences at York College as a choice on the SHSAT, and
155 offers were made.
Extracurricular activities: After school, students may

participate in a wide variety of clubs, join one of the school's
many athletic teams, and take part in competitive activities, such
as moot court, mock trial, debate, and Model UN.
STATEN ISLAND TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL

485 Clawson Street, Staten Island, New York 10306
Phone: (718) 667-3222
Website: www.siths.org
2015 Admissions: 16,771 students listed HSAS at Lehman

College as a choice on the SHSAT, and 161 offers were made.
Overview: Staten Island Technical High Schools college

preparatory curriculum provides a robust liberal arts curriculum
that includes courses in Science, Technology, Engineering, Arts
and Mathematics (STEAM), and a cutting edge Career and
Technical Education (CTE) program. All 9th grade students
receive an iPad to use in school and take home for four years
via a 1:1 Digital Education Initiative. Over 60% of the faculty
members teach Advanced Placement (AP) and other college
level courses.
QUEENS HIGH SCHOOL FOR THE

SCIENCES AT YORK COLLEGE
94-50 159th Street, Jamaica, New York 11433
Phone: (718) 657-3181
Website: www.qhss.org
Overview: Queens High School for the Sciences at York College
is dedicated to providing a rigorous curriculum in collaboration
with York College that emphasizes the sciences and
mathematics. The school philosophy is students are more
successful when nurtured in a small learning community. The
school mission is to develop a community of diligent learners
and independent thinkers who are inspired to attain academic
excellence and prepare them for the competitive environment
and challenges of higher education.
Academic program: Students advance beyond the core

curriculum by taking four years of mathematics and a wide
array of science and AP courses. Students also have the option
of participating in the Science & Engineering Research
program, in which they compete in the New York City Science
and Engineering Fair, Intel Science Talent Search, Google and
Quality of Life competitions. All freshmen take an Intensive
Writing course and English and Language Arts College Board
Common Core-aligned Springboard curriculum, which prepares
them for AP Language and AP Literature and Composition
curricula. All students graduate with at least two AP Social
Studies courses and take three years of Russian language
courses. There is an optional fourth-year of a second language
offered via a blended learning program.
Academic program: In line with offering small sized classes for

standard high school courses (such as English, Social Studies,
Science, and Mathematics), the school offers a wide range of
elective courses in all academic subjects, as well as art, music
and language. Advanced Placement courses, including Biology,
Calculus AB, Calculus BC, Chemistry, Chinese, English
Language and Composition, Environmental Science, Physics 1,
Spanish, U .S. History, and World History, are available to those
who qualify. Students also have the opportunity to enroll in City
University of New York (CUNY) College Now courses, such as
Biology, Sociology, Health Services, Nutrition and Health, PreCalculus, and Psychology. Course offerings vary from year to
year. Besides offering nurturing, small classes, students are
further supported with tutoring by teachers and honors
The CTE program features pre-engineering, autoCAD, digitalanalog electronics, and computer science courses and an
extensive Work Based Learning- College and Career Exploration
sequence featuring career talks, job shadowing, career and
college fairs, and internships. All students participate in the CTE
program.
Partnerships with CUNY College Now, SUNY University in the

High School, St. Johns University College Advantage and the
College of St. Rose provide students with the opportunity to
earn and graduate with 15 to 60 college credits.
and foremost high school committed to nurturing students

dedicated to the arts. LaGuardia High Schools dual mission
provides a uniquely balanced educational experience that
includes both demanding conservatory-style training and a
rigorous, comprehensive academic program.
Extracurricular activities: The extracurricular program features

over 90 afterschool clubs and activities (e.g., robotics, debate,
Science/ Russian Olympiad) and 42 PSAL teams. The Student
Organization, National Honor Society and Junior Statesmen of
America serve as the pipeline for our student leaders, while
students interested in the arts can participate in nine different
bands, including jazz, marching band and ensembles, as well as
theatrical productions.
Below are brief descriptions of the pre-conservatory studio

programs: Dance, Drama, Fine Arts, Instrumental and Vocal
Music, and Technical Theatre.
Students in the Dance program study ballet and modern dance;
supplementary courses include dance history, choreography,
theater dance (tap and jazz), career management, and
professional skills. Students in the Drama program, focus on
theater preparation through courses in acting, voice and diction,
physical techniques, theater history, and script analysis. In the
Fine Arts program, students receive two years training in
traditional skills and disciplines, which include drawing, painting
in water-based media, graphic design, and painting in oils and
acrylics. After taking the core art courses, students round out
their arts education with advanced courses in the subjects listed
above and with other elective offerings, such as architecture, art
history, ceramics, computer graphics, mural painting
photography, print making, and sculpture. Students in the
Technical Theatre program receive practical training in scenic
carpentry, lighting technology, costume construction, sound
properties, stage management, technical drawing, and design.
Technical Theater students participate in both the production
and the performance aspects for the various LaGuardia High
School events.
2015 Admissions: 15,209 students listed Staten Island

Technical High School as a choice on the SHSAT, and 337 offers
were made.
STUYVESANT HIGH SCHOOL

345 Chambers Street, New York, New York 10282-1099
Phone: (212) 312-4800
Website: www.stuy.edu
Overview: Stuyvesant High Schools mission is to provide
students with a rigorous curriculum that nurtures and rewards
their intellectual curiosity. Although Stuyvesant is historically
recognized for its strengths in math, science and technology
instruction, the school also has a dynamic and diverse
Humanities program, as well as unique educational
opportunities outside the classroom.
Students in the Instrumental Music and Vocal Music programs

study sight singing, music theory, and music history.
Academic program: The schools enriched curriculum includes

required courses for graduation and also affords its students the
opportunity to take many advanced courses and electives in
various subjects. These course selections include Research,
Multivariate Calculus, Organic Chemistry, Existentialism, and Wall
Street, in addition to a wide array of Advanced Placement
courses.
The Instrumental Music Studio performing groups include four

symphony orchestras, two concert bands, two jazz bands, and
three musical pit orchestras. Students also have the opportunity
to compose, conduct and perform original repertoire.
The Vocal Music Studio performing groups include Elementary,
Mixed, Girls, Womens, and Senior Choruses; Gospel Choir;
Show Choir; and an opera production. In voice classes,
students receive training in Italian, German, and French vocal
literature. Music elective courses include chamber music, guitar,
music technology, and songwriting.
Extracurricular activities: The school is proud of its 45 PSAL

sports teams and extensive extracurricular activities such as
Robotics, Math Team, Speech and Debate, Science Olympiad,
chess, Model UN, and Junior State of America. There are a
number of major publications, over 100 student-run clubs, and
an active student government. Students interested in music may
participate in symphonic band, symphony orchestra, jazz band,
and a number of choral groups.
Each studio requires a substantial time commitment after

school, including rehearsals and performances, as well as the
practical application of technical theater and gallery
management techniques. Longer school days are expected
during performance times, and students are required to be
present and participate in program-related, after-school
performances and activities.
2015 Admissions: 22,662 students listed Stuyvesant High

School as a choice on the SHSAT, and 953 offers were made.
FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL

OF MUSIC & ART AND PERFORMING ARTS
Auditions will be held at the school. Student must register for

auditions with their guidance counselors. See pages 11-12 for
LaGuardia High School audition information.
100 Amsterdam Avenue, New York, New York 10023

Phone: (212) 496-0700
Website: www.laguardiahs.org
2015 Admissions: 1,179 students received one or more offers

to the programs at LaGuardia High School from a pool of 13,625
students.
The Fiorello H. LaGuardia High School of Music & Art and

Performing Arts enjoys an international reputation as the first
SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS ADMISSIONS TEST
SHSAT DATES AND LOCATIONS
SECTION
22
ll current eligible 8th and first-time 9th grade students in public, private, and parochial schools applying to one or more
of New York Citys Specialized High Schools (with the exception of LaGuardia High School) must take the SHSAT.
Approximately 29,000 students took the SHSAT for September 2015 admission.
Students interested in taking the SHSAT should speak with their guidance counselor within the Request for Testing (RFT) period.
Students will be issued a Test Ticket, which will indicate the date, time and location assigned to the student for testing.
Students must test on the date and at the location assigned. Testing locations are specified on page 10, and students are
assigned to a test site based on the geographic district in which the students school is located. Conflicts should be reported to
the student's guidance counselor prior to the test date.
September 10 October 15, 2015
October 21, 2015
RFT Period
Test Tickets available for distribution
Students register for the SHSAT and LaGuardia audition(s)

with guidance counselors.
TEST DATES (For locations, see page 10)

Saturday, October 24, 2015
All current 8th grade students
Sunday, October 25, 2015
All current 9th grade students

8th and 9th grade students who are English Language Learners or students with
disabilities who have Individualized Education Programs (IEPs) or 504 Plans.*
Make-up test requests
tudents new to New York City (Records must show that student arrived in NYC
S
after the November make-up test.)
Saturday, November 7, 2015

Sunday, November 15, 2015
End of summer 2016
ALTERNATE TEST DATE

If students observe a religion on a Saturday or Sunday, they must notify their guidance counselors so that they are
scheduled for a test date that does not conflict with a religious observance. The appropriate date should be indicated on
the students SHSAT Ticket. If this is not the case, students should speak to their guidance counselors so that the ticket
can be modified.
If a student is ill and unable to take the test on a scheduled date, the student must immediately notify his/her guidance
counselor upon return to school, present medical documentation, and request to schedule a make-up date for the SHSAT
through their guidance counselor.
ocumentation is required to confirm a valid make-up request. Guidance counselors must submit requests with required
D
documentation by October 30 for the November 7 test and by November 10 for the November 15 test.
*More information about eligible English Language Learners and former English Language Learners is on page 14.
SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS ADMISSIONS TEST
SHSAT DATES AND LOCATIONS

TEST LOCATIONS
8th and 9th Grade
students attending
schools in:
TESTING SITE
ADDRESS
Manhattan
Stuyvesant
High School
345 Chambers Street, New York, NY 10282 Tel: (212) 312-4800

Subways: 1, 2, 3, A, C, E to Chambers Street; R to City Hall
Buses: M20, M22, M5, M9, X1, X10
Bronx
The Bronx
High School
of Science
75 West 205 Street, Bronx, NY 10468 Tel: (718) 817-7700

Subways: 4, to Bedford Park Boulevard-Lehman College; B, D to
Bedford Park Boulevard
Buses: Bx1, Bx10, Bx2, Bx22, Bx26, Bx28, Bx3
Brooklyn Districts
13, 14, 15, 16, 17,
18, 20, 21, 22, 23, 32
Brooklyn
Technical
High School
29 Fort Greene Place, Brooklyn, NY 11217 Tel: (718) 804-6400

Subways: 2, 3, 4, 5 to Nevins Street, A to Hoyt & Schermerhorn; B, Q, R to
DeKalb Avenue; C to Lafayette Avenue; D, N to Atlantic Avenue-Barclays Center;
G to Fulton Street
Buses: B103, B25, B37, B38, B41, B45, B52, B54, B62, B63, B65, B69
Brooklyn District 19
Hillcrest
High School
160-05 Highland Avenue, Jamaica, NY 11432 Tel: (718) 658-5407

Subway: E, J, Z to Jamaica Center-Parsons/Archer; F to Parsons Boulevard
Buses: Q1, Q110, Q111, Q112, Q114, Q17, Q2, Q20A, Q20B, Q24, Q3, Q31,
Q34, Q36, Q40, Q41, Q43, Q56, Q6, Q65, Q76, Q77, Q8, Q83, Q9, X68
Queens Districts
24, 25, 26, 30
Long Island City

High School
14-30 Broadway, Long Island City, NY 11106 Tel: (718) 545-7095

Subways: N, Q to Broadway
Buses: Q100, Q102, Q103, Q104, Q18, Q66, Q69
Staten Island
Staten Island
Technical
High School
485 Clawson Street, Staten Island, NY 10306 Tel: (718) 667-3222

Subways: Staten Island Railway (SIR) to New Dorp
Buses: S57, S74, S76, S78, S79-SBS
Queens Districts
27, 28, 29
Note: Not every site will be available on November 15. Please check your Test Ticket for precise testing location.
TEST RESULTS
Please note that the SHSAT is not a requirement for admission to LaGuardia High School. For all other Specialized High Schools,
offers are made to students based upon their SHSAT scores, how they ranked the Specialized High Schools on the SHSAT answer
sheet, and seat availability. SHSAT scores are available in March 2016 with High School Admissions Round One results. To determine offers to a Specialized High School:
All scores of the students who took the test are ranked from highest score to lowest score.
The student with the highest score is placed in his/her first choice (highest prioritized school).
tarting from the highest score on down, each student, in turn, is placed in his/her highest prioritized school in which seats are
S
still available. Therefore, if all the seats in a students first-choice school have been offered to students who scored higher, he/
she is placed in his/her second-choice school if seats are available. If all the seats in his/her second-choice school have been
offered to students who scored higher, the student is offered a seat in his/her third-choice school if there are still seats available,
and so on. This process continues until there are no seats available in any of the eight Specialized High Schools where admission is based on the SHSAT.
From year to year, the number of offers and projected seats for each Specialized High School may be subject to an increase or
decrease based on school enrollment.
10
FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL OF
SECTION
MUSIC & ART AND PERFORMING ARTS AUDITIONS

September 10 October 15, 2015
October 21, 2015
Register for LaGuardia High School audition(s)

with your guidance counselor.
Audition Tickets available for distribution
33
2015-2016 AUDITION DATES

All auditions are held at LaGuardia High School. Dates are scheduled according to the borough in which your school is
located, not your current home address, and by the first letter of your last name.
BOROUGH
LAST NAME
AUDITION GROUP
DATE
START TIME
Bronx
AZ
Students auditioning for a single or

multiple studios
8:00 AM
Brooklyn
AZ
Students auditioning for two or more

studios or Technical Theatre
8:00 AM
Brooklyn
AL
Students auditioning for a single

studio except Technical Theatre
8:00 AM
Brooklyn
MZ

studio except Technical Theatre
11:30 AM
Manhattan
AZ
Students auditioning for two or more

studios or Technical Theatre
Saturday, October 31, 2015
8:00 AM
Manhattan
AL

studio
8:00 AM
Manhattan
MZ

studio
11:30 AM
Queens/Staten
Island
AZ
Students auditioning for a single or

multiple studios
8:00 AM
AUDITION EXCEPTIONS
AUDITIONS FOR STUDENTS NEW

TO NEW YORK CITY
If a students audition date conflicts with a religious

observance, the student may audition on either the Saturday
or Sunday of the students schools scheduled weekend.
End of summer 2016 (official records must indicate that

the student became a New York City resident after
November 1, 2015).
If a student's scheduled SHSAT date/time conflicts with his/

her scheduled LaGuardia High School audition, the student
must contact LaGuardia High School directly via phone or
email to schedule a different audition date.
ADMISSIONS PROCESS
Successful candidates are expected to exhibit an

intermediate to advanced level of proficiency in their art forms.
Students are evaluated based on their preparation for the
audition, level of commitment to their art form, technical
proficiency, and artistic expression. Most students receiving an
offer for one or more of the studios typically score between
80-100 points on the studio rubric in addition to having a
satisfactory academic record.
Admission to LaGuardia High School is based on a

competitive audition and review of a students academic
record to ensure success in the schools demanding studio
work and challenging academic program.
To audition for one or more of the studios at LaGuardia High
School, students must inform their guidance counselors of
their intention to audition and indicate for which studio(s) they
wish to audition. Guidance counselors will provide students
with a receipt to reflect their intention during the RFT period,
and an Audition Ticket prior to the audition date.
All applicants must bring to each audition their Audition

Ticket for entrance. Printed receipts from the RFT process are
not acceptable. One copy of the previous academic years
report card and/or transcript is required for each studio audition
for which the student is registered. For example, if the student
11
FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL OF
MUSIC & ART AND PERFORMING ARTS AUDITIONS

AUDITION INFORMATION FOR EACH STUDIO
is auditioning for two studios, then she/he must provide two

copies of the Audition Ticket and report card. Students are
evaluated solely on the official marks awarded during the
previous academic school year. No reevaluation will be done
based on any subsequent improved academic performance.
13,625 students auditioned for LaGuardia High School for an

offer to one or more of the schools six studios for the 20152016 school year. Students may audition for the studios listed
below. Only students who are residents of New York City are
eligible to apply and audition.
REGISTERING FOR LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL

AUDITIONS
DANCE Applicants participate in both a ballet class and a

modern dance class. Female applicants must wear a leotard,
footless or convertible tights and ballet shoes. Males should
wear a fitted t-shirt, black leggings, fitted black sweatpants or
black tights, and ballet shoes. Applicants are evaluated for their
potential to succeed in the specific training offered.
If students are interested in applying to one or more of the

six studios at LaGuardia High School, they should review the
audition requirements listed in this handbook and also in the
2016 Directory of the New York City Public High Schools to
prepare for their audition(s).
DRAMA Applicants should be prepared to perform two
Students registered to audition for more than two studios

may be asked by LaGuardia High School to audition over more
than one day. Students should ask their guidance counselors to
follow up with LaGuardia High School directly if they are in this
situation.
contrasting one-minute monologues. Applicants will be asked

to do an impromptu reading and participate in an interview.
Attire should allow free movement since applicants may be
asked to demonstrate how well they move physically.
FINE ART Applicants must bring a portfolio of 8-15 pieces of
English Language Learners eligible for testing

accommodations and students with disabilities whose
Individualized Education Plans (IEPs) or 504 Plans provide for
testing accommodations will receive those accommodations
for the LaGuardia High School audition(s) as long as the
accommodations do not interfere with the content or the skill
being measured.
original artwork done in a variety of media. The artwork should

be from observation, imagination, and memory, and labeled
appropriately. Photographsnot originalsof threedimensional (3D) works may be included. For the audition,
applicants will be given three drawing assignments, including
drawing the human figure from observation, drawing a still life
from memory, and creating a drawing in color based on
imagination. All drawing materials for auditions will be supplied
by the school at the time of the audition.
Students with disabilities or English Language Learners and

eligible former English Language Learners who will be using
their accommodations for LaGuardia High School auditions
must send directly to LaGuardia High School any relevant
documents related to the accommodations prior to the RFT
deadline (e.g., students IEP, 504 Plan, or signed letter on
school letterhead describing English Language Learner
supports received by student in school setting).
Documentation for LaGuardia High School can be faxed to
212-724-5748 or emailed to [email protected].
INSTRUMENTAL MUSIC Applicants should prepare a

solo selection to perform without accompaniment and bring
one copy of the music they plan to perform. Applicants should
bring their instruments to the audition, except those auditioning
on piano, percussion, tuba, double bass, and harp. These
instruments will be provided by the school at the audition.
Amplifiers also will be provided at the audition for electric
guitarists. Applicants will be tested for rhythm and tonal
memory and will be asked to complete a sight-reading of a
given selection.
Students must arrive on time for audition(s), although the

arrival time indicated on the Audition Ticket may not be the
actual start time of the audition. Students should bring a light
snack and/or water.
TECHNICAL THEATRE Applicants are expected to bring a

prepared 3D design model for presentation.
At the LaGuardia auditions, there is a designated waiting/

reunion area for parents/guardians, as they are not allowed in
the audition areas. Parents/guardians also may choose to leave
and re-enter the school building at any time. It is important that
the student has food/water and that any other communication
with families is made prior to the beginning of the audition
process.
They will be asked to participate in a small-group, hands-on

practical in one or more aspects of technical theatre.
VOCAL MUSIC Applicants should prepare a song to sing

without accompaniment for the audition. The musical selection
can be classical or popular in style. In the audition applicants
will be asked to sing back melodic patterns and tap back
rhythmic patterns. LaGuardia High School has a suggested
online song list (www.laguardiahs.org); applicants are not
required to select from the song list.
12
STEPS IN THE APPLICATION PROCESS
APPLYING TO THE SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS
1
2
CONTACT GUIDANCE COUNSELOR
Students should contact their guidance counselor to

indicate intention to take the SHSAT and/or audition for
LaGuardia High School within the RFT period, starting in early
September.
OBTAIN A TEST OR AUDITION TICKET
Students arriving without an Audition or Test Ticket may not be

guaranteed admittance. Although sites will make every effort to
confirm a student's registration and accommodate those with
missing tickets, another test or audition date may need to be
scheduled. Students should arrive at the time indicated on the
Test or Audition Ticket; but it is important to note that the test
or audition may start after the arrival time listed on the Test or
Audition Ticket.
Students are allowed to bring cell phones to the SHSAT test site
and/or LaGuardia High School, but cell phones must be turned
off and not in use while in school buildings. No other electronic
devices are allowed. Prior to to the start of the audition or
SHSAT, students must be prepared to turn in their cell phones
when it is requested.
For both the SHSAT and LaGuardia High School auditions,
students may bring a snack and water; however, test and
audition site staff, including proctors and adjudicators, will
determine when consuming these items is allowed.
REVIEW TEST OR AUDITION TICKET
Students and parents/guardians should review all

information on the Test or Audition Ticket for accuracy.
English Language Learners and students with disabilities should
check their ticket and make sure they are scheduled for the
appropriate testing date (see pages 9 and 11) with the
appropriate accommodations. They should inform their
guidance counselors immediately if there are any errors on the
Test or Audition Ticket.
ATTEND SHSAT OR AUDITION
Students taking the SHSAT must bring their Test Ticket

to their assigned test site on the day of the test. Students
auditioning for one or more studios at LaGuardia High School
must bring their Audition Tickets to their audition(s) as well.
Prior to the testing/audition date(s), school guidance

counselors will provide students with a SHSAT Test
Ticket and/or a LaGuardia High School Audition Ticket. This
ticket will indicate the location of the test/audition site, the date
and time of the SHSAT/audition, the students ID number, and
the school code number of the students current school. If a
student has a conflict with the test or audition date assigned,
the student should inform his/her guidance counselor
immediately to arrange an alternate test or audition date. Once
Test and Audition Tickets have been issued, students are
expected to arrive on the date and time indicated on their
tickets. SHSAT test sites are based on the location of students
current schools, not current home address. LaGuardia High
School audition dates and times are based on the borough
where students currently attend school.
44
SECTION
RECEIVE RESULTS
Students must be residents of New York City in order to

receive results of the SHSAT and/or offers to LaGuardia
High School studio(s). In March 2016, students will be notified
through the High School Admissions Round One result letters as
to whether or not they received offer(s) to the Specialized High
Schools. It is possible for students who audition for one or more
of the studios at LaGuardia High School to receive offer(s) to
one or more of the studios at LaGuardia High School. Students
who receive offers to a Specialized High School may, at the
same time, receive an offer to one of the other high school
choices that were submitted on his/her New York City High
School Admissions Application. At this time, the student will
have to choose between the Specialized High School offer(s)
and the High School Admissions application offer.
COMPLETE AND OBTAIN PARENT/

GUARDIAN SIGNATURE ON TEST OR
AUDITION TICKET
Students and parents/guardians must sign the Test or Audition

Ticket prior to the exam or audition. Those taking the SHSAT
should rank, in priority order, up to eight Specialized High
Schools to which they want to apply. Students will copy these
choices onto the test answer sheet on test day. Students may
choose to apply to only one school, or may apply to as many as
all eight schools to increase their chances of being offered a seat
in one of those Specialized High Schools. Students should only
list schools that they wish to attend if they are offered a seat.
Once choices have been submitted on the day of the test, they
may not be changed. The LaGuardia High School Audition Ticket
will display the studio(s) for which the student requested to
audition when the RFT was submitted. Students should make a
copy of the Audition Ticket for each audition they attend.
13
TESTING AND AUDITION ACCOMMODATIONS
APPLYING TO THE SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS

Students with disabilities who have IEPs or 504 Plans and
English Language Learners, including current and former English
Language Learners who achieved proficiency on the New York
State English as a Second Language Achievement Test
(NYSESLAT) within the past two years, are eligible to receive
testing and/or audition accommodations on the SHSAT and
LaGuardia High School auditions.
English Language Learners with IEPs or 504 Plans will receive

the accommodations to which they are entitled, as long as the
accommodations are permitted for the SHSAT (see below).
Students whose IEPs or 504 Plans specify use of assistive
technology, such as a Frequency Modulation (FM) Unit, or other
aids, such as masks or markers, must bring these with them on
the day of the SHSAT and/or audition. Please note: assistive
technology and other aids will not be provided on testing and/
or audition days.
Testing accommodations are changes to test format and/or the

way tests are administered so that eligible students have the
support they need in order to demonstrate their skills,
knowledge, and abilities without being unnecessarily impacted
by their disabilities or English proficiency. Families are
encouraged to review the New York City Department of
Educations (NYCDOE) resources on testing accommodations for
additional information: http://schools.nyc.gov/Academics/
SpecialEducation/Classroom/instruction/accommodations.htm.
Testing Accommodations Not Permitted for SHSAT

Certain testing accommodations are not permitted for any
student on the SHSAT because providing these
accommodations would change what the test is trying to
measure:
Students are not permitted to use calculators and/or
mathematics tables on the Mathematics section, because this
section of the SHSAT measures students mathematical
computation skills.
Important note: Parents/guardians and students should

be mindful that accommodations on the SHSAT must be aligned
to testing accommodations the student already receives as part
of his or her IEP, 504 Plan, or English Language Learner program.
Requests for accommodations solely for the SHSAT are not
permitted, except in emergency situations. Students who
demonstrate disabilities or temporary impairments within 30
days of the SHSAT may receive certain testing accommodations,
if approved by the principal. Please see the section on
Emergency Testing and/or Audition Accommodations for
more information.
No part of the Reading section of the SHSAT will be read

aloud to any student, because this section of the SHSAT
measures students reading comprehension skills. This includes
directions, passages, questions, and answers.
Oral translations of test directions, questions, and answers
are not permitted because this changes the standardization of
the test. English Language Learners who need translations are
permitted to use bilingual mathematics glossaries on the Math
section of the SHSAT only.
TESTING ACCOMMODATIONS ON THE SHSAT

Students with disabilities will be provided with the
accommodations listed in their IEPs or 504 Plans, unless the
accommodation is not permitted on the SHSAT, or if the
accommodation is not necessary on the SHSAT. Students and
families should contact guidance counselors at their current
schools directly with questions about testing accommodations
on the SHSAT.
Testing Accommodations That Do Not Apply for the SHSAT

In addition, some accommodations that students may use on
other tests may not be applicable on the SHSAT. For example,
students who use a computer, word processor, or scribe for
tests with writing responses will not need to use this
accommodation on the SHSAT because there are no essays on
the test. However, it is critical for families to notify the NYCDOE
of any need to have a test administrator bubble in answers on
the SHSAT answer sheet.
English Language Learners and eligible former English Language

Learners taking the SHSAT are granted extended testing time of
225 minutes (1.5x standard testing time) and a separate location.
Bilingual mathematics glossaries will also be provided by the
NYCDOE on the day of the SHSAT at each test administration
site in the NYCDOEs nine major languages: Arabic, Bengali,
Chinese (Traditional and Simplified), French, Haitian-Creole,
Korean, Russian, Spanish, and Urdu. Students are not permitted
to bring their own bilingual mathematics glossaries.
TESTING ACCOMMODATIONS FOR

LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL AUDITIONS
If there is any question as to whether an accommodation
is permitted for an audition, please have your guidance
counselor contact LaGuardia High School directly by phone
at 212-496-0700 or email at [email protected].
For information about arranging for accommodations for
LaGuardia High School auditions, please see the next section.
14
CONFIRMING TESTING ACCOMMODATIONS

FOR THE SHSAT AND LAGUARDIA HIGH
SCHOOL AUDITIONS
If it is not possible to provide written consent to opt out of

testing accommodations before the RFT deadline, parents/
guardians must provide their written consent on testing day to
opt out of the testing accommodations listed on their childs
Test or Audition Ticket.
During the SHSAT RFT period, a students current school,

including non-public schools (private and parochial schools),
is responsible for entering the appropriate testing
accommodations in the NYCDOEs Student Enrollment
Management System (SEMS). For students with 504 Plans
or similar school-based accommodation plans (only for
students not in NYCDOE schools), all documentation
must be submitted to the NYCDOE for review via email to
[email protected]. Students and
families should directly contact their guidance counselors
at their current schools with questions about testing
accommodations on the SHSAT.
On testing day, students cannot modify or opt out of the testing

accommodations listed on their Test or Audition Ticket (unless
parent/guardian consent has been provided in writing on the
Test or Audition Ticket).
All students must stay in testing rooms until at least the end
of the standard test administration time (150 minutes), with the
exception of bathroom breaks.
Once the standard test administration time has lapsed,
students with an accommodation of extended time on tests
who have finished their work on the exam may leave the testing
room before the end of their extended time.
Students arranging accommodations for LaGuardia High

School auditions must have their guidance counselor send
supporting documentation directly to LaGuardia High School
prior to the RFT deadline (e.g., students IEP, 504 Plan, or signed
letter on school letterhead describing English Language Learner
supports received by student in school setting). Documentation
for LaGuardia High School can be faxed to 212-724-5748 or
emailed to [email protected]. Guidance counselors
should contact LaGuardia High School directly with any
questions about audition accommodations.
Students entitled to extended time who leave before the end

of their extended time will be required to indicate in writing that
they had the opportunity to use the full amount of the extended
time period but chose to leave early.
If a parent/guardian does not want his/her child to leave the
testing room before the full amount of the extended time period
has ended, the parent/guardian is responsible for
communicating this to his/her child.
Non-public school students with disabilities who do not

have an IEP or 504 Plan indicating their need for testing
accommodations must complete a NYCDOE Request for
Accommodations form and work with their school guidance
counselor to submit the form and supporting documentation
to the NYCDOE for review and approval by the RFT deadline.
Students current schools are responsible for ensuring that an
appropriate review process takes place, and that students
accommodations and relevant documentation are submitted
by the RFT deadline. The NYCDOE reserves the right to
request additional information about schools processes for
granting accommodations and verify that the requested
accommodation addresses a documented need. After
accommodations plans are approved by the NYCDOE, the
documentation should be sent directly to LaGuardia High
School so that accommodations can be arranged for the
audition(s).
Re-tests will not be provided to students who leave before

the end of their extended time after they have acknowledged in
writing that they had the opportunity to use the full extended
time but chose to leave earlier.
EMERGENCY TESTING AND/OR AUDITION

ACCOMMODATIONS
Emergency testing accommodations are intended for use by
students whose disabilities or injuries occur after the RFT
deadline but before their scheduled testing/audition day, and
without enough time to develop an IEP or 504 Plan. For the
SHSAT, students and families should ask their guidance
counselor to email [email protected]
as soon as possible prior to the testing day that emergency
accommodations may be needed.
If a family requests an accommodation without giving the
NYCDOE sufficient time to review the request before the
regular SHSAT administration date, the students SHSAT may
be rescheduled to ensure that the request for accommodations
may be properly reviewed.
STUDENTS WITH ACCOMMODATIONS WHO

FINISH THE TEST BEFORE THE END OF THE
EXTENDED TIME PERIOD
Before the RFT deadline, parents/guardians of English
Language Learners and students with IEPs or 504 Plans may
opt out of certain testing accommodations for their children on
the SHSAT or LaGuardia High School auditions. Before the RFT
deadline, parents/guardians must contact their childs guidance
counselor to indicate in writing their desire to opt out of testing
accommodations for their child. Neither guidance counselors
nor students may opt out of testing accommodations; written
consent by a parent/guardian is required.
If a student requires emergency accommodations for a

LaGuardia High School audition, the family or guidance
counselor must contact LaGuardia High School directly to
request the accommodation.
Students and families should contact their current guidance
counselor for additional information about testing
accommodations.
15
SHSAT DESCRIPTION AND MATERIALS
SECTION
55
SHSAT TESTING PROCEDURES
he SHSAT assesses knowledge and skills. These skills

consist of the ability to comprehend English prose, to
think through a verbal problem in order to reach a
reasoned conclusion based on given information, and to use
problem-solving skills in mathematics. The test measures
knowledge and skills students have gained over the years.
Keeping up with schoolwork throughout the year is the best
possible preparation.
Students, it is important to review the instructions

below with your parent/guardian to ensure
understanding prior to testing.
ARRIVING AT THE TEST SITE

It is important to arrive at the test site at the time indicated on
your SHSAT Test Ticket. Please note the test may not begin
immediately after the stated arrival time. You may bring snacks
and water, but the test site will determine the appropriate time to
consume them. All cell phones will be collected by the proctor
and stored in the testing room prior to the test and will be
returned at the conclusion of the test. You may not use a cell
phone until after the test is completed and you have been
dismissed from the building.
The SHSAT has two sections, Verbal and Mathematics. Students

have 150 minutes to complete the test.
VERBAL SECTION (45 QUESTIONS)

The verbal section consists of verbal reasoning and reading
comprehension components. Verbal reasoning is measured
through five scrambled paragraph items, which require students
to place sentences in the correct order to form a paragraph, and
10 logical reasoning questions. The reading comprehension
section requires students to read five reading selections, each of
which is followed by six questions assessing students ability to
understand, analyze, and interpret what they have read.
Prior to the test, you will be asked to read and sign a

statement on your answer sheet indicating that you are a
resident of New York City, are well enough to take the test, and
are taking it at the appropriate grade level. Students who sign
this statement but do not meet the requirements specified will be
disqualified from acceptance to any of the Specialized High
Schools.
MATHEMATICS SECTION (50 QUESTIONS)

The mathematics section consists of word problems and
computation questions.
If you do not feel well and do not have an approved medical

504, you should inform the test proctor immediately; you should
not begin the test, or sign the statement. Once you have begun
the test, you may not be able to request a make-up test due to
illness. Any requests for a make-up test made after you have
started the test may not be honored.
Students may choose to complete either the Verbal or

Mathematics section first. Students who finish early
may go back to questions in either section.
TEST MATERIALS
Students must bring to the testing session:
Students will be photographed in the testing rooms prior to

the start of the test. These photographs will be used for test
security purposes only.
SHSAT Test Ticket signed by parent/guardian with students

a
Specialized High School choices
sharpened Number 2 pencils (a
ballpoint pen or other ink cannot be
Do not bring personal electronic devices such as a calculator watch, calculator,
used for machine scoring)
iPod, tablet/iPad or ebook reader to the test.
an eraser
As per NYCDOE testing policy, cell phones and other prohibited electronic devices
a non-calculator watch to keep track
will be collected from all students entering the room in which the test is being
of your working time
administered and returned to the student after the student finishes the test and leaves
the testing room. Students may not access prohibited devices during break periods.
The test site will provide:
test booklet with an answer sheet
a
and scrap paper attached
optional extra scrap paper
Scrap paper may be used to solve
logical reasoning and mathematics
problems, and will be collected at the
end of the test.
During testing, schools will establish a collection point upon students entering the
classroom prior to the test administration. Students will be instructed to store cell
phones/electronic devices in their back pack/bag, or a school provided container, and
place it in the front of the classroom until the conclusion of the test administration.
Admission to the test shall be denied to any student who refuses to relinquish a
prohibited device. Possession of a prohibited device at any time during the test
administration, even if powered off, shall result in the test being invalidated. Students
will not be provided with an opportunity to make up the exam on a subsequent day.
16
FILLING IN THE ANSWER SHEET
seats available at each school. Therefore, it is very important

that you make your decisions about ranking schools before
the day of the test. Discuss with your family the schools you
are interested in, and determine the order in which you will list
them on the answer sheet. Enter these rankings on the Test
Ticket so that you will be able to carefully copy them onto Grid
5 on your answer sheet at the test site. Only choices made in
Grid 5 will be counted.
Answer sheets will be attached to test booklets. When the

proctor instructs you to do so, you must detach the answer
sheet and a sheet of scrap paper from the test booklet along
the perforations, being careful not to tear the answer sheet or
break the seal on the test booklet.
Before taking the test, you will need to provide information
such as name, student ID number, school number,
and school choices on the answer sheet.
EXAMPLES OF CORRECT GRID 5
It is important to fill in the bubbles completely so

that scoring is not delayed. The following grids
from the answer sheet collect important identifying
information as well as information that affects
admission to a Specialized High School.
In Grid 4 you will bubble in your name as it
appears in your school record and on your high
school application. You should not use a
nickname. For example, if your name on your
school record is Robert, you should bubble in that
name, even if most people call you Robbie. Or if
your name on your school record is Mei-Ling, you
should bubble in that name, even if most people
call you Melanie.
Grid 5 is for your choice of Specialized High
Schools only. If you mark Grid 5 incorrectly, your
admission to a Specialized High School may be
affected. Admission is based on your score and
the order in which you rank your school
preferences in Grid 5, as well as the number of
You MUST fill in a first choice school.
EXAMPLES OF INCORRECT GRID 5
DO NOT fill in more than one

circle in a column.
DO NOT fill in more than one

circle in a row.
17
DO NOT fill in the same school

for each choice.

You must fill in one and only one circle for each school for which you
wish to be considered. You may make as few as one or as many as
eight choices. To increase your chances of receiving an offer to one of
the Specialized High Schools, you are encouraged to make more than
one choice. You must fill in a first choice school, and you may fill in
only one school for each choice. You must fill in only one circle in a
row and only one circle in a column. You must not fill in a school more
than once. You must not fill in the same school for each choice.
In Grid 7, you must print the name of the school where you are now
enrolled. You will then print your school code exactly as it appears on
your Test Ticket or in the Feeder School List available from the test
proctor. After that, you will bubble in the corresponding number or
letter for each digit of your school code. Bubble in the letter P if
you attend a private or parochial school. For example, a student who
attends Abraham Lincoln IS 171 in Brooklyn should complete Grid 7
as shown in the example on the right. Fill in Grid 7 carefully: a
bubbling error in Grid 7 may delay the reporting of your score.
GRID 7
Abraham Lincoln IS 171

1 9 K 1 7 1
Grid 9 is labeled STUDENT ID NUMBER. Write your nine-digit

student ID number in Grid 9. You will find this number on your SHSAT
Test Ticket. Below each box, fill in the circle containing the same
numeral as the box. (See the example on the right.)
When you are told to begin
SAMPLE ANSWER MARKS
the test, mark your answers
A
B
C
D
E RIGHT
1
on the answer sheet by
2
completely filling in the
A
B
C
D
E WRONG
appropriate bubble (see
3
A
B
C
D
E WRONG
example). Make sure your
4
A
B
C
D
E WRONG
marks are heavy and dark.
5
A
B
C
D
E WRONG
Be careful not to make any
stray marks on the answer
sheet. If you change an answer, completely erase your first answer.
Do not fold or tear the answer sheet. There is only one correct answer
to each question. If your answer sheet shows more than one mark in
response to a question, that question will be scored as incorrect.
You may write in your test booklet or on the scrap paper
provided to solve verbal or mathematics problems, but your
answers must be recorded on the answer sheet in order to be
counted. It will not be possible to go back and mark your
answers on the answer sheet after time is up. Information in the
test booklet or on scrap paper will not be counted.
18
GRID 9
3 2 1
4 56
778

STUDENT MISCONDUCT
cannot be compared directly. The test forms were developed

to be as similar as possible, but they are not identical.
It is important to note that test security is CRITICAL for the

SHSAT. During the test, you may not communicate with other
students in any way. This includes, but is not limited to:
speaking, writing and passing notes, sharing test booklets or
answer sheets, looking at other students answers, and/or
possession of a personal electronic device. Students found to
be engaging in any of these activities will have their tests
invalidated and will not be allowed to take the test again until
the following school year (for current 8th grade students;
9th grade students will not have any additional opportunities to
take the test after 9th grade).
To make valid score comparisons, a raw score must be

converted into another type of score that takes into account
the differences between test forms. In a process called
calibration, verbal and mathematics raw scores are converted
into scaled scores. The raw scores and scaled scores are not
proportional. In the middle of the range of scores, an increase
of one raw score point may correspond to an increase of three
or four scaled score points. At the top or bottom of the range
of scores, an increase of one raw score point may correspond
to 10-20 scaled score points. The reason for this difference is
that the scaled scores have been adjusted to fit the normal
curve. Scaled scores are on a scale that is common to all test
forms, making it possible to compare these scores directly.
The composite score is the sum of the verbal and mathematics
scaled scores. The composite score is used to determine
admission to a Specialized High School.
CLAIMS OF TESTING IRREGULARITIES

If you believe there is interference or testing irregularity during
any part of the SHSAT test, you should bring the matter to the
immediate attention of the proctor. This may include a
misprinted test booklet, undue distraction, or improper
student behavior. The proctor will attempt to remedy the
situation and may take a written statement from you at the
end of the test.
REVIEW PROCEDURES
After receiving results, you and your parents/guardians may
review a copy of their answer sheet by requesting an
appointment with a representative from the Office of
Assessment. Copies of answer sheets are not available for
distribution but will be reviewed at the scheduled appointment.
Appointments may be arranged in one of the following ways:
Students and parents/guardians may also report any

suspected proctoring or testing irregularities, in the form of
a letter, to the address below:
Office of Student Enrollment
52 Chambers Street, Room 415
New York, NY 10007
1) By submitting an electronic request via the SHSAT website,

www.nyc.gov/schools/Accountability/resources/testing/
SHSAT, or
Mailed letters must be sent by certified mail with proof of

delivery and postmarked no later than one week after the test
administration. For all claims, please include parent/guardian
and student names, as well as telephone and/or email contact
information. Any claims of testing irregularity postmarked later
than one week after the test date may not be considered.
Claims will be responded to on an individual basis.
2) By sending a written request via certified mail with proof of

delivery to:
Office of Assessment, SHSAT Review
52 Chambers Street, Room 309
New York, New York 10007
Electronic requests must be submitted and letters must be
postmarked no later than April 1, 2016. Requests must
include:
SHSAT SCORING
SHSAT scores are based on the number of correct answers
marked. There is no penalty for wrong answers. If you are not
sure of an answer, you should mark your best guess. You
should not spend too much time on any one question. Answer
each question as best you can or skip it and keep going. If you
have time at the end of the test, you may go back.
Students name, date of birth, and OSIS number

Parent/guardians phone number and email address
Within four weeks of receipt of the request, the Office of
Assessment will provide appointment details. If there are days
or times during normal business hours in the months of April
through June that the students and parents/guardians will not
be available, be sure to indicate them on your request, as
rescheduling may not be possible.
Each answer sheet is scanned and scored electronically, and

the number of correct answers, called a raw score, is
determined for each test taker. Because there are several
forms of the SHSAT, raw scores from different test forms
19

DISCOVERY PROGRAM
As stated in New York State law, the Specialized High Schools may sponsor a Discovery Program to give
disadvantaged students of demonstrated high potential an opportunity to participate in the Specialized High
School program. Students will be notified which schools will be sponsoring a Discovery Program and if they are
eligible to apply no earlier than May 2016.
To be eligible, the student must:
1. have scored below and close to the lowest qualifying score on the SHSAT. Eligible scores will vary from year to year
and will be based on seat availability; and
2. have ranked one of the Specialized High Schools that plans to host a 2016 Discovery Program as among the choices on
his/her 2015 SHSAT answer sheet; and
3. be certified as disadvantaged by his/her middle school according to the following criteria:

a. attend a Title 1 school and be from a family whose total income is documented as meeting federal income eligibility
guidelines established for school food services by the NYS Department of Agriculture, effective July 1, 2015; or
b. be receiving assistance from the Human Resources Administration; or
c. be a member of a family whose income is documented as being equivalent to or below Department of Social
Services standards; or
d. be a foster child or ward of the state; or
e. initially have entered the United States within the last four years and live in a home in which the language customarily
spoken is not English; and
4. be recommended by his/her local school as having high potential for the Specialized High School program.
Once notified of eligibility, families should meet with the school counselor to discuss the Discovery Program application.
Documentation supporting student eligibility must be attached to the recommendation form submitted on behalf of the
student by the middle school. Not all students recommended can be accepted into the Discovery Program. Those students
who are successful in meeting the demands of the summer program will be granted an offer to the school sponsoring the
Discovery Program. Those students who are not successful will attend the school to which they had previously been
assigned. Students should speak to their guidance counselors if they have any questions.
20
SHSAT
USEFUL TIPS
FOR TESTING
SECTION
66
DAY OF THE TEST
PARENTS/GUARDIANS ARE ENCOURAGED

TO REVIEW THE FOLLOWING TIPS WITH THEIR
CHILDREN SO THAT THEY ARE WELL PREPARED
FOR THE TEST.
Prepare yourself. The night before the test, remember to get a

good nights sleep. Bring your signed Test Ticket with you to your
assigned test site and make sure it includes a parent/guardian
signature and your ranked choices of Specialized High Schools.
Arrive at your assigned test site on time. Wear comfortable clothes
and bring a non-calculator watch to keep track of the time. Make
sure that you have several sharpened Number 2 pencils and an
eraser that erases cleanly. Do not bring personal electronic devices
such as an iPod, calculator, tablet/iPad or ebook reader to the test.
You may bring a cell phone but it will be turned off and collected
by your proctor for the duration of the test.
BEFORE TEST DAY

The best way to improve your verbal skills is to read many
books and articles on different topics. Reading widely will
help you expand your vocabulary and improve your
comprehension. While reading, ask yourself: What is the main
point? What can be deduced? Why does the author use certain
words? Is this article well written?
Plan your time. Be aware of the total number of questions and the
amount of time you have to complete the test. Work carefully, but
keep moving at a comfortable pace and keep track of the time.
Listen carefully to your test proctor and all instructions regarding
time. Be sure to place all answers on the answer sheet. You will not
be given additional time to transfer your answers from the test
booklet or any scrap paper to the answer sheet after time is up.
Knowing what to expect on the test and having some

practice in test taking is beneficial. This handbook describes
each part of the test and contains two sample tests to use as
practice. Each sample test contains questions from previous
tests and has been updated to match the 2015 tests as closely
as possible. A list of correct answers is provided for each test,
along with explanations.
Simulating the actual testing situation helps. You will have
two and a half hours (150 minutes) to complete the test. During
your practice test, how you allot the time between the verbal
and mathematics sections is up to you. You may start with either
section. Use the practice test to decide how much time you will
spend on each section to keep yourself on pace and manage
your time on test day. For example, will you spend 75 minutes
on each section, or will you spend more time on one section
than another? Will you leave certain questions for the end? You
may return to one section if you have time remaining after
finishing the other section. Mark your answers on the answer
sheet provided in this handbook. Remember, on the actual test,
you will not be given extra time to mark your answers on the
answer sheet after time is up.
After you complete the practice test, check your answers
against the list of correct answers. Read the explanations of
the correct answers to see the kinds of mistakes you may have
made. Did you read too quickly and misunderstand the
question? Did you make careless errors in computation? Did
you choose answers that were partially correct, but were not the
best answers? Were many of your wrong answers guesses? You
also should check to see whether there is a pattern to your
errors. For example, did you get all of the inequality questions
wrong? Did you leave any answers blank? Seek out
opportunities to do more practice in areas that challenged you.
Put this handbook away for a few days, and then take the
second sample test, following the same procedure. Be aware
that how well you do on these sample tests is not a predictor of
your score on the actual test. However, these tests will give you
an idea of what to expect when taking the SHSAT.
21
Read the instructions carefully. Be sure you understand the task

before marking your answer sheet. For each question, read all the
choices before choosing one. Many questions ask for the best
answer; it is important to compare all the choices to determine the
choice that best answers the question.
Mark your answers carefully. This is a machine-scored test, and
you can lose credit by marking the wrong answer bubble or
marking the answers to two questions on the same line. Make sure
the number on the answer sheet matches the number of the
question in your test booklet. To change an answer, erase the
original mark completely. If two bubbles are filled in for a question,
that question will be scored as incorrect. Avoid making stray pencil
marks on your answer sheet. You may write in your test booklet to
solve verbal or mathematics problems, but remember that only
answers recorded on the answer sheet will be counted.
There is no penalty for a wrong answer. Your score is based on
the number of correct answers marked on the answer sheet.
Therefore, omitting a question will not give you an advantage, and
wrong answers will not be deducted from your right answers. Fill in
any blanks when the time limit is almost up.
Make an educated guess when you do not know the answer to a
question. Do this by eliminating the answer choice(s) that are
definitely wrong, and then choose one of the remaining answers.
Be considerate of other students during the test. Do not chew
gum or make noises or movements that would be distracting to
others.
If you finish before time is up, go back over your work to make
sure that you followed instructions, did not skip any questions, and
did not make careless mistakes. Students must remain in the
testing room for the entire duration of the test (150 minutes).
SPECIFIC
STRATEGIES
VERBAL
For example, write 2 next to the sentence that you think
follows the first sentence, 3 next to the sentence you
think follows 2, and so on.
SCRAMBLED PARAGRAPHS
The scrambled paragraph portion of the test measures your ability to organize written material according to the sequence of
ideas and/or cues provided by transitional words and phrases.
There are five paragraphs, each consisting of six sentences. The
first sentence is provided, with the remaining five presented in
random order. You are to arrange the sentences in the authors
original order using cues contained in the sentences. Only one
arrangement of each set of sentences will form a well-organized,
cohesive, grammatically correct paragraph. Each correctly
ordered paragraph is worth double the value of a question in any other section of the test.
Read Example 1. After reading all the sentences, you should

have an idea of what the paragraph is about. Now go back to
the given sentence and determine which sentence should come
next. The given sentence reveals the secret to teaching a parakeet to talkrealizing that the bird just repeats what it hears.
The realization in the given sentence leads to U, which begins
for this reason and explains how the realization in the previous
sentence affects how a teacher presents the lessons.
The next step of the teaching process is in R. The many times
the phrase is repeated in R is followed by your repetitions in S,
which advises the teacher to leave the bird after teaching. Q
explains how to leave the bird. The closing sentence is T. The
word of farewell in Q refers to Goodbye in T. URSQT creates
a paragraph that is logically and grammatically correct.
The sentences contain words and phrases that help to

identify the flow of ideas from one sentence to the next,
perhaps describing a procedure or tracing a historical
event. The sentences may also provide grammatical cues
as to how to construct the paragraph. For example, the
pronoun she may refer to someone mentioned in a previous sentence. Transitional words such as although and however also provide cues about how the sentences
relate to one another.
RSQTU might look appealing, but the transition from the given
sentence to R is poor. R does not follow up on the secret presented in the given sentence. Another problem is the placement
of U at the end of the paragraph. T provided a specific example
of distraction. U refers to a range of distractions, including, but
not limited to, other noises. The resulting paragraph is disjointed
and poorly organized.
As you put the sentences in order, it may help to write the

correct position of each sentence in the blank to the left.
Example 1
The secret to teaching a parakeet to talk is the realization that a talking bird is simply imitating
what it hears, not putting its own ideas into words.
_______ Q.
As you leave, dont give a word of farewell.
_______ R.
Stay just out of sight of the bird and repeat the phrase you want it to learn for at least 15
minutes every morning and evening.

_______ S.
After your repetitions, leave the bird alone for a while.
_______ T.
Otherwise the bird might combine that word, such as Goodbye, with the phrase you are
trying to teach it.

_______ U.
For this reason, when you train your bird to repeat your words, eliminate any distrac-
tions, especially other noises, during its lessons.

Example 1
The second sentence is
The third sentence is
The fourth sentence is
The fifth sentence is
The sixth sentence is
22
SPECIFIC
STRATEGIES
VERBAL
URQTS might also appear appealing, but QTS is an awkward

progression of sentences. A well-organized paragraph would
not place Q (which assumes that you are leaving) prior to S
(which suggests that you should leave). Another problem is that
the phrase after your repetitions in S does not have a clear
referent in T. It refers back to U and R, and placing it at the end
of the paragraph creates a gap in the flow of ideas.
Add the information given in the three conditions about the students heights to the diagram. Remember that the information
is relative, so dont place anyone in a definite space yet.
Condition 1
Shortest
LOGICAL REASONING
Condition 2
Condition 3
Tallest
This section consists of 10 questions that assess your ability to

reason logically, using the facts, concepts, and information presented. You must guard against jumping to conclusions
that are not warranted from the information given. There
are different types of questions: figuring out codes, determining
the relative positions of things or people, identifying correct
assumptions, and drawing valid conclusions.
The first and third conditions can be combined like this:

P
N
J
G
The most important strategy is to read the information carefully

and make no assumptions that are not supported by the given
information. Certain words must be read carefully. For example, between cannot be assumed to mean between and
right next to; other things may be between these two objects
as well. The same may be true of words such as above,
below, before, and after.
The diagram shows that Gina is taller than everyone else, so

she is in fifth place, which is Option D. Notice that it is not
possible to determine who is in fourth placeJorge or Rafael
but this does not affect Ginas place. Ginas position can be
definitely determined, so Option E is incorrect.
Another good strategy is to look for information that is definitely

stated, such as, The red box is the largest, or Jane is not
standing next to Erik. This information makes it easier to
determine the relative relationships.
Example 2
Five students stood in order of height. The

shortest student stood in the first place, and
the tallest student stood in the fifth place.
For Example 2, draw a diagram to help you determine the

order in which the students stood:
1) Jorge is shorter than Gina.

2) Rafael is taller than Nick but shorter than
Gina.
3) Nick is shorter than Jorge but taller than
Priscilla.
Shortest 1st
2nd
3rd
In which place is Gina?
4th
A. second
B. third
C. fourth
D. fifth
E. Either fourth or fifth, but it is not possible to
determine which one.
Tallest 5th
The question provides information about the students heights
relative to one another. It does not provide definite information
that would allow us to place a student in any particular location.
23
SPECIFIC
STRATEGIES
VERBAL
For Example 3, read each option and decide whether it must

be true based on the given information. Reread the given
information as often as needed so that you do not make
an incorrect assumption. Option F is not necessarily true.
The given information does not say anything about a requirement that 75 people must watch the film. Nor is Option G
necessarily true. It might be a good idea, but we cannot
conclude that it must be true. We cannot conclude that Option
J is true; we do not know how many people are interested in
the film. Option K may seem like a reasonable answer. It could
explain why video room A is being used. However, even
though the explanation sounds plausible, the given information
does not say why the film is being shown in video room A
rather than somewhere else. It simply says that video room A
was used. Therefore, we cannot say that Option K must be
true. Only Option H must be true because we know that the
capacity of video room A is 75 people.
In Question 1, the word Tito appears only in the first and

fourth sentences, so its corresponding letter must appear only
in those sentences. Letter J (Option B) meets that requirement,
and it is the correct answer. The other options cannot be correct. The letter Y appears only in the fourth sentence. The letters B and R appear in the first and fourth sentences, but they
also appear in the second and third sentences. Thus, neither
of them can represent the word Tito. Option E is ruled out
because the letter representing Tito can be determined from
the information given.
In Question 2, the letter K appears in all four sentences. The
words wants to meet also appear in all four sentences. Is it
possible to determine which of those words is represented by
Example 4
Questions 1 and 2 refer to the following

information.
Example 3
Because video room A is being used to show

this film, no more than 75 people can attend
the showing.
Based only on the information above, which of
the following must be true?
In the code below, (1) each letter always

represents the same word, (2) each word is
represented by only one letter, and (3) in any
given sentence, the letters may or may not be
presented in the same order as the words.

R J K
B L
means
Tito wants to meet Shu.
F. At least 75 people must be present in

order to show the film in video room A.
G. If more than 75 people are interested in
seeing this film, another video room will
show the film at the same time.
H. If more than 75 people want to see this
film, some will not be able to attend this
showing in video room A.
J. More than 75 people are interested in
seeing this film.
K. Because fewer than 75 people want to see
this film, video room A is being used.
M
R
C B
K means
Bianca wants to meet Michael.
B
R
D K
Z means
Anjel wants to meet Kim.
K
J
Y R
B means
Imani wants to meet Tito.
1.
Which letter represents the word Tito?

A. B
B. J
C. R
D. Y
E. Cannot be determined from the
information given.
When the question involves a code, as in Example 4, do not

solve for all parts of the code. Solve only those parts that
relate to the question. Read the directions carefully. The letters
in a sentence may or may not appear in the same order as the
words they represent in that sentence. For example, in the first
sentence, the first letter (R) may or may not represent the first
word (Tito).
2.
Which word is represented by the letter K?

F. wants
G. to
H. meet
J. Michael
K. Cannot be determined from the
information given.
24
SPECIFIC
STRATEGIES
VERBAL
the letter K? No, it could represent any of those words. The

directions state that the letters may or may not be presented
in the same order as the words. Thus, the letter K appears
above the words to and meet, but that does not mean it
represents either of those words. It is impossible to determine
which word is represented by K, so the correct answer is
Option E, Cannot be determined from the information given.
READING
his section measures your ability to read and comprehend

five informational passages. Each passage is 400 to 500
words long. The subjects include short biographies, discussions of historical events, descriptions of scientific phenomena, brief essays on art or music, discussions with a point of
view, and human interest stories.
Example 5
10
15
20
25
30
35
Several animal species, although they

remain wild, are comfortable living in
close proximity to people. Some of these
animals, such as squirrels and pigeons, are
plentiful even in big cities. Many make
their homes in buildings and have developed a taste for human food. Among these
species, few have a larger appetite for the
products of human civilization than sea
gulls.
40
10
45
Despite the name, not all gulls live near the

sea. Of the 44 gull species, some are found
in deserts or mountain regions, though most
inhabit shorelines. On the California coast,
western gulls far outnumber other gull spe- 15
cies. Glaucous-winged gulls dominate the
Pacific Northwest; herring gulls, the North
Atlantic coast; ring-bills, the Great Lakes
and other inland fresh water; and California
20
gulls, despite their name, the Great Salt
Lake in Utah. Because of special glands
above their eyes, all gulls can drink salt
water as well as fresh water.
Gulls have a varied natural diet, ranging
from fish, shellfish, and rodents to insects.
They typically break shellfish open by carrying them while they fly, then dropping
them onto a hard surface. Some gulls have
been seen trying to dine on some rather
unusual substances. For example, gulls
have attempted to eat golf balls, perhaps
mistaking them for the eggs of another
species of bird. Others have dropped metal
objects, such as nuts and bolts, from the sky
onto the ground.
50
55
25
60
30
65
35
70
25
Gulls have learned that human habitation

usually means a plentiful, easy food supply.
They accept handouts eagerly and will
drive off more mild-mannered birds, such
as ducks, rather than share food with them.
Gulls follow fishing boats and garbage
scows, knowing that these are reliable
sources of easy pickings. They find landfills,
with their plentiful food scraps, especially
inviting. Unfortunately, this causes a serious problem when the landfills are located
near airports. Gulls have been sucked into
the air intakes of jet engines, resulting in
fatal plane crashes.
Many gulls have adapted to living among
city skyscrapers. The buildings high roofs
and straight sides resemble the cliffs where
gulls nest in the wild and provide the same
kind of updrafts that allow sea gulls to glide
and soar with little effort. Apart from an
occasional hawk, sea gulls have few natural
predators in urban settings. And city living
provides easy access to plenty of garbage.
Indeed, gulls are not the best of neighbors.
They are noisy and have been known to
damage buildings and farm crops, and to
pester humans carrying food. A whole
gull control industry has sprung up to
discourage sea gulls from congregating near
human communities. For example, electronic devices produce flashing lights or the
sounds of predators, and spikes and sprinklers on buildings and fences deter the birds
from roosting. As long as people continue to
provide them with food, however, gulls will
probably remain the birds next door.
40
45
50
55
60
65
70
SPECIFIC
STRATEGIES
VERBAL
Each passage has six questions that ask you to identify and
analyze key ideas and details, as well as draw conclusions from
the information presented.
Be wary of choices that are too broad or too narrow. Ask yourself whether the question requires you to draw a conclusion or
inference from statements in the passage or simply to identify a
restatement of the facts.
In order to ensure a thorough understanding of the text, read

the passage carefully rather than skimming it. This will help
prevent you from making inaccurate assumptions based on only
a few details. After reading the passage, try answering each
question before reading the answer choices. Then look at the
choices to see which is closest to your answer. If none seem to
be your answer, read the question again. You may also reread
the passage before you choose your answer.
Base your answers only on the information presented in the

passage. Do not depend solely on your prior knowledge of
the topic. Enough information will be given for you to arrive at
the correct answer.
Example 5 continued...
1. Which of the following best tells what this

passage is about?
4.
A. the harm that gulls do to people

B. how gulls have adapted to living near
human communities
C. the characteristics of animal species
that benefit from living near humans
D. how gulls have become tame
E. how gulls intelligence helps them to
survive
What is the most likely reason that the gulls

mentioned in the passage dropped nuts and
bolts from the sky?
A. They were trying to frighten off
competitors.
B. They didnt like the taste of them.
C. They were trying to crack them open.
D. They behave that way with all food.
E. They were unable to hold them any longer.
5. What species of gull would have the least use

for the special glands mentioned in line 21?
2. Where are gulls most dangerous to people?

F. in big cities
G. at golf courses
H. on seacoasts
J. on farms
K. at airports
A. ring-bill
B. herring
C. western
D. California
E. glaucous-winged
3. Which of the following statements about the

eating habits of gulls is suggested by the
passage?
6. Which of the following is most likely part of a

gull control strategy?
F. building taller skyscrapers
G. building landfills near airports
H. eliminating hawks and other predators
J. paving over parks and green spaces
K. installing flashing lights on rooftops
A. Gulls prefer food with strong flavors.

B. Gulls have developed a taste for metal
objects.
C. Gulls eat only food that people have
thrown away.
D. Gulls sometimes steal and eat the eggs of
other birds.
E. Gulls are fussy eaters compared with
other birds.
26
SPECIFIC
STRATEGIES
VERBAL
QUESTION 1
QUESTION 5
The correct answer for this question must encompass the

main points without being overly broad. Option A is a detail,
not a main point. Option C describes only the first paragraph.
Options D and E are not mentioned. The best answer is
Option B. The passage describes how gulls benefit from living
in human-created surroundings.
The special glands mentioned in line 21 allow gulls to drink

salt water as well as fresh water. All of the gull species in the
second paragraph, except the ring-bills, live near salt water
oceans or the Great Salt Lake. Thus, they need the special
glands in order drink to salt water. Ring-bill gulls live near the
Great Lakes and other inland fresh water. Fresh water is easily accessible to them, so they have little use for the special
glands (Option A).
QUESTION 2
To answer this question, read every option before choosing the
best one. According to the passage, while gulls may be nuisances to people and may damage property, they do not pose
a threat to the lives of human beings in cities, golf courses,
seacoasts, or farms. The only reference to gulls potential
danger to people is in lines 47-49: gulls sucked into airplane
engines have resulted in fatal plane crashes. The correct
answer is Option K, at airports.
QUESTION 6
The gull control industry is described in the last paragraph.
Its purpose is to discourage sea gulls from congregating near
human communities. Options F, G, and H may attract gulls,
not discourage them. Option J can be eliminated because the
passage does not say anything about parks and green spaces,
or the lack of them. Option K is mentioned in lines 65-66 as a
way to deter gulls from roosting on buildings and fences.
QUESTION 3
The eating habits of gulls are mentioned in several places
throughout the passage. You must keep all of these in mind
in order to answer correctly. The passage does not mention strong flavors, ruling out Option A. Option B is incorrect;
although the passage describes how gulls pick up and drop
metal objects, it does not say that they actually eat them.
Gulls eat just about everything, including but not limited to
garbage, making Options C and E incorrect. Lines 30-33
imply that gulls eat the eggs of other bird species, which is
Option D.
QUESTION 4
The statement about gulls dropping nuts and bolts from the
sky is in lines 33-35. To find the reason why they do this,
read the entire third paragraph. Lines 24-28 say that gulls
break open shellfish by dropping them onto a hard surface.
Apparently they cant open the shellfish by other means. A
logical inference is that gulls drop metal objects for a similar reason--to try to crack them open--which is the correct
answer (Option H). Frightening off competitors (Option F) is
mentioned in the context of driving ducks away from food
(lines 38-40), not with regard to dropping objects from the sky.
The other options are not supported by the passage.
27
SPECIFIC STRATEGIES
MATHEMATICS
This section includes arithmetic, algebra, probability, statistics, and geometry problems. The technical terms
and general concepts in these test questions can be found in the New York State Education Department
P-12 Common Core Learning Standards for Mathematics. Most problems involve application of topics
covered in the Common Core; however, since the Common Core is just an outline, not all details of a topic
are provided. Consequently, some aspects of a question may not be mentioned. As one of the purposes of
this test is to identify students who will benefit from an education at a Specialized High School, the SHSAT
contains many questions that require using mathematical ability to respond to novel situations.
The NYSED P-12 Common Core Learning Standards for Mathematics can be downloaded from the
New York State Education Department website: www.nysed.gov.
TIPS FOR TAKING THE MATHEMATICS SECTION OF THE SHSAT
IF THE QUESTION IS A WORD PROBLEM, it often is
o improve your mathematics skills, choose a mathematics textbook for your grade level and solve five to ten
problems every day. Do both routine and challenging
problems. Routine problems reinforce basic mathematical facts.
More challenging problems help you understand mathematics
concepts better. Do not give up if you cannot complete some
of the problems. Skip them and move on. You may be able to
solve them after you have practiced different types of problems.
Also, do not limit yourself to types of problems that test what
you have learned in your mathematics class only.
helpful to express it as an equation. When you obtain an

answer, look at the choices listed. If your answer is included
among the choices, mark it. If it is not, reread the question
and solve it again.
THE INCORRECT CHOICES are often answers that

people get if they misread the question or make common
computational errors. For this reason, it is unwise to solve a
problem in your head while looking at the possible choices. It
is too easy to be attracted to a wrong choice.
YOU MUST KNOW THE MEANINGS OF TECHNICAL TERMS such as parallel and perpendicular that
IF YOUR ANSWER IS NOT AMONG THE ANSWER

CHOICES, write your answer in a different form. For exam-
are appropriate to your grade level, as well as the customary

symbols that represent those terms. You also need to know
various formulas such as those for the perimeter and area of
different figures. You can find these technical terms, symbols,
and formulas in your mathematics textbook. These terms,
symbols, and formulas will NOT be given in the test booklet.
Practice using them until you are comfortable with the terms
and formulas.
ple, 10(x 2) is equivalent to 10x 20.
YOU MAY DRAW FIGURES OR DIAGRAMS for

questions that do not have them.
SOME QUESTIONS ASK YOU to combine a series of

simple steps. Take one step at a time, using what you know
and what the question tells you to do.
READ EACH PROBLEM CAREFULLY and work out
THE SAMPLE TESTS IN THIS HANDBOOK are Grade
the answer on scrap paper or in your test booklet. Do not

calculate on your answer sheet.
8 forms. If you are taking the Grade 9 test, work the problems
on pages 108-110 as well. These problems cover topics that
are introduced in the Common Core for Grade 8.
MOST PROBLEMS SHOULD BE DONE by working out the answer. This is more efficient than trying out the
options to see which one fits the question. The only exception
is when you are explicitly asked to look at the options, as in,
Which of the following is an odd number?
28
SPECIFIC STRATEGIES
MATHEMATICS
EXAMPLE 6
EXAMPLE 8
4(x 2 2) # 16
What is the greatest common factor of 98 and 42?
What is the solution to the inequality shown above?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
x $ 6
x $ 2
x#2
x $ 6
x # 2
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 7
E. 14
IN EXAMPLE 8, first find the prime factorizations of
98 and 42:
IN EXAMPLE 6, 4(x 2 2) # 16
98 5 2 7 7
42 5 2 3 7
Divide both sides by 4, remembering to change the

direction of the sign since both sides are divided by a
negative number.
x 2 2 $ 4
Next, find the prime numbers that are in both prime

factorizations (2 and 7). The product of those prime
factors is the greatest common factor (2 7 5 14)
x $ 2
M00-101
EXAMPLE 9
EXAMPLE 7
(9th Grade item)
x cm
The measures of the angles of a triangle are in the

ratio 1:2:3. What is the measure of the largest angle?
3 cm
F. 308
G. 608
H. 908
J. 1508
K. 1808
2 cm
4 cm
In the figure above, what is the value of x?

F. 6 cm
5cm
G. __
2
__
H. 4cm
3
J.
2 cm
IN EXAMPLE 7, let x equal the smallest angle of the
triangle. Then, the three angles are x, 2x, and 3x.

The sum of the angles of a triangle is 1808. Set up an
equation using this to find x:
x 1 2x 1 3x 5 180
6x 5 180
x 5 30
K.
6 cm
IN EXAMPLE 9, the two triangles are similar, so set

up a proportion to solve for x:
Since the question asks for the measure of the largest

angle, 3x 5 3(30) 5 908.
x 1 4
4
______
5 __
3
2
x1456
x 5 2
TAKING THE SAMPLE TESTS

Now you are ready to try sample test Form A. Begin by carefully reading the Directions on pages 30 and 31 and filling out
side 1 of the Answer Sheet on page 32. For Form A, use side 2 of the Answer Sheet (page 33). When you are ready for Form
B, use the Answer Sheet on page 71. You may tear out pages 33 and 71 to make it easier to mark your answers.
If you are taking the Grade 9 test, work the problems on pages 108-110 as well.
29
Grade 8
New York City Public Schools

2015 Specialized High Schools
Admissions Test
General Directions
Identifying Information
Fill in one and only one circle for each school for
which you wish to be considered. You may make
as few as one or as many as eight choices. To increase
your chances of being assigned to one of the specialized
high schools, you are encouraged to make more than one
choice. You must fill in a first choice school. Do not fill
in a school more than once. Do not fill in the same school
for each choice. Fill in only one circle in a row and only
one circle in a column.
Turn to Side 1 of the answer sheet. Line 1 says, I am

well enough to take this test and complete it. I understand that once I break the seal of the test booklet, I may
not be eligible for a make-up test. I am a New York City
resident and a Grade 8 student taking a Grade 8 test.
I understand that a student who is not a New York City
resident, who takes the test more than once in a given
school year, or who takes the test at the wrong grade
level will be disqualified from acceptance to any of the
specialized high schools. Sign your name in the space
following the word signature. Do not print your name.
Notify the proctor immediately if you are ill or
should not be taking this test. Do not sign the
statement or begin the test. Return your answer
sheet to the proctor.
Grid 6 is labeled BOOKLET LETTER AND NUMBER.

In most cases, Grid 6 is already filled in for you. If it is
not, copy the letter and numbers shown in the upperright corner of your test booklet into the boxes. Below
each box, fill in the circle containing the same letter or
number as the box.
For Grid 7:
1. P
rint the name of the school where you are now
enrolled in the space at the top of the grid.
On Line 2, print todays date, using the numbers of the

month, the day, and the year. On Line 3, print your birth
date with the number of the month first, then the number
of the day, then the last two digits of the year. For
example, a birth date of March 1, 2001, would be 3-1-01.
2. I n the boxes marked SCHOOL CODE, print the sixdigit code that identifies your school and fill in the
circle under the corresponding number or letter for
each digit of the school code. (You can find your school
code on your Test Ticket. If it is not there, you or the
proctor should look in the Feeder School List under the
borough in which your school is located to find the code
for your school.)
In Grid 4, print the letters of your first name, or as many

as will fit, in the boxes. Write your name exactly as you
did on the application. If you have a middle initial, print it
in the box labeled MI. Then print your last name, or as
much as will fit, in the boxes provided. Below each
box, fill in the circle that contains the same letter as the
box. If there is a space in your name, or a hyphen, fill in
the circle under the appropriate blank or hyphen.
3. I f you attend a private or parochial school, fill in

the circle marked P.
Grid 8 asks for your date of birth. Print the first three
letters of the month in the first box, the number of the
day in the next box, and the year in the last box. Then
fill in the corresponding circles.
Make dark marks that completely fill the circles.

If you change a mark, be sure to erase the first mark
completely.
Grid 5 is for your choice of specialized high schools.
If Grid 5 is not marked correctly, your admission to a
specialized high school will be affected because your
admission is based on the score you attain and the
order in which you rank your school preferences. The
school choices indicated on your answer sheet are final.
Therefore, carefully copy the order in which you ranked
the schools on your admission ticket onto Grid 5.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET

UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
TURN YOUR BOOKLET OVER TO THE BACK COVER
30
General Directions, continued

Planning Your Time
Grid 9 is labeled STUDENT ID NUMBER. All SHSAT

test-takers should write their student ID number in Grid
9. The student ID number is found on your Test Ticket.
In the boxes, print your nine-digit student ID number.
Below each box, fill in the circle containing the same
number as in the box.
You have 150 minutes to complete the entire test.

How you allot the time between the Verbal and
Mathematics sections is up to you. If you begin
with the Verbal section, you may go on to the
Mathematics section as soon as you are ready.
Likewise, if you begin with the Mathematics
section, you may go on to the Verbal section as
soon as you are ready. It is recommended that you do
not spend more than 75 minutes on either section. If you
complete the test before the allotted time (150 minutes) is
over, you may go back to review questions in
either section.
Now review Side 1 to make sure you have completed all

lines and grids correctly. Review each column to see that
the filled-in circles correspond to the letters or numbers
in the boxes above them.
Turn your answer sheet to Side 2. Print your test booklet
letter and numbers, and your name, first name first, in
the spaces provided.
Work as rapidly as you can without making mistakes.

Dont spend too much time on a difficult question. Return
to it later if you have time.
Marking Your Answers

Be sure to mark all your answers in the row of answer
circles corresponding to the question number printed
in the test booklet. Use a Number 2 pencil. If you
change an answer, be sure to erase it completely. You
may write in your test booklet to solve verbal or
mathematics problems, but your answers must
be recorded on the answer sheet in order to be
counted. Be careful to avoid making any stray pencil
marks on your answer sheet.
Students must remain for the entire test session.

Example 1
DIRECTIONS: Solve the problem. Find the best answer
among the answer choices given.
E1. If four ice cream cones cost $2.00, how much will
three ice cream cones cost?
Each question has only one correct answer. If you

mark more than one circle in any answer row, that
question will be scored as incorrect. Select the best
answer for each question. Your score is determined by
the number of questions you answered correctly. It is
to your advantage to answer every question, even
though you may not be certain which choice is
correct. See the example of correct and
incorrect answer marks below
SAMPLE ANSWER MARKS

1
RIGHT
WRONG
WRONG
WRONG
WRONG
A. $0.50

B. $1.00

C. $1.25

D. $1.50

E. $1.75
AA
EXAMPLE ANSWER
E1.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL

YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
Copyright 2015 NCS Pearson, Inc. All rights reserved. Printed in the U.S.A.
31
32
33
Sample Test, Form A

Part 1 Verbal
Suggested Time 75 Minutes
45 QUESTIONS
Scrambled Paragraphs
PARAGRAPHS 1-5
DIRECTIONS: In this section, arrange each group of sentences to create the best paragraph. The first
sentence for each paragraph is given; the remaining five sentences are listed in random order. Choose
the order for these five sentences that will create the best paragraph, one that is well-organized, logical,
and grammatically correct. Each correctly ordered paragraph is worth double the value of a question
in any other section of the test. No credit will be given for responses that are only partially correct.
To keep track of your sentence order, use the blanks to the left of the sentences. For example, write 2
next to the sentence you think follows the first sentence, write 3 next to the sentence you think follows
2, and so on. You may change these numbers if you decide on a different order. When you are satisfied
with your sentence order, mark your choices on your answer sheet.
Paragraph 1
Some traditional households in sub-Saharan Africa serve two meals a day, one at noon and the
other in the evening.
_______ Q. African food can be very spicy, and the starch cools the burning effect of the main dish.
_______ R. The starch serves another purpose as well.
_______ S. Diners then use the starch to scoop up a portion of the main dish.
_______ T.
A typical meal consists of a thick stew or soup as the main course, along with some
sort of starchbread, rice, or fufu, a starchy grain paste similar in consistency to
mashed potatoes.
_______ U. T
he main dish is usually served on individual plates, and the starch is served on a
communal plate, from which diners break off a piece of bread or scoop rice or fufu in
their fingers.
CONTINUE ON TO THE NEXT PAGE 1
FORM A
34
Paragraph 2

In most dictionaries, the first meaning listed for bluegrass refers to a bluish-green grass
frequently grown in Kentucky; the second meaning usually refers to a type of country music.
______ Q. You wont hear that style at any of the dozens of traditional bluegrass festivals held
each year across the United States.
______ R. Included among the non-amplified strings will be guitars, banjos, mandolins, and
fiddles, but never drums or accordions.
______ S. If, on the other hand, either the instruments or the music is non-traditional, the music
may be called newgrass.
______ T. The traditional rapid-fire bluegrass sound that was Monroes trademark is played on
non-amplified stringed instruments and features free improvisation.
______ U. The connection between those two meanings is a band called the Blue Grass Boys
named in honor of the state of Kentuckywhose leader, Bill Monroe, effectively
created this style of music.
Paragraph 3
Ancient people of the Mediterranean thought that volcanoes were caused by Vulcan, the
Roman blacksmith god.

______ Q. I n the same park, Mauna Loa, at 28,000 feet above the oceans floor, is the largest
active volcano in the world.
______ R. T
here are dozens of active and potentially active volcanoes within the United
States, including Kilauea, the most active volcano in the world.
______ S. Both of these are shield volcanoes, which means that they were formed as lava
flowed in all directions from a central vent to form low, gently sloping mountains.
______ T. Volcanoes, which were named for Vulcan, are vents in the crust of the earth from
which molten lava and ash erupt.
______ U. T
hat volcano, located in Hawaii Volcanoes National Park, has been spewing lava
since 1983.
FORM A
35
Paragraph 4

Macaws, a type of parrot found in South America, are among the largest and most beautiful birds
in the world.
______ Q. Scientists believe that the birds may eat the clay in order to counteract poisons
contained in some of these fruit seeds.
______ R. The birds do not appear to eat clay to satisfy hunger; they ingest it even when fruit
seeds, their favorite foods, are available.
______ S. Like many other parrot species, they are very intelligent as well, yet some of their
behaviors have baffled scientists.
______ T. This theory is supported by the fact that the birds eat more clay in the dry season,
when less-poisonous food is scarce.
______ U. For example, macaws regularly flock to riverbanks to eat the clay found in river mud.
Paragraph 5

The now-abandoned settlement of Nan Madol, located on a coral reef off the shore of the
Micronesian island of Pohnpei, was built over a thousand years, beginning around a.d. 500.
______ Q. The new building materialssome pieces were twenty feet long and weighed
nearly six tonswere transported to Pohnpei on rafts.
_______ R. T
he ancestors would build a great fire around a column, then pour cool seawater
on it, causing it to split along natural fracture lines.

______ S. Then they were placed in their present positions by means of hibiscus fiber ropes
and the inclined trunks of coconut palm trees.
______ T. The islanders say that their ancestors obtained the stone from quarries on a
nearby island, where large basalt columns were formed naturally by the cooling of
molten lava.
______ U. The structures of Nan Madol are remarkable for the sheer size of the stone logs
or columns used to create the retaining walls of the offshore community, and
anthropologists must rely on information provided by local people to learn how
Nan Madol was built.
FORM A
36
Logical Reasoning
QUESTIONS 11-20
DIRECTIONS: Read the information given and choose the best answer to each question. Base your
answer only on the information given.
In a logical reasoning test, certain words must be read with caution. For example, The red house is
between the yellow and blue houses does not necessarily mean The red house is between and next
to the yellow and blue houses; one or more other houses may separate the red house from the yellow
house or from the blue house. This precaution also applies to words such as above, below, before, after,
ahead of, and behind.
11. A star named Quil is the center of four orbiting planets, which are named Dorb, Needer,
Sly, and Tyne. Each planet travels in a separate orbit, and each orbit is a circle. All four
orbits lie in one plane. The farther a planet is
from Quil, the faster it travels.
12. If it is snowing, I cannot ride my bike. If it is

dark, I cannot ride my bike.

F. If I cannot ride my bike, then it must be

dark.
G. If I cannot ride my bike, then it must be
snowing.
H. I do not have a headlight on my bike.
J. If I ride my bike, then it is not dark or
snowing.
K. If it is snowing, then it must be dark.
1) Planet Needer is closest to Quil.

2) The orbit of planet Dorb is next to the orbit
of Sly.
3) The orbit of Sly is farthest from the orbit of
Needer.

Which planet travels fastest?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

the following must be true?
Needer
Dorb
Sly
Tyne
Cannot be determined from the
information given.
13. One prize was awarded each week in a threeweek contest. The prizes were a trip to Disney
World, a big-screen television, and a computer.
1) Luis, Michael, and Nadia each won a
different prize.
2) Michael did not win the computer.

Which of the following pieces of additional

information makes it possible to determine
who won each prize?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Michael won the free trip.

Luis won the television.
Luis won the computer.
Nadia won the computer.
Michael won the television.
FORM A
37
14. Five students used the telephone in the gym

office at separate times on Wednesday.

information.
1) Steve used it earlier than Raymond.

2) Elise used it earlier than Raymond,
but later than Ahmed.
3) Tiffany used it last.

Who used the telephone first?
L
S
Q
M T
means
Sherbet is cold and sweet.
F. Steve
G. Elise
H. Ahmed
J. Either Elise or Ahmed, but it is not
possible to determine which one.
K. Either Ahmed or Steve, but it is not
possible to determine which one.
T
Chili
1) Silver entered before Rainbow.

2) Ebony entered before Rainbow, but after
Ace.
3) Thunder entered before Silver, but after
Ebony.
V
N
R
means
spicy and hot.
Q
X
Lemonade is
W
T
L
means
cold and tart.
T
M
V
means
chocolate is sweet.
17. Which letter represents the word and?

A. T
B. L
C. M
D. Q
information given.
Which horse entered fourth?

A. Silver
B. Rainbow
C. Ebony
D. Thunder
information given.
18. Which word is represented by the letter V?

F. chili
G. spicy
H. hot
J. sweet
information given.
16. When Soon Bae listens to music, she also

dances. Whenever she dances, she also sings.

Q
is
P
Hot
15. Five horses entered the stable, one at a time.


represents the same word, (2) each word is
represented by only one letter, and (3) in any
given sentence, the letters may or may not be
presented in the same order as the words.

the following is a valid conclusion?
F. When Soon Bae sings, then she is dancing.
G. Soon Bae sings only when she is dancing.
H. When Soon Bae listens to music, then she
is also singing.
J. If Soon Bae is not listening to music, then
she is not dancing.
K. If Soon Bae is not dancing, then she is not
singing.
FORM A
38
19. In a cartoon, four trolls stood in a line. Their

names were Banto, Gretchen, Snowflake, and
Holly. One had green eyes, another had
purple ears, another had red teeth, and
another had white hair.
1) The troll with red teeth was directly in
front of Snowflake, who had white hair.
2) Banto, who did not have green eyes, was
behind Gretchen.
3) Gretchen had purple ears.
4) Snowflake was behind Holly.

If the troll with green eyes stood behind

Gretchen, then what was Gretchens position?
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth
information given.
20. Most people in the Skydiving Club are not

afraid of heights. Everyone in the Skydiving
Club makes three parachute jumps a month.


the following statements must be true?
F. Skydivers are less afraid of heights than
are non-skydivers.
G. A person must make three parachute
jumps a month in order to join the
Skydiving Club.
H. Some people who are afraid of heights
make three parachute jumps a month.
J. Most people who are not afraid of heights
are in the Skydiving Club.
K. Every skydiver makes at least one
parachute jump a month.
FORM A
39
Reading
QUESTIONS 21-50
DIRECTIONS: Read each passage below and answer the questions following it. Base your answers
on information contained only in the passage. You may reread a passage if you need to. Mark the
best answer for each question.
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If you have ever watched someone fall on

the ice, youve seen slipperiness at work.
But have you wondered what makes ice
slippery, or why skates or skis glide across
ice so easily? The answer might seem
obvious: ice is smooth. Yet smoothness in
itself does not explain slipperiness. Imagine,
for example, skating on a smooth surface of
glass or sheet metal.
Surprisingly, scientists do not fully understand why ice is slippery. Past explanations
of slipperiness have focused on friction and
pressure. According to the friction theory,
a skate blade rubs across the ice, causing
friction. The friction produces heat,
melting the ice and creating a slippery,
microscopically thin layer of water for the
skate to glide on. The friction theory,
however, cannot explain why ice is slippery
even when someone stands completely
motionless, creating no friction.
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The pressure theory claims that pressure

from a skate blade melts the ice surface,
creating a slippery layer of water. The
water refreezes when the pressure is lifted.
Science textbooks typically cite this
explanation, but many scientists disagree,
claiming that the pressure effect is not
great enough to melt the ice. Nor can the
pressure theory explain why someone wearing flat-bottomed shoeswhich have a
greater surface area than skate blades and
thus exert less pressure per square inch
can glide across the ice or even go
sprawling.
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During the 1990s, another theory found

acceptance: the thin top layer of ice is
liquid, or liquid-like, regardless of friction
FORM A
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or pressure. This notion was first proposed

more than 150 years ago by physicist
Michael Faraday. Faradays simple experiment illustrates this property: two ice cubes
held against each other will fuse together.
This happens, Faraday explained, because
liquid on the cubes surfaces froze solid
when the surfaces made contact.
Faradays hypothesis was overlooked, in
part because scientists did not have the
means to detect molecular structures.
However, technological advances during
recent decades allow scientists to measure
the thin layer on the surface of the ice. For
example, in 1996, a chemist at Lawrence
Berkeley Laboratory shot electrons at an
ice surface and recorded how they
rebounded. The data suggested that the ice
surface remained liquid-like, even at temperatures far below freezing. Scientists
speculate that water molecules on the ice
surface are always in motion because there
is nothing above them to hold them in
place. The vibration creates a slippery
layer of molecules. According to this interpretation of the Lawrence Berkeley
Laboratory experiments, the molecules
move only up and down; if they also moved
side to side, they would constitute a true
liquid. Thus it could be said that people are
skating on wildly vibrating molecules!
The phenomenon of a slippery liquid-like
surface is not limited to ice, although ice is
the most common example. Lead crystals
and even diamond crystals, made of carbon,
also show this property under certain temperature and pressure conditions.
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CONTINUE ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

passage is about?
25. According to researchers at the Lawrence

Berkeley Laboratory, why is the surface of
ice liquid-like rather than liquid?
A. theories about how people learn to skate

B. how ice changes from a solid to a liquid
C. answers to the question of what makes ice
slippery
D. the discoveries of Michael Faraday
E. the processes of freezing and melting
A. because electrons rebound from the ice

surface
B. because the molecules vibrate only up
and down
C. because the ice surface is wet
D. because the ice surface is slipperier than
a liquid surface
E. because the ice surface is frozen solid
22. What is the most likely reason that the author

mentioned lead and diamond crystals in the
last paragraph?
26. According to the passage, which of the

following undermines the friction theory
of slipperiness?
F. to point out that solids other than ice have

slippery surfaces
G. to suggest that ice, lead, and diamonds are
composed of the same materials
H. to cast doubt on Faradays theory of
slipperiness
J. to suggest that scientists shoot electrons
at lead and diamond surfaces
K. to suggest new uses for slippery
substances
F. a person wearing flat-bottomed shoes

gliding across the ice
G. two ice cubes fused together
H. electrons bouncing off an ice surface
J. a person trying to skate on a sheet of glass
or sheet metal
K. a person slipping while standing immobile
on ice
23. According to Faraday, why do two ice cubes

fuse when held together?
A. Friction causes the ice to melt and
refreeze.
B. The warmer ice cube melts the colder ice
cube.
C. The liquid layers on their surfaces freeze.
D. The vibrations of the molecules on their
surfaces increase.
E. Their surface areas are perfectly smooth.
24. What is the most likely reason that the author

mentioned the 1996 experiment at Lawrence
Berkeley Laboratory?
F. to provide evidence about the surface
of ice
G. to illustrate the weaknesses of scientific
technology
H. to show how Faraday tested his theory
J. to suggest that the ice surface was solid,
not liquid
K. to explain why ice cubes freeze together
FORM A
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When you eat an orange, your perception

of its flavor comes from the combination
of its aroma and its taste. Taste buds, the
sensory receptors on the tongue, convey
information to the brain about chemicals in
food while the food dissolves in saliva. The
sense of smell comes into play when the
olfactory nerve in the nasal passages senses
even very low concentrations of food chemicals in gaseous form. The sense of smell has
a larger role in tasting flavors than most
people realizethat is, until they have a
stuffy nose and nothing tastes good.
If taste and smell depend on our detection of
food chemicals, one might expect that chemists would be able to duplicate the flavors
of foods. In fact, a surprising number of
popular food flavors can now be reproduced
in the laboratory, and even more are on the
way. Orange, perhaps the most popular
flavor worldwide, has been reproduced successfully. So have some national favorites,
including cashew (Latin America), paprika
(Hungary), and fruit-flavored Jamaica
(Mexico). Synthetic flavors are not limited
to flavoring food; they are also added to
mouthwashes, toothpaste, beverages, and
other consumer products.
Only a small proportion of the chemical
components occurring naturally in foods
actually contribute to their flavor. To identify these critical components, scientists
use a gas chromatograph to separate a food
into its basic chemical constituents. Flavor
experts, called flavorists, then attempt to
isolate those chemicals that are essential to
the distinctive flavor of a food. Mechanical
techniques have been developed to capture
the aromas of food as it is being prepared
such as bread while it bakesand distill the
essential chemicals from these essences. If
successful, flavorists use their highly developed senses of taste and smell to attempt
to produce acceptable flavorings that are
chemically identical to, but purer than,
flavors that are naturally present in unprocessed food.
FORM A
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Although American consumers claim to

want natural flavors in their food, taste
tests demonstrate that they often prefer
their synthetically produced counterparts.
Artificial flavors tend to be stronger and less
subtle than natural flavors. For example,
many Americans prefer a soft drink created
with artificial flavors, such as orange soda,
over an all-natural soda flavored with
real oranges, which may taste weak in comparison. In fact, some flavorists worry that
consumers will develop such a strong taste
for artificial flavors that natural flavorings,
usually more expensive than their artificial
counterparts, will become scarce.
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Researchers have not always been successful

in their efforts to duplicate natural flavors.
Some popular flavors, such as coffee, strawberry, and chocolate, have proven virtually
impossible to reproduce. The difficulty in
creating a flavor like chocolate, experts say,
is its complexitya mysterious combination
of sweet and bitter that excites the taste
buds in an unusual and satisfying way.
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passage is about?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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how the sense of smell affects taste

the science of how taste buds work
the analysis and creation of flavors
why some flavors cannot be reproduced
the search for the perfect aroma
28. What is the principal goal of the scientific

research described in the third paragraph?
F. to predict consumer taste preferences
G. to develop artificial foods with strong
flavors
H. to monitor the use of artificial food
additives
J. to produce synthetic equivalents to
natural food flavors
K. to invent entirely new flavors
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29. Which of the following is the most likely

reason that no good synthetic strawberry
flavoring exists?
32. According to the passage, some flavorists are

concerned by the fact that
F. artificial flavors are more expensive to
produce than natural flavors.
G. artificial flavors are not as healthy as
natural flavors.
H. many people prefer bland food to tasty
food.
J. every natural flavor has been duplicated.
K. people may come to strongly prefer artificial flavors over natural flavors.
A. People prefer the taste of oranges to

strawberries.
B. The taste of strawberries is more complicated than most other flavors.
C. The gas chromatograph has not yet been
used to analyze strawberries.
D. Most people prefer artificial strawberry
flavor to a natural flavor.
E. Fruit flavors cannot be duplicated
successfully.
30. Which of the following can be concluded about
collecting aromas during food preparation?
F. The flavors of odorless foods can now be
duplicated.
G. Artificial flavors do not make food taste
better.
H. Certain chemical components of a foods
flavor are present in its odor.
J. Uncooked food is more flavorful than
cooked food.
K. The flavor of a food is always improved by
cooking it.
31. What is the most likely reason that the

author mentioned orange soda in the fourth
paragraph?
A. to give an example of a well-liked flavor
that has no natural counterpart
B. to explain why artificial orange flavor has
not yet been produced
C. to describe how the aroma of oranges can
be used to help reproduce its flavor
D. to demonstrate that consumers sometimes
prefer flavor substitutes to the natural
flavors they mimic
E. to give an example of a flavor you cannot
taste without the sense of smell
FORM A
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Mary Cassatt defied tradition, family, and

public opinion to become one of the most
celebrated artists of the United States.
Born in 1845, the daughter of a wealthy
Pittsburgh banker, Cassatt spent several
years of her childhood with her family in
Europe. As she grew older, she gave up a
life of ease to choose a path that at the time
was almost impossible for a woman to
follow. In 1861, while many of her friends
were entering the social world of the upper
classes, Cassatt was beginning her studies
at the Pennsylvania Academy of Fine Arts.
After four years, however, she felt stifled by
the rigid curriculum. Against her fathers
wishes, she decided to return to Europe to
study painting.
Cassatt spent several years, mainly in
France and Italy, immersing herself in the
works of great European painters of the
past. Finally, in 1872, she settled in Paris
permanently. There, Cassatt came to admire
the work of the French Impressionists, a
group of outsiders that included Degas,
Monet, and Renoir. Unlike mainstream
artists who produced the dark, polished,
and detailed paintings favored by traditionalists and critics, these artistic revolutionaries
applied pigment to the canvas in small dabs
of pure color to achieve an illusion of light.
Works painted in this manner presented not
photograph-like detail but a softer focus that
conveyed a highly personalized impression.
This new movement inspired Cassatt.
Discarding the traditional European style,
she adopted the luminous tones of the
impressionists. Particularly interested in
the human figure, Cassatt began creating
pastels of groups of womenon outings in
the park, having tea, and so forth. In 1879,
Edgar Degas invited her to exhibit with the
impressionists, and her paintings were
included in four of their next five shows.
Cassatt and Degas admired each others
work and a loyal friendship developed. It
was Degas who first suggested the motherchild theme that became the hallmark of
Cassatts later work.
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Throughout her years in Europe, Cassatt

kept in touch with her wealthy friends in
the United States, introducing them to
impressionist art. Many of the excellent
collections of impressionist paintings in this
country are to a great extent the result of
her influence. As a woman and as an
American, Cassatt stood virtually alone
among the impressionist painters. Since
her death in 1926, the work of the
Impressionist from Pennsylvania has
been avidly sought by collectors.
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passage is about?
A. the barriers faced by women artists
B. the mother-child theme in Cassatts work
C. why Cassatt is considered an early
feminist
D. Cassatts development as an artist
E. a brief history of impressionism
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34. Why did Cassatt leave the Pennsylvania

Academy of Fine Arts?
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F. Her father wanted her to study in Europe.

G. She felt the program there limited her
creativity.
H. She did not want to enter Pittsburgh
society.
J. She wanted to study with the French
Impressionists.
K. She wished to rejoin her family.
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35. What prompted Cassatt to begin using the

mother-child theme in her work?
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A. It was an appropriate subject for a beginning artist.

B. It was a favorite theme of great European
painters of past centuries.
C. It was suggested to her by another artist.
D. It was a common theme in the late nineteenth century.
E. It was favored by the critics.
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FORM A
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36. Which of the following best describes Cassatt

as a young woman, before 1865?
F. interested in fashion and social standing
G. an independent thinker
H. friend to many French Impressionists
J. a painter in the impressionist style
K. a successful artist in her own right
37. How was Cassatt unusual among impressionist painters?
A. Her painting style created the illusion of
light.
B. She was befriended by Degas.
C. She managed to remain in the artistic
mainstream of her day.
D. Her paintings have gained in value and
popularity.
E. She was an American woman.
38. In what way does the writer suggest that
Cassatt influenced art collections in the
United States?
F. She was an avid art collector in her own
right.
G. She preferred to paint pastels of women
and children.
H. She showed impressionist art to her
wealthy American friends.
J. She settled in Paris permanently.
K. She exhibited regularly with the
impressionists.
FORM A
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10
The African country of Zimbabwe took its

name from the Shona word meaning stone
enclosures or venerated houses. In fact,
dozens of stone ruins are today scattered
throughout Zimbabwe and other areas in
southeastern Africa. One of these ruins,
known as Great Zimbabwe, was once a
fabled city that inspired tales that
circulated throughout Europe. Where was
this remarkable city, and who had built it?
For centuries the mystery occupied the
minds of explorers and treasure-seekers.
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The first reports to Europeans of Great

Zimbabwe were spread a thousand years
ago by Arab traders sailing between the
Middle East and the east coast of Africa.
They told of the fabulous wealth of a
mysterious stone city in the African interior.
In their tales, that city became associated
with their understanding of Middle Eastern
historywith the Queen of Sheba, King
Solomon, and his legendary gold mines,
long since lost to the world. By the
sixteenth century, Portuguese explorers
regularly visited East Africa, searching for
King Solomons gold, but they never found
Great Zimbabwe. In 1552, a Portuguese
historian, Joo de Barros, recorded a story
told by the Arabs about a city with a
square fortress of masonry within and
without, built of stones of marvelous size,
and there appears to be no mortar joining
them.
In fact, Great Zimbabwe was a marvel. In
one area, a massive wall, over thirty feet
high and twenty feet thick, created a great
enclosure. Another area contained a
fortress-like series of walls, corridors, and
steps built into the bluff above. Throughout
the city, each stone was precisely fitted to
the others without the use of mortar.
In the 1870s, a German geologist, Karl
Mauch, was the first European to see Great
Zimbabwe, by then in ruins. Mauch
realized that he had rediscovered the
fabled city from de Barross story. He
jumped to the conclusion that Great
Zimbabwe had been built by the Queen of
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Sheba. British authorities sent a British

journalist, Richard Hall, to Great Zimbabwe
to investigate Mauchs report. Archaeology
was still in its infancy, and Hall, convinced
that the structures had been built by
ancient people from the Middle East, dug up
and discarded archaeological deposits that
would have revealed much about the true
history of Great Zimbabwe. Later European
excavations destroyed even more valuable
evidence.
In the twentieth century, after excavating
areas that had not been disturbed, David
Randall-MacIver, a Scottish Egyptologist,
and Gertrude Caton-Thompson, an English
archaeologist, concluded that the ruins were
unmistakably African in origin. Great
Zimbabwe was most likely built during the
fourteenth or fifteenth century by the
ancestors of the present-day Shona people.
Recent carbon-14 dating supports their
conclusion. Great Zimbabwe was once home
to an estimated 20,000 people, the center of
a great Shona kingdom. Wealthy Shona
kings traded their ivory and gold in coastal
towns for other goods, thus accounting for
the discovery of beads and other foreign
wares in the ruins.
One mystery of Great Zimbabwe had been
solved. Another mystery remains: why was
the settlement at Great Zimbabwe
abandoned, leaving the magnificent stone
architecture to fall into ruins?
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passage is about?
A. a brief history of the nation of Zimbabwe
B. inaccuracies in the recording of African
history
C. a comparison of Great Zimbabwe with
other African archaeological sites
D. the true story of the Great Zimbabwe ruins
E. how Karl Mauch discovered Great
Zimbabwe
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FORM A
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40. With which of the following statements

about Richard Halls opinion regarding Great
Zimbabwe would the author most likely agree?
44. Which of the following best describes the

relationship of Portuguese explorers to Great
Zimbabwe?
F. First impressions are generally accurate.

G. Preconceptions can cloud a persons
judgment.
H. The history of a people can best be judged
by looking at its present culture.
J. Advanced cultures developed first in the
Middle East, then spread to the rest of the
world.
K. Much of Middle Eastern culture was
derived from the culture of the Shona
people.
F. They searched for it but never found it.

G. They told Arab traders where to find it.
H.
They found King Solomons mines but
didnt realize it.
J. They destroyed archaeological evidence
about its history.
K. They were responsible for its
abandonment.

41. What was one mystery of Great Zimbabwe

(line 77) that had been solved?
A. why foreign wares were found in the ruins

B. why the settlement was abandoned
C. the source of the ivory and gold
D. why it was not discovered by Europeans
until the 1870s
E. who had built it and when
42. Which of the following statements about the
Shona people is best supported by the
passage?
F. They no longer exist as a distinct group.
G. They live along Africas East Coast.
H. They are descendents of the people who
built Great Zimbabwe.
J. They lived in the Middle East before
settling in Africa.
K. They were once ruled by King Solomon
and the Queen of Sheba.
43. Which of the following best illustrates the
statement that Archaeology was still in its
infancy (lines 51-52)?
A. the stone buildings built without mortar
B. the abandonment of Great Zimbabwe
C. the conclusions of David Randall-MacIver
and Gertrude Caton-Thompson
D. the discovery of beads and other foreign
materials at Great Zimbabwe
E. the excavations conducted by Richard Hall
FORM A
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Anyone who has watched TV news coverage

of a hurricane has seen how destructive
wind energy can be. But the power of the
wind can also be put to constructive use.
From sailboats to old-fashioned windmills
to the high-tech, modern wind machines
called turbines, people have devised ways to
harness wind energy for thousands of years.
The first known attempt to use wind power
was the sailboat. Ancient shipbuilders
understood how to use forces like lift and
momentum, even if they could not explain
those forces scientifically. The principles
behind sailing led to the development of
the windmill. The first known windmills
originated in Persia, an area that is now
Iran, as early as a.d. 500. They were created
to help with the demanding chores of grinding grain and pumping water. By the tenth
century, windmills were used throughout
central Asia; they were used in China as
early as the thirteenth century.
In Europe, windmills came into widespread
use during the twelfth century. As in other
parts of the world, they were used for
milling grain and pumping water. Windmills
replaced the water wheel, which was turned
by the movement of running water over
paddles mounted around a wheel. The
windmill was more adaptable and efficient
than the water wheel and quickly became
popular. For example, Holland, famous
for its windmills, used the machines to
pump seawater away from low-lying coastal
bogs. This allowed the Dutch to reclaim
large areas of land from the sea. Windmills
eventually became sophisticated enough for
use in a broad range of work, from sawmills
and drainage pumping to processing goods
such as dyes, tobacco, cocoa, and spices.
In the 1700s, as steam engines gained in
popularity, the use of wind machines for
many types of work declined. However,
windmills still played an essential role in
pumping water on farms throughout the
American West and Midwest. Between 1850
and 1970, over six million small windmills
were installed on American farms for water-
50
ing livestock and meeting other water needs.

In many remote areas even today, livestock
production would be impossible without the
use of windmills to provide water.
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Beginning in the late nineteenth century,

windmills were adapted to generate
electricity. During the 1930s and 40s,
thin-bladed windmills provided electricity
for hundreds of thousands of farms across
the United States. By the 1950s, however,
power lines connected almost every household in America to a central power source,
such as a utility company. After that, there
was little need for wind turbines until the
energy crisis of the 1970s. At that time,
interest in wind turbines was renewed due
to rising energy costs and concern about
the future availability of fossil fuels such as
oil, coal, and natural gas. The last several
decades have seen the development of
wind farms, clusters of wind turbines that
generate electricity. Efficient, clean, and
fairly inexpensive to operate, wind farms
may prove to be as important in the future
as earlier windmills were in the past.
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passage is about?
P05-023B
30
A. the destructive power of wind energy

B. the ways people have harnessed wind
power throughout history

C. reasons for developing wind farms to
generate electricity

D. how windmills are used in the United
States

E. the use of the windmill in the present day

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46. Where were the first known windmills built?
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F. Persia
G. North America
H. Europe
J. China
K. Holland
P05-024A
45

FORM A
48
47. W
hich of the following best expresses the
authors opinion regarding the future use of
wind energy?
P05-029D

50. A
ccording to the passage, how did windmills
aid the growth of the country of Holland?

A. Wind farms will someday be the only

source of electricity in the United States.
B. Wind farms will not be successful in providing large amounts of electricity.
C. Wind farming will eventually be replaced
by new energy sources.
D. Wind farms will become an important
source of electricity in the United States.
E. Wind farming will become more expensive
as more consumers switch to using it.
F. Windmills helped Dutch shipbuilders use

the forces of lift and momentum.
G. By pumping seawater out, the Dutch
turned bogs into usable land.
H. Windmills made the country of Holland
famous.
J. By pumping seawater, the Dutch flooded
coastal bogs in order to improve ship
travel.
K. In Holland, windmills led to the use of
water wheels.
P05-027B
48. The adaptation of old-fashioned waterpumping windmills into wind turbines that
generate electricity illustrates
P05-030E

F. that modern technology is no improvement

over ancient technology.
G. the inability of people to generate a better
idea.
H. how wind power has helped to reclaim land
from the sea.
J. that water cannot be used to generate
electricity.
K. the ability of people to think creatively.
49. W
hy were fewer American farms dependent on
windmills for electrical power after the 1950s?

A. Windmills were not used for any purpose

after that time.
B. The energy crisis had prompted interest
in other fuel sources.
C. The energy crisis had stopped the development of wind turbines.
D. A centralized power system had connected
almost all American homes.
E. Wind farms had replaced the need for
individual windmills.
P05-025D
FORM A
49
Part 2 Mathematics
50 QUESTIONS
General Instructions
Solve each problem. Select the best answer from the choices given. Mark the letter of your answer on the
answer sheet. You can do your figuring in the test booklet or on paper provided by the proctor. DO NOT
MAKE ANY MARKS ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET OTHER THAN FILLING IN YOUR ANSWER
CHOICES.
IMPORTANT NOTES:

(1) Formulas and definitions of mathematical terms and symbols are not provided.

(2) Diagrams other than graphs are not necessarily drawn to scale. Do not assume any relationship

in a diagram unless it is specifically stated or can be figured out from the information given.

(3) Assume that a diagram is in one plane unless the problem specifically states that it is not.

(4) Graphs are drawn to scale. Unless stated otherwise, you can assume relationships according to
appearance. For example, (on a graph) lines that appear to be parallel can be assumed to be
parallel; likewise for concurrent lines, straight lines, collinear points, right angles, etc.

51.
(5) Reduce all fractions to lowest terms.
100(2 0.1)2 100
54. 3.9941.55
A. 101
B. 141
C. 200
D. 301
E. 341
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
3
4
52. If __
of P is 48, what is __of P?
5
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.

53.

12
15
20
36
60
55.
R
4
How many units is it from the midpoint of

P
Q
to the midpoint of Q
R
?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18
E. 10
a52 and a 5 8, what is the value

If __
b
of 3b1a2?
A. 28
B. 70
C. 76
D. 88
E. 112
FORM A
0.266
0.267
2.0
2.66
2.67 M89-468C
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M89-0658D
56.
60.
Jack scored a mean of 15 points per game in

his first 3 basketball games. In his 4th game,
he scored 27 points. What was Jacks mean
score for the 4 games?
HOW PEOPLE GET TO

WORK IN CENTER CITY
Bicycle 4%
F. 15
G. 16
H. 17
J. 18
K. 21
Walk 22%
Car Pool
15%
Bus
10%
Drive Alone 49%
57.
102
If 0.00102 ____
,what is the value of N?
N
A.
10,000
B.
100,000
C. 1,000,000
D. 100,000,000
E. 1,000,000,000
58.
Total number of people

working in Center City = 15,000
How many more people in Center City walk

to work than ride their bicycles to work?
F. 18
G. 22
H. 2,700
J. 2,800
K. 3,000
Judy is n years older than Carmen and twice

as old as Frances. If Frances is 15, how old is
Carmen?
F. 30
G. 15n
H. 152n
J. 15n
K. 30n
59.

M99-132A
61.
y
R
(c, d)
Using the conversions above, how many dalts

are equivalent to 1 rick?
T
V
(a, b)
1 sind 5.6 ricks

1 sind 12.88 dalts
The figure above is drawn to scale. Which

point best shows the location of (c 1a, d 1b)?
A. 0.43 dalts
B. 2.3 dalts
C. 7.28 dalts
D. 18.48 dalts
E. 72.128 dalts
A. R
B. S
C. T
D. V
E. W
62.
On a scale drawing, a distance of 1 foot is

represented by a segment 0.25 inch in length.
How long must a segment on the scale
drawing be to represent a 36-inch distance?
F. 220.25 in.
G. 220.75 in.
H.
223 in.
J.
229 in.
K.
144 in.
FORM A
51
63.
A. 147
B. 245
C. 441
D. 735
E. 1,225
64.
68.
What is the greatest common factor of 2,205

and 3,675?

F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
The set P consists of all prime numbers

greater than 6 and less than 36. What is
the median of the numbers in P?
F. 17
G. 17.75
H. 18
J. 18.75
K. 19
65.
67.
M84-069
Point Q is to be placed on the number line

one-third of the way from point R to point P.
What number
___ will be at the midpoint of
segment PQ

?
Ms. Grants car gets between 20 and 22 miles

per gallon, inclusive. The gasoline she uses
costs between $4.20 and $4.50 per gallon,
inclusive. What is the greatest amount
Ms. Grant will spend on gasoline to drive her
car 200 miles?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
21
D.
22
E.
70.
A group of mountain climbers started the day

at an elevation of 125 feet below sea level. At
the end of the day, they camped at 5,348 feet
above sea level. What was the climbers
elevation gain for the day?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
6
7
8
10
27
69.
A. $37.27
B. $40.90
C. $42.00
D. $45.00
E. $99.00
66.
There are 45 eighth graders and 20 seventh

graders in a school club. The president of this
club wants 40% of the clubs members to be
seventh graders. How many more seventh
graders must join the club in order to meet the
presidents wishes? (Assume that the number
of eighth graders remains the same.)

How many different two-digit numbers can be

formed from the digits 7, 8, 9 if the numbers
must be even and no digit can be repeated?
F. 0
G. 1
H. 2
J. 3
K. 6
5,223 ft
5,373 ft
5,377 ft
5,463 ft
5,473 ft
71.
0.21
What is the solution to _____
_____
x
?
0.33
1.10
A. 0.07
B. 0.67
C. 0.70
D. 6.70
E. 7.00
5
20
and
?
How many integers are between
2
3
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 10
E. 15
FORM A
52
72.
75.
L
120
75
120
Q
P
3gal.
A. ___
65
3mgal.
B. ____
65
J
N
In the figure above, w

JK
ww
L, w
MK
ww
N, w
Nw
PQ
w, and
w
Lw
Pw
R are straight line segments. What is
the value of x?
C. 3m gal.
65gal.
D. ___
3
65m
E. _____
gal.
3
F. 25
G. 45
H. 50
J. 60
K. 75
73.
76.

A roofing contractor uses shingles at a rate

of 3 bundles for each 96 square feet of roof
covered. At this rate, how many bundles will
he need to cover a roof that is 416 square feet?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14
E. 15
74.
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
FORM A
8:54 a.m.
9:12 a.m.
9:24 a.m.
10:24 a.m.
11:18 a.m.
Light A flashes every 12 minutes, and light B

flashes every 18 minutes. The two lights flash
at the same time at 8:00 a.m. At how many of
the times listed above will they again both
flash at the same time?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
1
2
3
4
5
Figure WXYZ above is composed of 6 congruent

rectangular panels. The area of figure WXYZ
is 54 square centimeters. What is the
perimeter of figure WXYZ in centimeters?

Three gallons of gasoline are needed to drive

65 miles. At this rate, how many gallons are
needed to drive m miles?
24 cm
30 cm
36 cm
45 cm
50 cm
53
77.
Regular Price. . . . . . . . . . $2.49
79.
Discount . . . . . . . . . . . . $0.60
Sale Price. . . . . . . . . . . . . $1.89
6% Tax. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . $0.15
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Total. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . $2.04
Nikolai bought a packet of pens. His receipt

is shown above. Assume that sales tax is
rounded to the nearest cent. If the 6% sales
tax had been computed on the sale price
instead of on the regular price, how much
lower would the tax have been?
78.
80.
If Crystal multiplies her age by 3 and then

adds 2, she will get a number equal to her
mothers age. If m is her mothers age, what
is Crystals age in terms of m?
m
2
G. _______
3
H. 3m12
m2
J. ___
2
3
PEOPLE PER VEHICLE AT CHECKPOINT

Number of
People in the
Vehicle
Percent of
Vehicles
40%
35%
15%
7%
5 or more
3%
M11-087D
32 2
K. ___
m
81.
P
20
30
Points P and Q are points on the number line

above, which is divided into equal sections.
What is the value of PQ?
A researcher recorded the number of

people in each vehicle that passed through
a checkpoint. The table above shows the
percent distribution for the 420 vehicles that
passed the checkpoint yesterday morning.
How many of the 420 vehicles contained
at least 3 people?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 30
D. 35
E. 50
F. 42
G. 63
H. 105
J. 315
K. 378
FORM A
11:00 p.m.
14:00 a.m.
19:00 a.m.
17:00 p.m.
12:00 p.m.
F. __
2m
3
M07-074C
A. $0.01
B. $0.02
C. $0.03
D. $0.04
E. $0.36
Jack and Roberto were assigned to guard a

tower. Each was to watch for 5 hours, then
rest 5 hours while the other watched. If
Roberto began his first watch at 6:00 p.m.,
at what time will he begin his third watch?
54
M07-176
82.
86.
RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN ROW A AND ROW B
Row A 1
Row B 1
2
1
3
2
4
2
5
3
6
3
7
4
8
4
9 10 11
5 5 6
The table above shows two rows of integers,

Row A and Row B, and the relationship
between them. Assume each row continues in
the pattern shown. When the number 111
appears in Row A, what is the corresponding
number that will appear in Row B?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
83.
F. 1
G. 2
H. 3
J. 4
K. 5
55
56
57
59
66
87.
84.
1
B. 2__
hr
1
C. 3__
hr
4
M05-098B
3
D. 3__
hr
4
3
6
1
E. 7__
hr
C
4
88.

On the number line above, A is located at 8,

B is located at 3, and C is located at 7. D (not
shown) is the midpoint of A
wB
w, and E (not
shown) is the midpoint of B
wC
w. What is the
midpoint of D
wE
w?
89.
FORM A
A cylindrical oil drum can hold 4,320 liters

when it is completely full. Currently, the
A video game originally priced at $44.50 was

on sale for 10% off. Julian received a 20%
employee discount applied to the sale price.
How much did Julian pay for the video game?
(Assume that there is no tax.)

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In how many different ways can you make

exactly $0.75 using only nickels, dimes, and
quarters, if you must have at least one of each
coin?
F. 2
G. 4
H. 6
J. 7
K. 12
F. 1.5
G. 1.25
H. 1.75
J. 2.25
K. 7.5.
85.
Ryan must read 150 pages for school tomorrow.

It took him 30 minutes to read the first 20 of
the assigned pages. At this rate, how much
additional time will it take him to finish
the reading?
2
A. 1__
hr
A certain insect has a mass of 75 milligrams.

What is the insects mass in grams?
A. 0.075 g
B. 0.75 g
C.
7.5 g
D.
75 g
E. 7,500 g
A box contains 11 marbles7 red and

4 green. Five of these marbles are removed
at random. If the probability of drawing a
green marble is now 0.5, how many red
marbles were removed from the box?
drum is __
1full of oil. How many kiloliters(kL)
3
of oil need to be added to fill the drum

completely?
A. 1.44 kL
B. 2.88 kL
C. 4.32 kL
D. 14.40 kL
E. 28.80 kL
$31.15
$32.04
$35.60
$40.05
$43.61
55
M07-197B
90.
92.
6 ft
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
d
2 ft
2 ft
4 ft
Set R contains all integers from 10 to 125,

inclusive, and Set T contains all integers from
82 to 174, inclusive. How many integers are
included in R, but not in T?

The end of a tent has a trapezoidal crosssection as shown above. What is the depth (d)
of the tent if its volume is 216 cubic feet?
93.
23
48
49
71
72
If x can be any integer, what is the greatest

possible value of the expression 12x2?
A. 1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
E. Infinity
1
F. 4 __
ft
2
G. 6 ft
1
H. 6 __
ft
2
J. 7 ft
94.
A recent survey asked students what pets

they have. Based on the results, the following
statements are all true:
23 students have dogs.

20 students have cats.
3 students have both dogs and cats.
5 students have no cats or dogs.
How many students were surveyed?
K. 8 ft
91.
Ang has x dollars in his savings account,
and Julia has y dollars in her savings

1
account. Ang gives Julia __
of the money in
3
his savings account, which Julia deposits
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
into her savings account. Julia then spends

1
__
of the total in her savings account.
4
Express the amount of money Julia spent
40
42
45
46
51
in terms of x and y.
y
x
A. __+ ___
12
4
y
x
B. __+ __
y
x
C. __+ __
3y
x
D. ___+ __
3y
x
E. ___+ __

4
FORM A
56
95.
PRICES FOR AD SPACE

Space
98.
Price
radius of each tire on the car is one foot, how

many revolutions does one of these tires make
1
4
page
$200
1
2
page
$350
full page
$600
in a single minute? (Use the approximation

___
22for .)
7
F. 700
G. 1,925
H. 13,828
J. 15,400
K. 27,657
The table above shows prices for newspaper

advertising. A store purchased quarter pages,
half pages, and full pages of space in equal
numbers for a total of $11,500. What is the
total amount of page space the store
purchased?
99.
3
A. 1 __
pages
B. 10 pages
A.
1
C.
16 __
pages
2
B.
1
D.
17 __
pages
4
1
E.
17 __
pages
C.
A 90-gram mixture contains three items,

X, Y, and Z. The ratio of the weights of
X and Y is 4:9, and the ratio of the weights of
Y and Z is 9:5. If all of item Z were removed,
what would be the new weight of the mixture?
D.
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
97.
M04-199A
Which number line below shows the solution

x 2?
to the inequality 4 __
2
96.
A car travels at 4,400 feet per minute. If the
E.

60 g
65 g
70 g
72 g
75 g
10
10
10
10
10
10
10
10
10
10
100. Nam worked on a job for 10 days. On each of

the last 2 days, he worked 2 hours more than
the mean number of hours he worked per day
during the first 8 days. If he worked 69 hours
in all, how many hours did he work during the
last 2 days together?
(2p18)2(513p)5
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
A. 32p
B. p13
C. 5p23
D. 5p13
E. 5p113
8.5
10.5
13.0
15.0
17.0
THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST. IF TIME

REMAINS, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR ANSWERS TO
PART 2 AND PART 1. BE SURE THAT THERE ARE
NO STRAY MARKS, PARTIALLY FILLED ANSWER
CIRCLES, OR INCOMPLETE ERASURES ON YOUR
ANSWER SHEET.
FORM A
57
A
A
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL
FORM
EXPLANATIONS OF CORRECT ANSWERS
example of such behavior, eating clay in river mud. Why

do they eat mud? Not to satisfy their hunger, according
to R. Q follows with a theory to explain the behavior:
macaws ingest the clay to counteract toxins found in the
fruit seeds they have eaten. T provides further evidence
to support the theory.
Paragraph 1 (TUSRQ)
The daily meals mentioned in the opening sentence are
further described in Ta main course (a thick stew) and
a starch. U continues the distinction between the main
dish and the starch. The main dish is served on individual plates, while diners take the starch from a shared
plate. S explains what the diners do with the starch
they scoop up a portion of the main dish. R says that the
starch serves another purposeto cool the spicy taste of
the main dish. (Q).
Paragraph 5 (UTRQS)
The given sentence introduces the topic, how an abandoned settlement called Nan Madol was built. U follows
because it refers to the structures of Nan Madol and
comments on the size of its stone columns. U also mentions that the local people told anthropologists about the
construction of Nan Madol. The rest of the paragraph
describes how the columns were quarried and transported to the building site. The local people in U connects
to the islanders in T, which explains how the stone columns were formed. Next, R describes how the columns
were split from the surrounding rock. Q explains how
the columns were transported to the site, and S describes
the placement of the columns in their present positions.
Paragraph 2 (UTRSQ)
The two definitions of bluegrass given in the opening
sentence are connected by U, which introduces bluegrass
music and its founder, Bill Monroe. The description of
Monroes traditional bluegrass sound, including its
instruments, is in T. R mentions two instruments not in
a bluegrass band. A bluegrass band that does not perform traditional music on traditional instruments is
mentioned in Snewgrass music, a combination of the
words new and bluegrass. Newgrass is not heard at
traditional bluegrass festivals (Q).
LOGICAL REASONING
11. (C) Draw a diagram with four spaces beside Quil,
using the initials D, N, S, and T to represent the names
of the planets. Needer is closest to Quil (Statement 1),
so write N in the first space. The orbit of planet Sly is
farthest from the orbit of Needer (Statement 3), so write
S in the last space.
Paragraph 3 (TRUQS)
Either R or T could follow the given sentence. Try both
possibilities and compare the results. When R follows
the opening sentence, it continues the discussion of volcanoes, including Kilauea. U follows R with its reference
to that volcano, referring to Kilauea, and describes its
activity. U also names Hawaii Volcanoes National Park.
In the same park (in Q) logically follows that reference.
Q also mentions a second volcano, Mauna Loa. S must
follow Q because it refers to two volcanoes (Both of these
. . . ). The remaining sentence, T, ends the paragraph on
an awkward note. The definition of the paragraphs topic
(volcanoes) appears after, not before, further discussion of
the topic. RUQST is neither well-organized nor cohesive.
Quil
N
S
____
____ ____ ____
We can stop here. The question asks for the planet that
travels fastest, which is also the planet farthest from
Quil. That planet is Sly (Option C).
12. (J) The problem says that either of two circumstances, snow or darkness, will prevent me from riding
my bike. We do not know whether these are the only
two circumstances, because the information given does
not say so. Therefore, you can rule out Options F and G.
Option H is not mentioned, and K incorrectly combines
two pieces of information. J is correct. If I ride my bike,
then it is not snowing; otherwise I cannot ride my bike.
Nor is it dark; if it was, I cannot ride my bike.
For comparison, place T after the given sentence. Now,

the given sentence is followed with another reference to
Vulcan, and the definition of a volcano appears early in
the paragraph. The logic and flow of thought that formed
RUQS remain the same. TRUQS creates a well-organized,
cohesive paragraph, and it is the correct answer.
Paragraph 4 (SURQT)
The given sentence introduces macaws as large, beautiful birds. S is next, referring to an additional attribute
of macaws, their intelligence, and claiming that some
macaw behaviors are not well understood. U gives an
58
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL
FORM

13. (B) Draw a grid to illustrate who won each prize. An X
indicates that a person did not receive a prize. According
to Statement 2, Michael did not win the computer.

Trip
Television
16. (H) This question contains two conditional sentences.

You can put them together like this: When Soon Bae listens to music, she is also dancing and singing.
Computer
Luis
Michael
Nadia
The question asks which option makes it possible to

determine who won each prize, that is, to fill in the rest
of the grid. For each option, mark the information on the
grid. Are you able to determine who won each prize? If
not, erase the marks and evaluate the next option. For
example, mark the information for Option A, and fill in
Xs wherever you can.
Luis
Michael
Nadia
Trip
Television
Computer
17. (D) The word and appears in the first, second, and
third sentences of the code, but not in the fourth sentence.
The letter that represents and must also appear in the
first three sentences, but not in the fourth. The letter
T (Option A) appears in all four sentences, so it cannot
be correct. The letters L and M (Options B and C) each
appear in only two sentences, so they are also incorrect.
The letter Q appears in the first three sentences but not
the fourth. No other letters meet this requirement, so
Option D is correct.
We can't figure out who won the television set and the
computer, so option A cannot be correct. Only Option B
allows us to determine who won each prize.

Luis
Michael
Nadia
Trip
Television
Computer
Yes
Yes
Yes
18. (H) The letter V appears only in the second and

fourth sentences. Find the word that also appears
only in those sentences. Options F and G are incorrect
because chili and spicy appear in the second sentence,
but not the fourth. Option J, sweet, appears in the first
and fourth sentences, but not in the second sentence, so
it can be ruled out. Hot is the only word that appears
in both the second and fourth sentences, and it is the
correct answer.
14. (K) The first student cannot be Raymond, Elise, or

Tiffany, because each of these students used the phone
after someone else. The first caller must be either
Ahmed or Steve, but there is not enough information to
determine which one.
15. (A) Write BEFORE on the left side of your scrap
paper and "AFTER" on the right side. Using the initial
for each horses name, list what each statement says
about the order of the horses entering the stable. These
positions are relative to each other. (The problem does
not give any definite information about a horses exact
position.)
BEFORE
1.) SR
2.) AER
3.) ETS
Singing
17. and 18. Read the directions carefully. The letters

in a sentence may or may not appear in the same order
as the words in that sentence. For example, in the first
sentence, the first letter (L) may or may not represent the
first word (sherbet). Remember that you need not find out
what every letter represents in the code.
X
Yes
Dancing
The arrows indicate the direction of the condition. Notice

that the arrows point in only one direction, ruling out
Option F. Music might not be the only thing that causes
Soon Bae to dance and sing. Other factors, beside music,
might lead to dancing and singing. Thus Options G, J, and
K are not valid. The only valid conclusion is Option H.
Music
19. (A) This question requires you to match each troll

with a colorful characteristic, and put the trolls in order.
Start by matching the trolls and their characteristics.
Draw a grid like the one below. According to Statement
1, Snowflake has white hair. According to Statement 3,
Gretchen has purple ears. Statement 2 states that Banto
did not have green eyes, so Holly must have green eyes.
This leaves Banto with red teeth. Now every trolls characteristic is known.
AFTER
Now combine the information into one list: AETSR.

Thus, the fourth horse was Silver (Option A).
59
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL

Troll
Banto
Green
Eyes
no
Gretchen
Red
Teeth
yes
Option A is incorrect because Faradays explanation does

not include the concept of friction. Options B and D are
not supported by the passage. The smoothness explanation of slipperiness (Option E) was ruled out in the first
paragraph.
White
Hair
yes
Snowflake
Holly
Purple
Ears
FORM
yes
yes
24. (F) The experiment at Lawrence Berkeley Laboratory

is mentioned in lines 52-58. The data from this experiment suggested that the ice surface remained liquidlike, creating a slippery layer of molecules on the ice
surface. This conclusion is best summarized by Option
F. Option G is wrong because the experiment illustrated
the power, not the weaknesses, of scientific technology.
Option H is impossible: the experiment was conducted
long after Faradays lifetime. Option J contradicts the
scientists conclusion, and Option K refers to Faradays
experiment, not the Lawrence Berkeley Lab experiment.
Now, put the trolls in order. From Statements 1 and 2,

we conclude that Banto was in front of Snowflake and
behind Gretchen. The question says that Holly (green
eyes) was behind Gretchen. Thus, every troll is behind
Gretchen, and Gretchen is first (Option A).
20. (H) Read each option to determine whether it must
be true. Option F is ruled out because the question does
not mention non-sky-divers. The question does not state
the requirements for joining the Skydiving Club (Option
G), only for maintaining membership. Option H is correct; some people who are afraid of heights belong to the
Skydiving Club, and these people make three jumps a
month. There is no support for Option J, and Option K
applies to skydivers in general, not to members of the
Skydiving Club.
25. (B) The distinction between the two terms is made

in lines 65-68. The surface of ice is liquid-like because
the surface molecules move only up and down, which is
Option B. Option A describes the result of the experiment, not the ice surface itself. Option C can be ruled out
because wet and liquid are synonyms. Option D cannot
be evaluatedwe do not know from the passage which is
slipperier. Option E contradicts the passage, which says
that the molecules on the ice surface are in motion.
READING
Ice
26. (K) The friction theory of slipperiness is explained in

the second paragraph, which concluded that the theory
cannot explain why ice is slippery for someone who
stands motionless, creating no friction. Something that
a theory cannot explain can be said to weaken, or undermine, the theory. Option K, a person slipping while
standing immobile on ice, is the best answer. Option F
undermines the pressure theory, not the friction theory,
while Option J undermines the smoothness explanation. Options G and H neither support nor undermine
the friction theory.
21. (C) The passage begins by asking why ice is slippery

(lines 3-5) and reviews several theories of slipperiness:
smoothness, friction, pressure, and Faradays theory.
Option C, answers to the question of what makes ice
slippery, summarizes the theme of the passage. Option
A is not mentioned, and Options B, D, and E are details,
not the main idea.
22. (F) Read the entire last paragraph. The writer says,
a slippery liquid-like surface is not limited to ice, then
mentions lead and diamond crystals. The most likely
reason that the author mentions these crystals is to illustrate that solids other than ice have slippery surfaces,
which is Option F. Option G cannot be correct because
these crystals are not made of frozen water. The properties of lead and diamond crystals are not related to
Faradays theory, ruling out Option H. Options J and K
are not mentioned in the passage.
Flavors
27. (C) The answer to this question must be broad
enough to encompass the main points, but not overly
broad. Options A and B are too broadthe passage
mentions some scientific aspects of taste and smell, but
it concentrates on the development of synthetic flavors.
Option C successfully incorporates the main topicsthe
science of taste and smell, the duplication of many flavors, and the implications of synthetic flavors. Option D
is mentioned only in the last paragraph. Option E is not
mentioned at all.
23. (C) Faradays experiment is described in the fourth

paragraph. The liquid on the ice cubes surfaces froze
solid when the surfaces made contact (lines 45-46). This
information is restated in the correct answer, Option C.
60
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL
FORM
Cassatt
28. (J) The third paragraph describes a technique for

separating a food into its basic chemical constituents.
Option J best summarizes the goal of this research.
Options F, H, and K are not mentioned. Option G is
incorrect because the researchers are developing artificial flavors, not artificial foods.
33. (D) The correct answer must encompass the main

points without being overly broad. Options A and B are
details, not the main theme. Option E is too broad. The
passage focuses on only one impressionist painter, Mary
Cassatt. Option C looks attractive, and while Cassatt is
depicted as an independent and confident woman, which
might be considered traits of a feminist, that term is not
used in the passage and requires an inference that is not
supported by the passage. Option D is best. The phrase
development as an artist includes Cassatts background,
education, artistic style, subject matter, and influence on
the art world.
29. (B) Lines 65-67 state that some flavors, including

strawberry, are nearly impossible to duplicate. The
passage says that chocolate flavor cannot be duplicated
because of its complexity. It is reasonable to infer that
strawberry, like chocolate, is also more complex than
other natural flavors. Option B restates this inference.
Options A and D may be true, but they do not answer
the question. Option C is unlikely, given that the use of
a gas chromatograph to duplicate flavors seems to be a
standard procedure. Option E is contradicted by lines
20-22.
34. (G) The answer to this question is found directly in

the reading passage (lines 14-15). Stifled in this sense
means repressed or held back. Option G restates this
idea. Option F is not true, and Option H does not explain
why she left her studies. Cassatt had not yet decided to
study with French Impressionists (Option J), so that cannot be the reason. Option K is not mentioned.
30. (H) The collection of aromas during food preparation

is described in the third paragraph. For this kind of question, be sure to read every option to identify the one best
supported by the passage. Option F is ruled out; odorless
foods by definition do not have aromas. Options G and J
might or might not be true, but the information in the passage does not support them one way or the other. Option
K cannot be concluded from the process as it is described.
Option H is best. The odor of food as it is being prepared
can be captured to synthesize the foods flavor.
35. (C) The mother-child theme in Cassatts work is discussed in lines 45-48. It was first suggested by Edgar
Degas, a fellow artist, which is Option C. The other
options are not mentioned in the passage.
36. (G) The question asks for a description of Cassatt
before 1865. In 1865, she left the Pennsylvania Academy
of Fine Arts to study in Europe. Option F cannot be correct; she was never interested in fashion and social standing. Options H, J, and K are descriptive of dates much
later than 1865. Option G, an independent thinker, best
describes the young woman who left the social world of
the upper classes and returned to Europe against her
fathers wishes.
31. (D) Orange soda is mentioned in lines 54-58, following a statement that some American consumers prefer
synthetic flavors to natural flavors. Orange soda is mentioned as an example of this assertion, which is Option
D. Orange is a natural flavor, ruling out Option A, and it
has been successfully reproduced (lines 20-22), ruling out
Option B. Orange soda is mentioned to compare natural
and artificial flavors, not to describe how orange flavor
is reproduced, eliminating Option C. Option E does not
answer the question.
37. (E) This question requires you to read all of the

options and choose the best one. Option A was true of
all impressionists, not just Cassatt. The passage provides
no evidence that her friendship with Degas made her
unusual (Option B). Option C is not true; by joining the
impressionists (called outsiders in line 24), she left, not
remained in, the artistic mainstream of her day. Option D
is true of many artists, so it is not what made Cassatt
unusual. Option E is best. Lines 55-57 state, As a
woman and as an American, Cassatt stood virtually alone
among the impressionist painters. In other words, she
was unusual as a female American impressionist painter.
32. (K) Some flavorists are concerned (worry) that

natural flavorings will become scarce because many consumers prefer synthetic flavors (lines 58-62). Option K
expresses this concern. Artificial flavors are less expensive to produce than natural flavors (lines 60-62), contradicting Option F. Options G and H are not mentioned.
Option J is contradicted by lines 63-64.
61
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL

38. (H) Art collections in the United States are mentioned in the last paragraph. Cassatt introduced impressionist art from Europe to her wealthy American friends,
thus influencing many of them to buy it. Option H best
summarizes this idea. None of the other options explain
how Cassatt influenced art collections in the United
States.
FORM
42. (H) The Shona people are discussed in the fifth

paragraph. Since the question is open-ended, we must
evaluate each option to find the best answer. The Shona
people still exist as a distinct group (line 68), ruling out
Option F. Shona kings traded their goods in coastal
towns (lines 72-74), implying that they lived in the
African interior, not the coast, eliminating Option G.
Lines 65-68 state that Great Zimbabwe was most likely
built by ancestors of the present-day Shona people, which
supports Option H. Options J and K confuse the histories of the Shona people and ancient Middle Eastern
people. Option H is the best answer.
Great Zimbabwe
39. (D) You are asked to identify the general topic of the
passage. Options B and E refer to only parts of the passage. Option C is not mentioned at all. Option A is too
broad; most of the passage is about Great Zimbabwe, not
the nation of Zimbabwe. Option D, the true story of the
Great Zimbabwe ruins, is best.
43. (E) This statement implies that the field of archaeology was new and immature in the 1870s. The statement
is followed by descriptions of how early explorers, including Richard Hall, discarded valuable archaeological
material. Thus, the infancy of archaeology is illustrated
by Option E, the excavations conducted by Richard
Hall. Options A and B are events in Shona history, not
the history of archaeology, and Options C and D are references to more advanced stages of archaeology, not to
its infancy.
40. (G) The basis for the correct answer is found in several places in the passage. First, find the section that
mentions Richard Halls opinion. Lines 52-54 state that
Hall was convinced that the structures had been built
by ancient people from the Middle East. Later, Halls
opinion was discredited by archaeologists who demonstrated that Great Zimbabwe was African in origin (lines
64-65). In other words, Halls opinion was inaccurate.
All five options must be evaluated to find the option with
which the passages author would most likely agree.
Option F is not correct: Halls first impression was inaccurate. The author would not agree with Option H: the
present culture of the Shona people is not illustrative
of their past. The author does not take any stand on
whether advanced cultures developed first in the Middle
East, ruling out Option J, nor does the author claim that
Middle Eastern culture was derived from Shona culture
(Option K). The best answer is Option G. A preconception is an opinion formed in advance of actual knowledge,
which perfectly describes Halls belief. Halls preconception had clouded his judgment.
44. (F) Each option should be evaluated in turn. Option

F is correct; the Portuguese searched for Great Zimbabwe
but never found it (lines 26-27). It is a good idea to read
the remaining options to be sure that none of them is
better than Option F. Options G, H, and K are incorrect
because the Portuguese never found Great Zimbabwe or
King Solomons mines. The destruction of archaeological
evidence was committed by subsequent explorers, not the
Portuguese, which rules out Option J. Option F is the
best answer.
Wind Energy
45. (B) Option A is mentioned only in the first paragraph, and it is not the main theme. Option B best summarizes the passage: it describes how wind energy has
been used, from ancient sailboats to medieval windmills
to modern turbines. Option C is a detail. Options D and
E are important points, but neither is the main theme.
41. (E) Read the entire last paragraph, which implies

that discussion of one mystery of Great Zimbabwe has
just been concluded, and the author is making a transition to another mystery. The previous paragraph showed
that Great Zimbabwe was built by ancestors of the Shona
people, not by people from the Middle East. Thus, the
mystery that had been solved was who had built Great
Zimbabwe and when (Option E). Option A is incorrect
because the mystery comprised much more than the
foreign wares discovered in the ruins. Option B, why
the settlement was abandoned, has not been solved. The
source of gold and ivory (Option C) and the reason that
Europeans did not discover Great Zimbabwe until the
1870s (Option D) are not presented as mysteries.
46. (F) The first known windmills originated in Persia

(lines 15-17), which is Option F.
62
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL

47. (D) The future use of wind energy is discussed in the
last paragraph. Options A, C, and E are never mentioned.
Option D best conveys the authors optimism that wind
farmsefficient, clean, and fairly inexpensive to operate
(lines 70-71)will be a major source of electricity in the
future. Option B is contradicted by the passage.
48. (K) You are asked which option best illustrates the
development of wind energy. In the passage, the author
followed the history of wind energy from old-fashioned
water-pumping windmills (lines 17-19) to thin-bladed
windmills (lines 55-58) to the development of wind farms
(lines 67-70). Options F, G, and J are contradicted by the
passage. Option H is only one example in the history of
wind energy. Option K implies that the development from
simpler into more complex machines illustrates human
creativity, and it is the best answer.
49. (D) The need for windmills on farms before the
1950s is discussed in lines 53-58. The next two sentences
explain that the need decreased in the 1950s because
most homes were connected to an electric utility and
no longer depended on windmills for electrical power
(Option D). Options A and C are contradicted by the passage. Option B incorrectly combines information in the
passage, and Option E overlooks the fact that wind turbines are windmills, and thus did not replace windmills.
50. (G) The country of Holland (lines 32-36) used windmills to pump seawater away from bogs and reclaim
large areas of land (Option G). Dutch shipbuilding is not
mentioned, ruling out Option F. Although Holland was
famous for its windmills, their fame did not aid the country's developments, eliminating Option H. Options J and
K are contradicted by the passage.
63
FORM
SAMPLE TEST MATHEMATICS

51. (E)

FORM
102
57. (B) 0.00102 ____
N
100,000
102
________
(0.00102) ____
N
100,000
102
102
_________
____
N
100,000
100(2 1 0.1)2 2 100

5 100(2.1)2 2 100
5 100(4.41) 2 100
5 441 2 100
5 341
N 100,000
4P 48
52. (J) __
5
48 12
1P ___
__
5
4
3P 12 3 36
__
5
58. (K) Since Frances age (F) is given, use that

information to find Judys age (J):
J 2F 2 15 30
So, Judy is 30 years old. Now, use that
information to calculate Carmens age (C):
53. (C) F
irst, use the given information to calculate the
value of b:
C n J
C n 30
C 30 n
a5 2 __
85 2 8 = 2b 4 = b
__
b
b

Now, calculate 3b 1 a2 by substituting
a 5 8 and b = 4:
59. (B) Since 5.6 ricks and 12.88 dalts are both equal
to 1 sind, then 5.6 ricks 12.88 dalts. To
calculate the number of dalts (d) in 1 rick, set
up a proportion:
1
______

5.6
5 __
12.88
d
3(4) 1 (8)2 5 12 1 64 5 76
54. (J) M
ultiply the numerator and denominator by 100
to eliminate the decimals:
3.99 4 1.5 5
3.99
100 = ____
399
133 = ____
266

_____
____
= ____
= 2.66
1.5
100
150
50
100

5.6d 12.88
d 2.3
Note: You could also solve this equation using

long-division.
60. (H) A
ccording to the chart, 22% of people walk to
work and 4% ride a bicycle. Subtract to find
the percentage of how many more people walk
than bicycle:
)(
55. (C) T
o calculate the midpoint of a segment, add the
values of the two endpoints and divide by 2:
___
6)
2 (

Midpoint of PQ _________
2
2
___
6
2

Midpoint of QR ______
4
2
To find how many units from one midpoint to
the other, subtract the midpoint values:

4 (2) 6
22% 4% 18%
To find the exact number of people, multiply
18% (0.18) by the number of people working in
Center City (15,000):

61. (A) S
ince the figure is drawn to scale, use the values
from the grid to solve:

(c, d) (1, 3) and (a, b) (2, 1)
56. (J) S
ince Jack scored a mean of 15 points per
game in each of the first 3 games, he must have
earned a total of 45 points for the first three
games by definition. Use that information to
calculate the mean over the four games:
Then, c a 1 (2) 1, and

45 1 27
72
_______

5 ___
5 18
4
15,000 0.18 2,700
64
d b 3 1 4.
The point (1, 4) is point R on the graph.
FORM

62. (G) T
he scale is 1 foot 0.25 inch. Since the rest
of the question is in inches, change the scale
conversion into inches: 1 foot is equal to
12 inches, so 12 inches 0.25 inch.
67. (C) T
o eliminate the decimals in this equation,
multiply the numerators and denominators by
100:

Next, set up a proportion, where x represents

the scale inches for a distance of 36 inches:
100x
215 _____
___
33
110
110
70
21 5 _____

x 5 ( ____
___
5 0.70
100 )( 33 )
100
36
12
_____
5 ___
x
0.25
12x 36(0.25)
12x 9
95 __
35 0.75 in.
x ___
12
4
68. (J) L
et x be the number of seventh grade students
that must join to meet the presidents wishes.
There are 65 students currently in the club.
The percentage of seventh graders is calculated by dividing the number of seventh graders by the total number of students in the club.
Using the presidents desired percentage of
40% (0.40), the equation is:
63. (D) F
irst, find the prime factorization of each
number:
2,205 3 3 5 7 7
3,675 3 5 5 7 7
20 x
_______
0.40
65 x
Now, determine what each prime factorization

has in common, and multiply those:
20 x (0.40)(65 x)
2,205 3 (3 5 7 7) 3 735
3,675 5 (3 5 7 7) 5 735
20 x 26 0.40x
0.60x 6
The greatest common factor is 735.
x 10
___
69. (E) First, find the length of PR
: 4 (5) 5 9 units
64. (H) L
ist in order the prime numbers between 6
and 36: 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, and 31. Since
there are 8 numbers, find the middle two and
calculate the mean to find the median of all
1
Point Q is located __
of the way from R to P, so
3
calculate where that point would be:

1
9 3 __
5 3 units
the numbers. The middle two are 17 and 19.

17
19
The mean is ________
18.
2
So, point Q is located at 4___

2 3 5 1. Finally,
calculate the midpoint of PQ:
5 1 1

Midpoint PQ = ______
5 2
2
65. (D) T
he car gets between 20 and 22 miles per gallon. Ms. Grant would use the most gas if the
car gets only 20 miles per gallon, so use this
value. Then, use $4.50 (the highest possible
price per gallon) to determine the greatest
amount of money she will spend:

0.21
100 5 _____
x ____
100
____
( _____
0.33 )( 100 ) ( 1.10 )( 100 )
70. (H) T
he two-digit numbers must be even, so the
only possible two-digit numbers must end
in 8, since 8 is the only even digit given in
the problem. Since the numbers cannot be
repeated, the only possibilities for two-digit
even numbers are 78 and 98. Thus, the
answer is two possible two-digit numbers.
200 miles 4 20 miles per gallon 5 10 gallons of gas

10 gallons $4.50 5 $45.00
66. (K) T
he climbers started at 125 feet below sea
level, which can be expressed as 125. They
stopped at 5,348 feet above sea level, which is
expressed as a positive number. The elevation
gain for the day is 5,348 (125) = 5,473 feet.
65

71. (B) F
irst, change the improper fractions into
mixed numbers:
75. (D) L
et x equal the number of gallons needed to
drive m miles. Set up a proportion to solve for x:
3m
x
3
___

___
x 5 ____
m5 65
65
5
20
1
2
__
2 __ and ___ 6 __
2
he integers between these two values are 3,

T
4, 5, and 6. So, there are 4 integers between
76. (G) T
o find when the two flashes occur at the same
time, find the least common multiple of 12 and
18, which is 36. Every 36 minutes, the lights
flash at the same time. The first time is 8:00
a.m. The next 6 times would be 8:36, 9:12,
9:48, 10:24, 11:00, and 11:36. Only 2 of those
times are listed (9:12 a.m. and 10:24 a.m.).
5
20
__
and ___ .
2
3
72. (G) Angle LKN 75 because vertical angles

are congruent. The interior angles of
quadrilateral KLPN sum to 360. So,
angle LPN 360 (120 120 75) 45.
Angle LPN and angle QPR are vertical angles,
so x 45.
77. (D) First, find the amount of the tax charged on

the sale price:
$1.89 0.06 $0.1134 $0.11 (rounded to
the nearest cent)
73. (C) L
et x be the number of bundles needed for
the roofs area of 416 square feet. Set up a
proportion to find x:
x ___
3
____
416
96
Then, subtract the original tax from the tax on

the sale price calculated above:
$0.15 $0.11 $0.04
3 13
x 416 ( ___
96 )
78. (H) F
irst, add the percentage of cars containing
3 people, 4 people, and 5 or more people:
74. (G) A
ll 6 of the smaller rectangles are congruent.
Let the shorter side of one of these small rectangles be x. Based on the figure, the longer
side is then 4x, because the shorter side of
four rectangles stacked together is the same
length as the longer side of one rectangle.
Using this information, you can now figure
out the length and width of WXYZ:
15% 1 7% 1 3% 5 25%
Thus, 25% of the cars contained at least 3 people, so use that to calculate the number of cars:
420 3 25% 5 105 cars
79. (E) Roberto began his first 5 hour watch at
6:00 p.m. Since he had 5 hours off before he
began his second watch, the second watch
began 10 hours after the first watch began.
Thus, his third watch began 20 hours after his
first watch began. 20 hours after 6:00 p.m. is
2:00 p.m. the next day.
Width of WXYZ 4x
Length of WXYZ x 1 4x 1 x 5 6x
Use the area of WXYZ to calculate x:
(4x)(6x) 5 54
24x2 5 54
9
x2 5 __
3
x __
80. (G) Let c be Crystals age:
Now that x is known, use that to find the

length and width of WXYZ:

3
Width of WXYZ 5 4( __
) 5 6
2
3
Length of WXYZ 6x 5 6( __
) 5 9
2
So, the perimeter of WXYZ 5 2(6) 1 2(9)

5 12 1 18 5 30 cm
FORM
3c 1 2 5 m
3c 5 m 2 2
m 2
2
c 5 _______
66
FORM

81. (D) The line between 20 and 30 is divided into 10
sections. Calculate the length of 1 section by
finding the distance between 20 and 30, and
dividing by the number of sections:

30 (20)
__________
55
10
So, the length of 1 section is 5 units and Point
P is located at 5. To find the value of PQ, subtract the value of P from the value of Q:

30 (5) 5 35
86. (J) There were 11 marbles in the box. After 5

were removed, the total number of marbles in
the box is now 6. The probability of drawing a
1
green marble is now __
, which is equivalent to
2
3
__
. Thus, 3 green marbles remain in the box.
6
Originally, there were 4 green marbles in the

box, so only 1 green marble was removed. Since
a total of 5 marbles were removed from the box,
that means 4 of those marbles were red.
82. (G) I n row B, a number appears twicefirst under

an odd number in row A, and then under the
next even number in row A. So, the number 112
in row A would have a corresponding number
56 in row B. The numbers 111 and 112 in row A
would both have 56 under them in row B.
87. (C) Ryan has 130 pages left to read (150 20). He
read 20 pages in 30 minutes, which means he
read at a rate of 40 pages per 1 hour. To find
out how much longer it will take him to finish
the assignment, divide the total pages remaining by the number of pages he is able to read
per hour:
83. (A) One gram is equal to 1,000 milligrams, or
130
1
____
3 __hours
40
4
1
1 milligram is equal to _____

gram.
1,000
_____
Thus, 75 milligrams 5 75
5 0.075 gram.
1,000
88. (H) T
he question asks for the number of different
ways to create $0.75 using at least one of each
coin. One of each coin (one quarter, one dime,
one nickel) is $0.25 $0.10 $0.05 $0.40.
Thus, the first $0.40 of any solution is already
determined. Subtract $0.40 from $0.75
($0.75 $0.40 $0.35), so the question
becomes how many different ways can you
make $0.35 using nickels, dimes, and quarters? There are 6 ways to create $0.35 using
nickels, dimes and quarters:
___
___
84. (G) F
irst, calculate the midpoints of ABand BCto
find the locations of D and E, respectively:
8 1 3
5

D 5 ______
5 2 __
2
2
3
1
7
______

E =
5 5
2
___

Now, find the midpoint of DE
:

51 5
2 __
5
__
2
55
2
_________
5 ___
5 __
4
1.25
85. (B) F
irst, find the sale price. 10% of $44.50 is
$4.45, so the sale price is $44.50 2 $4.45 5
$40.05. Next, find the price after Julians
employee discount. 20% 3 $40.05 5 $8.01, so
the final price of the video game is $40.05 2
$8.01 5 $32.04.
7 nickels
5 nickels 1 dime
3 nickels 2 dimes
1 nickel 3 dimes
1 quarter 1 dime
1 quarter 2 nickels
89. (B) F
irst, find the number of liters that need to be
added:

2
__
4,320 5 2,880 liters
3
Use the conversion 1 kiloliter 5 1,000 liters to

find the number of kiloliters:

67
2,880
1,000
_____
5 2.88 kL
FORM

90. (G) B
ecause the volume of the tent is calculated
using the area of the cross-section 3 depth
(d), you can also use this formula to find d.
The pattern shows the largest possible value of

the expression is 1, which occurs when x 5 0.
The area of the cross-section is the sum of the

areas of the two triangles and the rectangle.
94. (H) T
his problem can be solved by creating a
Venn diagram:
The two triangles have the same base length

(2 ft) and height (6 ft), so the area of one of the
triangles is:
Students
with
cats
1
A 5 __
3 2 3 6 5 6 sq ft
2
The area of the center rectangle is:

A 5 4 3 6 5 24 sq ft
Use that to calculate the depth of the tent:

V 5 36d
216 5 36d
6 5 d
1
91. (A) After Ang gives Julia __
of his money (which
3
The circle on the left indicates the students

with cats, and the circle on the right indicates
students with dogs. The number outside both
circles (5) is the number of students without
cats or dogs. The number inside the intersection of the two circles (3) indicates the number
of students who have both cats and dogs.

Calculate x and y using the given information:
There are 20 students who have cats, and of
those 20 students, 3 have cats and dogs. Thus,
x = 20 3 = 17. There are 23 students who
have dogs, and of those 23 students, 3 have
cats and dogs. Thus, y = 23 3 = 20.
x
1
can be expressed as __
x
or __), Julia has
3
x
1
y __
in her account. If she spends __of that
3

So the total area of the cross-section is:
A 5 6 1 6 1 24 5 36 sq ft
Students
with
dogs
amount, the expression is now:

y
x __
x
1 y __
__
___
4
3
4
12
92. (K) T
he integers that are included in Set R but
not in Set T are 10 through 81. (Note that 82
is included in Set T.) To calculate the number of integers between 10 and 81, inclusive,
subtract the two endpoints and add 1. (One
must be added because the endpoints are both
counted in the total) 81 10 1 72
o find the total number of students surveyed,

T
add the numbers in the diagram:
3 1 5 1 x 1 y 5 8 1 17 1 20 5 45
95. (E) T
he question says that an equal number (x) of
each type of space was purchased. To find the
number of each type of space that was purchased, multiply the price per type by x and
set it equal to the total amount spent:
93. (C) T
o answer this question, assign several positive and negative values to x and determine
what the value of the expression will be:
200x 350x 600x 11,500

1,150x 11,500
x 10
Thus, the store purchased 10 units of each

type of space. To find the total amount of
page space purchased, multiply each type of
space by 10 and add:
x
2
1 x2
68
1
1
(10 __
page) (10 __page) (10 1 page)
4
2
1
1
__
__
2
5 10 17 pages
2
2

96. (G) The ratios of X:Y and Y:Z can be combined
100. (K) L
et x 5 the mean number of hours Nam
worked per day during the first 8 days.
because Y has the same value in both ratios.
Then, x 1 2 is the number of hours he

worked on each of the last 2 days. Since he
worked 69 total hours, set up the equation
and solve for x:
So, X:Y:Z = 4:9:5. The proportion of X and Y

419
13
in the mixture is _________
5 ___
. Multiply the
41915
18
total weight of the mixture by the proportion to
8x 1 2(x 1 2) 5 69
10x 1 4 5 69
10x 5 65
x 5 6.5
find the weight of the mixture after Z has been

13
removed: 90 3 ___
5 65 g
18
Remember that x is the mean hours worked

the first 8 days. The question asked for the
number of hours Nam worked the last two
days:
97. (A) (2p 1 8) 2 (5 1 3p) 5 2p 1 8 2 5 2 3p 5 3 2 p

98. (F) O
ne revolution is equal to the circumference of
the tire:

2(x 1 2) 5 2(6.5 1 2) 5 2(8.5) 5 17.0 hours
22
44
C 5 2r 5 2(1)( ___
) 5 ___ feet
7
7

The car travels at 4,400 feet per minute. To
calculate the number of revolutions, divide the

speed by the circumference:
7
44
4,400 4 ___
5 4,400 ___5 700 revolutions
7
FORM
44
99. (E) F
irst, multiply each term by 2 to eliminate the
fraction:
4(2) < x < 2(2)
8 < x < 4
Therefore, x must be between 8 and 4, which
is Option K.
69
FORM

Answer Key for Sample Form A
Paragraph 1
TUSRQ
11. C
21. C
31. D
41. E
51. E
61. A
71. B
81. D
91. A
12. J
22. F
32. K
42. H
52. J
62. G
72. G
82. G
92. K
Paragraph 2
UTRSQ
13. B
23. C
33. D
43. E
53. C
63. D
73. C
83. A
93. C
14. K
24. F
34. G
44. F
54. J
64. H
74. G
84. G
94. H
Paragraph 3
TRUQS
15. A
25. B
35. C
45. B
55. C
65. D
75. D
85. B
95. E
Paragraph 4
SURQT
16. H
26. K
36. G
46. F
56. J
66. K
76. G
86. J
96. G
17. D
27. C
37. E
47. D
57. B
67. C
77. D
87. C
97. A
18. H
28. J
38. H
48. K
58. K
68. J
78. H
88. H
98. F
19. A
29. B
39. D
49. D
59. B
69. E
79. E
89. B
99. E
20. H
30. H
40. G
50. G
60. H
70. H
80. G
90. G
100. K
Paragraph 5
UTRQS
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Sample Test, Form B

Part 1 Verbal
45 QUESTIONS
Scrambled Paragraphs
PARAGRAPHS 1-5
DIRECTIONS: In this section, arrange each group of sentences to create the best paragraph. The first
sentence for each paragraph is given; the remaining five sentences are listed in random order. Choose
the order for these five sentences that will create the best paragraph, one that is well-organized, logical,
and grammatically correct. Each correctly ordered paragraph is worth double the value of a question
in any other section of the test. No credit will be given for responses that are only partially correct.
To keep track of your sentence order, use the blanks to the left of the sentences. For example, write 2
next to the sentence you think follows the first sentence, write 3 next to the sentence you think follows
2, and so on. You may change these numbers if you decide on a different order. When you are satisfied
with your sentence order, mark your choices on your answer sheet.
Paragraph 1
What song is sung more often than any other song in the United States, with the exception
of the national anthem?
______ Q.
Surprisingly, neither the composer nor the lyricist had ever even been to a
baseball park at the time the song was written in 1910.
______ R.
The answer is Take Me Out to the Ballgame, probably the best-known song ever
written about the sport traditionally called Americas national pastime.
______ S. Albert von Tilzer, the lyricist, eventually went to a ballgame in the 1920s.
______ T.
Twenty years after Tilzer went, composer Jack Norworth saw the Brooklyn
Dodgers defeat the Chicago Cubs in his first Major League game.
______ U. It is usually sung during the seventh-inning stretch of a baseball game.
FORM B
72
Paragraph 2
Most cowboys of North and South America lacked the necessary chemicals to soften animal hides
into leather, so they often used rough, untreated hides, or rawhide, for their gear.
______ Q. The result was a soft, supple piece of leather for making reins, halters, straps, and
other cowboy gear.
______ R. The strip was pulled through the slot repeatedly, with the stick held at a slight angle
so that it took effort to draw the strip through.
______ S. They took a round piece of wood, such as a broom handle, cut a lengthwise slot
through the middle of it, and filed the edges of the slot until they were smooth.
______ T. However, the gauchos, the cowboys of South America, created an effective method for
softening strips of rawhide without the need for chemicals.
______ U. T
he gauchos then rubbed a rawhide strip with saddle soap and inserted one end
into the slot.
Paragraph 3
In the 1880s, John Wesley Powell, an explorer of the Grand Canyon and director of the United
States Geological Survey, led the development of the first topographical maps of the entire
United States.
______ Q. This is because streams cut into the land, so contour lines will turn upstream, cross
the waterway, and return downstream, creating a V shape, with the V pointing
upstream.
______ R. Waterways, such as streams, are usually marked in blue on topo maps, but even if
they were not, the presence of one could still be identified using contour lines.
______ S. Contour lines indicate the slope of the land as well.
______ T. If the lines are close together, the elevation is changing rapidly and the slope is steep,
whereas widely spaced lines depict a gently sloping terrain.
______ U. A
lso called topo maps, these maps differ from others in using thin brown lines,
called contour lines, to connect points of equal elevation.
FORM B
73
Paragraph 4
When contemporary Native American tribes meet for a powwow, one of the most popular
ceremonies is the womens jingle dress dance.
______ Q. During this type of dance, the dancers blend complicated footwork with a series of
gentle hops, done in rhythm to a drumbeat.
______ R. I n the past, it is believed, the dress worn by the jingle-dress dancer was adorned
by shells.
______ S. These actions cause decorations sewn on the dancers dress to strike each other as she
performs, creating a lovely jingling sound.
______ T. B
esides being more readily available than shells, the lids are thought to create a
softer, more subtle sound.
______ U.
The modern jingle dress no longer has shells, but is decorated with rows of tin
cones, made from the lids of snuff cans, rolled up and sewn onto the dress.
Paragraph 5
To the earliest European traders, Africa seemed to be loosely organized into tribal societies,
without any great centers of wealth or learning.
______ Q. He described a thriving metropolis with great universities and dozens of private
libraries.
______ R. Unfortunately, by the nineteenth century raids by neighboring tribes had made
Timbuktu a shadow of its former self.
______ S. This impression began to change in the fifteenth century, as Europeans traveled
inland into western Africa.
______ T. In 1470, an Italian merchant named Benedetto Dei traveled to Timbuktu and
confirmed these stories.
______ U. The travelers told tales of an enormous city, known as Timbuktu, on the southern
edge of the Sahara Desert, where the markets were crowded with goods and gold was
bought and sold.
FORM B
74
Logical Reasoning
QUESTIONS 11-20
DIRECTIONS: Read the information given and choose the best answer to each question. Base your
answer only on the information given.
In a logical reasoning test, certain words must be read with caution. For example, The red house is
between the yellow and blue houses does not necessarily mean The red house is between and next
to the yellow and blue houses; one or more other houses may separate the red house from the yellow
house or from the blue house. This precaution also applies to words such as above, below, before, after,
ahead of, and behind.
11. Three childrenRaquel, Tiara, and Xing

each own one pet. The pets are a parrot, an
iguana, and a hamster. Xing does not own
the hamster.

13. There are four towns in Jefferson County:

Elmont, Richland, Lendle, and Mopley.
Highway 14 is closed from Elmont to Richland
because of flooding.
Which of the following additional pieces of

information is needed to determine who owns
the iguana?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1) Lendle is between Elmont and Richland

on Highway 14.
2) Mopley can be reached from Lendle, without going through Elmont or Richland.
Tiara owns the hamster.

Raquel does not own the hamster.
Raquel owns the parrot.
Xing owns the parrot.
Tiara does not own the hamster.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
12. Some teachers went to the lecture on how not

to be boring. None of the teachers left the
lecture early.


the following statements must be true?
Mopley is not flooded.

Either Elmont or Richland is flooded.
Both Elmont and Richland are flooded.
No one can drive to Lendle on Highway 14.
Mopley cannot be reached directly from
Elmont.
14. Sidney was in a contest with Alice, Huang,

and Mariah to see whose airplane could fly
highest.
F. If Miriam left the lecture early, then she is

not a teacher.
G. If Franois is not a teacher, he was not at
the lecture.
H. Lu-San went to the lecture, so she is a
teacher.
J. If Peter was not a teacher, then he left the
lecture early.
K. Tom did not go to the lecture, so he is not a
teacher.
FORM B
Which of the following statements is a valid

conclusion from the statements above?
1) Alices airplane flew higher than Huangs

airplane.
2) Mariahs airplane did not fly as high as
Alices airplane.


the following is a valid conclusion?
F. Alice won the contest.
G. Sidneys airplane flew higher than Mariahs.
H. Mariahs airplane flew higher than Huangs.
J. If Sidney finished second, Alice won.
K. If Sidney finished second, Huang finished
third.
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15. At Midway School, each new student is paired

with an older student partner. The new
students are Bai, Gloria, Sandro, and Henry.
The older student partners are Edgar, Paola,
Rakim, and Whitney.

1) Sandro and Whitney are paired.

2) Bai is not paired with Rakim.
3) Edgar is not paired with Gloria or Bai.
Who is paired with Paola?
17. Jack played three instruments in the orchestra.

He played violin for two years, cello for three
years, and bass for three years. He never
played more than two instruments during the
same year. The first year, Jack played only the
violin.
What is the least number of years Jack could
have played in the orchestra?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8
A. Bai
B. Gloria
C. Henry
D. Edgar
E. Rakim
18. At the race track, four race car drivers stood

side by side, their backs toward you. Each
driver stood facing his or her race car.
16. When Tomas wears his white shirt, he also

wears a tie. When he wears a tie, he also
wears his black shoes.


the following statements is a valid conclusion?
1) The brown car was to the right of the

orange car.
2) Jorge stood immediately to Anyas right.
3) Marquise, who was to Jorges right, owned
the white car.
4) Patrick did not own the silver car.
5) Anya owned the orange car.
Which race car driver stood at the far right?
F. When Tomas wears his black shoes, then

he is wearing his white shirt.
G. Tomas wears his black shoes only when he
is wearing a tie.
H. When Tomas wears his white shirt, then
he is also wearing his black shoes.
J. If Tomas is not wearing his white shirt,
then he is not wearing a tie.
K. If Tomas is not wearing a tie, then he is
not wearing his black shoes.
F. Jorge
G. Anya
H. Marquise
J. Patrick
information given.
FORM B
76

information.


represents the same word, (2) each word is represented by only one letter, and (3) in any given
sentence, the position of a letter is never the
same as that of the word it represents.
Q
H
P
Z
Are we late again?
X
No,
S
we
P
are
means
G
Z
means
early today.
H Q W G N means
She
is
late again today.
19. Which word is represented by the letter Z?
A. are
B. we
C. late
D. again
information given.
20. Which letter represents the word again?
F. H
G. N
H. P
J. Q
information given.
FORM B
77
Reading
QUESTIONS 21-50
DIRECTIONS: Read each passage below and answer the questions following it. Base your answers
on information contained only in the passage. You may reread a passage if you need to. Mark the
best answer for each question.
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35
The eruption of the Philippine volcano

Mount Pinatubo in June 1991 sent a huge
cloud of gas and dust encircling the globe.
The dust and ash from Mount Pinatubo was
blamed for a two-year decrease in global
temperature, changes in weather patterns,
and damage to the ozone layer. The situation brings to mind a meteorological event
that occurred 175 years earlier. At that
time, harsh weather conditions plagued
much of eastern North America, and, to a
lesser extent, northern Europe.
April 1816 brought typical spring weather
to upstate New York and New England;
trees budded and farmers prepared to plow
and plant. In May, however, the expected
warm temperatures failed to arrive. Most
people remained optimistic, waiting for
the summer that was just around the corner. They waited in vain. June ushered
in what modern meteorologists call The
Year Without a Summer. During the first
week of June, ten inches of snow fell on
New England. Throughout the month, temperatures rarely rose above the 30s. Many
farmers replanted crops several times,
only to see them stunted or destroyed by
sleet, hail, and icy winds. July and August
brought little improvement. During most
days the temperature stayed in the 40s.
Farmers diaries document their daily
struggles with near-freezing temperatures,
failing crops, and dying farm animals. The
few crops that managed to survive were
killed by frost in mid-September. Winter
came early in New England and was unusually severe. Even the South was affected; on
July 4, the high temperature for Savannah,
Georgia, was only 46 degrees!
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70
35
Some religious leaders warned their congregations that the unusual weather meant
that the end of the world was drawing near.
Other leaders attributed the cool weather
to unusual sunspot activity. The proliferation of the newly invented lightning rod was
also blamed. Some people believed that
lightning rods had interrupted the natural
temperature balance of the earth, causing
the cooler temperatures.
It was not until October that the first plausible explanation for The Year Without a
Summer was suggested. A German astronomer, Friedrich Bessel, reported seeing thick
clouds of dust in the upper atmosphere. He
theorized that these dust particles screened
portions of the earth from the warming
rays of the sun. It was discovered that, in
April 1815, Mount Tambora, an Indonesian
volcano, had erupted with such force that
it had sent an estimated 100 cubic miles of
fine dust into the atmosphere. Witnesses to
the eruption reported that the sky remained
dark for two days. The dust then rose high
into the stratosphere, where it encircled the
world for several years to come.
Skeptics in 1816 doubted that a far-away
volcano could steal their summer. However,
most present-day researchers believe
Bessels explanation to be generally correct,
demonstrating the global nature of weather.
The dust in the atmosphere eventually
settled, and the spring of 1817 was back to
normal.
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70

FORM B
78

passage is about?
24. Which of the following is implied by the

phrase the global nature of weather
(line 70)?
A. why some religious leaders believed the

end of the world was coming in 1816
B. a summer of strange weather and its
probable cause
C. the importance of summer weather to
agriculture in New England
D. two volcanic eruptions
E. a comparison of the weather of 1816
and 1991
F. Meteorologists around the world need to

stay in close contact.
G. Extreme weather conditions may stimulate volcanic eruptions in other parts of
the world.
H. Natural disasters tend to occur in different parts of the world at the same time.
J. Conditions in one part of the world can
affect weather in another part.
K. A single storm may cover the entire world.
22. What is the most likely reason farmers

persisted in replanting their crops?
25. Which of the following situations, if it had

occurred, would lend further support to
the conclusion that The Year Without a
Summer was caused by the eruption of Mount
Tambora?
F. They believed that the cold weather could

not continue all summer long.
G. They were attempting to increase crop
yields to higher levels than they had ever
before achieved.
H. They thought that crops would be able to
survive even though the weather
remained cold.
J. The weather had warmed up by July.
K. They thought the June snowfalls would
provide needed moisture.
A. Volcanoes all over the world erupted at the

same time as Mount Tambora.
B. Other parts of the world also experienced
unusually cold weather in 1816.
C. Temperatures in Indonesia in 1816 were
higher than average.
D. Subsequent summers in New England
were warmer than average.
E. The eruption of Mount Pinatubo did not
disturb weather patterns.
23. Which of the following was probably true

about the winter of 1816-1817?
A. The government decided to establish a
weather forecasting service.
B. Temperatures were warmer than usual for
that time of year.
C. New Englanders faced shortages of fruits
and vegetables.
D. Bessels theory was completely discredited.
E. People quickly forgot about The Year
Without a Summer.
FORM B
26. Which of the following best summarizes

Bessels theory?
F. The cold weather would end when the
winter of 1816-1817 began.
G. The cold summer of 1816 indicated that
the world was about to end.
H. The eruptions of Mount Tambora and
Mount Pinatubo affected global weather in
the same way.
J. The eruption of Mount Pinatubo is responsible for numerous weather changes.
K. Dust particles in the air blocked the
warmth of the sun.
79
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Imagine living in a society where ordinary

people could be punished for what they
choose to read and write. For much of the
twentieth century, such a closed society
existed in Russia and the rest of the Soviet
Union. The Soviet government tried to
dominate its citizens activities and ideas by
controlling the information that they
received. Government censors examined
books, films, and newscasts and banned
anything they considered objectionable.
They censored criticism of the Soviet government, news from the outside world, and
anything that complimented Soviet
enemies.
The Soviet governments strict censorship
made life tremendously difficult for writers.
Most worried that they were being watched
by the governments secret police. Despite
the harsh laws, small groups of writers
dodged state censorship through an underground, or secret, publishing network that
produced works called samizdat. The name
samizdat came from the Russian words for
self and publish. For many writers,
samizdat offered the only outlet for their
intellectual and creative expression. To
produce samizdat, an author passed a typed
or handwritten text to a second person, who
made a handwritten or typed copy. The
original was returned to the author, while
the copies were passed to other members of
the network. The works were unsigned or
signed with false names.
At first, samizdat focused mainly on literature, such as poetry and novels. By the late
1950s, samizdat circles were distributing
political material, such as letters to the
government, political essays, and trial transcripts. By the mid-1960s, the samizdat
network produced sophisticated political
news, debate, and analysis.
The great Russian novelist Boris Pasternak
had his work published as samizdat. Like
other writers, he feared that an appearance
of disloyalty to the Soviet state would bring
a knock at his door in the middle of the
night. His classic novel, Doctor Zhivago,
FORM B
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75
was smuggled out of the Soviet Union for

publication in Western countries in 1956; in
Russia, it appeared only as samizdat.
Pasternak won the Nobel Prize in
Literature in 1958, but the government
forced him to refuse the prize. Soviet
authorities also blocked publication of the
work of Anna Akhmatova, one of Russias
greatest poets. Her work was banned until
1952 because censors felt she did not sufficiently praise the Soviet government.
Akhmatova was kept out of public life and
the official Writers Union. She composed
her poetry in private, and her works were
available only as samizdat.
Through the 1960s and 70s, Russian writers used samizdat networks to circulate
banned or politically risky material. By the
late 1980s, computers became available in
scientific research facilities, and
underground writers began using the
computers to store and circulate texts.
Censorship was officially abolished in 1989,
shortly before the breakup of the Soviet
Union, leading to a publishing boom.
Works by previously banned authors were
published, and the samizdat networks
quickly faded into history.
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65
70
75
30

passage is about?
A. two Russian authors, Boris Pasternak and
Anna Akhmatova
B. the poetry published in the Soviet Union
during the twentieth century
C. the role of a free press in a free society
D. censorship in the Soviet Union and the
underground system that arose in
response
E. the reasons for banning authors who criticized the Soviet government
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80
28. Which of the following is most likely an example of material circulated in the earliest phase
of samizdat?
32. After 1989, samizdat networks quickly faded

(lines 75-76) for which of the following
reasons?
F. a letter protesting a writers imprisonment

G. a true account of life in the secret police
H. a short story
J. a list of political prisoners
K. an article from a foreign newspaper
F. The networks were no longer necessary

after censorship was abolished.
G. The works produced by the networks could
not compete with works published in
Western countries.
H. Samizdat was successfully banned by
government censors.
J. The networks were replaced by the use of
computers.
K. Opposition to the government went deeper
underground than before.
29. The phrase a knock at his door in the middle

of the night (lines 47-48) most likely refers to
a visit by
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Boris Pasternak.
the secret police.
a member of the Nobel Prize committee.
a participant in the samizdat network.
a political exile.
30. According to the passage, how did the use of

computers influence samizdat publishing?
F. The content of samizdat materials became

exclusively technical.
G. Scientific research was published through
samizdat networks.
H. Computers made it possible to smuggle
Doctor Zhivago out of the country.
J. Computers made the distribution of samizdat material more efficient.
K. Computers made identification of samizdat authors easier for the secret police.
31. What is the most likely reason that samizdat
materials were unsigned or signed with false
names?
A. to allow the materials to be smuggled outside the Soviet Union
B. to protect the writer from punishment
C. to shield the identities of members of the
secret police
D. to undermine the trustworthiness of the
materials
E. to prevent the materials from being copied
FORM B
81
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Most movies about spies and undercover

agents feature fascinating special equipment. Many of these gadgets exist only in
the imaginations of script writers, but others are actually used in espionage activities.
One device with a surprisingly long and
colorful history, both in and out of the cloakand-dagger world, is the concealed camera.
In the late nineteenth century, detective
cameras were popular with amateur
photographers who wanted to take snapshots of unsuspecting people on the street.
The camera was usually carried in plain
view. Its disguise was simple: it was a plain
box resembling a large and rather heavy
parcel or a piece of luggage, with no external lens or controls. When people caught on
to the deception, though, designers began
hiding cameras in other objects, ranging
from hats and books to purses and pocket
watches. One concealed camera even looked
like an ordinary camera, but had mirrors
that allowed users to take photographs at a
right angle to the direction of whatever the
photographer seemed to be viewing.
Although most early spy cameras were
meant to be used on the ground, cameras
have been hidden in the sky almost from
the beginning of photography. In World
War I, both sides realized the strategic
value of taking aerial photographs of enemy
territory from the newly invented airplane.
To spy more discreetly, without the use of
airplanes, the Germans attached cameras to
homing pigeons and sent them over French
army positions. Timers were set to trigger
the cameras when the pigeons were expected to be flying over their targets. That
particular attempt proved impractical, but
the idea behind it did not: aerial photography became a staple of World War II.
In the mid-twentieth century, a new era of
spying with cameras began under the Cold
War. This was a period of worldwide tension
and competition between the Communist
world, led by the Soviet Union, and the
Western world, represented by the United
States and its allies. The conflict was
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expressed through propaganda, arms races,

and especially espionage. During the Cold
War, both sides competed to develop new
technologies to use photography in spying.
Sophisticated concealed cameras were put in
matchboxes, pens, rings, cigarette lighters,
makeup cases, guns, and even hidden in
clothing, with the lens concealed in a button.
Almost any object that could be carried
without attracting attention was probably
made into a camera and carried by an
undercover agent. Cameras were also
hidden in furniture and office machines
such as copiers, which took photos of every
document that was copied. The development
of the long-range telephoto lens even allowed
spies to take clear photos from a distance,
such as across the street from an embassy.
Today, space has proven to be the ultimate
location for hidden cameras, as satellitemounted cameras can produce highly
detailed photographs of objects anywhere
on earth.
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70
25

passage is about?
A. the role of hidden cameras in national
security
B. the problems associated with hidden
cameras
C. the mechanics of the detective camera
D. historical information about the concealed
camera
E. how cameras are mounted in satellites
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35
34. According to the passage, detective cameras

were popular with
F. spies.
G. airplane pilots.
H. the German army.
J. professional photographers.
K. amateur photographers.
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45

FORM B
82
35. What was the original purpose of the early

detective cameras?
A. to resemble an ordinary object such as a
box
B. to take pictures at a right angle
C. to use in espionage activites by secret
agents
D. to take pictures without the subjects
knowledge
E. to be carried by homing pigeons for
surveillance
36. The camera with mirrors (lines 21-25) allowed
the photographer to
F. conceal the camera in a hat or pocket
watch.
G. take a picture with no external lens or
controls.
H. take aerial photographs.
J. take a picture of one scene while appearing to take a picture of another.
K. determine whether other photographers
were using detective cameras.
37. Photographers stopped using the box-type
detective camera because
A. people were no longer deceived by them.
B. the cameras could not be used with
external lenses.
C. they wanted to avoid being mistaken for
secret agents.
D. professional photographers refused to use
them.
E. espionage was conducted during the war.
38. What was the idea referred to in line 40?
F. taking photographs without permission
G. taking photographs from above
H. locating military targets
J. using cameras in wartime
K. attaching cameras to homing pigeons

FORM B
83
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Archaeologists first succeeded in using

tree-ring dating while excavating ancient
Pueblo Indian villages in the southwestern
United States during the 1920s. At that
time, no one knew when the villages had
been occupied, or for how long, but the logs
used in the buildings provided a clue. Scientists had long known that trees add a new
growth ring to their circumferences during
each growing season. Drought or early frost
results in little growth and narrow rings.
Good growing years result in wide rings.
Archaeologists knew that by matching
identical patterns of wide and narrow rings
in sections of two different logs, they could
determine which log was older. For example, a log with a certain pattern of rings
near its outside edge would indicate a
specific series of good and bad growing
seasons. This log would have been cut down
before a log of comparable size that shows
the identical pattern near its center.
But how could these ring patterns help
determine the actual dates for the abandoned Pueblo villages? Archaeologists had
already used the ring patterns of trees with
overlapping lifetimes to establish a tree-ring
chronology for the southwestern United
States that went back to a.d. 1260. That
work had been done in a Hopi village called
Oraibi. Oraibi had been continuously
inhabited since before the arrival of the first
Spanish explorers in 1540.
That same team of archaeologists also
developed a relative, or floating, chronology for the abandoned Pueblo villages by
matching up the ring patterns of the various
logs used in the buildings. With this floating chronology, the archaeologists could tell
which logs were older and which were more
recent. None could be precisely dated, since
no log had a pattern of tree rings that
matched any part of the established chronology. It was clear from this evidence,
however, that the buildings must have been
constructed before a.d. 1260.
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key beam overlapped the earliest rings in

the established chronology. Furthermore,
its inner ring pattern matched the pattern
formed by the most recent rings of the
floating chronology. Thus, the chronology
for the abandoned Pueblo villages could be
known with certainty. Counting backward
from the present, the archaeologists estimated that the villages had been occupied
between a.d. 900 and a.d. 1300.
The tree rings also suggested why the
villages had been abandoned. The rings for
the years a.d. 1276 to 1299 were very thin,
indicating a severe drought that lasted for
23 years. Most likely the villagers had left
their homes to search for a more hospitable
climate.
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20

passage is about?
A. how variations in weather conditions affect
tree growth
B. recent breakthroughs in understanding
Indian cultures
C. why the Pueblo villages were abandoned
D. how tree-ring dating can establish the age
of archaeological findings
E. why tree-ring dating is the best method for
determining dates
25
30
40. What was the importance of the key beam

described in the fourth paragraph?
35
F. It proved that trees of the same age would

have identical tree-ring patterns.
G. It helped to disprove earlier theories
regarding the abandonment of the villages.
H. It helped archaeologists to determine why
the villages had been built at that time.
J. It explained why the Pueblo buildings had
been constructed at that location.
K. It connected the floating chronology to
the established chronology.
40
45
Finally, continued excavations turned up a

key beam. The outer ring pattern of the
FORM B
84
43. Why did the archaeologists conclude that the

buildings in the abandoned Pueblo villages
must have been constructed before a.d. 1260
(lines 45-46)?
41.
Log 1
A. The logs in those buildings did not share

any ring patterns with the established
chronology, which went back to that year.
B. The logs in those buildings had ring patterns in common with the logs used in
Oraibi.
C. The villages were still inhabited when the
Spanish explorers found them.
D. The villages were already abandoned when
the Spanish explorers found them.
E. The people in those villages had moved to
Oraibi.
Log 2
In the diagrams above, an identical ring

pattern on logs from two trees has been
shaded. Which of the following conclusions
about these logs is best supported by the
information in the passage?
A. Log 1 was cut before log 2.
B. Log 2 was cut before log 1.
C. The two trees responded differently to the
same growing seasons.
D. The tree from which Log 1 was cut was the
faster-growing tree.
E. The tree from which Log 2 was cut was the
faster-growing tree.
44. According to the passage, what is the most

likely reason that the Pueblo villages had been
abandoned?
F. The villages were destroyed by warfare
between the Pueblo and Hopi people.
G. There were no more trees to build with.
H. A long drought prompted people to leave
the area.
J. The villages had grown too large for their
locations.
K. The villagers fled to escape the Spanish
explorers.
42. For which of the following would tree-ring

dating be most useful?
F. identifying the kinds of trees used to build
the ancient Pueblo buildings
G. tracking the historical sequence of weather
cycles in a region
H. investigating the reasons that Indians
lived in specific areas
J. determining the length of the growing season in different areas of the world
K. determining how people built their villages
FORM B
85
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
Almost one hundred fifty years ago,

Charles Darwin, the famous British
naturalist, proposed a startling new theory
about the cause of human emotions. Facial
expressions, he argued, are more than the
visible signs of an emotion; to some extent
they actually cause the emotion. For example, a persons smile reflects a feeling of
happiness, but it also helps to produce that
feeling. The theory that facial expressions
contributed to emotions was controversial
and, at the time, impossible to prove.
Eventually it lost favor, and for more than
a century peoples facial expressions were
assumed to be the result, not the cause, of
their feelings.
Theories change, however. Within the last
few decades, psychologists have been investigating the notion that we can put smiles
in our hearts by first putting them on our
faces. In a research study, volunteers were
asked to say words that placed their facial
muscles into either smiles or frowns. The
purpose of the task was not explained.
After the experiment, the volunteers who
said words like cheese were measurably
happier than those who said words like
few.
To explain these results, the researchers
theorized that there is a relationship
between facial expressions and the temperature of the blood entering the brain.
According to their theory, the muscle contractions produced by a facial expression
raise or lower the temperature of the blood
that flows through the persons face. The
change in temperature is slightless than
one degree Celsius. The blood vessels in the
face connect to the carotid artery, which
leads to the hypothalamus, an area of the
brain believed to regulate emotions. The
researchers theorized that warmer blood,
which is associated with frowning or scowling, leads to feelings of unhappiness. A
smile, which is created by a different set of
muscles, lowers the blood temperature and
tends to produce a feeling of happiness.
FORM B
50
55
10
60
15
65
20
70
In another study, volunteers were told

exactly which facial muscles to contract.
For example, volunteers were told, Raise
your eyebrows, open your eyes wide, tuck in
your chin, and let your mouth relax (the
facial expression associated with fear). The
volunteers were not told which emotion
they were mimicking. As they produced the
muscular movements of a particular emotional expression, they tended to experience
that emotion. For example, while making a
fearful expression, they reported feeling
more fear than anger, sadness, or disgust.
Acceptance of the research relating emotions to facial expressions, especially the
blood temperature theory, is far from universal. However, some psychologists hope
that the phenomenon may be useful in
treating mild depression. They do agree,
though, that facial expressions are not
the most important causes of emotion.
Encouraging people to smile while they
are mourning, for example, would do little to
lessen their grief.
50
55
60
65
70
25

passage is about?
A. the theory that facial expressions may
contribute to emotions
B. the role of the hypothalamus in experiencing emotions
C. the use of facial expressions in a variety of
scientific research
D. the range of emotions felt by volunteers in
experiments
E. the potential uses of facial expressions in
treating mild depression
30
35
40
45
86
46. In the research study described in the second

paragraph, after volunteers said words that
placed their facial muscles into smiles, what
did the researchers do?
50. What do researchers believe about the

hypothalamus?
F. It prevents mild depression.
G. It manages emotions.
H. It regulates the temperature of blood.
J. It causes negative emotions, such as fear,
rather than positive emotions.
K. It regulates the flow of blood to the brain.
F. cooled down the blood entering the volunteers brains

G. asked the volunteers to say words like
few
H. explained the purpose of the study to the
volunteers
J. placed the volunteers facial muscles into
frowns
K. determined how happy the volunteers felt
47. Why was Darwins theory not accepted during
his lifetime?
A. Scientists could not think of a way to test

his theory.
B. Most scientists mistakenly believed that
emotions were caused by thoughts.
C. Scientists did not understand the function
of the hypothalamus.
D. Scientists did not study emotions until the
twentieth century.
E. Accurate measurement of blood temperature was not possible.
48. According to the theory described in lines
33-36, what effect might saying a word such
as cheese have on a person?
F. It makes a persons face appear to frown.
G. It relaxes the blood vessels leading to the
carotid artery.
H. It may cool the blood flowing to the
hypothalamus.
J. It produces the facial expression associated
with fear.
K. It does not affect the speakers mood.
49. What is the notion referred to in line 19?
A. Smiling can make people feel happy.
B. People who feel happy tend to smile.
C. Psychologists can conduct research on
emotions.
D. Theories change over time.
E. Certain words cause the speaker to smile
or frown.
FORM B
87
Part 2 Mathematics
50 QUESTIONS
General Instructions
Solve each problem. Select the best answer from the choices given. Mark the letter of your answer on the
answer sheet. You can do your figuring in the test booklet or on paper provided by the proctor. DO NOT
MAKE ANY MARKS ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET OTHER THAN FILLING IN YOUR ANSWER
CHOICES.
IMPORTANT NOTES:

(1) Formulas and definitions of mathematical terms and symbols are not provided.

(2) Diagrams other than graphs are not necessarily drawn to scale. Do not assume any relationship

in a diagram unless it is specifically stated or can be figured out from the information given.

(3) Assume that a diagram is in one plane unless the problem specifically states that it is not.

(4) Graphs are drawn to scale. Unless stated otherwise, you can assume relationships according to
appearance. For example, (on a graph) lines that appear to be parallel can be assumed to be
parallel; likewise for concurrent lines, straight lines, collinear points, right angles, etc.

51.
(5) Reduce all fractions to lowest terms.
4.5 0.22
___
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
52.
53.
0.1
0.99
1.99
9.9
99
990
What time will it be 46 hours after 9:30 p.m.

on Friday?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Carlos is picking colored pencils from a

large bin that contains only 480 red pencils,
240 green pencils, and 160 blue pencils.
Without looking, Carlos pulls out 22 pencils.
If the pencils were distributed randomly in
the bin, how many pencils of each color is it
most likely that he picked?
54.
F. 8 red, 7 green, 7 blue

G. 10 red, 7 green, 5 blue
H. 10 red, 8 green, 4 blue
J. 11 red, 6 green, 5 blue
K. 12 red, 6 green, 4 blue
7:30 p.m. Saturday

7:30 a.m. Sunday
6:30 p.m. Sunday
7:30 p.m. Sunday
9:30 p.m. Sunday
Each child in a certain class is required to

have school supplies of 1 notebook and
2 pencils. One notebook costs $1.09 and
one pencil costs $0.59. With $15, what is the
maximum number of children that can be
provided with the required supplies?
(Assume no tax.)
F. 6
G. 7
H. 8
J. 9
K. 12

FORM B
88
55.
How many positive integers satisfy the

inequality x 1 7 , 23?
A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
D. 29
E. 30
58.
( 51)
_______
5
173
F. 22
1
___
G. 217
M05-111
9
H. ___
56.
17
16
J. ___
M05-190
17
K. 2
59.
SONGS PLAYED DURING ONE HOUR
Number of
Songs
14
15
16
In the figure above, the base of nMPR is a

side of rectangle
____ MNQR, and point P is the
midpoint of NQ. If the area of the shaded
region is 24 square centimeters, what is the
area of the region that is not shaded?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
17
18
Number of
Radio Stations
8
4
4
5
9
The table above shows the number of songs

played during a specific hour by 30 different
radio stations. What is the mean number of
songs played during that hour by these
stations?
24 sq cm
48 sq cm
64 sq cm
72 sq cm
96 sq cm
A. 6
B. 8
C. 16.1
D. 16.5
E. 18
57. If x and y are positive integers such that

x
0.755 __
, what is the least possible value
y
for x?
60. 190210 1921x100
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D.
25
E.
75
In the equation above, what is the value of x?

F. 178
G. 188
H. 100
J. 122
K. 123
FORM B
89
61.

64.
2
4
_

6

8

1.

1.

1.
_

22

124

____
1 dollar 7 lorgs
1 dollar 0.5 dalts
Kwamme has 140 lorgs and 16 dalts. If he

exchanges the lorgs and dalts for dollars
according to the rates above, how many dollars will he receive? (Assume there are
no exchange fees.)
A. $28
B. $52
C. $182
D. $282
E. $988
62.
F. 6
G. 2
H. 6
J. 10
K. 12
DISTRIBUTION OF EYE AND HAIR COLOR

FOR 64 CHILDREN
Eye Color
Hair
Color
If the missing terms in the problem above

were filled in according to the pattern, what
would be the sum of all the terms?
Brown
Blue
Total
Blond
11
18
29
Black
15
20
35
65.
The table above shows the distribution of eye

color and hair color for 64 children. How
many of these children have blond hair or
brown eyes, but not both?
A pitcher contained 32 ounces of orange

juice and 12 ounces of grapefruit juice. More
grapefruit juice was added to the pitcher until
grapefruit juice represented }1} of the pitchers
3
contents. How many ounces of grapefruit juice
were added?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
A. 2 oz
B. 4 oz
C. 8 oz
D. 16 oz
E. 44 oz
M98-022
22
33
44
53
55
63.
66.
M96-042
TEST SCORES FOR 17 STUDENTS
Item
Quantity
Puchased
Price Per
Item
Rain Coat
$102.00
X
X
X
X
X
X
Slacks
$60.00
Shirt
$35.00
One state has a 6% sales tax on clothing

items priced at $75 or higher, and no sales
tax on clothing items priced under $75.
What is the total tax on the items in the
table above?
X = 1 Test Score
50
60
70
80
90
100
Test Score
According to the figure above, what was the

median score for the test?
A. $6.12
B. $6.72
C. $13.32
D. $17.00
E. $203.12
F. 70
G. 75
8
H. 76 ___
17
J. 80
K. 90
FORM B
90
67.
A. 3
B. 6
C. 15
2
E. 165
Which of the following shows the fractions

25
18
11 ___
___
, , and ___in order from least to
3
7
5
71.
greatest?
25 ___
18 11
F. ___
, , ___
7
18 ___
11 25
H. ___
, , ___
5
72.
69.
Jordan has 5 trees with the heights shown

above. He plans to plant the trees in a row
with the tallest tree in the middle, the next 2
shorter trees on either side, and the 2 shortest trees on either end of the row. How many
different ways of ordering the 5 trees follow
Jordans plan?
In the set of consecutive integers from 12 to

30, inclusive, there are 4 integers that are
multiples of both 2 and 3. How many integers
in the set are multiples of neither 2 nor 3?
What is the prime factorization of 714?

F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
18 25
11 ___
K. ___
, , ___
3
18 ___
25 11
J. ___
, , ___
5
A. 2
B. 5
C. 6
D. 13
E. 15
25 ___
11 18
G. ___
, , ___
7
F. 1
G. 2
H. 4
J. 6
K. 30
1
D. 27 __
68.
3
3
5
1
1
4__
ft, 5__ft, 4__ft, 6__ft, 5__ft
70.
The fuel mix for a small engine contains only

2 ingredients: gasoline and oil. If the mix
requires 5 ounces of gasoline for every
6 ounces of oil, how many ounces of gasoline
are needed to make 33 ounces of fuel mix?
A prom dress originally priced at $450 is on

sale for }1} off the original price. In addition,
3
Alia has a coupon for 10% off the discounted
price. If there is a 6% sales tax on the final
price of the dress, what would Alias total
cost be?
73.
2357
23119
2751
6717
23717
If R, S, and T are integers and R S and

T S are both odd numbers, which of the
following must be an even number?
A. R T
B. S T
C. R
D. S
E. T
A. $111.30
B. $143.10
C. $270.30
D. $286.20
E. $297.00
FORM B
91
74.
78.
10
F. 1
On the number line above, point E (not

shown) is the midpoint of A
C
and point F (not
shown) is the midpoint of B
D
. What is the
length of E
F
?
1
G. 2 __
1
H. 2 __
F. 1 unit
G. 2 units
H. 2.5 units
J.
3 units
K. 11 units
75.
J. 3
K. 5
79.
(6)(5)4 311
A. 7
B. 5
C. 1
D. 1
E. 11
The regular price of a 12-ounce bag of candy

is $2.90. Lily has a coupon for 30% off one of
these bags. What is the price per ounce (to the
nearest cent) that Lily will pay if she uses the
coupon?
A. $0.07
B. $0.15
C. $0.17
D. $0.22
E. $0.24
76.
If r53q 1 2 and q 5 ___

1n for n 5 1, 2, or 3,
3
what is the least possible value of r?
80.
To paint a room, Suzanne uses blue and white

paint in the ratio of blue:white58:3. What
was the total number of gallons of paint used
if she used 6 gallons of blue paint?
1
F. 2__
gal.
1
For what value of z is z2 } z512?
3
1
G. 8__
gal.
4
F. 218
G.
4
H.
8
J. 12
K. 18
H. 9 gal.
J. 16 gal.
K. 22 gal.
77.
n a particular vehicle, the front tire makes

O
three revolutions for every one revolution the
back tire makes. How many times larger is
the radius of the back tire than the radius of
the front tire?
81.
1
1
A. __
__
2
1
A. __

3
1
1
C. __
__
3
3
C. __
p
2
1
1
D. __
__
D. 3 p
FORM B
1
1
B. __
__
B. 3
E. 9
Which sum below can be expressed as a

non-repeating decimal?
1
1
E. __
__
92
82.
There are 1,000 cubic centimeters in 1 liter

and 1,000 cubic millimeters in 1 milliliter.
How many cubic millimeters are there in
1,000 cubic centimeters?
85.
4
water are added to the tank, making it __
full.
5
How many gallons of water could the tank

hold if it were completely full?
F. 1,000
G. 10,000
H. 100,000
J. 1,000,000
K. 1,000,000,000
83.
1
A water tank is __
full; then, 21 gallons of
A. 35 gal.
B. 45 gal.
C. 56 gal.
D. 84 gal.
E. 105 gal.
A radio station plays Samanthas favorite

song 6 times each day at random times
between 8:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. The song is
5 minutes long. If Samantha turns on the
radio at a random time between 8:00 a.m. and
5:00 p.m., what is the probability that her
favorite song will be playing at that time?
86.
1
Today, Tom is __
of Jordans age. In 2 years,
4
Tom will be __
1of Jordans age. How old is
3
Jordan today?
F. 4 yr
G. 6 yr
H. 12 yr
J. 16 yr
K. 22 yr
1
A. ___
30
1
B. ___
18
1
C. __
1
D. __
87.
What is the value of |N|?
1
E. __
84.
Let N5(|3|2|8|1|4|).
A. 9
B. 4
C. 1
D. 1
E. 9
On the first leg of its trip, a plane flew the

900 miles from New York City to Atlanta in
2 hours. On the second leg, it flew the
1,400 miles from Atlanta to Albuquerque in
1
2__
hours. How much greater was the planes
2
mean speed, in miles per hour, on the second
leg than on the first?

F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
FORM B
110 mph
150 mph
200 mph
250 mph
500 mph
93
88.
91.
Joe began to increase the speed of his car at

2:00 p.m. Since that time, the speed of Joes
1
car has been steadily increasing by 1 __
miles
2
per hour for each half minute that has passed.

1
If the car is now traveling 65 __
miles per
2
A steel container is shaped like a cube 10 feet

on each side. This container is being filled
with water at a rate of 7 cubic feet per minute.
At the same time, water is leaking from the
bottom of the container at a rate of 2 cubic feet
per minute. If the container is exactly halffilled at 9:00 a.m., at what time will the container begin to overflow?

A. 9:55 a.m.
B. 10:00 a.m.
C. 10:11 a.m.
D. 10:40 a.m.
E. 12:20 p.m.
hour, for how many minutes has the car been

exceeding the speed limit of 55 miles per hour?
F. 3__
1min
3
G. 3__
1min
92.
40
H. 4__
1min
2
J. 5 min
K. 7 min
89.
How many positive two-digit numbers are

evenly divisible by 4?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 24
D. 25
E. 26
y
45
The figure above shows three intersecting

straight lines. What is the value of y x?
F. 40
G. 50
H. 85
J. 95
K. 135
90. If x, y, and z are numbers such that

xy1xz5100, what is the value of
__x(3y 1 3z) 1 10?
5
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
60 1 2x
62
70
130
130 1 2x
93.
Each week, Arnold has fixed expenses of

$1,250 at his furniture shop. It costs Arnold
$150 to make a chair in his shop, and he sells
each chair for $275. What is Arnolds profit if
he makes and sells 25 chairs in 1 week?
A. $1,875
B. $2,500
C. $3,125
D. $3,750
E. $4,375

FORM B
94
M94-031C
94.
97.
75 ft
A. 2m15
B. 2m
C. 2(m 2 5)
D. 2(m 1 5) 2 5
E. 2(m25) 1 5
100 ft
The drawing above represents a rectangular

lot containing a building, indicated by the
shaded region. The dashed lines divide the
lot into twelve equal-sized squares. If the
unshaded portion of the lot is to be paved,
about how many square feet will be paved?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
95.
96.
98.

4,000 sq ft
5,000 sq ft
6,000 sq ft
7,000 sq ft
8,000 sq ft
$47,000
$54,000
$55,500
$57,500
$61,000
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Company X wants to assign each employee
a 3-digit ID number formed from digits in
the set shown above. No digit may appear
more than once in an ID number, and no
two employees may be assigned the same ID
number. What is the greatest total number of
possible different ID numbers?
F. 20
G. 120
H. 180
J. 216
K. 720
In a restaurant, the mean annual salary of the

4 chefs is $68,000, and the mean annual salary
of the 8 waiters is $47,000. What is the mean
annual salary of all 12 employees?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Marta and Kim are sisters. Five years ago,

Kims age was twice as great as Martas age.
If Marta is now m years old, which expression
represents Kims age now?
99.
A rectangular floor is 12 feet wide and 16 feet

long. It must be covered with square tiles that
are 8 inches on each side. Assume there is no
space between adjacent tiles. If the tiles cost
$8 each, how much will it cost to buy the tiles
needed to cover the floor?
A. $24
B. $64
C. $192
D. $2,304
E. $3,456
One week the price of gasoline dropped by

$0.05 per gallon. Madisons car travels
27 miles each way to work, and her car
travels 30 miles on each gallon of gasoline.
What were her total savings, to the nearest
cent, over the 5-day work week?
100. What is the greatest prime factor of 5,355?
F. $0.23
G. $0.25
H. $0.30
J. $0.45
K. $0.50
F. 17
G. 51
H.
119
J.
131
K.
153
THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST. IF TIME

REMAINS, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR ANSWERS TO
PART 2 AND PART 1. BE SURE THAT THERE ARE
NO STRAY MARKS, PARTIALLY FILLED ANSWER
CIRCLES, OR INCOMPLETE ERASURES ON YOUR
ANSWER SHEET.
FORM B
95
BB
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL
FORM
dresses jingle in the pastshells striking each other.

The modern jingle-dress in U contrasts past and present dresses, explaining that nowadays shells have been
replaced by the lids of metal cans. T contrasts the sounds
of the lids and shells.
Paragraph 1 (RUQST)
The first sentence in each paragraph is the given sentence. In this paragraph, the given sentence is a question, and R contains the answerthe song Take Me Out
to the Ballgame. The choice of the next sentence is more
difficult. At first glance, it appears to be Q, which refers
to the composer and lyricist of the song. S continues that
train of thought by stating when the lyricist first attended a ballgame, and T logically follows by referring to the
composer, who attended a ballgame 20 years later. The
resulting four-sentence paragraph (RQST) is logically
correct, but the remaining sentence, U, cannot follow T.
The subject of U (it) does not have a referent in T.
Thus, U must appear earlier in the paragraph. U says
that it is sung, so the pronoun must refer to a song.
The only song title is in R. U must follow R to form paragraph RUQST, because that is the only order that has a
logical place for U. This is an example of a paragraph
that is solved by viewing it as a coherent whole, more
than the connections between individual sentences.
Paragraph 5 (SUTQR)
The given sentence states what early European traders
thought about Africa, setting the reader up for a contrasting statement. S fills that role, stating that later
European travelers to Africa changed their impressions.
The reason for that change is given in Utheir visits to
Timbuktu. The best sentence to follow U is T. Both U and
T take place in the fifteenth century, and these stories in
T refers to the travelers tales in U. T also names a specific explorer, Benedetto Dei. Q begins with the pronoun
he, which referrs to Dei. Only R is left, and it provides
a good conclusion, both chronologically (ending with the
nineteenth century) and in terms of content (the rise and
fall of Timbuktu).
SUQTR might seem correct, but it contains a grammatical problem. The he in Q has no referent in U. Another
popular choice, SUTRQ, is incorrect because the sequence
RQ does not make sense. R describes the decline of
Timbuktu, while Q describes it as a thriving metropolis.
Paragraph 2 (TSURQ)
The opening sentence states a problem: cowboys used rawhide for their gear because they did not have chemicals to
soften it. One effective way to soften leather was created
by the gauchos of South America (T). The remaining three
sentences describe how they did it. S begins with They,
referring to the gauchos in T, and describes cutting a slot
into a piece of wood. The next step (U) was to insert a
leather strip into the slot. R continues the processpulling the strip repeatedly through the slot. (Notice that
U, which refers to inserting the strip into the slot, must
precede R, which occurs after the strip has been inserted.)
The result is a soft, supple piece of leather (Q).
LOGICAL REASONING
11. (C) Draw a grid to show who owned each pet. An X
indicates that the person does not own the pet. We are
told that Xing does not own the hamster.

Parrot
Iguana
Hamster
Raquel
Tiara
Xing
Paragraph 3 (USTRQ)
The opening sentence is about topographical maps. U
explains how they differ from other maps and defines the
term contour line. S supplies another function of contour linesto indicate the slope of the land. T explains in
more detail how contour lines indicate slope. The last two
sentences are about the depiction of streams and other
waterways. R says that blue lines represent waterways.
Q explains how the course of a waterway can be revealed
by V-shaped contour lines.
The question asks which option makes it possible to determine who owns the iguana. For each option, mark the
information on the grid and figure out whether you are
able to identify the owner of the iguana. If you cant figure
it out, erase the marks and try the next option. For example, mark the information for Option A, writing yes to
indicate that Tiara owned the hamster, and filling in Xs
wherever you can.
Option A

Paragraph 4 (QSRUT)
According to the given sentence, the jingle dress dance is
popular at Native American events. Q is next, describing
the steps of the dance, which cause the decorations on the
dress to jingle (S). Sentence R describes what made the
Parrot
Iguana
Raquel
Tiara
Xing
96
Hamster
X
yes
X
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL
FORM

Option A does not allow us to figure out who owns the
iguanait could be either Raquel or Xingso it cannot
be correct. Only Option C allows us to determine the
iguana's owner. If Raquel owns the parrot and Xing does
not own the hamster, then Xing must own the iguana.
between Elmont and Richland is closed because of flooding,

so no one can drive to Lendle on Highway 14. (Notice that
the location of Mopley isn't relevant to the correct answer.)
14. (J) Neither condition places a contestant in a definite
position. Rather, they give information about contestants
relative to each other. From this information you can
infer the following:
Option C

Raquel
Parrot
Iguana
Hamster
yes
Tiara
yes
Xing
yes
HIGHEST
12. (F) Draw a diagram to illustrate the relationship

among the groups mentioned in the question: teachers,
people who went to the lecture, and people who went to
the lecture and left early.
Went to lecture
Not at lecture
Options G, H, J, and K might be true, but not necessarily. Only Option F must be true, because none of the
teachers left the lecture early.
13. (D) According to statement 1, the towns of Elmont,
Lendle, and Richland are connected by Highway 14.
Draw a diagram to show this relationship.
Elmont

Lendle
Statement 1
Statement 2
???
Alice
???
Huang
???
???
Alice
???
Mariah
???
The question marks are placeholders for other contestants.

(The diagram shows placeholders for 5 contestants because
there is no information to determine anyones exact position. However, there are only 4 contestants: Alice, Sidney,
Huang, and Mariah.) Notice that no information is given
about Sidneys airplane. For a question like this, in which
all of the information is relative, it is best to evaluate each
option and determine which must be true. Options F, G, H,
and K might be true, but not enough information is given
to conclude they must be true. Only Option J must be
true. If Sidney finished second, then Sidney finished ahead
of Huang and Mariah, and Alice won. Even though Huang
and Mariahs exact positions are unknown, the question
can still be answered correctly.
Left early
Teachers
15. (A) The question gives the names of four new students
and four older student partners. Your task is to match
them up correctly. Draw a table to show the four student
pairs. Condition 1 says that Sandro and Whitney are
paired. Edgar, an older student, is not paired with Gloria
or Bai (Condition 3), so he must be paired with Henry.
Richland
Highway 14
We know that Highway 14 is closed from Elmont to

Richland. This stretch of highway includes the town of
Lendle.
New students
Older student partners
Statement 2 says that the town of Mopley is connected to

Lendle, but does not specify how it is connected. Mopley
could be connected to Lendle by another road (not
named), or it could be somewhere on Highway 14.
Bai
Gloria
Sandro
Henry
Whitney
Edgar
Bai is not paired with Rakim (Condition 2), so Rakim

must be paired with Gloria, leaving Bai paired with Paola,
which is Option A. To answer this question correctly, you
must keep track of which students are new and which are
older. Otherwise, you might incorrectly pair Paola with
Rakim (Option E)
Not enough information is provided to determine whether

Mopley is flooded, or whether Mopley can be reached
directly from Elmont, ruling out A and E. Highway 14
connecting Elmont and Richland is flooded, but we cannot
determine whether the towns themselves are flooded,
ruling out B and C. Only Option D is valid. Highway 14
97
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL

16. (H) This question contains two conditional statements. You can put the two sentences together: When
Tomas is wearing a white shirt, he is also wearing a tie
and black shoes. Thus, Option H must be true.

There is no information about Patricks position. He could

be in one of several possible positions. Based only on this
information, there are several possible orders (using the
first initial of each driver).
AJMP AJPM PAJM
The first sentence only tells us what will happen when

Tomas wears his white shirt. It says nothing about what
will happen when Tomas does not wear his white shirt.
Therefore, it is incorrect to conclude that when Tomas
wears a tie he is also wearing a white shirt. Likewise, the
second sentence tells us only what will happen when Tomas
wears a tie. It doesnt tell us what will happen when
Tomas does not wear a tie. We cannot conclude that whenever Tomas wears his black shoes he is also wearing a tie.
Maybe the colors of the cars will help to solve the problem.
Patrick did not drive the white car (Statement 3), the
silver car (Statement 4), or the orange car (Statement 5).
Therefore, Patrick must drive the brown car. The brown
car was to the right of the orange car (Statement 1), but
that leaves two possible orders of cars, with an initial
standing for each color.
OSBW OSWB
Thus, we cannot determine who stands at the far right,
Patrick (the brown car) or Marquise (the white car), so the
answer cannot be determined (Option K).
17. (B) Draw a diagram like the one below. Eight years
are shown because eight is the largest option. The question
states that Jack played only the violin the first year. Under
Year 1, put an X to represent Jacks instrument during the
first year. The question does not state the order in which
Jack played each instrument. Since he started with the
violin, and played violin for two years, add an X under the
second year as well.
Year
Violin
19. and 20. These directions differ from the directions for
the code in Sample Form A. They state that the position
of a letter is never the same as that of the word it represents. For example, in the first sentence, Q cannot represent Are because they are both first in their sentences.
To answer these questions, you need not find out what
every letter represents.
Cello
19. (A) The letter Z appears in the first and second sentences, but not the third, so the word that it represents
must also appear in the first and second sentences, but
not the third. Late (Option C) is incorrect because it
does not appear in the second sentence. Again (Option
D) is ruled out because the letter and word are in the
same position in the first sentence. The remaining
wordsare and weappear in the first and second
sentences, and neither word shares the same position
as the letter Z. Must we then conclude that the correct
answer is cannot be determined from the information
given? Not necessarily. The letter P is also common to
both sentences, but P cannot represent are because P
and "are" share the same position in the second sentence.
Thus P must represent we, leaving Z to represent are,
which is Option A.
Bass
Jack played the cello and the bass for three years each, and
he never played more than two instruments during the
same year. One possibility is that he played the cello during years, 2, 3, and 4, as marked below. Jack could not have
started playing the bass until year 3. After Bass, place an
X under years 3, 4, and 5.
Year
Violin
Cello
Bass
FORM
This is one possible arrangement, and it requires five years.

All other possibilities require at least five years. Option B
is correct.
20. (K) The word again appears only in the first and
third sentences, as do the letters Q and H. There is no
way to determine which letter represents again, so the
answer is Option K.
18. (K) This question asks you to match each driver with
a car color and put the drivers in order. Because the question asks for the driver at the far right, start with the information about the drivers. According to Statements 2 and
3, Marquise stands to the right of both Anya and Jorge.
98
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL
FORM
26. (K) Bessels theory is summarized in lines 54-57, and

Option K restates his theory. Option F is contradicted by
lines 35-37, and Option G summarizes the belief of some
religious leaders (line 40), not Bessel. Options H and J
were not part of Bessels theory. The eruption of Mount
Pinatubo occurred long after Bessels lifetime, so he could
not have known about it.
READING
No Summer
21. (B) The correct answer must incorporate all of
the important elements of the reading passage, yet it
must not be overly broad. Options A and E are details,
and Option D, while important, is not the main theme.
Option C might look attractive, but the passage is about
much more than agriculture in New England. Option B
best incorporates the description of the strange summer
of 1816 and its possible cause.
Samizdat
27. (D) Option A mentions two important samizdat writers, but they are mentioned only in passing in the fourth
paragraph and are not the main topic. Option B refers
to all poetry published in the Soviet Union, not limited to
samizdat poetry, so it is too broad. Option C is incorrect
because the Soviet Union had neither a free press nor a
free society (lines 6-9). Option D is a good summary of the
passage, describing Soviet censorship and the samizdat
response. Option E is a detail mentioned only briefly in
the first paragraph.
22. (F) The correct answer requires you to make an

inference based on information provided in the second
paragraph. Lines 15-16 state that farmers prepared
to plow and plant; they expected warm temperatures
(lines 16-17) and were optimistic (line 18). Thus,
the correct inference is that the farmers expected the
weather to be normal and expected their crops to grow,
which leads to Option F. Options H and K are incorrect
because the snow and cold weather actually worsened
growing conditions. The replanted crops were stunted
or destroyed (line 27), ruling out Option G. Option J is
not true; by July, the weather showed little improvement
(lines 28-29).
28. (H) The earliest phase of samizdat is described in

lines 35-36: At first, samizdat focused mainly on literature, such as poetry and novels. Only Option H, a short
story, fits into this category. None of the other options are
representative of the earliest phase of samizdat, though
they might be examples of later stages.
23. (C) The winter of 1816-1817 followed the meager

harvest of the summer of 1816. With many crops stunted
or destroyed (lines 27-28), one would expect food shortages
the following winter, which is Option C. Option A is not
mentioned. Options B, D, and E are contradicted by
information in the passage.
29. (B) To answer this question, you must read more than
the sentence containing the phrase a knock at his door
in the middle of the night (lines 47-48). The fourth paragraph says that Pasternak feared that he would appear
disloyal to the Soviet state. What did he fear? Lines
18-19 state, Most worried that they were being watched
by the governments secret police. The correct answer
is most likely that Pasternak feared a visit by the secret
police, which is Option B. The other options are mentioned in the passage but are not objects of fear, as the
secret police were.
24. (J) Reread the fourth and fifth paragraphs to

understand the phrase the global nature of weather.
They explain how conditions in one part of the world
(Indonesia) affected weather in another part of the world
(New England), which is Option J. None of the other
options are supported by the passage.
30. (J) The correct answer must be in the last paragraph,

the only paragraph to mention computers (lines 66-70).
The passage does not specify the content of the texts stored
on computers, so Options F and G can be ruled out. Doctor
Zhivago was smuggled out by samizdat, not by computer,
which eliminates Option H. Option J is the best answer,
since storing and circulating texts via computers is more
efficient than typing or hand-copying samizdat texts.
Option K is not mentioned.
25. (B) To answer this question, assume that the year of

no summer was indeed caused by the eruption of Mount
Tambora and the lingering dust in the atmosphere.
Based on the information in the passage, what else
might you expect to have happened? Option B seems
possible; dust from the volcanic eruption might have
blocked the sunlight and lowered temperatures in other
areas of the world. Options A, C, D, and E are not supported by the passage.
99
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL
FORM
31. (B) The answer to this question is not stated directly

in the passage but can be inferred from lines 16-19.
Unsigned documents protected samizdat writers from
capture and punishment, which is Option B. Options A
and E are not likely reasonsthe materials were in fact
smuggled outside the Soviet Union and copied over and
over. Option C might look attractive, but the samizdat
documents were unsigned to protect the identities of the
writers, not of the secret police. Since all samizdat documents were unsigned, that was not a factor in judging
their trustworthiness (Option D).
38. (G) Reread the third paragraph to understand the

idea in line 40. The attempt to use pigeons to photograph the enemys army position was impractical, but the
idea behind ittaking photographs from overhead,
without detectionwas practical, which is Option G. The
passage gives the example of satellite-mounted cameras
to illustrate its practicality. Options F and J were true
for photography in general, not to "the idea" in line 40.
Option H describes a use for aerial photography, not the
idea. Option K refers to the impractical attempt, not to
the idea behind it.
32. (F) The answer is found in lines 71-75. The correct

answer, Option F, makes the connection between the
abolishment of censorship and subsequent freedom of the
press, which eliminated the need for samizdat. The passage does not support Options G or K, and it contradicts
Option H. Option J is not the reason that samizdat networks ended.
Pueblo
39. (D) Option A cannot be the theme because only the
first paragraph discusses how weather conditions affect
tree growth. Option B is too broad to be the theme of the
passage, which focuses on Pueblo and Hopi villages. The
reason for the abandonment of the Pueblo villages (Option
C) is mentioned only in the last paragraph, so it is not the
theme. Option D, how tree-ring dating can establish the
age of archaeological findings, offers a good summary of
the entire passage, which explains the science of tree-ring
dating, followed by several examples. Option E cannot
be correct. The passage does not mention other dating
methods, nor does it claim that tree-ring dating is the best
method for determining dates.
Camera
33. (D) Options A, B, and C are mentioned in passing,
but they are not the themes of the passage. Option E
is mentioned only in the last paragraph. Option D best
describes what the passage is aboutearly versions of
the concealed camera, examples of its uses, and its role
in spy craft.
40. (K) This question requires you to understand the

established chronology (line 50) and floating chronology
(line 53) and to draw an inference about the key beam,
based on information in the passage. Option F is true,
but can be proved without a key beam. The passage
does not mention Options G, H, and J. Option K is correct. The key beam, with its overlapping ring patterns
of the established and floating chronologies, allowed
archaeologists to connect the two chronologies.
34. (K) The answer, Option K, is found in lines 9-11.

Despite the name of the camera, amateur photographers,
not detectives, used this camera.
35. (D) The correct answer, Option D, is found in lines
9-12. Early detective cameras resembled boxes (Option A),
but that was not their purpose. Options B, C, and E refer
to other kinds of cameras, not early detective cameras.
41. (B) The trees in the question share an identical pattern of a very wide band followed by two narrow bands,
showing that both trees were alive during that three-year
period, although they were planted and cut at different
times. Options A and B can be evaluated by assigning
arbitrary years to the three shaded ringsfor example,
10, 11, and 12. (It does not matter what numbers you
choose, as long as they are used consistently.) Counting
out from the shaded rings, Log 1 was cut in the year 16,
while Log 2 was cut in the year 13. Thus, Log 2 was cut
before Log 1 (Option B). Option C contradicts the reasoning behind tree-ring dating and cannot be correct. There
is no way to determine which log came from the fastergrowing tree, ruling out Options D and E.
36. (J) According to lines 21-25, the camera with mirrors

allowed the photographer to aim the camera in one direction while photographing something in another direction
(Option J). Options F and G refer to early detective cameras, not the camera with mirrors, which resembled an
ordinary camera. Option H describes a different use for
cameras, as presented in the third paragraph. Option K
is not mentioned.
37. (A) The correct answer is found in lines 17-19.
Option A restates the idea that people were no longer
deceived by detective cameras. None of the other options
is supported by the passage.
100
SAMPLE TEST VERBAL

42. (G) This question requires you to choose the correct
answer based on information that is not directly stated.
Evaluate each option to determine whether tree-ring dating would be useful for that purpose. The passage gives
no information about the kinds of trees, so Option F is
not correct. Lines 10-12 support the correct answer that
tracking the historical sequence of weather cycles in a
region (Option G) is both possible and useful using treering dating. Lines 62-65 also support Option G. Read the
remaining options to make sure that Option G is the best
answer. Options H and K cannot be answered by tree-ring
dating. Comparing growing seasons around the world is
not possible (Option J), since only one part of the world,
the southwestern United States, is discussed with relation
to tree-ring dating.
FORM
46. (K) After volunteers said the required words,

researchers assessed how happy the volunteers felt
(lines 25-28), which is Option K. Option F is related
to the theory, but was never carried out. Option G is
ruled out because volunteers who smiled were not in the
group that said words like few (lines 25-28). Option H
is contradicted by lines 23-24. The volunteers, not the
researchers, placed their own facial muscles into smiles
or frowns (lines 21-23), eliminating Option J.
47. (A) In the first paragraph, Darwins theory is
described as controversial and impossible to prove, and it
thus never gained acceptance (lines 10-12). Option A
best summarizes this idea. Options B and D are contradicted by the passage. Options C and E don't answer the
question.
43. (A) We must refer to several parts of the passage to

answer the question. The second paragraph states that
archaeologists had established a continuous tree-ring
chronology going back to a.d. 1260, based on ring patterns of trees with overlapping lifetimes (the established
chronology). The third paragraph, where the quotation
appears, describes the development of a floating chronology that did not overlap the established chronology. The
fact that they did not overlap implies that the years of
the floating chronology preceded the years of the established chronology, which is Option A. Option B cannot be
true because the logs used in Oraibi went as far back as
a.d. 1260, but no further. The remaining options do not
explain the archaeologists conclusion.
48. (H) Volunteers who said words such as cheese were

measurably happier than volunteers who said other
words (lines 25-28), implying that the act of smiling
leads to feelings of happiness. According to the theory
in lines 33-36, a smile may lower the temperature of the
blood flowing to the hypothalamus (lines 44-47), which
is Option H. Options F, J, and K are contradicted by the
passage. Option G is not mentioned.
49. (A) The notion of a smile in ones heart (lines 19-20)
signifies a feeling of happiness. Consciously smiling can
produce a smile in one's heart, which is Option A. None
of the other options correspond to this notion.
44. (H) The abandonment of the Pueblo villages is mentioned in lines 24-25 and line 36, but only in the context of
determining when the villages were occupied. The reason
for their abandonment is not brought up until the last
paragraph, where the author suggests that the villagers
left their homes to find a more hospitable climate (lines
63-65). This is restated in Option H, the correct answer.
Options F, G, J, and K might sound reasonable, but there
is no evidence in the passage to support them.
50. (G) The hypothalamus is an area of the brain

believed to regulate emotions (lines 40-41). Regulating
and managing emotions are the same process, and thus
Option G is the best answer. None of the other options
is supported by the passage. Option H may seem attractive, but the passage theorizes that the act of smiling, not
the hypothalamus, changes the temperature of blood.
Smiles
45. (A) Options B and D are important details, not the
main theme. Option C is too broad. The passage is about
testing only one theory on the relationship between emotions and facial expressions, not about the use of facial
expressions in any type of research. Option A is best. It
is broad enough to encompass Darwins theory and more
modern theories, and it correctly identifies the issue, the
causation of emotions. Option E is a detail mentioned
only in the last paragraph.
101
FORM

51. (E) ____
4.53 0.22 5 45 3 0.22 5 9.9
57. (B) Write 0.75 as a fraction in lowest terms to find
0.1
52. (K) First, find the ratio of red to green to blue

pencils: 480:240:160 5 6:3:2
75
3
the least value of x: 0.75 5 ____
5 __
So, the least possible positive integer value
100
of x 5 3.
Since 6 1 3 1 2 5 11, multiply each value by

2 (because 2 3 11 5 22) to get the number of
each color pencil in a set of 22 randomly
chosen pencils: 12 red, 6 green, 4 blue
(51)(51)
(3)(3)
9
58. (H) ___________
_________
____
17 17 17
17
17
53. (D) The quickest solution is to first round up from

46 hours to 48 hours, because 48 hours is
2 full days. Thus, 48 hours after 9:30 p.m. on
Friday would be 9:30 p.m. on Sunday. Since
the question asks for 46 hours, subtract 2 hours
from 9:30 p.m. Sunday to get 7:30 p.m. Sunday.
59. (C) To find the average, multiply each number of

songs by the number of radio stations. Then
add those products and divide by the total
number of radio stations:
(14 8) 1 (15 4) 1 (16 4) 1 (17 5) 1 (18 9)
_____________________________________________

30
112
1
60
1
64
1
85
1 162
5 __________________________
30
5 16.1
54. (F) The cost for one childs supplies is:

$1.09 1 2($0.59) 5 $2.27
Divide the total money available ($15) by the
cost for one childs supplies ($2.27) to get the
number of children that can be provided with
the supplies: $15 4 $2.27 5 6.6
60. (F) |190 210| |19 21| x 100

|20| |2| x 100

You do not need to complete the division,
because the number of children must be a
whole number. Six children can be provided
with the complete requirement of supplies.
20 2 x 100

x 78
61. (B) Use proportions to make the conversions:

55. (A) First, simplify the inequality:

Lorgs to dollars
140
7
____
5 __
7x 5 140
x
1
x 1 7 < 23
x < 16
x 5 $20
The positive integers that satisfy the inequality are 1, 2, 3, , 14, 15. (We cannot include 16
because x must be less than 16.) 15 positive
integers satisfy this inequality.
56. (J) The area of triangle MPR is equal to half the

area of rectangle MNQP. So, the area of MPR
is also equal to the area of triangles MNP
____ 1
RPQ. Point P is the midpoint of side NQ, so
triangle MNP is equal in area to triangle RQP.
Thus, triangle MPR 5 2(RQP). The area of the
unshaded region is the sum of the areas of triangles MPR and MNP.
62. (G) T
he question asks for the number of children
with blond hair or brown eyes, but not both.
According to the chart, 18 children have blond
hair and blue eyes, and 15 children have brown
eyes and black hair. 18 15 33 children
with blond hair or brown eyes, but not both.
Dalts to dollars
165 ____
0.5
___
0.5x 5 16
x
1

Total dollars 5 20 1 32 5 $52
63. (A) The only item on the chart that is priced above
$75 is the rain coat. Only one rain coat was
purchased. Calculate the sales tax on the
price of that rain coat:
MNP 5 RQP 5 24 sq cm
MPQ 5 2(RQP) 5 48 sq cm

x 5 $32
hus, the area of the unshaded region is

T
24 1 48 5 72 sq cm
102
$102 3 0.06 5 $6.12
FORM

64. (K) The values in the problem can be grouped into
3 terms that each contain a positive and negative value: (2, 4), (6, 8), (22, 24). Arrange
the terms into 2 rows to determine the pattern and find the missing terms:
2 6 22

4
8 24
68. (F) It may be easier to see the order of the

fractions by changing them to mixed
numbers or decimals:
The values in the top row are decreasing by

4, while the values in the bottom row are
increasing by 4. Fill in the remaining values:
2 6 10 14 18 22

4 8 12 16 20 24
3
3
25
___
__
5 3 45 3.57
7
7
18
3
___5 3 __
5 3.6
5
5
25
18
he smallest fraction is ___
T
, followed by ___,
7
5
11
and finally ___.
3
69. (D) First, find the sale price of the dress. If it is on
To find the sum, combine the terms as follows:

(2 1 4) 1 (6 1 8) 1 (10 1 12) 1 1 (22 1 24)
1
sale for __
off the original price, the sale price
3
2
2
is __
of the original price: $450 3 __5 $300
Note that each pair of parentheses sums to 2.

Count the number of pairs of parentheses (6)
and multiply to find the final answer:
Alia has a 10% discount on the sale price. 10%

of $300 is $30, so the discounted price will be:
2 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 5 6(2) 5 12
$300 2 $30 = $270
Next, calculate the sales tax on the discounted

price: $270 3 0.06 5 $16.20
65. (B) The pitcher originally contained 44 ounces

of juice (32 12). If x ounces of grapefruit
juice is added, the pitcher now contains
44 x ounces of juice. 12 x ounces of that
1
is grapefruit juice, which makes up __
of the
3
entire juice mix. Use that information to set
up a proportion to solve for x:
So, the total cost that Alia pays for the dress is:
$270 1 $16.20 5 $286.20
70. (H) The tallest tree (T) goes in the middle, so there
is only 1 possible location for that tree. The
next two tallest trees (call them a and b) go
on either side of the tallest tree, so there are 2
possible options (aTb and bTa). The final two
trees (c and d) go on either side of the set
(caTbd, daTbc, cbTad, dbTac). So, there are 4
different ways to arrange the trees.
12 x
1
_______
__
44 x
3

3(12 x) 44 x
36 3x 44 x
2x 8
x 4 ounces
You could also use the counting principle to

solve this: 1 3 2 3 2 5 4
66. (J) To find the median, first count the number of
tests (Xs) in the figure, which is 17. The median is the middle value. The middle value of 17
is 9. Counting from the left, find the ninth X in
the figure to determine the median score (80).
71. (C) The question asks for integers that are not
divisible by 2 or 3. Since all even numbers are
divisible by 2, begin by listing the odd integers
in this set:
67. (C) I f the ratio is 5 ounces of gasoline to 6 ounces of

5
oil, then gasoline makes up ___
of the fuel mix.
11
Use a proportion to calculate the number of
ounces of gasoline (x) in 33 ounces of mix:

11
2
___
5 3 __5 3.666
13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, 25, 27, 29

Then, eliminate those integers that are multiples of 3. The remaining integers are:

13, 17, 19, 23, 25, 29
x ___
5
___
x 15 ounce
33
11
103
The answer is 6.
FORM

72. (K) S
ince 714 is even, factor out a 2:
714 2 357. The sum of the digits of 357 is
15, so we know 357 is a multiple of 3:
714 2 3 119
Finally, 119 is divisible by 7, so
714 2 3 7 17
77. (B) The formula for the circumference of a circle

is C = 2r. Let f be the radius of the front tire
and b equal the radius of the back tire. Then
the circumference of the front tire would be
2f and the circumference of the back tire
would be 2b.
Since it takes the front tire 3 revolutions for
every 1 revolution of the back tire, the circumference of the back tire must be three times
the circumference of the front tire:
73. (A) S
ince R S is odd, then one of the two variables (R or S) must be odd and the other must
be even. Similarly, since T S is odd, one of
the two variables must be odd and the other
must be even. Since S is common to both
expressions, if S is odd, then R and T are both
even; and if S is even, both R and T are odd. It
is not possible to determine which of the two
possibilities is true, so Options C, D, and E can
be eliminated as the correct answer.
2b = 3(2f)

b = 3f
Thus, the radius of the back tire (b) is 3 times
larger than the radius of the front tire (f).
78. (G) First, calculate the three possible values of q:
Option B (S T) can be eliminated because if

T S is odd, then S T is also odd.
Option A (R T) is the only possible answer.

If R and T are both odd, then R T is even. If
R and T are both even, then R T is even.
1
1
If n 5 1, then q 5 ___
5 __.
1
3
1
1
If n 5 2, then q 5 ___
5 __
.
2
9
1
1
If n 5 3, then q 5 ___
5 ___.
3
3
74. (J) Calculate the locations of points E and F on

the number line using the midpoint formula:
4 6

Point E (point A point C) 2 _______
1
2
2 10

Point F (point B point D) 2 ________
4
2
___

Now calculate the length of EF: 4 1 3 units
27
The least value of r will occur when q is the
1
smallest (q 5 ___
). So, the least possible value
27
1
1
1
___
of r is: r 5 3( ) 1 2 5 __
1 2 5 2 __
27
9
9
79. (B) |(6) (5) 4| |3 11| 5

75. (C) L
ily has a coupon for 30% off, which means
she will pay 70% of the regular price
(100% 30% 70%). Lily will pay
$2.90 70% $2.03 for this bag of candy.
|3| |8| 5 3 8 5 5
80. (G) Create a proportion to calculate the total

number of gallons of paint used:
Gallons
of blue
8
6
_______________
5 ______
5 __
x
83
total gallons
To calculate the price per ounce, divide the

final price Lily pays by the number of ounces
in the bag:
8x 6(11)
1
x 8 __
gallons
$2.03 12 $0.16917, which rounds to $0.17
1z 5 12
76. (K)
z __
3
2
__
z 5 12
81. (D) Of the fractions listed in the options
__12, __13, __14, __15, and __16, __13 and __16are the only frac-
tions that can be written as repeating deci-
365 18
z 5 ___
2
mals. Adding a non-repeating decimal

to a repeating decimal will result in a
104
FORM

repeating decimal. Thus, the correct answer
1
T 1 2 5 __
(J 2)
must contain two non-repeating decimals,
Simplify the above equation for T:
1
1
which is option D: __
__
1
T __
(J 2) 2

82. (J) 1
L 1,000 mL
1 L (1,000)(1,000) cu mm 1,000,000 cu mm
ow, set the two equations equal to each other

N
and solve for J:
1
1
__
J __(J 2) 2
4
3
1
4
__
__
J 1J __
4
3
3
83. (B) If the song is 5 minutes long, then it could be

played up to 60 4 5 5 12 times per hour. There
are 9 hours between 8:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m.
So, the song could be played up to 12 3 9 5 108
possible times between the given hours. Since
the song is played 6 times per day, the probabil6
1
ity of Samantha hearing the song is ____
5 ___.
108
ultiply both sides of the equation by the

M
common denominator (12):
1
1
4
12 ( __
J) 12 ( __J __)
3J 4J 16
J 16
18
87. (C) First, simplify N: N 5 (3 2 8 1 4) 5 (1) 5 1

Then, find |N|: |N| 5 |1| 5 1
84. (F) T
o find the speed of the plane, divide the miles
travelled by the number of hours:
First leg: 900 miles 4 2 hours 450 mph
1
Second leg: 1,400 miles 4 2 __
hours 560 mph
88. (G) F
irst, find the amount by which Joe is currently
exceeding the speed limit of 55 miles per hour:
The question asks how much greater the

speed was in the second leg than in the first,
so subtract: 560 450 110 mph
5
12
___
x
___x 21
15
7
1
1
10 __
3 __ 3 __minutes
89. (A) The question asks for the number of positive

two-digit numbers evenly divisible by 4. The
smallest such number is 12 (4 3), and the
largest is 96 (4 24). Thus, the two-digit
numbers evenly divisible by 4 are 4 3,
4 4, 4 5, and so on up to 4 24.
15
7x 15 21
x 45 gallons
86. (J) F
irst, set up an equation to express Toms age
(T) and Jordans age (J) today:
To find how many such numbers there are,

subtract the lowest value from the greatest
value: 24 3 21.
1
T __
J
4
1

He increased his speed at a rate of 1__
mph
2
each half-minute, or 3 mph every minute.
To determine how many minutes he has been
exceeding the speed limit, divide:
85. (B) L
et x be the number of gallons of water the tank
holds when completely full. Use the information
in the first sentence to set up the equation:
4
1
__
x
__x
21
5
3
1
1
65 __
55 10 __mph
wo years from now, Toms age will be T 2

T
and Jordans age will be J 2. Use that information and the information from the second
sentence in the question to set up an equation
about the relationship between Toms age and
Jordans age in two years:
However, since each endpoint is included

(4 3 and 4 24), add 1 to that value to get
the exact count of the numbers: 21 1 22
105
FORM

90. (H) T
he left side of the given equation
(xy 1 xz 5 100) must be rearranged to look like
x(3y 1 3z) 1 10 to get the answer.
__
5
Similarly, angle y and angle QRP are

supplementary, so y 5 180 2 45 5 135.

Thus, the value of y 2 x 5 135 2 85 5 50
First, factor out the x: x(y 1 z) 5 100

93. (A) Each chair costs Arnold $150 to make, and he

sells the chair for $275. His profit is found by
subtracting the cost from the price:
ext, multiply both sides of the equation by 3:

N
3x (y 1 z) 5 3(100)
x(3y 1 3z) 5 300
Then, divide both sides by 5:

300
x(3y 1 3z) 5 60
1x(3y 1 3z) 5 ____
__
__
5
5
5

$275 $150 $125 per chair

If Arnold makes and sells 25 chairs in a week,
his initial profit is 25 $125 $3,125. However, Arnold has additional fixed expenses
of $1,250 per week, so this cost must also be
subtracted. Thus, his final profit is:
Finally, add 10 to both sides:
x(3y 1 3z) 1 10 5 70
__
5
Now that the left side looks like the expression
in the question, the answer is the number on
the right side (70).
$3,125 $1,250 $1,875

94. (H) First, calculate the area of the entire lot:
91. (D) The volume of the container is

10 10 10 1,000 cubic feet. Since it is
already half full at 9:00 a.m., it will begin
to overflow after 500 cubic feet of water is
added to it.
75 3 100 5 7,500 sq ft

here are 12 equal-sized squares, so each

T
square is equal to 7,500 12 = 625 sq ft.
rom the figure, it appears the building

F
(shaded region) covers 1 full square, 1 halfsquare, and 2 quarter-squares, for a total of
1
1
2 full squares (1 1 __
1 2( __) 5 2). Two full
7 cubic feet of water are being added per

minute, but 2 cubic feet of water leak out per
minute. That means 7 2 5 cubic feet of
water are being added to the tank each minute.
squares are equal to 625 1 625 5 1,250 sq ft.
500 cubic feet 5 cubic feet per minute

100 minutes
100 minutes is equal to 1 hour 40 minutes.

1 hour 40 minutes after 9:00 a.m. is 10:40 a.m.
o find the area that is not shaded, subtract

T
the area of the building from the area of the
entire lot: 7,500 1,250 = 6,250 sq ft, which
rounds to 6,000 sq ft.
Remember that the question asks you to find
out about how many square feet and not
exactly how many square feet.
92. (G) Angle PQR and the marked 40 angle are

vertical angles and thus are congruent, so
angle PQR is 40. Similarly, angle QRP is
45 because it is a vertical angle with the one
marked 45. Given those two angles, calculate
the third angle of triangle PQR (angle RPQ):
95. (B) T
o find the mean salary for all 12 employees,
find the sum for each group. Thus, 4 people
earned a total of $272,000 and 8 people earned
a total of $376,000. Use the mean formula:
40 1 45 1 RPQ 5 180
RPQ 5 95
Angle RPQ and angle x are supplementary,

which means they sum to 180, so
x 5 180 2 95 5 85.
106
648,000
272,000 376,000 5
________
$54,000
12
FORM

96. (J) M
adisons car travels 27 miles one way to work,
so it travels a total of 54 miles per day. In 5
days, it travels 5 3 54 5 270 miles. Her car
travels 30 miles on each gallon of gas, so it uses
270

____
5 9 gallons of gas per week. To find the

30
total savings, multiply the number of gallons
99. (E) Since the floor measurement is in feet and the

tile measurement is in inches, change inches
into feet:

9 gallons $0.05 5 $0.45
97. (E) L
et m 5 Martas age now, and k 5 Kims age
now. Then 5 years ago, Martas age was
m 2 5, and Kims age was k 2 5. Using the
information in the question, set up the
equation to solve for k:

12
The floor is 12 ft wide. To find the number of

tiles needed along the width of the floor, divide
the width by the size of a tile:
by the savings per gallon:
8
2
8 in. ___
__ft
3
2
12 ft __
12 __ 18 tiles
3
The floor is 16 ft long. Find the number of

tiles needed along the length of the floor:

2
16 ft __
24 tiles
3
To find the total number of tiles needed, multiply the number needed along the width by the
number needed along the length:
k 2 5 5 2(m 2 5)
k 5 2(m 2 5) 1 5
18 24 432 tiles
98. (G) U
sing the counting principle, the first digit
has 6 possible values (1 through 6). The
second digit then has 5 possible values, and
the third digit has 4 possible values. So the
total number of possible different ID numbers
is 6 3 5 3 4 5 120.
To find the total cost, multiply the total tiles

by the cost per tile: 432 tiles $8 $3,456
100. (F) F
irst, find the prime factorization of 5,355:
5,355 5 5 1,071 5 5 9 119 5 32 5 7 17
The greatest prime factor is 17.
Answer Key for Sample Form B

Paragraph 1
RUQST
11. C
20. K
29. B
38. G
47. A
56. J
65. B
74. J
83. B
92. G
12. F
21. B
30. J
39. D
48. H
57. B
66. J
75. C
84. F
93. A
Paragraph 2
TSURQ
13. D
22. F
31. B
40. K
49. A
58. H
67. C
76. K
85. B
94. H
Paragraph 3
USTRQ
14. J
23. C
32. F
41. B
50. G
59. C
68. F
77. B
86. J
95. B
15. A
24. J
33. D
42. G
51. E
60. F
69. D
78. G
87. C
96. J
16. H
25. B
34. K
43. A
52. K
61. B
70. H
79. B
88. G
97. E
17. B
26. K
35. D
44. H
53. D
62. G
71. C
80. G
89. A
98. G
18. K
27. D
36. J
45. A
54. F
63. A
72. K
81. D
90. H
99. E
19. A
28. H
37. A
46. K
55. A
64. K
73. A
82. J
91. D
100. F
Paragraph 4
QSRUT
Paragraph 5
SUTQR
107
SAMPLE PROBLEMS FOR
GRADE
GRADE 9 MATHEMATICS
DIRECTIONS: This section provides sample mathematics problems for the Grade 9 test forms. These
99
problems are based on material included in the New York City curriculum for Grade 8. (The Grade 8
problems on sample forms A and B cover mathematics material through Grade 7.) General directions
for how to answer math questions are located on pages 50 and 88. There is no sample answer sheet for this
section; mark your answers directly on this page or on a separate piece of paper.
Number of
Students
( (
(
a
bc = ba , where b and c are not zero.
c
3
4
If 2
x = 2 , what is the value of x?
Number of
Pets Owned
Define the operation

as follows:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
There are 20 students in a class. The

frequency table above shows the number of
these students that own 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 pets.
What is the mean number of pets owned
per student in this class?
4.
1
2
3
6
12
If (43)(82) 2x, what is the value of x?

F. 12
G. 10
H. 7
J. 6
K. 5
1
A. 1__
B. 3
1
C. 3__
3.
STUDENTS OWNING PETS
1.
M00-103
D. 4
5.
E. 5
2.

R
2
x T
1
U
0
3 cm
N
4 cm
5 cm
6 cm
On the number line above, which letter could

represent the location of x2 ?
F. R
G. S
H. T
J. U
K. V
x cm
In
____the figure
____ above, all lines are straight.
and RN
MP
intersect at point Z. What is the
value of x?
A. 3
3
B. 3 __
5
C. 4
4
D. 4 __
5
E. 5
108
6.
9.
Raul has two containers. One is a cylinder

with an inner radius of 4 inches and an inner
height of 8 inches. The other is a cube with
inner height, width, and length each equal to
8 inches. The cylinder is filled with water and
the cube is empty. If Raul pours the contents
of the cylinder into the cube, how deep will the
water be in the cube?
WATER IN POOL
3,000
2,500
Amount
of Water
(in gallons)
F. 2 in.
2,000
1,500
1,000
500
2
G.
__
p in.
3
H. 4 in.
J.
2p in.
A swimming pool is being filled with water at

a constant rate. The figure above is a portion
of a graph that shows how the number of
gallons of water in the pool changes over time.
Starting with an empty pool, at the end of
hour 5 there are 2,000 gallons in the pool.
If the pool continues to fill at this rate, how
much water will be in the pool at the end of
hour 20? (Assume that the pool holds a total
of 100,000 gallons.)
The translation of point P (3, 5) to P9 (5, 23) is

equivalent to rotating point P by which of the
following clockwise rotations about the origin?
A. 45
B. 90
C.
135
D.
180
E.
225
8.
Time (in hours)
K.
4p in.
7.
18
17
A. 5,600 gal.
B. 6,000 gal.
C. 8,000 gal.
D. 40,000 gal.
E. 80,000 gal.
19
If (12.6310 )2(1.1310 )5k310 ,

what is the value of k?
F. 0.016
G. 1.150
H. 1.249
J. 11.500
K. 16.000
10.
Let (x, y) " (x110, y210). Using that rule,

if (n, r)"(100, 100), what is (n, r)?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
(90, 90)
(90, 110)
M04-067
(100, 100)
(110, 90)
(110, 110)
11.
1.0 cm
0.8 cm
4 cm
In the figure above, what is the value of x?

A. 1 cm
B. 1.2 cm
C. 3.2 cm
D. 4 cm
E. 5 cm
109
12.
Straight line k passes through the point

(23, 4) with an x-intercept of 3. What is the
equation of line k?
F. y5 2 }3} x13
above does not represent a rational number?

p
A. __
q
G. y5 2 }2} x23
3
M06-063B
3
H. y5 2 }2} x12
B. p1q
J. y5 2 }1} x13
C. p2q
K. y5 }2} x22
D. p21q2
13.
p2
E. ___
q2
y
y 15x 45
16.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A tiny robot sits on the point (1, 22) of the

coordinate plane. At each flash of a blue light,
it moves 4 units to the right and 5 units down.
At each flash of a red light, it moves 1 unit to
the left and 4 units up. If, at the end of 15 red
flashes and n blue flashes, the robot is sitting
on the line y5x, what is n?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
The line defined by the equation y 15x 45

intercepts the x-axis at point P as shown
above. What are the coordinates of point P?
14.
1_
If p5q5 ____

, which one of the expressions
2
p
p
2
2 ___
__
q, p1q, p2q, p 1q , 2
15.
5
8
14
15
44
17.
|x 2 1| 3
|x 1 2| 4
(45, 0)
(3, 0)
(3, 0)
(0, 3)
(0, 45)
How many integer values of x satisfy both

inequalities shown above?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Seven consecutive integers are arranged

in increasing order. Their sum is 7k.
What is the value of the second integer
in terms of k?
F. k26
G. k22
H. k
J. k11
K. 7k26
110
EXPLANATION OF CORRECT ANSWERS
GRADE
GRADE 9 MATHEMATICS
1. (A) F
irst, determine the total number of pets that
the students own by multiplying the number of
pets owned by the number of students in each
row of the table. Then add that column to get
the total number of pets.
4. (F) Begin by finding a common base for each term.

In this case, the common base is 2.
4 5 22
8 5 23
3
Number of
Pets Owned
Number
of Students
5
12
5 (26)(26)
5 212
So, x 5 12.
Alternatively, you could multiply the left side of
the equation and then factor it:
(43)(82) 5 (4 3 4 3 4)(8 3 8)
5 (2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2) (2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2)
Total: 30
5 212

Now, calculate the mean by dividing the total
number of pets owned by the total number of
students:

5. (B) Each triangle is a right triangle, and the

angles formed at point Z are congruent
because they are vertical angles. Thus, the
two triangles are similar by definition. Set up
the following proportion between similar sides
to find x:
5
6

__5 __
x
3

5x 5 18
30
1
___
5 1 __
20
2. (J) S
ince x is a negative number between 1 and 0,
assign a value to x in that range and calculate x2.
2
4
For example, let x 5 2 __. Then x2 5 __
, which
3
roughly corresponds to point U.
18
3
x 5 ___
5 3 __
5
3
2
3. (C) _____
5 __
2
(4/x)
x5 __
3

2 __
4
2
6. (J) First, calculate the volume of the cylinder:

2x 5 6

(43)(82) 5 (22) (23)
Number of Pets 3
Number of Students
99
V = r2h 5 (4)2(8) 5 128 cubic inches
The volume of water in the cube will be the

same as the volume of water in the full cylinder.
Use the volume formula of a cube to calculate
the depth (h) of the water in the cube:
x53
V 5 lwh
128 5 (8)(8)h

128 = 64h

2 = h
111
GRADE
GRADE 9 MATHEMATICS
7. (B) If the coordinates of a point labeled R are (a, b),

then a 908 counterclockwise rotation about
the origin would make the coordinates of point
R9 (2b, a). A 908 clockwise rotation about the
origin would make the coordinates of R9 (b, 2a).
9. (C) A
t the beginning (hour 0), the pool is empty.
After 5 hours, the pool holds 2,000 gallons.
Thus, the rate of change (or slope of the line)

In the question, P is (3, 5) and P9 is (5, 23).
Using the rule stated above, P9 is the image
after point P is rotated 908 clockwise.
lternatively, it may help to make a sketch

A
of this problem. Place the two points on
the coordinate grid: Point P is in the first
quadrant, and point P9 is in the fourth
quadrant. Draw a line from each point to the
origin. The angle formed at the origin should
resemble a right angle, which is option B (908).
2,000 0
2,000
is _________
5 ______
5 400 gallons per hour.

50
5
o find the number of gallons after 20 hours,
T
multiply the rate by the number of hours:
400 3 20 5 8,000 gallons.
10. (G) Using the translation equation given in the

question, set up two small equations to find
n and r:
For n:
x 1 10 5 100
x 5 90
For r:
y 10 5 100

y 5 110
P (3, 5)
11. (A) Because both triangles are right triangles that

share a vertex, they are similar. To find x, set
up a proportion using the two known sides of
each triangle:
P9(5,3)
8. (H) I n order to add or subtract two numbers in

scientific notation, the exponent on the 10 must
be the same. Since the question asks for the
value of k 3 1019, change both terms into this
same power of 10:

12.6 1018 5 (1.26 3 10) 3 1018 5 1.26 3 1019
1.1 1017 5 (0.011 3 102) 3 1017 5 0.011 3 1019
Now, perform the subtraction:
(1.26 1019) 2 (0.011 3 1019)

5 (1.26 2 0.011) 3 1019
5 1.249 3 1019
So, (n, r) 5 (90, 110)
(4 1 x)
1.0
________

5 ____
4
0.8
0.8 (4 x) 5 1.0 (4)
41x55
x 5 1
12. (H) A
n x-intercept of 3 means the point (3, 0) is on
line k. Using (3, 0) and (23, 4), calculate the
slope (m) of the line:
(420)
( 323)
4
m 5 _______
5 __
5 __
2
2
6
2
The equation of line k must contain slope __
,
3
so only Options G and H are potentially correct.
Thus, k 5 1.249
Next, find which of the two equations is true for

the point (3, 0). To solve, substitute 3 for x in
each equation and find the one in which y 5 0.
112
GRADE
GRADE 9 MATHEMATICS

Option G: y 5 __
2(3) 3 5 22 2 3 5 25
Option H is the correct answer.

Next, use the point (214, 58) to calculate where
the robot will be after n blue flashes. For each
blue flash, (x, y)
(x 1 4, y 2 5). So, after n
blue flashes: (214 1 4n, 58 2 5n)
3
__
Option H: y 5 2(3) 1 2 5 22 1 2 5 0
3
The question states that the robots final

position is on the line y 5 x, which means the
x- and y-coordinates will have the same value.
To find n, set the two coordinates above as
equal and solve for n:
214 1 4n 5 58 5n

9n 5 72
n 5 8
13. (B) Since P is on the x-axis, we know its y-value

must equal 0. Use that in the equation to
solve for x:

y 5 15x 45
0 5 15x 45
45 5 15x
3 5 x
17. (C) First, determine which integer values of x

would make each inequality true:
So, the coordinates for P are (3, 0).
14. (G) T
he question asks for the second integer, so let
n be the second integer. Then, the sum of the 7
integers is:

(n 1) 1 n 1 (n 1 1) 1 (n 1 2) 1 (n 1 3) 1
(n 1 4) 1 (n 1 5) 5 7k
7n 1 14 5 7k
7(n 1 2) 5 7k

n125k

n5k2
Adding 1 to each term results in

22 , x , 4
Subtracting 2 from each term results in

22 , x , 2
The possible values of x in this inequality are

21, 0, and 1.
p2
___25 1, and p 2 q 5 0, all of which are

q
rational. That leaves two expressions to test:
The possible x values in common between

the two inequalities are 21, 0, and 1, so the
answer is 3.
1__
1__
2__
p 1 q 5 ____

1 ____

5 ____

2
2
2
__
(irrational because 2 is irrational)
1__ 2
1__ 2
1
1
p2 1 q2 5 ____

1 ____

5 __
1 __5 1 (rational)
2
Similarly, |x 1 2| , 4 can also be written as

24 , x 1 2 , 4
written as a fraction. Since p 5 q, then __

q5 1,
( 2 )
|x 1| , 3 can also be written as

23 , x 1 , 3
Since these are only less than and not less

than or equal to, the possible values of x for
this inequality are 21, 0, 1, 2, and 3.
15. (B) A rational number is a number that can be
( 2 )
Answer Key for Grade 9 Mathematics
Thus, p 1 q is not a rational expression.

16. (G) S
ince the number of red flashes is known (15),
G calculate where the robot would be after the
15 red flashes. For each red flash,
(x, y)
(x 1, y 1 4). So, after 15 red flashes:
(1 2 [1 3 15], 22 1 [4 3 15]) 5 (214, 58)
113
1. A
7. B
13. B
2. J
8. H
14. G
3. C
9. C
15. B
4. F
10. G
16. G
5. B
11. A
17. C
6. J
12. H

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TRANSLATED VERSIONS OF THIS HANDBOOK ARE AVAILABLE ON OUR WEBSITE

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SECTION 5: SHSAT DESCRIPTION & MATERIALS

SECTION 1: THE SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS

The Bronx High School of Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5

Arriving at the Test Site . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16

The Brooklyn Latin School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5

Filling in the Answer Sheet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17

Brooklyn Technical High School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6

High School for Mathematics, Science and Engineering

Claims of Testing Irregularities . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19

High School of American Studies at Lehman College . . . . . . 6

Queens High School for the Sciences at York College . . . . . . 7

Staten Island Technical High School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7

Stuyvesant High School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8

SECTION 6: SHSAT USEFUL TIPS FOR TESTING

Fiorello H. LaGuardia High School of Music & Art

Before Test Day . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21

SECTION 2: SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS

Specific Strategies: Verbal . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22

ADMISSIONS TEST (SHSAT) DATES AND LOCATIONS

Specific Strategies: Mathematics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28

SAMPLE SHSAT TESTS

Sample Answer Sheet, Form A . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 32

SECTION 3: FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL

Explanations of Correct Answers for Sample Test, Form A . . 58

OF MUSIC & ART AND PERFORMING ARTS AUDITIONS

Sample Answer Sheet, Form B . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 71

Sample Test, Form B . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 72

Explanations of Correct Answers for Sample Test, Form B . . 96

Auditions for Students New to New York City . . . . . . . . . . . . 11

Sample Math Problems for Grade 9 Students . . . . . . . . . . . 96

Explanations of Correct Answers for Sample Grade 9

Registering for LaGuardia High School Auditions . . . . . . . . . 12

SECTION 4: APPLYING TO THE SPECIALIZED

MESSAGE TO STUDENTS AND PARENTS/GUARDIANS ABOUT

SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS ADMISSIONS

FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL OF MUSIC & ART

THE BRONX HIGH SCHOOL OF SCIENCE

HIGH SCHOOL FOR MATHEMATICS, SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING

THE BRONX HIGH SCHOOL OF SCIENCE

emphasizes the acquisition of core knowledge of the key

75 West 205th Street, Bronx, New York 10468

Academic program: All students are required to complete four

Academic program: The Bronx High School of Science offers

Extracurricular activities: To provide enrichment for students

2015 Admissions: 19,556 students listed Bronx Science as a

THE BROOKLYN LATIN SCHOOL

2015 Admissions: 16,723 students listed The Brooklyn Latin

Overview: Modeled after the prestigious Boston Latin school

BROOKLYN TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL

lessons, develop curricula, and share best practices. Their deep

29 Fort Greene Place, Brooklyn, New York 11217

Academic program: HSMSE faculty plan lessons that include

Academic program: In the 9th and 10th grades, all students