Microbiology Exam 1

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The document provides content from a microbiology exam, including 50 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of microbiology concepts and techniques.

The purpose of the exam is to test students' knowledge of microbiology through 50 multiple choice questions.

The exam questions cover a wide range of microbiology topics including bacterial structure and classification, microbial growth techniques, genetics, metabolism, and identification methods.

MICROBIOLOGY 200

LECTURE EXAM 1
September 10, 2008
Print Name_______________________________________________________________________
Signature _________________________________________________________________________
Student Identification Number__________________________________________
Enter your name and social security number in the correct spaces on both this test form and the answer sheet.
Read the directions carefully before starting the test. Choose the single best answer and enter it on your answer
sheet. One answer is more appropriate than any other. Do not ask for help during the test but if you see an
ambiguous question or answer make a * note in the margin of the question/answer form and write out an
explanation beside it. If possible, do not make erasures on the answer sheet. They may be misgraded by the
computer (the risk is yours). You have 50 minutes to complete the test. Hand in both test forms. Illness is the
only reason to leave the room. Ask a proctor for permission.

TEST FORM A
1._______

Robert Koch made many important contributions to microbiology. Which one did he not
make?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

2._______

Which of the following is the same size as a 5 micrometer (m) bacterium?


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

3._______

Discovered the organism that causes tuberculosis.


Discovered penicillin.
Developed artificial microbiological media.
Proved the germ theory with his postulates.
Developed streak plate technique for isolation of bacteria on artificial media.

5000 nanometer smallpox virus


500 nanometer influenza virus
0.050 nanometer molecule of DNA
0.005 nanometer flagellum
50000 nanometer bacterium

India ink, a black acidic stain, is applied to a drop of cerebrospinal fluid containing bacteria. A
coverslip is placed over the preparation, and when viewed under the microscope, you see
colorless round cells in a black background. Which of the following statements best describes
this phenomenon?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Positively-charged bacterial cells repel the negative charge of the India ink.
Positively-charged bacterial cells repel the positive charge of the India ink.
Negatively-charged bacterial cells repel the positive charge of the India ink.
Negatively-charged bacterial cells repel the negative charge of the India ink.
Bacterial cells are not charged and neither acidic nor basic stains will stain them.


4._______

Hektoen-Enteric agar contains bile salts that inhibit the growth of gram-positive bacteria. The
medium also contains lactose, a carbohydrate, and acid fuchsin and bromothymol blue, pH
indicators. The colonies of gram-negative bacteria that can ferment the lactose appear orange
and the colonies of gram-negative bacteria that do not ferment lactose appear blue-green.
Colonies of gram-negative bacteria that produce H2S have black centers. This type of medium
is an example of a/an ______ medium
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

5._______

A bacterium that is shaped like a curved rod or comma-shaped is called a _____.


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

6._______

Photosynthesis
Fermentation
Embden-Meyerhof pathway
Facilitated diffusion
Pentose Phosphate Pathway

Which of the following methods will not sterilize a stainless steel instrument?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

8._______

coccus
spirochete
bacillus
streptococcus
vibrio

Production of ATP molecules will occur with all of the following processes except:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

7._______

enrichment
differential
selective
differential and selective
enrichment and differential

Baking at 160C for 2 hours


Boiling for 10 minutes at 100C
Autoclaving at 121C and 15psi for 20 minutes
Immersion in 2% glutaraldehyde solution for 10 hours
Ethylene oxide for 18 hours.

Which of the following techniques involves the generation of restriction fragment


polymorphisms (RFLPs) and their separation by electrophoresis and visualization by Southern
blotting?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

DNA fingerprinting
Polymerase Chain reaction (PCR)
Generation of cDNA
Generation of recombinant DNA
Phage typing


9._______

In a high frequency of recombination (Hfr) cell,


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

10._______

Mycology is the study of _______.


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

11._______

Glucose will move into the cell, causing it to swell.


Glucose will move out of the cell, causing it to shrink.
Water will move out of the cell causing it to shrink.
There will be no movement of either glucose or water in or out of the cell.
Water will move into the cell, causing it to swell.

A milliliter of pond water is added to Photobacterium broth in the hopes of isolating


cyanobacteria from the pond water. Photobacterium broth contains ingredients that allow the
cyanobacteria to grow better than other microorganisms that may be in the pond water but does
not suppress any of the other organisms growth. Photobacterium broth is an example of a/an
_____ medium.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

13._______

prokaryotes
Mycobacterium species
viruses
protozoa and parasitic helminths
molds and yeasts

Staphylococcus aureus, a gram-positive coccus, is placed in an isotonic solution of glucose.


Which of the following statements best describes what will happen to the organism?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

12._______

DNA replication is inhibited.


the plasmid of a F+ cell becomes integrated into the bacterial chromosome.
a bacterial virus becomes integrated into the bacterial chromosome.
naked DNA becomes integrated into the bacterial chromosome.
a F- cell becomes a F+ cell.

enrichment
differential
selective
differential and selective
enrichment and differential

The following structure is ______.

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

phenol
ethylene oxide
a phenolic
a quaternary ammonium compound
hydrogen peroxide
3


14._______

In transduction, DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another bacterium ___.


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

15._______

In order to express a eukaryotic gene in a bacterium, cDNA must be synthesized because


bacteria ____.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

16._______

A gram stain
An acid-fast stain
An endospore stain
A simple stain
A capsule stain

Peptidoglycan is found _____.


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

19._______

Salmonella Typhi
Salmonella Typhi
Salmonella typhi
Salmonella typhi
Salmonella typhi

Which of the following techniques would be most useful in determining if Mycobacterium


avium-intracellulare is in a urine sample?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

18.________

will automatically destroy eukaryotic DNA


have reverse transcriptase
usually cannot remove exons
splice RNA
usually cannot remove introns

Which of the following scientific names is written correctly?


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

17._______

with the help of a F factor


as naked DNA
with the help of a bacteriophage
through recombination
as a plasmid

only in the cell walls of prokaryotes


only in the cell walls of Archaea species
only in the cell walls of yeast cells
in endospores produced by Bacillus species
in the cytoplasmic membrane of Mycoplasma species

Which of the following processes does not require energy and involves the movement of water
across a selectively permeable membrane?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Group translocation
Osmosis
Active transport
Simple diffusion
Facilitated diffusion


20._______

Which of the following statements best describes the phenomenon of noncompetitive


inhibition?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

21._______

Use the following typical growth curve to answer this question. Which of the following
statements best describes what is going on in Section B of the graph?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
22._______

The cells are dormant.


Most growth is occurring in this phase.
The cells are very enzymatically active, getting ready to divide but not yet dividing.
The cells are dying or dead.
The number of cells dividing is equal to the number of cells dying.

Quaternary ammonium compounds (QUATs) are frequently used in a variety of settings as


disinfectants. Which of the following statements about QUATs is incorrect?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

23._______

The inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme other than the active site, changing the
conformation of the active site and preventing binding of the normal substrate.
The inhibitor binds to the apoenzyme before it can bind to its coenzyme preventing the
formation of a functional holoenzyme.
The inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme preventing the normal substrate
from binding to the active site.
The inhibitor binds to the substrate preventing it from binding to the active site of the
enzyme.
The inhibitor binds to the cofactor before it can bind to the apoenzyme preventing the
formation of a functional enzyme.

The ammonium ion is the core of the chemical structure.


Pseudomonas species have been shown to grow in some QUATs.
The presence of soap and anionic agents will increase the effectiveness of QUATs.
The presence of organic matter can neutralize the effectiveness of QUATs.
QUATs are not good sterilizing agents.

The process by which naked DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another bacterium is
called ___.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

conjugation
transduction
recombination
transformation
fermentation


24.________

A restriction endonuclease _____.


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

25._______

In lecture, we discussed a number of individuals who made important contributions to the field
of microbiology. Which of the following associations is mismatched?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

26._______

90
100
9
0.9
10

Which of the following equations represents what occurs in glycolysis?


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

28._______

Paul Ehrlich: used arsenic compounds to fight syphilis


Anton van Leeuwenhoek: discovered microorganisms
Robert Hooke: proposed germ theory
Joseph Lister: father of antiseptic surgery
Louis Pasteur: developed method to kill spoilage organisms in liquids

You are observing a tick under the microscope. The total magnification of the specimen you
are observing is 100. If the magnification of the ocular lens is 10, what is the magnification of
the objective you are using?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

27._______

synthesizes DNA from a piece of RNA


joins newly-synthesized DNA strands together
synthesizes mRNA from DNA
recognizes and cuts DNA at particular nucleotide base sequences
randomly cuts DNA

Glucose 2Acetone + 3ATP + 1NADH


Glucose 2CO2 + 38ATP + 10NADH
Galactose 2pyruvic acid + 2ATP + 2NADH
Glucose 2glyceraldehyde + 2ATO + 1NADH
Glucose 2pyruvic acid + 2ATP + 2NADH

Below are 3 different media. Which of the medium (media) is (are) a chemically-defined
synthetic medium? (g-grams; ml=milliliters; l=liters)
Medium A
Canola oil (3 ml)
MgSO4 (6 g)
Pond water (4 ml)
Yeast extract (6 g)
H2O (1l)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Medium B
NaCl (3.0 g)
Heart extract (5 g)
Orange juice (3 ml)
Baking soda (4 g)
H2O (1 l)

Medium A
Medium B
Medium C
Medium A and Medium B
Medium B and Medium C

Medium C
NaCl (2.315 g)
KNO3 (2.651 g)
K2HPO4 (6.78 g)
MgSO4 (3.258 g)
1000 ml


29._______

Which of the following methods is best for sterilizing a glass test tube?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

30._______

What color are gram-negative bacteria after the alcohol decolorizing step of the gram stain
procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

31._______

thermophiles and aerobes


mesophiles and facultative anaerobes
thermophiles and obligate anaerobes
psychrophiles and aerobes
psychrophiles and facultative anaerobes

What mechanism best represents how ultraviolet (UV) rays kill bacteria and cause mutations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

33._______

purple
pink-red
colorless
blue
green

You are given a water sample obtained from the hot springs at Yellowstone National Park.
Your instructor suggests you streak a portion of the sample onto nutrient agar and incubate it in
a 60C incubator for 48 hours at normal atmospheric conditions. After 1 week of incubation,
several orange colonies appear. These bacteria are likely to be _____
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

32._______

Autoclaving at 121C and 15psi for 20 minutes


Ethylene oxide for 20 minutes
Baking for at 160C for 20 minutes
Soaking in 2% glutaraldehyde solution for 20 minutes
Boiling at 100C for 20 minutes

UV rays crosslink thymines in the DNA forming dimers and preventing DNA
replication.
UV rays cause a substitution of an incorrect base into the DNA sequence and produce
nonfunctional proteins.
UV rays crosslink functional groups on proteins.
UV rays denature sulfur-containing amino acids.
UV rays denature the cellular membrane.

Which of the following compounds would not be found in the cell wall of a gram-negative
bacterium like Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

lipoprotein
Lipid A
peptidoglycan
phospholipids
mycolic acid


34._______

Which of the following statements about fermentation is false?


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

35._______

You are given a liquid medium containing cysteine, an amino acid essential to the medium but
degraded at temperatures higher than 55C, to sterilize. Of the options below, which one would
be the best one to use to sterilize the medium?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

36.________

peptidoglycan
lipopolysaccharide
mycolic acid
teichoic acid
murein

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the following reaction: mRNADNA?


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

39._______

galactose
glucose
allolactose
the repressor protein
RNA polymerase

Which of the following compounds is unique to the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

38._______

Autoclaving at 121C and 15psi for just 5 minutes


Pasteurization
Boiling it for 10 minutes
Filtration
Ethylene oxide for 10 minutes

Which of the following molecules induces the lac operon?


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

37._______

Energy is obtained from sugars and other organic molecules.


Oxygen is not required.
The Krebs cycle is required.
An organic molecule is the final electron receptor.
A maximum of 2 ATP molecules will be generated for every molecule of glucose.

DNA polymerase
reverse transcriptase
RNA polymerase
Endonuclease
Taq polymerase

You would expect to find peptidoglycan in the cell wall of all of the following except:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Acid-fast bacteria
Gram-positive bacteria
Mycoplasma species
Mycobacterium species
Gram-negative bacteria


40._______

Because Thiobacillus thiooxidans uses inorganic sulfur compounds as its energy source and
carbon dioxide (CO2) as its carbon source, it is classified as a _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

41._______

Which of the following structures would you not expect to find in Streptococcus pyogenes, a
gram-positive bacterium?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

42._______

Conjugation pili
Flagella
Nucleus
Cytoplasmic (plasma) membrane
Mitochondrion

The i region of the lac operon _____,


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

45._______

Facultative anaerobe
Obligate aerobe
Microaerophile
Obligate anaerobe
Capnophile

Which of the following structures would you not expect to find in Trichomonas vaginalis, a
flagellated protozoan?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

44.________

70S ribosome with 50S and 30S subunits


Endoplasmic reticulum
Cell wall
Cytoplasmic (plasma) membrane
A single circular chromosome of double-stranded DNA

Which of the following organisms does not produce superoxide dismutase, catalase, or
peroxidase?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

43._______

chemoheterotroph
chemoautotroph
photoheterotroph
photoautotroph

encodes for the repressor protein.


encodes for the structural genes.
is the inducer.
acts as a stop/go signal for transcription of the structural genes.
is the region where RNA polymerase begins transcription of the structural genes.

When a plasmid is transferred from a F+ bacterium to a F- bacterium through the pilus between
the bacteria, this is best described as _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

transformation
transduction
transcription
conformation
conjugation


46._______

The structure of the cytoplasmic (plasma) membrane is ____.


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

47.________

Which of the following methods is best for sterilizing a plastic centrifuge tube?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

48._______

lactic acid
lactose
glucose
lactose and glucose
galactose

What cellular structure is important in classifying bacterial species as Gram-positive or Gramnegative?


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

50._______

Autoclaving at 121C and 15psi for 20 minutes


Boiling at 100C for 20 minutes
Soaking in 2% glutaraldehyde solution for 20 minutes
Baking for at 160C for 20 minutes
Ethylene oxide for 10 hours

The lac operon will be repressed under all of the following conditions except the presence of _.
a.
b
c.
d.
e.

49._______

dipicolinic acid and calcium ions


peptidoglycan with teichoic acids
a bilayer of phospholipids and proteins
Lipid A and O polysaccharide
alternating molecules of n-acetylglucosamine and n-acetylmuramic acid

glycocalyx
cytoplasma (plasma) membrane
ribosome
flagella
cell wall

Which of the following techniques involves the amplification of a gene-sized piece of DNA into
many copies?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

DNA fingerprinting
Generation of cDNA
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
Phage typing
Transduction

THIS EXAM IS EXAM NUMBER: 001, TEST FORM A. CODE IN 001 IN THE EXAM
NUMBER BOX AND A IN THE TEST FORM BOX ON YOUR SCANTRON SHEET.

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