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The Archimedean Property

This document summarizes the proof that the set of real numbers has the Archimedean property. It defines the Archimedean property as any positive elements x and y in an ordered field having an integer n where nx is greater than y. It presents a lemma that the set of positive integers is not bounded above. The proof of the theorem then shows that if there was no such integer n, it would imply the integers have an upper bound, contradicting the lemma. Homework will provide an example of an ordered field without the Archimedean property.

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Pooja Sinha
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202 views1 page

The Archimedean Property

This document summarizes the proof that the set of real numbers has the Archimedean property. It defines the Archimedean property as any positive elements x and y in an ordered field having an integer n where nx is greater than y. It presents a lemma that the set of positive integers is not bounded above. The proof of the theorem then shows that if there was no such integer n, it would imply the integers have an upper bound, contradicting the lemma. Homework will provide an example of an ordered field without the Archimedean property.

Uploaded by

Pooja Sinha
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© © All Rights Reserved
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Math 508, Fall 2014

Jerry L. Kazdan

The Archimedean Property


Definition An ordered field F has the Archimedean Property if, given any positive x and
y in F there is an integer n > 0 so that nx > y.
Theorem The set of real numbers (an ordered field with the Least Upper Bound property)
has the Archimedean Property.
This is the proof I presented in class. It is one of the standard proofs. The key is the
following Lemma.
Lemma The set N of positive integers N = {0, 1, 2, . . .} is not bounded from above.
Proof Reasoning by contradiction, assume N is bounded from above. Since N R and R
has the least upper bound property, then N has a least upper bound R. Thus n
for all n N and is the smallest such real number.
Consequently 1 is not an upper bound for N (if it were, since 1 < , then would
not be the least upper bound). Therefore there is some integer k with 1 < k. But then
< k + 1. This contradicts that is an upper bound for N.
Proof of the Theorem Since x > 0, the statement that there is an integer n so that
nx > y is equivalent to finding an n with n > y/x for some n, But if there is no such n then
n < y/x for all integers n. That is, y/x would be an upper bound for the integers. This
contradicts the Lemma.
Remark Homework Set 2 will have an example of an ordered field that does not have the
Archimedean property.
[Last revised: September 3, 2014]

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