STORE OFFICER, DRDO

G.A.T. 26 JULY 2015

1ST SHIFT
1.
Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence I was
PLEASED to see her complete the work within the stipulated time?
(a) Delighted
(b) Anxious
(c) Agreed
(d) Annoyed
2.
Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence The
earthquake affected areas were in a PITIABLE condition?
(a) Pleasing
(b) Ecstatic
(c) Commendable
(d) Satisfactory
3.
Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence It
was indeed PIQUANT to see the war-torn areas?
(a) Insipid
(b) Stinging
(c) Pungent
(d) Distressing
4.
Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence I
cannot expect any REWARD for this act?
(a) Prize
(b) Punishment
(c) Medal
(d) Condemnation
5.
Which one of the following parts of the sentence It would be exciting to canoe in the river, has an
error?
(a) It would be exciting
(b) to canoe in
(c) the river
(d) no error

6.
Which one of the following parts of the sentence You couldnt give me a hand with this, wouldnt
you?, has an error?
(a) You couldnt give me
(b) a hand with this
(c) wouldnt you?
(d) no error
7.
Which one of the following parts of the sentence You had better not left your car unlocked, said
my friends , has an error?
(a) You had better not left
(b) your car unlocked
(c) said my friends
(d) no error
8.
Which one of the following parts of the sentence Its not fair to expect her to do all the cooking
herself when she had had no training or experience, has an error?
(a) Its not fair to expect her to do
(b) all the cooking herself
(c) when she had had no training or experience
(d) no error
9.
Which one of the following is the exact meaning of the phrase / idiom written in capital letters in the
sentence He has inherited a GROWING CONCERN?
(a) A serious disease
(b) A mental illness
(c) A well run business
(d) None of these
10.
Which one of the following is the exact meaning of the phrase / idiom written in capital letters in the
sentence I dont like to take anything from you AGAINST THE HAIR?
(a) Because I am not your heir
(b) Without pleasure
(c) Without my natural rights
(d) Without your will
11.
Which one of the following is the exact meaning of the phrase / idiom written in capital letters in the
sentence These atrocities cannot go on unchecked; one has TO DRAW A LINE somewhere?
(a) To put a limit or restriction
(b) To learn drawing
(c) To come to an agreement
(d) To learn painting

12.
Which one of the following is the exact meaning of the phrase / idiom written in capital letters in the
sentence The fate of the satellite HANGS IN THE BALANCE?
(a) Decided
(b) Undecided
(c) Being weighed
(d) Certain
13.
Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence
Biofeedback, a branch of modern medicine HARNESSES brain power to bring about healing?
(a) Exhausts
(b) Depletes
(c) Utilizes
(d) Supports
14.
Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence The
regular DISCORD between the management and the staff led to unrest on the campus?
(a) Unanimity
(b) Contention
(c) Disapproval
(d) Betrayal
15.
Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence Her
FACULTY to deal with all the challenges of life has made her what she is today ?
(a) Desire
(b) Subject
(c) Aptitude
(d) Incompetence
16.
Which one of the following parts of the sentence I did not wait because he had gone out before I
reached his place, has an error?
(a) I did not wait
(b) because he had gone out
(c) before I reached his place
(d) no error
17.
Which one of the following words can be used as a substitute for the phrase Pathological fear of high
places?
(a) Ablutophobia
(b) Agyrophobia
(c) Acousticophobia
(d) Acrophobia

18.
Which one of the following words can be used as a substitute for the phrase A stage of growth
between boyhood and youth?
(a) Adolescence
(b) Unripe
(c) Underdeveloped
(d) Immature
19.
Which one of the following words can be used as a substitute for the phrase One who studies history
relating to the development of human race from old stone ages?
(a) Historian
(b) Museologist
(c) Anthropologist
(d) Etymologist
20.
Which one of the following words can be used as a substitute for the phrase Something that is
needle shaped?
(a) Sharpened
(b) Acerose
(c) Steep
(d) Dumsy
21.
Which one of the following rights is NOT included in the Constitution of India under the Right to
Freedom (Article 19)?
(a) Right to freedom of speech and expression
(b) Right to assemble peaceably without any arms
(c) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
(d) Right to hold and dispose of property
(
19)

?
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

22.
Which one of the following is NOT included in the Fundamental Duties enshrined in the Constitution
of India?
(a) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(c) To maintain just and honourable relations between nations
(d) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
,

(a) ,
(b)
(c)

(d) ,

23.
Which one of the following is NOT a qualification for election as President of India?
(a) Being a citizen of India
(b) Being a member of either House of Parliament
(c) Being at least thirty-five years old
(d) Not holding any office of profit under the Government of India
, ?
(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)
24.
The Supreme Court of India consists of the Chief Justice and:
(a) 26 Judges.
(b) 29 Judges.
(c) 28 Judges.
(d) 22 Judges.
,
?
(a) 26
(b) 29
(c) 28
(d) 22

25.
The Constitution of India formally vests all the executive powers of the Government in the:
(a) President.
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Council of Ministers.
(d) Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
?
(a)

(b)
(c) -

(d) -
26.
The Hind Swaraj was written by:
(a) B G Tilak.
(b) Surendranath Bannerjee.
(c) M K Gandhi.
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru.
?
(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)
27.
In India seats are reserved for women in:
(a) Rajya Sabha.
(b) State Legislative Assemblies.
(c) Union Cabinet.
(d) Panchayati Raj Institutions.

(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)

28.
Which one of the following statements about the National Knowledge Network (NKN) is NOT correct?
(a) The NKN is implemented by NIC
(b) It aims to interconnect all knowledge institutions across the country through high-speed data
communication network
(c) It aims to encourage sharing of resources and collaborative research
(d) It aims to expand the network to share resources globally
(NKN) ?
(a) NKN NIC

(b)

(c)
(d)
29.
Which one among the following is NOT a Maharatna company?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(b) Coal India Limited
(c) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
(d) Oil India Limited
, ?
(a)
(b)

(c)
(d)

30.
Which one of the following is NOT an outcome of the Supreme Courts decision in the Lily Thomas Vs.
Union of India & Others case (2013)?
(a) Section 8(4) of the Representation of the People Act is unconstitutional
(b) Any MP or MLA who is convicted of a crime and awarded a minimum of two years
imprisonment loses membership of the House with immediate effect
(c) The ruling of the Court was prospective
(d) Those who appeal against their conviction within three months will be exempted from
disqualification

 , (2013)
?

(a) 8(4)

(b) ,

(c)

(d) - ,

31.
Which one of the following is NOT true of the post World War global trading system?
(a) GATT was signed in 1947
(b) GATT was a forum for trade negotiations among contracting parties
(c) WTO replaced GATT as an interim forum
(d) The Headquarters of WTO is located in Geneva
, ?
(a) GATT 1947

(b) GATT ()
(c) WTO GATT
(d) WTO

32.
The United Nations held its first official conference on Women in 1975 at:
(a) Beijing.
(b) Nairobi.
(c) Copenhagen.
(d) Mexico City.
1975 ?
(a)
(b)

(c)

(d)

33.
Which one of the following statements about the United Nations Security Council is NOT correct?
(a) In 1965 the Security Council was enlarged from 11 members to 15 members
(b) The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a term of five years
(c) Abstention by a permanent member is not regarded as a veto
(d) The decisions of the Security Council are binding

(a) 1965 11 15

(b)
(c)
(d)

34.
The Global Commons are understood as areas and resources that do not fall under sovereign
jurisdiction. Which one of the following CANNOT be considered a Global Common?
(a) The high seas and deep ocean floor beyond the exclusive economic zone
(b) Antarctica
(c) Outer space
(d) The Arctic Circle

I ?

(a)
(b)

(c)

(d)

35.
Which one of the following is NOT listed as a Millennium Development Goal?
(a) Reduction of child mortality
(b) Ensuring environmental sustainability
(c) Achieving universal primary education
(d) Peaceful co-existence of nations
, ?
(a)

(b)
(c)
(d)
-

36.
Which one of the following does NOT form a part of the right to equality under the Constitution of
India?
(a) Abolition of untouchability
(b) Equality of opportunity in public employment
(c) Equality before law and equal protection of the law
(d) Right to education
, ?
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

37.
Which one of the following Committees on Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT) was constituted
recently?
(a) Vijay Kelkar Committee
(b) B N Navalawala Committee
(c) A P Shah Committee
(d) Ajay Shankar Committee
(MAT)
?

(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)

38.
During June 2015, Indias Mars Orbiter Mission Mangalyaan had a communication break with the
ISRO Scientists for about a fortnight. Which of the following statements with regard to that is / are
correct?
1. The communication break occurred due to the positioning of Earth, the Sun and Mars
aligning themselves in one line
2. The Sun disrupts the radio transmissions between the two planets during the alignment
3. During this period the Mangalyaan could not take any decision as there was no signal from
ISRO
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1, 2 and 3
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only


2015 ISRO

I /
/?

1. -
,

2. , -

3. ISRO

:
(a) 1, 2 3
(b) 1

(c) 2 3
(d) 1 2
39.
Which one of the following multi-sectoral development programmes for minorities for upgrading
skills and training in preservation of traditional ancestral arts / crafts was launched recently?
(a) Hamari Dharohar
(b) Nai Manzil
(c) USTAAD
(d) Nai Umeed
/
- , ?
(a)
(b)

(c) (USTAAD)
(d)

40.
In May 2015, the Supreme Court of India issued guidelines on regulating government advertisements.
According to the guidelines, photographs of who among the following can NOT feature in the
advertisements released by the State and Central Government departments?
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice of India

 2015 ,

I ,

?
(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)
41.
In the year 2015, which one among the following football teams won I-League title of football?
(a) Salgaocar FC
(b) East Bengal
(c) Bengaluru FC
(d) Mohun Bagan
2015 , I- ?
(a) FC

(b)

(c) FC

(d)
42.
Which one of the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is NOT
correct?
(a) The yearly premium is Rs. 12
(b) It is available to all savings bank account holders in the age group of 18 to 50 years
(c) It has accidental death and disability cover of Rs. 2,00,000
(d) There is a provision of payment of Rs. 1,00,000 for partial permanent disability
?
(a) . 12

(b) 18 50 -

(c) : . 2,00,000

(d) : . 1,00,000

43.
During the recent visit of the Prime Minister of India to China, agreements were signed on
establishment of sister cities between India and China. Which one among the following was NOT one
of them?
(a) Chennai and Chongqing
(b) Guwahati and Kunming
(c) Hyderabad and Qingdao
(d) Aurangabad and Dunhuang
,

I ?
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
44.
The Constitution of India (100th Amendment) Act, 2015 deals with:
(a) Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and
Resettlement.
(b) Motor Vehicles.
(c) Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh.
(d) Mines and Minerals.
(100 ) , 2015 ?
(a) ,
(b)

(c)
(d)

45.
Who among the following won the 2015 French Open Mens Singles title?
(a) Rafael Nadal
(b) Novak Djokovic
(c) Stan Wawrinka
(d) Roger Federer
2015
?

(a)

(b)
(c)
(d)

46.
Who among the following was conferred with the Bangladesh Liberation War Honour recently?
(a) Narendra Modi
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Sonia Gandhi
(d) Ajit Doval
?
(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)
47.
The rate of the Service Tax is changed with effect from 1.6.2015. What is the present rate of Service
Tax in India?
(a) 12.36%
(b) 13.26%
(c) 14%
(d) 15%
1.6.2015 I ?
(a) 12.36%
(b) 13.26%
(c) 14%
(d) 15%
48.
Who among the following Indian umpires was inducted into the Elite Panel of ICC Umpires for the
year 2015-16?
(a) Sundaram Ravi
(b) Subroto Das
(c) Shashank Ranade
(d) Krishnamachari Srinivasan
2015-16 ICC
?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

49.
Which one of the following teams won the 2015 UEFA Champions League title?
(a) Juventus
(b) Barcelona
(c) Real Madrid
(d) Arsenal
2015 UEFA ?
(a)

(b)

(c)
(d)

50.
Which one of the following was the name of the relief operation in Nepal carried out by Government
of India and Indian armed forces in the aftermath of earthquakes in Nepal in April-May 2015?
(a) Operation All Out
(b) Operation Surya Hope
(c) Operation Maitri
(d) Operation Good Samaritan
, - 2015
( ) ?
(a)
(b)
(c)

(d)

51.

The following Table shows the number of students in Primary level (Class-I to Class-V) and
Middle level (Class VI-Class VIII) from 2009-10 to 2013-14:
Year
2009-10
2010-11
2011-12
2012-13
2013-14

Primary level (in Lakh)

1356
1353
1371
1348
1324

Middle level (in Lakh)

594
621
619
649
665

In which one of the following years, there is maximum decrease in the number of students
from Primary level to Middle level?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2009-10
2010-11
2011-12
2012-13

2009-10 2013-14 (-I -V)

( VI- VIII) :

2009-10
2010-11
2011-12
2012-13
2013-14

( )
1356
1353
1371
1348
1324

( )
594
621
619
649
665

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2009-10
2010-11
2011-12
2012-13

52.

The following Table shows the number of students in Primary level (Class-I to Class-V) and
Middle level (Class VI-Class VIII) from 2009-10 to 2013-14:
Year
2009-10
2010-11
2011-12
2012-13
2013-14

Primary level (in Lakh)

1356
1353
1371
1348
1324

Middle level (in Lakh)

594
621
619
649
665

In which one of the following years, there is minimum decrease in the number of students
from Primary level to Middle level?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2009-10
2010-11
2011-12
2013-14

2009-10 2013-14 (-I -V)

( VI- VIII) :

2009-10
2010-11
2011-12
2012-13
2013-14

( )
1356
1353
1371
1348
1324

( )
594
621
619
649
665

?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2009-10
2010-11
2011-12
2013-14

53.
If a number is divided by 10, it leaves a remainder of 4. If thrice the number is divided by 5, then what
will be the remainder?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
10 , 4 I
5 , ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

54.
A class starts at 9:30 AM and lasts till 1:25 PM. After every period, there is a gap of 5 minutes. What is
the exact duration of each period, if there are four periods during the class?
(a) 50 minutes
(b) 55 minutes
(c) 60 minutes
(d) 52 minutes
9:30 1:25 I 5

I , -
?

(a) 50
(b) 55
(c) 60

(d) 52

55.

The following table shows the number of students admitted under various categories to
different programmes in a college:
General
OBC
SC/ST
Total

B. Tech.
200
54
45
299

M.Tech.
100
27
23
150

M.Sc.
50
18
12
80

Ph.D
100
27
22
149

M.B.A.
180
49
41
270

What is the percentage of students admitted to the M.Sc. programme in all the three
categories?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

8.43%
7.89%
8.51%
8.62%

-
:

OBC
SC/ST

B. Tech.
200
54
45
299

M.Tech.
100
27
23
150

M.Sc.
50
18
12
80

Ph.D
100
27
22
149

M.B.A.
180
49
41
270

M.Sc. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

8.43%
7.89%
8.51%
8.62%

56.

The following figure shows the number of students admitted to different programmes in a
college under various categories:
General
OBC
SC/ST
Total

B. Tech.
200
54
45
299

M.Tech.
100
27
23
150

M.Sc.
50
18
12
80

Ph.D
100
27
22
149

M.B.A.
180
49
41
270

What is the percentage of M.B.A. students (General category) in the total number of
students?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

19.6%
20%
18.98%
20.5%

-
:

OBC
SC/ST

B. Tech.
200
54
45
299

M.Tech.
100
27
23
150

M.Sc.
50
18
12
80

Ph.D
100
27
22
149

M.B.A.
180
49
41
270

M.B.A. ( ) ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

19.6%
20%
18.98%
20.5%

57.
72 people complete a work in 36 days. If we use 48 people to complete the work, how many days will
they take?
(a) 50 days
(b) 52 days
(c) 54 days
(d) 56 days

72 36 I 48
, ?
(a) 50
(b) 52
(c) 54
(d) 56
58.
In a college, one third of the total number of boys and one half of the total number of girls
participated in a social service work, out of which 90 were boys. Total number of students who
participated was 360. What is the total number of students in the college?
(a) 750
(b) 810
(c) 800
(d) 820
-

, 90 I

360 I ?
(a) 750
(b) 810
(c) 800
(d) 820

59.
If two dice are thrown simultaneously, what is the probability of getting two numbers whose product
is even?
(a) 1/2
(b) 3/4
(c) 3/8
(d) 5/16
- , , ,
?
(a) 1/2
(b) 3/4
(c) 3/8
(d) 5/16

60.

Consider the following arrangement:

RD15E%K3JI9P8#G2B$KM6W@N4^T*7FH
How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4
3
2
1

:
RD15E%K3JI9P8#G2B$KM6W@N4^T*7FH
,
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4
3
2
1

61.
In a 200 metre race, M runs at a speed of 1.2 m/s. If M gives a start of 8 metre to S and still beats him
by 24 seconds, what is the speed of S approximately?
(a) 0.72 m/s
(b) 0.82 m/s
(c) 1.00 m/s
(d) 1.25 m/s
200 , M, 1.2 m/s I M, S 8
24 , S ?
(a) 0.72 m/s
(b) 0.82 m/s
(c) 1.00 m/s
(d) 1.25 m/s
62.

Consider the following series:

H2, ___, F8, E16, ___, C64, B128
Which of the following numbers should fill the blanks respectively?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

G4 and D32
G4 and D16
E4 and D16
E8 and D32

 :
H2, ___, F8, E16, ___, C64, B128
: ?
(a) G4 D32
(b) G4 D16
(c) E4 D16
(d) E8 D32
63.
A tank with a capacity of 10000 litres is empty. If water flows into the tank from pipe at the rate of
100 litres per minute and water is pumped out by another pipe at the rate of 50 litres per minute, in
how many minutes will the tank be filled?
(a) 3 hours 10 minutes
(b) 3 hours 20 minutes
(c) 2 hours 40 minutes
(d) 2 hours 50 minutes
10000 I 100
,

, ?

50

(a) 3 10
(b) 3 20
(c) 2 40
(d) 2 50

64.
R sold an article for Rs. 540 and incurred a loss of 10%. If the same article is sold for Rs.660, which
one of the following will be his profit percentage?
(a) 8%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 10%
R . 540 10% I . 660
, , ?
(a) 8%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 10%

65.
Ten points are marked on a straight line and eleven points are marked on another straight line (the
lines are non-intersecting and no points are common). How many triangles can be constructed with
vertices from among the above points?
(a) 495
(b) 550
(c) 1045
(d) 1330

( -

) I
?
(a) 495
(b) 550
(c) 1045
(d) 1330

66.
X
3
If
= , then (X+3) : (Y+7) is equal to:
Y
7
(a) 7:3
(b) 4:8
(c) 6:7
(d) 3:7

X
3
= , (X+3) : (Y+7) ?
Y
7
(a) 7:3
(b) 4:8
(c) 6:7
(d) 3:7

67.
If A + B means A is the sister of B; A x B means A is the wife of B; A % B means A is the father of B and
A - B means A is the brother of B, which one of the following means T is the daughter of P?
(a) P - Q % R + T x S
(b) P x Q % R T + S
(c) P x Q % R + T S
(d) P - Q % R + S x T
A + B A, B ; A x B A, B ; A % B

A, B A - B A, B ,
T, P ?
(a) P - Q % R + T x S
(b) P x Q % R T + S
(c) P x Q % R + T S
(d) P - Q % R + S x T

68.
If B is the son of D; D and R are sisters; Y is the mother of R and Q is the son of Y, which one of the
following statements is correct?
(a) Q and B are cousins
(b) Q is the maternal uncle of B
(c) R is the maternal uncle of D
(d) D and Q are sisters
B, D ; D R ; Y, R Q, Y ,

?
(a) Q B
(b) Q , B
(c) R, D

(d) D Q
69.

The number of MoUs signed by various central PSEs in different years and their performance
record are given below:
Year
2010-11
2011-12
2012-13

MoUs Performance Excellent

evaluated
197 162
67
198 175
76
197 190
77

Very
good
44
39
38

Good Fair

Poor

24
33
37

2
2
2

25
25
36

In which year the performance record of MoUs can be considered as best provided only
excellent, very good and good performances are considered?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2011-12
2012-13
2010-11
All these years have similar performance

 PSEs MoUs

MoUs

2010-11
2011-12
2012-13

197
198
197

67
76
77

162
175
190

44
39
38

24
33
37

25
25
36

2
2
2

MoUs , ,

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2011-12
2012-13
2010-11

70.
The people belonging to Generation Y (Born after 1990) prefer to be independent, take on
challenging work, and have more risk taking ability. This makes them more entrepreneurial in nature.
Which one of the following best sums up the characteristics of Generation Y as narrated above?
(a) They are working harder than other generations
(b) They are more self directed
(c) They do not like subordination and want to work on their own
(d) They want to take jobs, which require higher level of risk
Y (1990 ) ,

,
I : I
, Y ?
(a)

(b) -

(c)

(d) ,

71.
In the context of materials management, MRP II stands for:
(a) Materials Requirement Planning
(b) Market Resource Planning
(c) Manufacturing Resource Planning
(d) Method Requirement Planning
, MRP II ?

(a) ( )
(b) ( )

(c) ( )
(d) ( )
72.

In the context of maintenance management, overall equipment effectiveness is measured as:

(a)

Quality Rate
Performance Efficiency + Availability

(b) Availability + Performance Efficiency + Quality Rate

(c)

Availability
Performance Efficiency + Quality Rate

(d) Availability X Performance Efficiency X Quality Rate

, ?

(a)

(b) + +

(c)

(d) X X

73.
In the context of inventory management, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Carrying costs are linearly related to order size
(b) Ordering costs are linearly related to order size
(c) Carrying costs are linearly and non-linearly related to order size
(d) Ordering costs are linearly and non-linearly related to order size
?
(a) :

(b) :

(c) : :

(d) : :
74.
A newspaper boy purchases newspaper daily in the morning at a cost of Rs 1.50 per newspaper. He
sells them at a price of Rs 2.00 per newspaper. Unsold newspapers have no salvage value. What is
the desired service level?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0.67
0.75
0.25
0.50

1.50 I .

2.00 I I

- ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0.67
0.75
0.25
0.50

75.

A firm uses simple exponential smoothing method of forecasting with = 0.2. The forecast
for the month of June 2015 was 600 units, whereas the actual demand turned out to be 550
units. What will be the forecast for July 2015?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

620
610
590
580

 = 0.2

( )

2015

600 , 550 I 2015

?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

620
610
590
580

76.

A purchase manager using exponential smoothing method of forecast predicts demand of a

component to be 1000 units for June 2015 using = 0.3. Actual demand of the component
turned out to be 1150. What is the noise level in this data?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

150
- 150
45
- 45

- ( )

, = 0.3
2015 1000
I 1150 I

( ) ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

150
- 150
45
- 45

77.
A retailer for auto parts forecasts the demand for the spark-plugs at the rate of 1000 per month for
the next three months. The actual demands turned out to be 900, 1050 and 1120. Which one of the
following is the mean absolute deviation?
(a) 23.33 units
(b) 90 units
(c) 23.33 units
(d) 270 units


- 1000

I 900, 1050 1120 I
?
(a) 23.33
(b) 90

(c) 23.33

(d) 270
78.

The following table presents data of actual demand for a product for six months:
Period
Demand
(unit)

February March
2015
2015
850
875

April
2015
880

May
2015
1000

June
2015
950

July
2015
975

Which one of the following will be the forecast for the product for August 2015 when a threeperiod weighted moving average method with weights of 0.5, 0.3 and 0.2 is used?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

980 units
977.5 units
975 units
972.5 units

2015
850

2015
875

2015
880

2015
1000

2015
950

2015
975

()
, 2015 -

, 0.5, 0.3 0.2 , ?

(a) 980

(b) 977.5
(c) 975

(d) 972.5

79.
What is inventory turnover?
(a) A ratio of average cost of goods sold to average inventory investment
(b) A ratio of average cost of goods sold to re-order point inventory investment
(c) A ratio of average cost of goods sold to economic order quantity value
(d) A ratio of average inventory investment to average cost of goods sold
?

(a) ,

(b) ,

(c) ,

(d) ,
80.
Lead time in the context of inventory management is the time:
(a) between receiving and consuming the items of a particular order.
(b) between receiving of items of two consecutive orders.
(c) between ordering and receiving of items of an order.
(d) when no stock is available.
- :

(a)

(b)

(c)
(d)
81.
In the context of inventory management, interest is:
(a) ordering cost.
(b) carrying cost.
(c) shortage cost.
(d) overstocking cost.
, ?
(a)
(b)

(c)

(d)

82.
A local retailer operates 300 days a year and expects to sell 10,000 cycles. He orders 500 cycles in
each order. What is the length of an order cycle?
(a) 18 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 17 days

300 10,000 I
500 I - ?
(a) 18

(b) 20
(c) 15

(d) 17
83.
A store expects demand of a component to be 5000 units. The store operates 300 days in a year.
Annual carrying cost is Rs. 16 per unit, and ordering cost is Rs. 100 per order. Which one of the
following shows the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)?
(a) 250 units
(b) 40 units
(c) 1600 units
(d) 500 units
5000 I 300

I . 16 , . 100 I
(EOQ) ?
(a) 250

(b) 40

(c) 1600
(d) 500

84.
A manufacturing unit requires 200 units of an item costing Rs. 500 per unit. The annual carrying cost
is 20 percent of the purchase price. Each time an order is placed; firm incurs a cost of Rs. 25. Which
one of the following is the value of the total annual cost of inventory?
(a) Rs. 1,100
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 100
(d) Rs.1,000

 . 500 200
I 20 I ,

- . 25 I ,

?
(a) . 1,100

(b) . 10,000
(c) . 100

(d) . 1,000

85.
Which one of the following is the first activity of purchasing cycle?
(a) Communicating vendors
(b) Source selection
(c) Recognizing the need of procurement
(d) Inspection of goods
, ?
(a)
(b)

(c)
(d)

86.
In the context of inventory management, a 95% service level means:
(a) 95% demand of a customer is fulfilled.
(b) a store stocks 95% of its annual demand of a product.
(c) quality of service is 95%.
(d) probability of 95% that demand will not exceed supply during lead time.
, 95% ?
(a) 95%

(b) 95%

(c)
95%

(d) 95% ,

87.
Suppose that the purchase manager of a company determined from historical records that demand
for a product during lead time averages 100 ton. In addition, suppose the manager determined that
demand during lead time could be described by a normal distribution that has a mean of 100 ton and
a standard deviation of 5 ton. The manager is willing to accept a stock-out risk of no more than 3%.
How much safety stock should be held? (In case of need, use Z = 1.88)
(a) 5 ton
(b) 9.40 ton
(c) 109.40 ton
(d) 19.40 ton

100 I ,

100

5 I

3% I

? (, Z = 1.88 )
(a) 5

(b) 9.40

(c) 109.40
(d) 19.40

88.
A hotel uses an average of 100 bottles of special ketchup each week. Weekly use of ketchup has a
standard deviation of 3 bottles. The manager wants a service level of 90% during lead time, which is
two weeks. Assuming the distribution of usage to be normal (Z = 1.28), what is the re-order point?
(a) 205.43
(b) 105.43
(c) 105.37
(d) 205.37

100

3 I , ,
, 90% I (Z = 1.28) ,
?
(a) 205.43
(b) 105.43
(c) 105.37
(d) 205.37
89.

Given the following information, what is the quantity to order (approximately)?

Average demand
:
20 units per day
Desired service level
:
97% (Z = 1.88)
Standard deviation of daily demand
:
2 units per day
Amount on hand at re-order time
:
50 units
Lead time
:
3 days
Order interval
:
13 days
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

210 units
250 units
285 units
235 units

 , () ?

20

97% (Z = 1.88)

:
:
:

50
3

13

(a) 210
(b) 250
(c) 285

(d) 235

90.
Which one of the following statements with regard to Bill of Lading is NOT correct?
(a) It is a document acknowledging the receipt of certain specified goods for carriage
(b) It specifies the port of shipment, the destination and the condition under which the goods are
received for carriage
(c) It possesses some characteristics of a negotiable instrument
(d) It does not give its holder the title to the goods mentioned
?

(a) -

(b) - , ,
,

(c)

(d)
91.
In the context of forecasting, tracking signal is calculated as: (Where TS= Tracking Signal, RSFE=
Running Sum of Forecasting Error, AE= Average Error, MAD= Mean Absolute Deviation, MSE= Mean
Square Error, MAPE= Mean Absolute Percentage Error)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

TS= RSFE/AE
TS= RSFE/MAD
TS= RSFE/MSE
TS= RSFE/MAPE


, : (

TS= , RSFE=
, AE= , MAD=

, MSE= , MAPE= )
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

TS= RSFE/AE
TS= RSFE/MAD
TS= RSFE/MSE
TS= RSFE/MAPE

92.
In the context of inventory management, VED analysis stands for:
(a) Vital, Economical, Desirable.
(b) Vital, Economical, Difficult.
(c) Vital, Essential, Desirable.
(d) Vital, Easy, Difficult.
, VED ?

(a) , , (, , )

(b) , , (, , )

(c) , , (, , )

(d) , , (, , )
93.

Consider the following information:

Sales
:
Rs. 2,00,000
Direct material
:
Rs. 60,000
Direct labour
:
Rs. 40,000
Variable overheads :
Rs. 20,000
Profit
:
Rs. 70,000
Which one of the following is the value of fixed cost calculated on the basis of the above
information?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Rs. 1,30,000
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 50,000
Rs. 80,000

:
:

. 2,00,000
. 60,000
. 40,000

. 20,000
. 70,000

(a) . 1,30,000
(b) . 10,000

(c) . 50,000
(d) . 80,000
94.
A manufacturing firm incurs a fixed cost of Rs. 10,000. The variable cost accounts Rs. 10 per unit and
selling price is Rs. 15. Which one of the following is the number of units to be produced to breakeven?
(a) 2,000 units
(b) 400 units
(c) 1,000 units
(d) 1,500 units
-. 10,000 I . 10

. 15 I , -
?
(a) 2,000
(b) 400

(c) 1,000
(d) 1,500

95.
Which of the following pairs of concept and feature is / are correctly matched?
1. A.Q.L. :
2. A.O.Q. :

A sampling plan for acceptance and rejection of lot with a percentage of

defects which the buyer is willing to tolerate
Average percentage or number of defective items in the accepted lots
after carrying out inspection

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

/ / ?
1. A.Q.L.

() ,

2. A.O.Q.

:
(a) 1
(b) 2

(c) 1 2

(d) 1, 2

96.
Under which one of the following methods of inventory valuation, the value of closing inventory will
reflect latest purchase prices?
(a) F.I.F.O.
(b) L.I.F.O.
(c) Simple Average Method
(d) Weighted Average Method

,

(a) F.I.F.O.
(b) L.I.F.O.
(c)
(d)

97.
In the context of maintenance management, TPM stands for:
(a) Total Planned Maintenance.
(b) Total Preventive Maintenance.
(c) Total Predictive Maintenance.
(d) Total Productive Maintenance.
, TPM ?

(a) ( )

(b) ( )

(c) ( )
(d) ( )

98.
Kanban is a Japanese word. The approximate meaning of Kanban is:
(a) continuous improvement.
(b) card or a visible signal.
(c) error proofing.
(d) waste minimization.
I ?
(a)

(b)
(c)

(d) ( )
99.
Which one of the following is responsible for downtime losses?
(a) Setup and adjustment
(b) Reduced speed
(c) Minor stoppage
(d) Start-up
, () ?
(a)

(b)
(c) - ( )
(d) - (-)

100.
A manufacturer of machine tools tested its product to assess the various maintenance performance
measures. 10 tools were tested for a running time of 100 hours. It was found that there were a total
of 30 failures during the testing phase. In total, 35 hours were lost on account of identifying the
problem and restoring it back to working condition. Which one of the following is the availability of
machine tool?
(a) 1.034
(b) 0.857
(c) 0.966
(d) 1.166
,

I 10 100 I
30 I ,
: 35 I ,

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

?
1.034
0.857
0.966
1.166

101.
All contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union of India as per Article 299 of
the Constitution are expressed to be made by the:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

President of India
Prime Minister
Commerce Minister in the Union Cabinet
Secretary of the Ministry/Department concerned

299

?
(a)
(b)

(c)

(d) /

102.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The person making any contract on behalf of the Union of India is personally liable in respect
thereof
(b) The Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India
(c) The executive power of the Union extends to acquisition, holding and disposal of property
(d) Parliament can impose restrictions on trade and commerce between one State and another if
so required in public interest

 ?
(a)

(b)

(c) ,
(d)

103.
The Public Procurement Bill, 2012:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

has not been enacted.

was passed by the Parliament but it has not yet come into force.
is in force since July 2014.
is awaiting Presidential assent.

() , 2012:
(a)
(b)
(c)
2014

(d)

104.
General rules regarding procurement of goods by the Ministries and Departments are laid down in:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

General Financial Rules, 2005.

the Rules framed under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930.
Transaction of Business Rules, 1961.
none of these.

()
?

(a) , 2005

(b) , 1930
(c) , 1961

(d)

105.
Which of the following is NOT included in the term goods as defined in the General Financial Rules,
2005?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Raw material
Spares
Livestock
Books for libraries

, 2005 -

(a)

(b) ()
(c)

(d)
106.
Authorities competent to sanction purchase of goods for use in public service, except for the defence
services, are defined in:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Delegation of Financial Powers Rules, 1978.

General Financial Rules, 2005.
DGS&D Manual.
Specific orders issued by the Ministries/Departments concerned.

(a) , 1978 ( ,
1978)

(b) , 2005 ( , 2005)

(c) DGS&D - ()

(d) /

107.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Rate contracts are concluded by the Central Purchase Organization (DGS&D) for common
user items needed by various ministries and departments of the government on a recurring
basis
(b) Central Purchase Organization maintains an item-wise list of capable suppliers
(c) There is no scheme for enlistment of the Indian agents who desire to quote directly on behalf
of their foreign principals
(d) All items of handspun (khadi) textiles are reserved for exclusive purchase from Khadi Village
Industries Commission (KVIC) or notified units of the Association of Corporations and Apex
Societies of Handloom (ACASH)

(a) :
(DGS&D)

(b)

(c) ,
,

(d) () (KVIC)
(ACASH)

108.
Goods can be purchased without inviting quotations or bids, under certificate to be recorded by the
competent authority, on each occasion up to the value of:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Rs 10,000
Rs 15,000
Rs 25,000
Rs 1,00,000

,
?
(a) . 10,000
(b) . 15,000
(c) . 25,000

(d) . 1,00,000
109.
Goods can be purchased up to the specified limit on the recommendations of a duly constituted Local
Purchase Committee consisting of:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Two members
Two members with one of them being from another Government organization
Three members
Three members, at least one of them being a woman

I ?
(a)

(b) ,

(c)

(d) ,

110.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) A Ministry/Department can directly procure goods which are available on Rate Contracts
concluded by the Central Purchase Organization
(b) A Ministry/Department can directly procure goods which are otherwise available on Rate
Contracts concluded by the Central Purchase Organization (CPO) provided these are inspected
by the Quality Assurance Agency of the CPO
(c) A demand for goods should not be divided into small quantities
(d) The authority competent to sanction a purchase is determined with reference to the
estimated value of the total demand
?

(a) / () ,

(b) / () ,

(CPO) , CPO

(c)

(d)

111.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) There are exceptions to the rule that the goods should be purchased by obtaining bids
(b) Tender notice should not under any circumstances be sent to the foreign embassies in India
(c) The minimum time allowed for submission of bids in response to Advertised Tender Enquiry
cannot be less than two months
(d) The number of suppliers in Limited Tender Enquiry should be more than four
?

(a) , ,

(b)

(c)

(d)

112.
The invitation to bid through the Advertised Tender Enquiry should generally be adopted if the
estimated value of the purchase exceeds:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Rs 10 lakh
Rs 25 lakh
One tenth of the budgetary allocation of the purchasing department
One fifth of the budgetary allocation of the purchasing department

(a) . 10
(b) . 25

(c)

(d)
113.
Two-bid system is generally followed:

(a) for purchasing high value plant and machinery of a complex nature.
(b) for purchases above Rs 1 lakh.
(c) where the tender comprises of separate technical and financial bids both of which may be
opened simultaneously, if deemed necessary.
(d) for auctioning the government property only.
- :
(a)
(b) . 1

(c) - , ,
, -

(d)

114.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct in relation to purchase of goods through Single
Tender Enquiry method? This method can be adopted:
(a) If the purchasing department knows that there is only a particular firm which manufactures
the required goods.
(b) If the desired goods have to be purchased from a particular firm in case of an emergency.
(c) To ensure compatibility of the spare parts with the existing sets of equipment.
(d) If the desired goods are available locally.



? :

(a)

(b)

(c) ( )

(d)
115.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) A maintenance contract may be entered into with the supplier of the goods or any other
competent firm
(b) Bid Security is not the same as Earnest Money
(c) Bid Security lapses to the government after the completion of the bidding process if the
tender documents had been issued free of cost
(d) The successful bidder has to furnish performance bond for an amount equal to 35 per cent of
the value of the contract
?

(a)

(b)
(c) : ,

(d) 35

116.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) An item remaining in stock for over five years shall generally be considered surplus, unless
adequate reasons exist to treat it otherwise
(b) All consumable goods should be verified at least once every six months
(c) Physical verification of fixed assets should be carried out at least once every year
(d) Buffer stocks should not be maintained

 ?
(a)
,
(b) ( )

(c)
(d) ( )
117.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Part payments cannot be made to the supplier of goods before the goods are dispatched
(b) The method of settlement of disputes that might arise from a contract should not be
mentioned in the contract document
(c) Holding pre-bid conference with the suppliers is a violation of the vigilance guidelines
(d) Departments cannot exchange the existing old items while purchasing the new ones
?

(a) ,

(b)

(c)

(d)
118.
Surplus or obsolete or unserviceable goods should be disposed of by obtaining bids through
advertised tender or public auction if the assessed residual value of the goods is more than:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Rs
Rs
Rs
Rs

2 lakh
5 lakh
10 lakh
25 lakh

, ,

I ?
(a) 2

(b) 5

(c) 10

(d) 25

119.
Losses not due to depreciation are grouped under certain heads. Which of the following is NOT one
of such heads?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Losses due to theft or fraud

Losses due to neglect
Losses due to damage
Losses due to unknown reasons

, , I

, ?

(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)
120.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The officer-in-charge of stores can declare non-moving items as obsolete at his discretion
if the book value of such items is less than Rs 50,000
(b) A committee consisting of the officer-in-charge of stores, the finance officer and a
representative of the Central Vigilance Commission has to be set up to declare items in
the stock as surplus
(c) Medicines that have outlived their shelf life should be returned to the manufacturing
company
(d) Physical verification of books must be done at least once in three years if the library has
more than twenty thousand but upto fifty thousand books
?
(a)
50,000

(b) ,

(c) , - (-) ,

(d)