IM Essentials Questions

Melanoma
o Clinical features that help distinguish melanomas from other pigmented lesions may be remembered by the
ABCD mnemonic:

asymmetry (inability to draw a line down the middle to produce two mirror images),

border that is irregular, scalloped, or poorly circumscribed,

color (more than one color in the same lesion or very dark, black, occasionally white, red, or blue)

Diameter 6 mm (the size of a pencil eraser).

o Lesions suspicious for melanoma require an excisional biopsy.
Uncomplicated parapneumonic pleural effusion.
o A pleural effusion in the setting of CAP is likely parapneumonic.
o A parapneumonic effusion is a non-infected effusion occurring in the pleural space adjacent to the site of
bacterial pneumonia.

Most parapneumonic effusions are small and clinically insignificant, and they resolve without
specific therapy. However, approximately 10% become complicated or progress to empyema.

In the setting of a small, free-flowing pleural effusion, it is appropriate to treat the underlying
cause.

The presence of loculated (non-free-flowing) fluid predicts a poor response to treatment with
antibiotics alone.
o Thoracentesis is not necessary in patients who have small pleural effusions (<1 cm between the lung and
chest wall on lateral chest radiograph) associated with heart failure, pneumonia, or heart surgery.
Unexplained effusions larger than 1 cm should be aspirated.
Manage a patient with a history of infective endocarditis before a dental procedure.
o There are specific indications for infective endocarditis prophylaxis for patients before certain dental or
surgical procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth or
perforation of the oral mucosa.
o High-risk cardiac conditions include the presence of a prosthetic cardiac valve, unrepaired cyanotic
congenital heart disease, congenital heart disease repair with prosthetic material or device within the last 6
months, presence of palliative shunts and conduits, cardiac valvulopathy in cardiac transplant recipients, and
a history of infective endocarditis, as in this patient.
o High-risk surgical procedures include dental procedures involving manipulation of gingival tissue or the
periapical region of teeth or perforation of the oral mucosa as well as respiratory tract procedures that
involve perforation of the respiratory mucosa (tonsillectomy, adenoidectomy).
o The suggested antibiotic regimen before dental procedures is an agent directed against viridans group
streptococci, administered as a single dose 30 to 60 minutes before the procedure.

Amoxicillin and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin, are frequently prescribed.

Clindamycin, azithromycin, or clarithromycin are appropriate alternatives in patients with penicillin

allergy
Evaluate acute stroke
o Hemorrhagic stroke cannot be reliably distinguished from ischemic stroke on clinical grounds alone. In the
acute setting, CT of the head without contrast is the initial test of choice to confirm or exclude hemorrhagic
stroke, and should be performed without significant delay as the results are needed to make treatment
decisions, particularly related to thrombolytic therapy which should be administered as soon as possible
once a patient is determined to be an appropriate candidate.

CT of the head without contrast will easily rule out intracerebral hemorrhage, the principal initial
criterion for excluding thrombolysis.
o Subtle signs of early infarction can sometimes be seen on a head CT scan, but many patients with acute
ischemic stroke have normal results on this imaging study.
o The treatment of blood pressure in the acute setting depends on whether the patient will be treated with
intravenous tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA).

In patients who are candidates for this agent, blood pressure should be less than 185/110 mm Hg,
which can be achieved by the continuous infusion of labetalol or nicardipine.

After rtPA infusion, blood pressure should be targeted to less than 180/105 mm Hg; labetalol or
nicardipine is again appropriate for patients whose blood pressure exceeds these limits.
Vasculitidies
o Churg-Strauss syndrome is a form of systemic vasculitis that most often occurs in the setting of
antecedent asthma, allergic rhinitis, or sinusitis.

Patients typically have eosinophilia, migratory pulmonary infiltrates, purpuric skin rash, and
mononeuritis multiplex; fever, arthralgia, and myalgia also are common presenting features.

Up to 40% of patients have perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (p-ANCA) positivity

with specificity for antimyeloperoxidase antibodies.

Patients with p-ANCA positivity are more likely to have glomerulonephritis,

alveolar hemorrhage, mononeuritis multiplex, and purpura.

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (formerly known as Wegener granulomatosis) is a necrotizing vasculitis

that typically affects the respiratory tract and kidneys.

Radiographs show pulmonary infiltrates or nodules that are often cavitary, as well as pulmonary
hemorrhage
o Microscopic polyangiitis is a necrotizing vasculitis that typically involves the kidneys and lungs.

Patients frequently present with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis; 50% of patients have
pulmonary involvement that usually manifests as pulmonary hemorrhage. Fever, arthralgia,
purpura, and mononeuritis multiplex can also occur.
o Polyarteritis nodosa typically presents with fever, abdominal pain, arthralgia, and weight loss that develop
over days to months.

Two thirds of these patients have mononeuritis multiplex, and one third have hypertension and
cutaneous involvement, including nodules, ulcers, purpura, and livedo reticularis (testicular pain
also occurs in about one third of male patients). However, lung involvement is uncommon and
ANCA test results typically are negative

Noncontract abdominal helical CT is the gold standard for diagnosing kidney stones.
Dyspepsia
o The Rome III criteria for dyspepsia are one or more of the following predominant symptoms:

(1) bothersome postprandial fullness

(2) early satiety

(3) epigastric pain

(4) Epigastric burning.

o The symptoms should be consistent for at least 3 months with an initial onset at least 6 months before
diagnosis.

Alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, anemia, vomiting, or dysphagia might suggest an
alternative diagnosis and the need for immediate upper endoscopy.
o Biliary colic is the most common clinical presentation in patients with symptomatic gallstones.

The usual presentation of biliary colic is episodic severe abdominal pain typically in the
epigastrium and/or right upper quadrant but occasionally in the right lower or mid abdomen.

The pain rapidly intensifies over a 15-minute interval to a steady plateau that lasts as long as 3
hours and resolves slowly. The pain is often associated with nausea or vomiting and may radiate to
the interscapular region or right shoulder.
o Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) occurs when the reflux of stomach contents causes symptoms
or complications that are troublesome for the patient.

GERD is diagnosed when the predominant symptom is heartburn or acid reflux. Additional signs
may be belching, a sour taste in the mouth, and symptoms that are worse at night or with
recumbency.
o Peptic ulcer disease is asymptomatic in 4% to 20% of patients and is commonly diagnosed because of
complications such as bleeding.

Symptoms, when present, consist of discomfort typically in the epigastric region that has a burning
or gnawing quality. The character of this patient's pain, the duration of symptoms, and a lack of
response to antacids, weight gain, and the absence of anemia make peptic ulcer disease less likely
in this patient.
Diagnose Prerenal Azotemia
o Prerenal azotemia generally occurs in patients with a mean arterial pressure below 60 mm Hg but may
occur at higher pressures in patients with chronic kidney disease or in those who take medications, such as
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which can alter glomerular hemodynamics.
o Patients with prerenal azotemia may have a history of decreased fluid intake accompanied by examination
findings consistent with volume depletion.
o Although her fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) is greater than 1%, she is on a diuretic, which can
increase the FENa even in patients with prerenal azotemia. Because the fractional excretion of
urea is less influenced by diuretics, it can be helpful in evaluating patients on diuretic therapy. It is
calculated similarly to the FENa using the serum and urine urea levels.

In euvolemic patients, the fractional excretion of urea is usually 35%, and in those with prerenal
azotemia, the fractional excretion of urea is typically below 35%, as in this patient.
o Acute interstitial nephritis is most commonly caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a medication.

Urinalysis findings include leukocyte casts and eosinophils, neither of which is present in this
patient.
o Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is characterized by damage to the renal tubule due to a physiologic insult to
the kidney, such as hypoxia, toxins, or prolonged hypoperfusion. Kidney failure tends to be rapid, and the
urine traditionally contains muddy brown casts. ATN may result from prolonged prerenal azotemia.
o NSAIDs can induce acute kidney injury (AKI) by several mechanisms and may also exacerbate other
causes of AKI.
Diagnose Aseptic Meningitis
o

Aseptic meningitis is commonly associated with genital infection caused by herpes simplex virus 2 and is
characterized by recurrent episodes of fever, headache, vomiting, and photosensitivity
o Behet disease is associated with recurrent painful oral and genital aphthous ulcerations, skin lesions, and
uveitis, with neurologic manifestations in up to 25% of patients.

When Behet disease causes aseptic meningitis, the level of CSF pleocytosis is usually less than
100 cells/L (0.10 x 109/L).
Treat A-fib with Warfarin
o Long-term anticoagulation therapy is indicated for patients with atrial fibrillation who are at increased risk for
thromboembolism. In patients who are able to take warfarin, however, clopidogrel plus aspirin is inferior for
preventing ischemic stroke.
o In patients who are not candidates for warfarin treatment, adding clopidogrel to aspirin can reduce the risk of
stroke more than aspirin alone, although the risk of major bleeding events is increased.
o Direct thrombin inhibitors.

Drugs such as dabigatran, have been shown to be slightly superior to warfarin in preventing
ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke, although their anticoagulant effect is not easily reversed and
they are substantially more expensive than warfarin.

These agents may be an alternative to warfarin in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation.
o Atrial fibrillation ablation is an option in patients who are symptomatic and have been treated
unsuccessfully with at least one antiarrhythmic agent.

The procedure entails electrical isolation of the pulmonary veins so that premature atrial
contractions, which frequently originate in the pulmonary veins, cannot initiate atrial fibrillation.
o Atrioventricular node ablation is another option for patients who do not benefit from medical therapy.

A pacemaker is inserted at the time of ablation, so the ventricular rate is controlled by the device.
Beers Criteria: Medication that should be avoided in older patients due to being ineffective or having adverse
side effects.
o Diphenhydramine is listed as a drug that poses an unnecessary risk for older patients because it is highly
anticholinergic and increases the risk of confusion, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention.
Diphenhydramine may be appropriate in selected clinical situations such as severe allergic reactions.
Treat Obesity with Orlistat
o Orlistat, available over the counter, is a lipase inhibitor that leads to fat malabsorption and weight loss.

Secondary benefits include reduced LDL and BP. In diabetics, glycemic control is improved.

Negative effects included liver injury, malabsorption of ADEK (supplementation is advised)

o Bariatric surgery is recommended as a treatment option for patients who have been unable to maintain
weight loss with diet and exercise with or without drug therapy with class III obesity, defined as patients who
have a body mass index (BMI) 40, or those with BMIs of 35 to 39.9 (class II) who have obesity-related
comorbid conditions, such as hypertension, impaired glucose tolerance, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia,
and obstructive sleep apnea.
o Lorcaserin, a brain serotonin 2C receptor agonist, was approved by the for adults with BMIs greater than 30
or greater than 27 with obesity-related complications.

In conjunction with a reduced-calorie diet and exercise counseling, lorcaserin was associated with
an average weight loss of 3% at 1 year. Lorcaserin is as effective as orlistat but with fewer
side effects, but long-term safety data are limited.

Lorcaserin should be used with caution in patients who are on medications that increase serotonin
levels such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and bupropion because of the risk of
precipitating the serotonin syndrome.
o phenterminetopiramate has been approved by the FDA for the treatment of obesity.

Significant increases in blood pressure and arrhythmias can occur with phentermine; caution is
indicated in patients with hypertension and cardiovascular disease.
Treat mild persistent asthma.
o The preferred therapy for a patient with mild, persistent asthma (uses rescue inhaler 2-3x/wk) is a low-dose
inhaled glucocorticoid added to an as-needed short-acting 2-agonist. Alternatives to inhaled glucocorticoids
include a leukotriene receptor antagonist and theophylline.
o Adding a long-acting 2-agonist is not recommended for patients with asthma who are not already receiving
inhaled glucocorticoid therapy, and should only be added when medium-dose inhaled glucocorticoids do not
control symptoms.
o Scheduled use of albuterol is not recommended because it can mask ongoing airway inflammation and the
need to provide anti-inflammatory therapy with inhaled glucocorticoids.
Manage Non-cardiogenic Chest Pain
o Noncardiogenic Chest pain: After cardiac causes have been excluded by comprehensive cardiac examination,
an 8- to 10-week trial of proton pump inhibitor therapy is reasonable before further testing in patients with
noncardiac chest pain who do not have concerning symptoms.
Acute Viral Hepatitis
o

Acute viral hepatitis is characterized by jaundice and significant elevations of serum aminotransferase
levels (greater than 15 times the upper limit of normal). Other causes that can result in aminotransferase
levels to greater than 15x ULN are medication reactions or toxicity, autoimmune liver disease, ischemic
hepatitis (sometimes referred to as shock liver), and acute bile duct obstruction
o Fulminant liver failure should always be considered in patients with acute hepatitis, although this typically
presents with evidence of liver dysfunction in addition to the disturbance of bilirubin metabolism.

Findings often include an increase in coagulation time (as measured by the international
normalized ratio) due to a decrease in liver production of coagulation factors and a low serum
albumin level due to decreased liver albumin production.
o Hemochromatosis is a chronic metabolic cause of chronic liver disease and is associated with much lower
elevations of liver inflammation markers than are present in this patient.
o Primary biliary cirrhosis is an immune-mediated cause of chronic liver inflammation. Labs show an
elevated serum alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels disproportionately higher than the
aminotransferase elevation.
Diagnose Multiple Myeloma
o Urine immunofixation is diagnostic for MM.

Features of multiple myeloma, including bone pain, pancytopenia, kidney disease, and
hypercalcemia.

Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells. Most myelomas produce a monoclonal (M)
protein consisting of an intact immunoglobulin composed of a heavy chain (IgG, IgA, or IgD) and a
or light chain, but they may secrete free light chains alone (16% of cases), or, rarely, no
immunoglobulin.

Symptomatic myeloma is diagnosed by the presence of 10% or more clonal plasma cells
on bone marrow biopsy, the presence of an M protein, and evidence of myeloma-related
end-organ damage. The M protein is produced and secreted by the malignant plasma cells and is
detected by serum protein electrophoresis and/or of urine protein electrophoresis combined with
immunofixation of the serum and urine.

Immunofixation confirms the presence of an M protein and determines its type.

The absence of an M protein in the serum and the finding of

hypogammaglobulinemia suggest that the M protein is a light chain, which is
filtered by the glomerulus and is readily found by urine immunofixation but not
found in the serum. Although filtered light chains are proteins, most routine
urinalysis dipsticks test primarily for albumin and may not detect the presence
of the myeloma protein in the urine.
o The peripheral blood smear findings (Rouleaux formation followed by leukopenia and thrombocytopenia) will
support a diagnosis of multiple myeloma but will not help establish the diagnosis.
o AL Amyloidosis:

Diagnosis can be made via an abdominal fat pad aspirate revealing amorphous eosinophilic
material that demonstrates apple-green birefringence when stained with Congo red and viewed
under polarized light

Characteristic clinical findings of AL amyloidosis, such as proteinuria, restrictive cardiomyopathy,

and hepatomegaly, which makes this diagnosis unlikely.
Manage Gout with Urate-lowering agents
o Because gout is associated with hyperuricemia, patients with recurrent episodes (2 attacks in 1 year)
usually benefit from urate-lowering therapy to prevent both future attacks and occult urate deposition.

However, the addition of urate-lowering therapy transiently increases the risk for acute gout
attacks for at least 3 to 6 months; accordingly, prophylaxis with an anti-inflammatory agent such
as colchicine, at least during that period, is indicated concurrent with urate-lowering therapy.
o Along with this treatment regimen, management of risk factors can help to lower serum uric acid
concentrations, including reducing dietary purine and fructose and increasing dairy intake (within the limits
of individual tolerance), weight loss if indicated, and reducing alcohol consumption.
o Medications that raise serum uric acid levels, including thiazide diuretics and low-dose salicylates, should be
discontinued if alternative therapy is appropriate.
o Use of either allopurinol or febuxostat would be appropriate but only in the setting of concurrent prophylaxis.
The dose of both febuxostat and allopurinol should be adjusted to achieve a serum uric acid level 6.0
mg/dL (0.35 mmol/L), rather than a fixed dose. The relative effectiveness of these two agents is not well
established; febuxostat is more potent and more expensive than allopurinol
o Acute gout attacks can be treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, glucocorticoids, and
colchicine. Choice of treatment is based on relative efficacy and, most importantly, the side-effect profiles of
the agents and the risk of toxicity in the individual patient.
if a patient has hypopituitarism, OCPs can help prevent the development of osteopenia or osteoporosis induced
by hypogonadism
o

Endocrine and Metabolism

Manage subclinical hypothyroidism

o Subclinical Hypothyroidism is defined as an elevated TSH and a normal Free T4. Patients typically have mild
or no symptoms of hypothyroidism.
o The causes of subclinical hypothyroidism are generally considered the same as for overt hypothyroidism.
Appropriate management of patients with subclinical hypothyroidism with a serum thyroid-stimulating
hormone (TSH) level less than 10 U/mL (10 mU/L) is repeat testing of thyroid function in 6 months without
levothyroxine therapy except in certain clinical situations.
o Treatment is recommended when serum TSH levels are greater than 10 U/mL (10 mU/L).

Levothyroxine also may be considered for patients who have marked symptoms, have a goiter, are
pregnant or are planning to become pregnant, or have positive serum thyroid peroxidase antibody
titers.
o Most evidence to date has shown no clinical advantage of liothyronine compared with levothyroxine in
patients requiring thyroid replacement therapy. Additionally, liothyronine and other triiodothyronine (T3)
preparations have a short half-life and have been associated with acute spikes in serum T 3 levels, which are
of particular concern in older patients or patients with cardiac abnormalities.
o A radioactive iodine uptake study is not useful in establishing the diagnosis of hypothyroidism and thus is
inappropriate for this patient.
Manage Hypothyroidism during Pregnancy
Key Point: Early in pregnancy, levothyroxine requirements are increased by 30% to 50% in most patients with
hypothyroidism.
o Pregnancy is known to increase levothyroxine requirements in most patients receiving thyroid replacement
therapy, and this expected increase should be anticipated by increasing the levothyroxine dose.
o This is typically increased in the first (and sometimes in the second) trimester of pregnancy, with a possible
total increase of 30% to 50%, and an increase in levothyroxine dose in this range to maintain the thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH) level between approximately 0.1 and 2.5 U/mL (0.1-2.5 mU/L) is associated with
fewer maternal and fetal complications.

The fetus is largely dependent on transplacental transfer of maternal thyroid hormones during the
first 12 weeks of gestation, and the presence of maternal subclinical or overt hypothyroidism may
be associated with subsequent fetal neurocognitive impairment, increased risk of premature birth,
low birth weight, increased miscarriage rate, and even an increased risk of fetal death.
o In pregnant women with hypothyroidism, thyroid function testing should be frequent, preferably every 4
weeks, to protect the health of mother and fetus and to avoid pregnancy complications.
o TSH levels generally should range from 0.1 to 2.5 U/mL (0.1-2.5 mU/L) in the first trimester, 0.2 to 3.0
U/mL (0.2-3.0 mU/L) in the second trimester, and 0.3 to 3.0 U/mL (0.3-3.0 mU/L) in the third trimester
Treat Hypothyroidism
o Key Point The mainstay of thyroid hormone replacement is oral levothyroxine (T 4) therapy.
o Physical examination findings of hypothyroidism may include a reduced basal temperature, diastolic
hypertension, an enlarged thyroid gland, bradycardia, pallor, dry and cold skin, brittle hair, hoarseness, and
a delayed recovery phase of deep tendon reflexes, although not all of these findings may be present in a
specific patient
o Hashimoto thyroiditis is the most frequent cause of hypothyroidism and is associated with a positive
thyroid peroxidase antibody measurement.

Other less common causes of hypothyroidism include iatrogenic hypothyroidism, which can occur
after radioactive iodine ablation for Graves disease, external-beam radiation to the thyroid bed, or
surgical removal of the thyroid gland.
o The mainstay of thyroid hormone replacement is oral levothyroxine (T4), which should always be taken on an
empty stomach 1 hour before or 2 to 3 hours after intake of food or other medications.

Available T3 preparations (Liothyronine) have a short half-life and can be associated with acute
spikes in serum T3 levels, which are of particular concern in elderly patients or patients with
cardiac abnormalities
Treat central hypothyroidism.
Key Point: The serum Thyroid-stimulating hormone levels cannot be used to monitor thyroid hormone
replacement in patients with central hypothyroidism
o In patients with central hypothyroidism, the pituitary thyrotropes are absent and so, the TSH is always low
regardless of the level of circulating thyroid hormone.
o The goal of thyroid hormone replacement in these patients is to titrate the levothyroxine dose to normalize
the free T4 level (or total T4 concentration and free T4 index), not to normalize the TSH level.
Diagnose lymphocytic thyroiditis as a cause of hyperthyroidism
Key Point: In patients with subacute, silent, or postpartum thyroiditis or exposure to exogenous thyroid
hormones, the radioactive iodine uptake will be very low, which indicates very little endogenous thyroid
production.

Thyroiditis involves transient destruction of thyroid tissue, which disrupts follicles and causes the release of
preformed thyroid hormone into the circulation.

Forms of destructive thyroiditis include subacute (de Quervain), silent, and postpartum thyroiditis.

Subacute thyroiditis most commonly occurs after a viral infection and

usually involves severe thyroid and neck pain; fever, fatigue, malaise,
anorexia, and myalgia are common.

Silent thyroiditis is painless.

Postpartum thyroiditis is a subset of painless autoimmune thyroiditis and

can occur up to 12 months after parturition. It affects 5% to 8% of pregnant
women in the United States and can recur with each pregnancy.
o Thyroiditis is associated with elevated serum free thyroxine (T 4) and triiodothyronine (T3) levels and a low
serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
o The disorder usually follows a classic course of approximately 6 weeks of thyrotoxicosis, a shorter period of
euthyroidism, 4 to 6 weeks of hypothyroidism, and then restoration of euthyroidism.
o In patients with subacute, silent, or postpartum thyroiditis or exposure to exogenous thyroid hormones, the
radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU) will be very low (<5% at 24 hours), which indicates very little endogenous
thyroid production.
o Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder that can affect the thyroid gland, ocular muscles, orbital fat,
and skin.

Hyperthyroidism is by far the most common manifestation.

Examination of the thyroid may reveal the classic smooth, rubbery, firm goiter, often associated
with a bruit.
o toxic adenoma or toxic multinodular goiter usually reveals one or more palpable nodule(s) or overall
gland enlargement. Toxic multinodular goiter and toxic adenoma result from an activating somatic
mutation in the TSH receptor gene, which leads to autonomy of function and secretion of excess T 4 and
T3 from the affected nodule(s).
o Patients with Graves disease, toxic adenoma, or toxic multinodular goiter have an elevated or high-normal
RAIU, which indicates endogenous production of thyroid hormones.

A thyroid scan will show diffuse uptake of radioactive iodine in patients with Graves disease or
more focal uptake in those with toxic multinodular goiter or toxic adenoma.
Treat Graves Disease
Key point: Acute therapy of symptomatic hyperthyroidism usually includes -blockade and treatment with an
antithyroid agent.
o Graves disease can present with either subclinical or overt thyrotoxicosis.

Physical examination findings may include tachycardia; an elevated systolic blood pressure with a
widened pulse pressure; a palpable goiter, which is classically smooth; a thyrotoxic stare due to lid
retraction; proptosis; and, infrequently, an infiltrative dermopathy
o A B-Blocker is indicated to control tachycardia.

Although all -blockers are effective, atenolol is frequently used because of its -1 selectivity and
long half-life that allows once daily dosing in some patients.
o moderate hyperthyroidism can be treated with either methimazole or propylthiouracil.

Methimazole, which generally has fewer side effects and results in quicker achievement of the
euthyroid state than propylthiouracil, is preferred in most patients.

Because of a presumed immunomodulatory effect, antithyroidal drugs result in drug-free remission

rates of between 30% and 50% in patients with Graves disease who are treated for 1 year.
o Radioactive iodine therapy preceded or followed by adjunctive therapy with an antithyroidal drug is
occasionally used to treat Graves disease.

An antithyroidal drug is given in an attempt to decrease the risk of a transient worsening of the
thyrotoxicosis after thyroid ablation.

Because antithyroidal drugs render the thyroid radio-resistant, they must be stopped for several
days before and after giving the radioactive iodine.

Although an occasional patient becomes euthyroid after radioactive iodine administration, the
expected outcome is hypothyroidism, which typically occurs within 2 to 3 months of therapy, at
which time thyroid hormone replacement therapy is begun.
Evaluate thyroid nodules with fine-needle aspiration biopsy
Key point: A fine-needle aspiration biopsy is the most accurate way to determine if a thyroid nodule is benign or
malignant.
o Most thyroid nodules are benign; only approximately 5% to 15% are malignant. FNA biopsy is the most
accurate method to determine whether a nodule is benign or malignant. It is also the most sensitive and
specific method to help diagnose the cause of a thyroid nodule
o FNA biopsy is recommended for any nodule greater than 1 cm in diameter that is solid and hypoechoic on
ultrasonography and for any nodule 2 cm or greater that is mixed cystic-solid without worrisome sonographic
characteristics. Biopsy may be appropriate for smaller nodules (at least 5 mm in diameter) in patients with
o

risk factors, such as a history of radiation exposure, a family or personal history of thyroid cancer, cervical
lymphadenopathy, or suspicious ultrasound characteristics. FNA biopsy is not routinely recommended for
thyroid nodules less than 1 cm in diameter
Prediabetes
o may be diagnosed in the presence of:

a hemoglobin A1c value of 5.7% to 6.4%

an impaired fasting glucose value (fasting plasma glucose level of 100 to 125 mg/dL [5.7 to 6.9
mmol/L]),

An impaired glucose tolerance test (2-hour postprandial plasma glucose level of 140 to 199 mg/dL
[7.8 to 11.0 mmol/L]).
o Patients with these findings are at significant risk for developing diabetes, and lifestyle changes have been
shown to decrease the risk of progression of disease.

These lifestyle modifications include 30 minutes of exercise most days of the week and a calorierestricted diet to achieve weight reduction of approximately 7% of body weight. The relative risk
reduction (RRR) in the incidence of diabetes in patients who make intensive lifestyle changes is
approximately 60%.
Differentiate type 1 from type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Key Point: In young patients with probable diabetes mellitus, the distinction between type 1 and type 2
diabetes should be made as soon as possible by checking for the presence of pancreatic autoantibodies, which
indicate type 1 disease.
o Patients with T1DM will require immediate insulin therapy. Insulin treatment in patients with type 1 diabetes
helps preserve endogenous insulin secretion for a longer period of time, which makes it easier to achieve
excellent glycemic control without development of hypoglycemia.
o If testing does not show pancreatic autoantibodies, this patient has type 2 diabetes and should be treated
with lifestyle modifications and, possibly, metformin.
Treat hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome with fluid resuscitation.
Key Point: In patients with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome, the preservation of vascular volume is
critical, and 0.9% (normal) saline is the initial intravenous fluid of choice, even before intravenous insulin is
administered.
o HHS develops primarily in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus in the setting of a medical stressor, such as
infection.
o Key In patients with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome, the preservation of vascular volume is critical,
and 0.9% (normal) saline is the initial intravenous fluid of choice, even before intravenous insulin is
administered.
o In both diabetic ketoacidosis and HHS, the primary mechanism of disease is a relative deficiency of
circulating insulin to adequately counteract hyperglycemia.

This relative deficiency is more severe in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis and leads to ketone
production, whereas in patients with HHS, insulin secretion is adequate to suppress ketosis but not
hyperglycemia.

This may lead to marked blood glucose elevation (plasma levels frequently >800 mg/dL [44.4
mmol/L]) due to progressive dehydration that further stimulates compensatory hormone secretion
(such as catecholamines), leading to even greater hyperglycemia.
o Patients with HHS are typically extremely volume contracted with severe free water and sodium losses,
presenting as dry mucous membranes, hypotension, and tachycardia. Intravenous insulin should be given to
normalize his blood glucose concentration, but the most immediate concern is administration of intravenous
fluids to correct hypotension and severe volume deficit, which is best achieved with 0.9% saline.
o Crystalloid fluids are distributed across the extracellular space. Since 0.9% saline is almost isotonic with
plasma, more volume stays within the intravascular space than when hypotonic solutions such as 0.45%
saline are used, and volume deficit is more rapidly corrected.

Therefore, even though HHS patients are hypernatremic when the serum sodium concentration is
corrected for the degree of hyperglycemia, initial hydration with 0.9% saline is indicated.
Screen for dyslipidemia in a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Key Point: The American Diabetes Association recommends that patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus have a
fasting lipid panel performed after puberty or at diagnosis if the diagnosis is established after puberty.
o The ADA recommends screening for nephropathy (such as a urine albumin-creatinine ratio) once a patient
with type 1 diabetes is 10 years of age or older and has been diagnosed with diabetes for 5 or more years.
o The first dilated funduscopic examination should be obtained once the child is 10 years of age or older and
has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes for 3 to 5 years.
Diagnose type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Key Point: If results of two different diagnostic tests for diabetes mellitus are discordant, the test that is
diagnostic of diabetes should be repeated.
Manage hypoglycemia in a patient taking a sulfonylurea.

Key Point: Sulfonylureas, such as glyburide, should be discontinued in patients with suspected symptomatic
hypoglycemia.A
o An elderly patient with a history of DM with A1c levels within normal range may reflect a level of control
in an older patient that may be causing episodes of hypoglycemia, which may be responsible for her
recent episodes of confusion and forgetfulness.
o Because it may take several days after discontinuation for the glyburide to decrease to undetectable
levels, checking her clinical symptoms and re-evaluating her plasma glucose level in 2 weeks would also
be appropriate.
o Metformin is not associated with hypoglycemia
Postassium shifts in DKA
Key Point: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is associated with hyperkalemia, and effective therapy of DKA results in
hypokalemia.
o A DKA patient at presentation will have acidosis and dehydration that contribute to hyperkalemia. This is
compounded by a lack of circulating insulin, which is critical for intracellular potassium movement.
Together, these changes frequently produce serum potassium values ranging from 6.0 to 7.0 mEq/L (6.0
to 7.0 mmol/L) at the time of presentation.

Because of the presence of hyperkalemia, cardiac monitoring is required.

o With hydration to correct volume contraction, the administration of insulin, and resolution of metabolic
acidosis, the hyperkalemia will resolve and hypokalemia may develop. Hydration and improvement in
the glomerular filtration rate facilitate urine potassium excretion. Insulin therapy will stimulate transfer of
potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space.

Together, these cause a rapid drop in the serum potassium concentration within 2 to 6 hours of
initial therapy.

For almost all patients with diabetic ketoacidosis, effective therapy requires adding potassium to
the intravenous fluid when serum potassium concentrations decline to 4.0 to 4.5 mEq/L (4.0 to
4.5 mmol/L).

Without potassium supplementation, dangerous levels of hypokalemia may occur.

Manage hyperglycemia in a patient in the medical intensive care unit.
Key Point: The optimal glucose management for critically ill hospitalized patients is unknown, but an insulin drip
with a glycemic target plasma glucose level of 140-200 mg/dL (7.8-11.1 mmol/L) is reasonable.
o Hyperglycemia in hospitalized patients, with or without diabetes mellitus, is associated with a poor
outcome.
o Insulin is the mainstay therapy for the hyperglycemic state in critically ill patients, and oral
antihyperglycemic agents, such as metformin, should be stopped. The use of oral antihyperglycemic
agents is also limited in hospitalized patients who are not critically ill in order to avert the possibility of
developing medication-related complications.
o metformin should be stopped if intravenous contrast dye will be used or if the patient's condition on
admission could cause lactic acidosis. This critically ill patient with pneumonia and sepsis is at risk for
lactic acidosis, and metformin should be discontinued.
Treat hypoglycemic unawareness.
Key Point: Hypoglycemia is the major rate-limiting factor in attempting tight glycemic control, especially in
patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
o In some patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus or long-standing type 2 diabetes mellitus, glucose
counterregulation may be altered by shifting the sympathoadrenal response to hypoglycemia to a lower
blood glucose level, leading to episodes of severe hypoglycemia that may not be recognized by the
patient (hypoglycemic unawareness).
o This effect appears to be exacerbated 48 to 72 hours after a severe episode of hypoglycemia, increasing
the likelihood of a second severe episode of hypoglycemia, and thus a vicious circle develops.
o The best treatment is to reduce the dose of insulin and carefully monitor the blood glucose level for 1
week so that it does not become less than 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L). This intervention allows the body to
reset its adrenergic responses.
Select the appropriate type and route of insulin therapy in a patient with a hyperglycemic
emergency.
Key Point: In patients who require emergent treatment of hyperglycemia, regular insulin by intravenous
infusion, rather than subcutaneous insulin administration, is required because onset of action is immediate when
the intravenous route is used.
o In this patient who requires emergent rapid lowering of his blood glucose concentration, regular insulin
administered intravenously, directly into the circulation, will interact with the insulin receptor almost
immediately. As with almost all small peptides, the half-life of insulin is very short, with regular insulin
having a half-life of 9 minutes. Therefore, it must be provided as a continuous infusion as opposed to
bolus administration for a prolonged effect as would be needed in this patient.
o In stable patients, insulin is most commonly delivered subcutaneously. When delivered by this route,
insulin must move from the subcutaneous space into the intravascular space to be active. Insulin

receptors are located in the muscles, liver, and pancreas all of which require insulin to be circulated
from place of entry via the arteriovenous system. There are many different types of insulin, and nearly
all of them differ in the means by which they are absorbed from the subcutaneous space into the
intravascular space. For example, neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin is a pentamer of the insulin
molecule covalently bound to protamine, which inhibits free insulin release, leading to a long onset of
action and prolonged duration of insulin release. In contrast, insulin lispro is a regular insulin molecule
chemically modified to remove the disulfide bond between the amino acids lysine and proline, thus
allowing for very rapid absorption from the subcutaneous space to the intravascular space.
Pheochromocytoma
Key Point: The classic symptoms of pheochromocytoma are hypertension, headaches, palpitations, and
diaphoresis.
o Pheochromocytomas are tumors that are present in less than 1% of patients with hypertension, are
derived from chromaffin cells, and elaborate norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine. Tumors
originating in the adrenal glands are referred to as pheochromocytomas, whereas those originating along
the sympathetic paraganglia are referred to as paragangliomas.
o The classic symptoms of pheochromocytoma are hypertension, headaches, palpitations, and diaphoresis.
o Hypertension is present in more than 90% of patients with pheochromocytoma: more than 50% of these
patients have sustained elevations in blood pressure; 30% to 40% have episodic elevations; and up to
10% have no hypertension. Lability of blood pressure is due to episodic catecholamine release, volume
depletion, and adrenergic receptor desensitization caused by chronic stimulation. Other symptoms
include anxiety, tremor, and pallor. Chronic complications of excess catecholamine release include
cardiac arrhythmias, both dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and accelerated atherosclerosis
related to hypertension
o Carcinoid syndrome is the term applied to symptoms mediated by humoral factors (for example, serotonin) released by some
carcinoid tumors. Episodic flushing is most characteristic of the carcinoid syndrome; flushing begins suddenly and lasts up to 30
minutes. Severe flushes are accompanied by a fall in blood pressure and rise in heart rate. The patient does not have flushing or
hypotension, making carcinoid syndrome an unlikely diagnosis.
o primary hyperaldosteronism or hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) usually presents with decreased serum potassium levels,
and neither condition is associated with headaches, palpitations, and diaphoresis
Hyperaldostromism
Key Point: The most appropriate screening test for hyperaldosteronism is the determination of the ratio of
plasma aldosterone toplasma renin activity
o Hypertension and hypokalemia are two of the main manifestations of primary hyperaldosteronism.
Increases in other mineralocorticoids occur in patients with unusually excessive cortisol secretion
(Cushing syndrome), in whom the mineralocorticoid activity of cortisol becomes prominent, and in
patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to an enzyme deficiency.
o The most appropriate screening test for hyperaldosteronism is the determination of the ratio of plasma
aldosterone to plasma renin activity.

The expected findings include an elevated plasma aldosterone level and suppressed plasma
renin activity. Screening tests can be performed on random blood samples, even in patients
taking antihypertensive medications (except the aldosterone receptor antagonists spironolactone
and eplerenone).

Confirmation of the biochemical diagnosis involves showing persistent elevation (poor

suppressibility) of plasma aldosterone in response to a high salt load.
o Screening Tests for Cushings syndrome include a dexamethasone suppression test or 24-hour
measurement of urine free cortisol excretion
Manage Pituitary tumor apoplexy
In addition to neurosurgical decompression of the pituitary gland, urgent glucocorticoid administration is often
necessary in patients with pituitary tumor apoplexy because of acute adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency.
o Pituitary tumor apoplexy usually occurs in the setting of a preexisting pituitary adenoma.
o A history of fatigue, weight gain, and erectile dysfunction and the laboratory finding of hyponatremia
suggest panhypopituitarism. An acute-onset headache is consistent with acute bleeding into the
pituitary gland
o In the setting of local mass effect and severe headache, however, neurosurgical decompression of the
pituitary gland is necessary. Because the leading cause of death in patients with pituitary tumor
apoplexy is adrenal insufficiency due to acute adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency, urgent
glucocorticoid administration is often required
o a lumbar puncture is not only inappropriate but contraindicated in a patient with pituitary tumor
apoplexy.
o Measurement of the serum prolactin level typically is obtained after a diagnosis of pituitary adenoma is
made to exclude prolactinoma, and may be done after the apoplexy is addressed.
Diagnose hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) as a secondary cause of diabetes mellitus.
o Various secondary causes of diabetes exist, most involving other endocrinopathies, effects of
medications, pancreatic diseases, or genetic conditions.

Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) is a likely cause of secondary diabetes mellitus in a patient

with hypertension, central obesity, and hypokalemia.

The most common cause of hypercortisolism is glucocorticoid therapy, followed by the secretion
of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) by a pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease) and the
hyperfunctioning of an adrenocortical adenoma.

Measurement of the 24-hour excretion of urine free cortisol is the most appropriate next test in
this patient to determine the cause of her diabetes mellitus

Computed tomography of the adrenal glands is appropriate after hypercortisolism is diagnosed,

especially when it is nonACTH dependent, to identify the type of adrenal condition responsible
o Pancreatic imaging could be considered when signs and symptoms (such as abdominal or back pain,
jaundice, or chronic diarrhea) suggest that an underlying pancreatic disorder is the cause of diabetes.
o measuring the serum glutamic acid decarboxylase antibody titer is useful to confirm the presence of
autoimmune (type 1) diabetes when no other evidence exists.
Manage central adrenal insufficiency.
Key Point: Patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, which is associated with both cortisol and aldosterone
deficiencies, require daily glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement, whereas patients with central
adrenal insufficiency have only cortisol deficiency and do not require mineralocorticoid replacement.
o Autoimmune Hypophysitis (Aka Lymphocytic hypophysitis) is defined as inflammation of the
pituitary gland due to autoimmunity, resulting in central adrenal insufficiency
o Correctly replaced cortisol (hydrocortisone)will be evidenced by the lack of signs or symptoms of Cushing
syndrome (Cortisol excess) such as weight gain, hyperglycemia, hypertension, striae, and abnormal fat
distribution. There should also be no evidence of hydrocortisone underreplacement,, such as nausea,
vomiting, malaise, hypotension, weight loss, hyponatremia, or hypoglycemia
o In adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency, adrenal production of mineralocorticoids and potassium
homeostasis remain intact because production is controlled separately by the renin-angiotensin system,
therefore, a mineralocorticoid such as fludrocortisone, is not needed.
o
In patients with central hypothyroidism, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) deficiency leads to reduced
secretion of thyroxine (T4), and measurement of the serum T4 level is necessary to establish the
diagnosis.
o Thyroid hormone dosing in patients with central hypothyroidism should be adjusted on the basis of
clinical symptoms to maintain serum free T4 levels within the middle of the reference range, unless doing
so causes iatrogenic hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism
Diagnose central (secondary) hypogonadism secondary to a prolactinoma.
Key Point: Because prolactinomas in female patients often present with galactorrhea and signs and symptoms
of secondary amenorrhea, a serum prolactin measurement is an appropriate initial study.
o Galactorrhea without evidence of an elevated serum human chorionic gonadotropin level is extremely
suggestive of a prolactinoma.
o Missed menstrual periods, vaginal dryness, and decreased libido also suggest hypogonadism, which is
likely due to decreased gonadotropin hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary gland (a frequent
occurrence with a prolactinoma).
o Although prolactinomas may lead to classic bitemporal hemianopia, this finding only occurs if they
enlarge adequately to compress the optic chiasm.
o An elevated serum prolactin level would confirm the clinical suspicion that a prolactinoma is inducing
central secondary hypogonadism in this patient.
o Magnetic resonance imaging of the pituitary gland would be a confirmatory test if the serum prolactin
level is elevated; however, performing imaging studies before a biochemical diagnosis is established is
not indicated
o Serum estrogen and progesterone and follicle-stimulating hormoneluteinizing hormone measurements
would likely be abnormal in this patient but would not explain the galactorrhea and would not identify
the precise cause of her hypogonadism
Evaluate an adrenal incidentaloma.
Key Point: Nearly 10% of adrenal incidentalomas are functional, and testing is usually necessary to identify
functional tumors secreting catecholamines, cortisol, or aldosterone.
o initial laboratory tests should include:

an overnight dexamethasone suppression test (Cortisol production)

24-hour urine collection for metanephrines (Pheos)

measurement of plasma renin activity and serum aldosterone level (Aldosterone)

Osteoporosis
Key Point: Osteoporosis is diagnosed by the presence of fragility fractures or by a bone mineral density score
less than 2.5 on dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scanning. Lab values are normal.
o Low bone mass is defined as a bone mineral density score that is between 1.0 and 2.5 SD below the
young adult mean

Osteomalacia is a generalized disorder of bone resulting in decreased mineralization of newly formed

osteoid at sites of bone turnover. Although it may be asymptomatic, osteomalacia may present with
diffuse bone and joint pain, muscle weakness, and difficulty walking. It most commonly occurs in
patients with low levels of vitamin D, hypophosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and increased serum
parathyroid hormone and alkaline phosphatase levels
o Paget disease of bone is a focal disorder of bone metabolism characterized by an accelerated rate of
bone remodeling that results in overgrowth of bone at a single or multiple sites and impaired integrity of
affected bone. Although Paget disease is usually asymptomatic, if symptoms are present they are usually
due to overgrowth of the affected bone, either in the bone itself or from bony overgrowth due to fracture
or nerve impingement. The serum alkaline phosphatase level is typically elevated, and radiographs show
increased bone density in involved areas
Treat osteoporosis with an intravenous bisphosphonate.
Key Point: Esophagitis is a risk of oral bisphosphonate agents, such as alendronate, and intravenous
bisphosphonate therapy (Zoledronic acid) is therefore preferred for patients with esophageal disorders.
o Bisphosphonates bind to the bone matrix and decrease osteoclast activity, thereby slowing bone
resorption while new bone formation and mineralization continue. Intravenous bisphosphonates, such as
zoledronic acid, are preferred for women with postmenopausal osteoporosis who are unable to take oral
bisphosphonates (such as this patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease) or who desire the
convenience of less frequent dosing.
o The beneficial effects of calcitonin are much less pronounced than those of other antiresorptive agents.
Calcitonin injections and nasal spray are approved for the treatment of established osteoporosis but not
for its prevention. Calcitonin has been shown to prevent primarily vertebral fractures and is generally
safe and well tolerated.
o Teriparatide (recombinant human parathyroid hormone [1-34]) is currently the only available anabolic
agent for osteoporosis therapy in the United States and is generally used in patients with severe
osteoporosis (T-score 3.5), recurrent fractures, or continuing bone loss while taking other
medications. Teriparatide has a black box warning from the Food and Drug Administration concerning a
risk of osteosarcoma, which is based on the increased incidence seen in rats.
o The use of estrogen and progesterone to maintain bone health has fallen out of favor because of data
from the Women's Health Initiative indicating that estrogen increases the risk of cardiovascular disease
and breast cancer.
Treat a woman with low bone mass.
Key Point: Antiosteoporotic therapy should be considered in a patient with low bone mass whose Fracture Risk
Assessment Tool (FRAX) risk of major osteoporotic fracture over the next 10 years is 20% or greater or whose
risk of hip fracture over the next 10 years is 3% or greater.
o Alendronate is approved for both osteoporosis prevention and treatment
o Estrogen is effective in maintaining bone mass in postmenopausal women, and in the past was routinely prescribed for this purpose.
However, it is no longer used for prevention or treatment of osteoporosis because of the potential negative effects in these women
(thrombosis, breast and endometrial cancer) and the availability of other effective medications.
o Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator, is also approved for osteoporosis prevention by the FDA. However, vasomotor
symptoms are highly associated with its use, and it may not be well tolerated in a patient already experiencing significant hot
flushes.
Prevent Osteoporosis
Key Point: Among the modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis are adequate amounts of both calcium and vitamin
D, regular exercise, cessation of cigarette smoking, and avoidance of alcohol abuse.
o The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends screening for osteoporosis with DEXA in all women
age 65 years or older and also in younger women with an elevated fracture risk.
Evaluate for secondary osteoporosis
Key Point: A secondary cause for osteoporosis should be suspected in younger patients, in patients without
clear risk factors, and in men.
o Therefore, screening guided by history and physical examination findings may include testing for
hypogonadism, vitamin D deficiency, primary hyperparathyroidism, calcium malabsorption, and multiple
myeloma. Calcium malabsorption may occur in patients with celiac disease and may cause secondary
osteoporosis, and celiac diseases is a concern, even if GI symptoms are absent
o Initiation of therapy, such as the bisphosphonate alendronate, can be considered after the evaluation for
secondary causes is completed and his fracture risk is assessed
Adjust hydrocortisone therapy during a minor illness for a patient with primary adrenal insufficiency
Key Point: Adjusting (increasing) the dose of hydrocortisone during even minor intercurrent illnesses is crucial
to avoid adrenal crisis in patients with adrenal insufficiency.
o A Patients hydrocortisone dose during her intercurrent illness should be increased approximately
threefold over her baseline replacement dose, and the increase should be continued for 3 days. This step
is necessary to minimize the possibility of adrenal crisis
Manage secondary adrenal insufficiency due to exogenous glucocorticoid administration.
o

Key Point: Patients who recently received long-term glucocorticoid therapy and now present with hypotension
may have adrenal insufficiency and require prompt treatment with intravenous hydrocortisone.
o Secondary adrenal insufficiency produced by decreased adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) release is
often caused by prolonged administration of exogenous glucocorticoids that suppress ACTH release and
lead to decreased adrenal gland production of cortisol. Decreased cortisol release causes a number of
effects, most often nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Laboratory studies often show hyponatremia
with or without hypokalemia. Of greatest concern is the presence of hypotension in the setting of
infection (such as in this patient with a urinary tract infection) or other physiologic stressors in which
cardiovascular collapse may occur if cortisol release is not adequate, given its key role in maintaining
vascular tone.
o The hypotension is potentially fatal if not treated with hydrocortisone when initially suspected. Given this
patient's recent, prolonged stay in an intensive care unit and her persistent hypotension despite
administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics and intravenous fluids, adrenal insufficiency should be
considered and empirically treated. Because the presentation of adrenal suppression may be difficult to
differentiate from sepsis, a low threshold for considering an inadequate cortisol response to stress should
be maintained in patients at risk for this occurrence.