GATE Solved Question Papers For Civil Engineering CE by AglaSem Com

SOLVED PAPERS
GATE
CIVIL ENGINEERING (CE)
A comprehensive study guide for GATE
aglaem
.com
CONTENTS
Introduction
Question Paper Pattern
Design of Questions
Marking Scheme
Syllabus
Previous Year Solved Papers
o Solved Question Paper 2014 (Set 1)
o Answer Key 2014 (Set 1)
o Solved Question Paper 2014 (Set 2)
o Answer Key 2014 (Set 2)
o Solved Question Paper 2013
o Answer Key 2013
o Solved Question Paper 2012
o Answer Key 2012
Introduction
The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examination
conducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology
(IITs).
A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATE
papers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exam
pattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation.
While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in a
simulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown to
test time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as if
he / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions you
could get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, and
accordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areas
where in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper.
Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on the
basis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis.
To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.
_________________________________________________________
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Question Paper Pattern

In all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10
questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).
In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF and
XE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the General
Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of the
total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.
In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitude
section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks is
devoted to the subject of the paper.
GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers:
(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and
sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four
answers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).
(ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For
these questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the
virtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.
________________________________________________________
Design of Questions
The questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities:
(i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of the
paper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/her
memory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation.
(ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of the
basics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamental
ideas.
(iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/her
knowledge either through computation or by logical reasoning.
(iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data,
diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesis
question might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information.
Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstated
assumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.
__________________________________________________________
Marking Scheme
For 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.
Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong
answer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions.
General Aptitude (GA) Questions
In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questions
carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total
10 marks).
Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL
These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and
30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist of
questions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions,
choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a real
number, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. An
appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type
questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.
GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper
Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts:
Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section
1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part
A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.
Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks
and some of these may be numerical answer type questions). Each section in Part B
(Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each
(sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions).
XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)
_________________________________________________________
In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This section

contains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each (subtotal 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questions
may be of numerical answer type questions.
Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions
carrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
XL Paper (Life Sciences)
In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15
questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks)
and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions
carrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers
For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negative
marking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong
answer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a
wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numerical
answer type questions.
_________________________________________________________
Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)

Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups,
instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction.
Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning
and data interpretation.
Syllabus for Civil Engineering (CE)

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
Linear Algebra: Matrix algebra, Systems of linear equations, Eigen values and
eigenvectors.
Calculus: Functions of single variable, Limit, continuity and differentiability, Mean value
theorems, Evaluation of definite and improper integrals, Partial derivatives, Total
derivative, Maxima and minima, Gradient, Divergence and Curl, Vector identities,
Directional derivatives, Line, Surface and Volume integrals, Stokes, Gauss and Greens
theorems.
Differential equations: First order equations (linear and nonlinear), Higher order linear
differential equations with constant coefficients, Cauchys and Eulers equations, Initial and
boundary value problems, Laplace transforms, Solutions of one dimensional heat and
wave equations and Laplace equation.
Complex variables: Analytic functions, Cauchys integral theorem, Taylor and Laurent
series.
Probability and Statistics: Definitions of probability and sampling theorems, Conditional
probability, Mean, median, mode and standard deviation, Random variables, Poisson,
Normal and Binomial distributions.
Numerical Methods: Numerical solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations
Integration by trapezoidal and Simpsons rule, single and multi-step methods for
differential equations.
___________________________________________________________
STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING
Mechanics: Bending moment and shear force in statically determinate beams. Simple
stress and strain relationship: Stress and strain in two dimensions, principal stresses, stress
transformation, Mohrs circle. Simple bending theory, flexural and shear stresses,
unsymmetrical bending, shear centre. Thin walled pressure vessels, uniform torsion,
buckling of column, combined and direct bending stresses.
Structural Analysis: Analysis of statically determinate trusses, arches, beams, cables and
frames, displacements in statically determinate structures and analysis of statically
indeterminate structures by force/ energy methods, analysis by displacement methods
(slope deflection and moment distribution methods), influence lines for determinate and
indeterminate structures. Basic concepts of matrix methods of structural analysis.
Concrete Structures: Concrete Technology- properties of concrete, basics of mix design.
Concrete design- basic working stress and limit state design concepts, analysis of ultimate
load capacity and design of members subjected to flexure, shear, compression and torsion
by limit state methods. Basic elements of prestressed concrete, analysis of beam sections
at transfer and service loads.
Steel Structures: Analysis and design of tension and compression members, beams and
beam- columns, column bases. Connections- simple and eccentric, beamcolumn
connections, plate girders and trusses. Plastic analysis of beams and frames.
GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING
Soil Mechanics: Origin of soils, soil classification, three-phase system, fundamental
definitions, relationship and interrelationships, permeability &seepage, effective stress
principle, consolidation, compaction, shear strength.
Foundation Engineering: Sub-surface investigations- scope, drilling bore holes,
sampling, penetration tests, plate load test. Earth pressure theories, effect of water table,
layered soils. Stability of slopes-infinite slopes, finite slopes. Foundation types-foundation
design requirements. Shallow foundations-bearing capacity, effect of shape, water table
and other factors, stress distribution, settlement analysis in sands & clays. Deep
___________________________________________________________
foundationspile types, dynamic & static formulae, load capacity of piles in sands & clays,
negative skin friction.
WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING
Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics: Properties of fluids, principle of conservation of mass,
momentum, energy and corresponding equations, potential flow, applications of
momentum and Bernoullis equation, laminar and turbulent flow, flow in pipes, pipe
networks. Concept of boundary layer and its growth. Uniform flow, critical flow and
gradually varied flow in channels, specific energy concept, hydraulic jump. Forces on
immersed bodies, flow measurements in channels, tanks and pipes. Dimensional analysis
and hydraulic modeling. Kinematics of flow, velocity triangles and specific speed of pumps
and turbines.
Hydrology: Hydrologic
cycle,
rainfall,
evaporation,
infiltration,
stage
discharge
relationships, unit hydrographs, flood estimation, reservoir capacity, reservoir and channel
routing. Well hydraulics.
Irrigation: Duty, delta, estimation of evapo-transpiration. Crop water requirements.
Design of: lined and unlined canals, waterways, head works, gravity dams and spillways.
Design of weirs on permeable foundation. Types of irrigation system, irrigation methods.
Water logging and drainage, sodic soils.
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
Water requirements: Quality standards, basic unit processes and operations for water
treatment. Drinking water standards, water requirements, basic unit operations and unit
processes for surface water treatment, distribution of water. Sewage and sewerage
treatment, quantity and characteristics of wastewater. Primary, secondary and tertiary
treatment of wastewater, sludge disposal, effluent discharge standards. Domestic
wastewater treatment, quantity of characteristics of domestic wastewater, primary and
secondary treatment Unit operations and unit processes of domestic wastewater, sludge
disposal.
Air Pollution: Types of pollutants, their sources and impacts, air pollution meteorology,
air pollution control, air quality standards and limits.
___________________________________________________________
Municipal Solid Wastes: Characteristics, generation, collection and transportation of solid

wastes, engineered systems for solid waste management (reuse/ recycle, energy recovery,
treatment and disposal).
Noise Pollution: Impacts of noise, permissible limits of noise pollution, measurement of
noise and control of noise pollution.
TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
Highway Planning: Geometric design of highways, testing and specifications of paving
materials, design of flexible and rigid pavements.
Traffic Engineering: Traffic characteristics, theory of traffic flow, intersection design,
traffic signs and signal design, highway capacity.
SURVEYING
Importance of surveying, principles and classifications, mapping concepts, coordinate
system, map projections, measurements of distance and directions, leveling, theodolite
traversing, plane table surveying, errors and adjustments, curves.
___________________________________________________________
GATE
Previous Year Solved Papers
Civil Engineering - CE
2012 - 14
SET - 1
GATE 2014 Solved Paper
CE: Civil Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes
Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.
Declaration by the candidate:
I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.
GATE 2014
SET-1
General Aptitude - GA
Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1
A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.
The word closest in meaning to comprehension is
(A) understanding
Q.2
(B) meaning
(C) concentration
(D) stability
Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.
(A) vice
Q.3
(B) virtues
(C) choices
(D) strength
Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.
Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajans request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.
Q.4
If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0
(C) is parallel to the x-axis
Q.5
(B) has a slope of +1

(D) has a slope of 1
A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?
Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6
Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) ALRVX
Q.7
(B) EPVZB
(C) ITZDF
(D) OYEIK
Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisals floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Anuj
6
2
4
2
Bhola
2
6
2
4
Chandan
5
5
6
6
Dilip
1
1
3
1
Eswar
3
3
1
3
Faisal
4
4
5
5
GATE 2014
SET-1
Q.8
The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?
Q.9
One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0
Q.10
(B) 2.5
(C) 1.5
(D) 1.25
The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)
(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December

(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall
(A) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) (iii) and (iv)
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GATE 2014
SET-1

Q.1
x + sin x
Lim
equals to
x
x
(A)
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D)
Q.2
3 2 1
1
Given the matrices J = 2 4 2 and K = 2 , the product K T JK is ___________

1 2 6
1
Q.3
The probability density function of evaporation E on any day during a year in a watershed is given
by
1
f (E) = 5
0
0 E 5 mm/day
otherwise
The probability that E lies in between 2 and 4 mm/day in a day in the watershed is (in decimal)
_____________
Q.4
The sum of Eigen values of the matrix, [M] is
215 650 795

where [M ] = 655 150 835
485 355 550
(A) 915
Q.5
(B) 1355
(C) 1640
(D) 2180
With reference to the conventional Cartesian (x, y) coordinate system, the vertices of a triangle
have the following coordinates: (x1, y1) = (1, 0); (x2, y2) = (2, 2); and (x3, y3) = (4, 3). The area of
the triangle is equal to
(A)
3
2
(B)
3
4
(C)
4
5
(D)
5
2
GATE 2014
Q.6
SET-1
Match the information given in Group I with those in Group - II.
Group I
Q.7
Group II
Factor to decrease ultimate strength to

design strength
1 Upper bound on ultimate load
Factor to increase working load to

ultimate load for design
2 Lower bound on ultimate load
Statical method of ultimate load

analysis
3 Material partial safety factor
Kinematical mechanism method of

ultimate load analysis
4 Load factor
(A) P - 1; Q - 2; R - 3; S - 4
(B) P - 2; Q - 1; R - 4; S - 3
(C) P - 3; Q - 4; R - 2; S - 1
(D) P - 4; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 1
The possible location of shear centre of the channel section, shown below, is
R S
P Q
(A) P
Q.8
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
The ultimate collapse load (P) in terms of plastic moment Mp by kinematic approach for a propped
cantilever of length L with P acting at its mid-span as shown in the figure, would be
P
X
(A) P =
Q.9
2M p
L
(B) P =
L
2
4M p
L
L
2
(C) P =
6M p
L
(D) P =
8M p
L
While designing, for a steel column of Fe250 grade, a base plate resting on a concrete pedestal of
M20 grade, the bearing strength of concrete (in N/mm2) in limit state method of design as per
IS:456-2000 is ________________
GATE 2014
Q.10
SET-1
A steel section is subjected to a combination of shear and bending actions. The applied shear force
is V and the shear capacity of the section is Vs. For such a section, high shear force (as per IS:8002007) is defined as
(A) V > 0.6Vs
Q.11
(B) V > 0.7Vs
(C) V > 0.8Vs
(D) V > 0.9Vs
The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid jointed frame PQR supported as shown in the figure is
S
y
Cable
45
EI
90
(A) zero
Q.12
EI
(B) one
(C) two
(D) unstable
In a beam of length L, four possible influence line diagrams for shear force at a section located at a
L
distance of
from the left end support (marked as P, Q, R and S) are shown below. The correct
4
influence line diagram is
1.0
0.75
0.6
0.5
0.6
0.5
0.25
L
4
3L
4
L
4
3L
4
P
(A) P
Q.13
L
4
Q
(B) Q
3L
4
R
(C) R
3L
4
L
4
S
(D) S
The degree of disturbance of the sample collected by the sampler is expressed by a term called the
"area ratio". If the outer diameter and inner diameter of the sampler are Do and Di respectively, the
area ratio is given by
(A)
2 2
2
(B)
2 2
2
(C)
2 2
2
(D)
2 2
2
GATE 2014
Q.14
Q.15
SET-1
For a saturated cohesive soil, a triaxial test yields the angle of internal friction () as zero. The
conducted test is
(A) Consolidated Drained (CD) test
(B) Consolidated Undrained (CU) test
(C) Unconfined Compression (UC) test
(D) Unconsolidated Undrained (UU) test
The action of negative skin friction on the pile is to

(A) increase the ultimate load on the pile
(B) reduce the allowable load on the pile
(C) maintain the working load on the pile
(D) reduce the settlement of the pile
Q.16
A long slope is formed in a soil with shear strength parameters: c' = 0 and ' = 34. A firm stratum
lies below the slope and it is assumed that the water table may occasionally rise to the surface, with
seepage taking place parallel to the slope. Use sat = 18 kN/m3 and w = 10 kN/m3. The maximum
slope angle (in degrees) to ensure a factor of safety of 1.5, assuming a potential failure surface
parallel to the slope, would be
(A) 45.3
(B) 44.7
(C) 12.3
(D) 11.3
Q.17
An incompressible homogeneous fluid is flowing steadily in a variable diameter pipe having the
large and small diameters as 15 cm and 5 cm, respectively. If the velocity at a section at the 15 cm
diameter portion of the pipe is 2.5 m/s, the velocity of the fluid (in m/s) at a section falling in 5 cm
portion of the pipe is ___________
Q.18
A conventional flow duration curve is a plot between

(A) Flow and percentage time flow is exceeded
(B) Duration of flooding and ground level elevation
(C) Duration of water supply in a city and proportion of area receiving supply exceeding this
duration
(D) Flow rate and duration of time taken to empty a reservoir at that flow rate
Q.19
In reservoirs with an uncontrolled spillway, the peak of the plotted outflow hydrograph
(A) lies outside the plotted inflow hydrograph
(B) lies on the recession limb of the plotted inflow hydrograph
(C) lies on the peak of the inflow hydrograph
(D) is higher than the peak of the plotted inflow hydrograph
GATE 2014
Q.20
The dimension for kinematic viscosity is

(A)
Q.21
SET-1
L
MT
(B)
L
T2
(C)
L2
T
(D)
ML
T
Some of the nontoxic metals normally found in natural water are

(A) arsenic, lead and mercury
(B) calcium, sodium and silver
(C) cadmium, chromium and copper
(D) iron, manganese and magnesium
Q.22
The amount of CO2 generated (in kg) while completely oxidizing one kg of CH4 to the end products
is ____________
Q.23
The minimum value of 15 minute peak hour factor on a section of a road is

(A) 0.10
Q.24
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.33
The following statements are related to temperature stresses developed in concrete pavement slabs
with free edges (without any restraint):
P.
The temperature stresses will be zero during both day and night times if the pavement slab
is considered weightless
Q.
The temperature stresses will be compressive at the bottom of the slab during night time if
the self-weight of the pavement slab is considered
R.
The temperature stresses will be compressive at the bottom of the slab during day time if
the self-weight of the pavement slab is considered
The TRUE statement(s) is(are)

(A) P only
Q.25
(B) Q only
(C) P and Q only
(D) P and R only
The Reduced Levels (RLs) of the points P and Q are +49.600 m and +51.870 m respectively.
Distance PQ is 20 m. The distance (in m from P) at which the +51.000 m contour cuts the line PQ
is
(A) 15.00
(B) 12.33
(C) 3.52
(D) 2.27
GATE 2014
SET-1

Q.26
If the following equation establishes equilibrium in slightly bent position, the mid-span deflection
of a member shown in the figure is
d2y P
+
y=0
dx 2 EI
y
EI
y
P
M
If a is amplitude constant for y, then

(A) y =
1
2x
1 a cos
P
L
(C) y = a sin
Q.27
(B) y =
nx
L
1
2x
1 a sin
P
L
(D) y = a cos
nx
L
A box of weight 100 kN shown in the figure is to be lifted without swinging. If all forces are
coplanar, the magnitude and direction () of the force (F) with respect to x-axis should be
y
40 kN
90 kN
F
45
30
x
100 kN
(A) F = 56.389 kN and = 28.28
(B) F = 56.389 kN and = 28.28
(C) F = 9.055 kN and = 1.414
(D) F = 9.055 kN and = 1.414
Q.28
A particle moves along a curve whose parametric equations are: x = t 3 + 2t , y = 3e 2t and

z = 2 sin (5t ), where x, y and z show variations of the distance covered by the particle (in cm)
with time t (in s). The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle (in cm/s2) at t = 0 is ________
Q.29
A traffic office imposes on an average 5 number of penalties daily on traffic violators. Assume that
the number of penalties on different days is independent and follows a Poisson distribution. The
probability that there will be less than 4 penalties in a day is ___________
GATE 2014
Q.30
SET-1
Mathematical idealization of a crane has three bars with their vertices arranged as shown in the
figure with a load of 80 kN hanging vertically. The coordinates of the vertices are given in
parentheses. The force in the member QR, FQR will be
P (0, 4)
80 kN
22.84
104.03
R (3, 0)
Q (1, 0)
Q.31
53.13
(A) 30 kN Compressive
(B) 30 kN Tensile
(C) 50 kN Compressive
(D) 50 kN Tensile
For the cantilever beam of span 3 m (shown below), a concentrated load of 20 kN applied at the
free end causes a vertical displacement of 2 mm at a section located at a distance of 1 m from the
fixed end. If a concentrated vertically downward load of 10 kN is applied at the section located at a
distance of 1 m from the fixed end (with no other load on the beam), the maximum vertical
displacement in the same beam (in mm) is __________
20 kN
2 mm
1m
Q.32
2m
For the truss shown below, the member PQ is short by 3 mm. The magnitude of vertical
displacement of joint R (in mm) is _______________
R
3m
P
Q
4m
4m
GATE 2014
Q.33
A rectangular beam of width (b) 230 mm and effective depth (d) 450 mm is reinforced with four
bars of 12 mm diameter. The grade of concrete is M20 and grade of steel is Fe500. Given that for
M20 grade of concrete the ultimate shear strength, uc = 0.36 N/mm2 for steel percentage, p = 0.25,
and uc = 0.48 N/mm2 for p = 0.50. For a factored shear force of 45 kN, the diameter (in mm) of
Fe500 steel two legged stirrups to be used at spacing of 375 mm, should be
(A) 8
Q.34
SET-1
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 16
The tension and shear force (both in kN) in each bolt of the joint, as shown below, respectively are
4
3
5
Pu = 250 kN
(A) 30.33 and 20.00
(B) 30.33 and 25.00
(C) 33.33 and 20.00
(D) 33.33 and 25.00
Q.35
For a beam of cross-section, width = 230 mm and effective depth = 500 mm, the number of rebars
of 12 mm diameter required to satisfy minimum tension reinforcement requirement specified by
IS:456-2000 (assuming grade of steel reinforcement as Fe500) is _____________
Q.36
In a reinforced concrete section, the stress at the extreme fibre in compression is 5.80 MPa. The
depth of neutral axis in the section is 58 mm and the grade of concrete is M25. Assuming linear
elastic behavior of the concrete, the effective curvature of the section (in per mm) is
(A) 2.0106
(B) 3.0106
(C) 4.0106
(D) 5.0106
GATE 2014
Q.37
SET-1
Group I contains representative load-settlement curves for different modes of bearing capacity
failures of sandy soil. Group II enlists the various failure characteristics. Match the load-settlement
curves with the corresponding failure characteristics.
Load
Settlement
Group I
P. Curve J
1.
No apparent heaving of soil around the footing
Q. Curve K
2.
Rankines passive zone develops imperfectly
R. Curve L
Q.38
3.
Well defined slip surface extends to ground surface
(A) P - 1, Q - 3, R - 2
(B) P - 3, Q - 2, R - 1
(C) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 2
(D) P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3
A given cohesionless soil has emax = 0.85 and emin = 0.50. In the field, the soil is compacted to a
mass density of 1800 kg/m3 at a water content of 8%. Take the mass density of water as
1000 kg/m3 and Gs as 2.7. The relative density (in %) of the soil is
(A) 56.43
Q.39
Group II
(B) 60.25
(C) 62.87
(D) 65.71
The following data are given for the laboratory sample.
o' = 175 kPa ; eo = 1.1 ; o' + o' = 300 kPa ; e = 0.9

If thickness of the clay specimen is 25 mm, the value of coefficient of volume compressibility is
___________ 104 m2/kN
GATE 2014
SET-1
Q.40
The flow net constructed for the dam is shown in the figure below. Taking the coefficient of
permeability as 3.8106 m/s, the quantity of flow (in cm3/s) under the dam per meter of dam is
______________
Q.41
A horizontal jet of water with its cross-sectional area of 0.0028 m2 hits a fixed vertical plate with a
velocity of 5 m/s. After impact the jet splits symmetrically in a plane parallel to the plane of the
plate. The force of impact (in N) of the jet on the plate is
(A) 90
(B) 80
(C) 70
(D) 60
Q.42
A venturimeter, having a diameter of 7.5 cm at the throat and 15 cm at the enlarged end, is installed
in a horizontal pipeline of 15 cm diameter. The pipe carries an incompressible fluid at a steady rate
of 30 litres per second. The difference of pressure head measured in terms of the moving fluid in
between the enlarged and the throat of the venturimeter is observed to be 2.45 m. Taking the
acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2, the coefficient of discharge of the venturimeter (correct up
to two places of decimal) is ______________
Q.43
A rectangular channel having a bed slope of 0.0001, width 3.0 m and Mannings coefficient n
0.015, carries a discharge of 1.0 m3/s. Given that the normal depth of flow ranges between 0.76 m
and 0.8 m. The minimum width of a throat (in m) that is possible at a given section, while ensuring
that the prevailing normal depth is not exceeded along the reach upstream of the contraction, is
approximately equal to (assume negligible losses)
(A) 0.64
(B) 0.84
(C) 1.04
(D) 1.24
GATE 2014
Q.44
SET-1
Three rigid buckets, shown as in the figures (1), (2) and (3), are of identical heights and base areas.
Further, assume that each of these buckets have negligible mass and are full of water. The weights
of water in these buckets are denoted as W1, W2, and W3 respectively. Also, let the force of water
on the base of the bucket be denoted as F1, F2, and F3 respectively. The option giving an accurate
description of the system physics is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(A) W2 = W1 = W3 and F2 > F1 > F3

(B) W2 > W1 > W3 and F2 > F1 > F3
(C) W2 = W1 = W3 and F1 = F2 = F3
(D) W2 > W1 > W3 and F1 = F2 = F3
Q.45
An incompressible fluid is flowing at a steady rate in a horizontal pipe. From a section, the pipe
divides into two horizontal parallel pipes of diameters d1 and d2 (where d1 = 4d2) that run for a
distance of L each and then again join back to a pipe of the original size. For both the parallel pipes,
assume the head loss due to friction only and the Darcy-Weisbach friction factor to be the same.
The velocity ratio between the bigger and the smaller branched pipes is _________
Q.46
16 MLD of water is flowing through a 2.5 km long pipe of diameter 45 cm. The chlorine at the rate
of 32 kg/d is applied at the entry of this pipe so that disinfected water is obtained at the exit. There
is a proposal to increase the flow through this pipe to 22 MLD from 16 MLD. Assume the dilution
coefficient, n = 1. The minimum amount of chlorine (in kg per day) to be applied to achieve the
same degree of disinfection for the enhanced flow is
(A) 60.50
Q.47
(B) 44.00
(C) 38.00
(D) 23.27
The potable water is prepared from turbid surface water by adopting the following treatment
sequence.
(A) Turbid surface water Coagulation Flocculation Sedimentation Filtration
Disinfection Storage & Supply
(B) Turbid surface water Disinfection Flocculation Sedimentation Filtration
Coagulation Storage & Supply
(C) Turbid surface water Filtration Sedimentation Disinfection Flocculation
Coagulation Storage & Supply
(D) Turbid surface water Sedimentation Flocculation Coagulation Disinfection
Filtration Storage & Supply
GATE 2014
Q.48
SET-1
For a sample of water with the ionic composition shown in the figure below, the carbonate and noncarbonate hardness concentrations (in mg/l as CaCO3), respectively are:
meq/l 0
5
Mg2+
Ca2+
HCO3
meq/l 0
7
Na+
SO42
3.5
(A) 200 and 50
(B) 175 and 75
(C) 75 and 175
(D) 50 and 200
Q.49
A straight 100 m long raw water gravity main is to carry water from an intake structure to the jack
well of a water treatment plant. The required flow through this water main is 0.21 m3/s. Allowable
velocity through the main is 0.75 m/s. Assume f = 0.01, g = 9.81 m/s2. The minimum gradient (in
cm/100 m length) to be given to this gravity main so that the required amount of water flows
without any difficulty is ___________
Q.50
A traffic survey conducted on a road yields an average daily traffic count of 5000 vehicles. The
axle load distribution on the same road is given in the following table:
Axle load (tonnes)
Frequency of traffic (%)
18
10
14
20
10
35
15
20
The design period of the road is 15 years, the yearly traffic growth rate is 7.5% and the load safety
factor (LSF) is 1.3. If the vehicle damage factor (VDF) is calculated from the above data, the design
traffic (in million standard axle load, MSA) is ____________
Q.51
The perception-reaction time for a vehicle travelling at 90 km/h, given the coefficient of
longitudinal friction of 0.35 and the stopping sight distance of 170 m (assume g = 9.81 m/s2), is
_____________ seconds.
Q.52
The speed-density (uk) relationship on a single lane road with unidirectional flow is
u = 70 0.7 k , where u is in km/hr and k is in veh/km. The capacity of the road (in veh/hr) is
___________
GATE 2014
SET-1
Q.53
An isolated three-phase traffic signal is designed by Webster's method. The critical flow ratios for
three phases are 0.20, 0.30, and 0.25 respectively, and lost time per phase is 4 seconds. The
optimum cycle length (in seconds) is ___________
Q.54
A levelling is carried out to establish the Reduced Levels (RL) of point R with respect to the Bench
Mark (BM) at P. The staff readings taken are given below.
Staff
Station
BS
1.655 m
-0.950 m
IS
FS
RL
100.000 m
-1.500 m
0.750 m
If RL of P is +100.000 m, then RL (in m) of R is

(A) 103.355
Q.55
(B) 103.155
(C) 101.455
(D) 100.355
Group I lists tool/instrument while Group II lists the method of surveying. Match the
tool/instrument with the corresponding method of surveying.
Group I
P.
Q.
R.
S.
Group II
Alidade
Arrow
Bubble tube
Stadia hair
1. Chain surveying
2. Levelling
3. Plain table surveying
4. Theodolite surveying
(A) P 3; Q 2; R 1; S 4
(B) P 2; Q 4; R 3; S 1
(C) P 1; Q 2; R 4; S 3
(D) P 3; Q 1; R 2; S 4
GATE 2014 - Answer Keys

(SET -1)
Q. No.
1
2
3
4
Key / Range
A
B
D
C
Q. No.
5
6
7
8
Key / Range
1300 to 1300
D
B
180 to 180
Q. No.
9
10
Key / Range
D
B
Q. No.
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
Key / Range
C
D
2.7 to 2.8
C
C
B
C
A
12 to 12
0.26 to 0.27
A
1 to 1
1.0 to 2.5
A
D
2 to 2
C
A
D
Q. No.
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
Key / Range
7.6 to 8.0
7.10 to 7.85
C
0.93 to 0.96
B
D
2 to 2
A
A
B
4.7 to 4.9
307 to 310
3.1 to 3.2
1750 to 1750
90 to 95
C
D
Q. No.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
Key / Range
C
23 to 23
0.4 to 0.4
A
A
C
A
C
9 to 9
A
A
A
A
D
B
D
22 to 23
A
B
________________________________________________________________
SET - 2
CE: Civil Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes
Maximum Marks: 100

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.
Declaration by the candidate:
I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.
GATE 2014
SET-2

Q.1
sentence.
A person suffering from Alzheimers disease
(A) experienced
(C) is experiencing
Q.2
short-term memory loss.

(B) has experienced
(D) experiences
sentence.
____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have.
(A) Contentment
Q.3
(B) Ambition
(C) Perseverance
(D) Hunger
Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below?
As a woman, I have no country.
(A) Women have no country.
(B) Women are not citizens of any country.
(C) Womens solidarity knows no national boundaries.
(D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.
Q.4
In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the
Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes
is ____ years.
Q.5
The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would
it take to double at this growth rate?
(A) 3-4 years
(B) 4-5 years
(C) 5-6 years
(D) 6-7 years
Q.6
In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the
group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group?
Statements
1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
2. Shiv is elder to Som.
(A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child.
(B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child.
(C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child.
(D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child.
GATE 2014
Q.7
SET-2
Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of
exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of
the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with
exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data
point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis.
From BIG DATA Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier
The main point of the paragraph is:
(A) The twenty-first century is a digital world
(B) Big data is obsessed with exactness
(C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data
(D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis
Q.8
The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below.
The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of
exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through
export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total
revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1
per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?
Exports
Item 6
16%
Item 5
12%
Item 4
22%
(A) 1:2
Q.9
Item 1
11%
Item 6
19%
Item 2
20%
Item 2
20%
Item 5
20%
Item 3
19%
(B) 2:1
Item 1
12%
Item 4
6%
(C) 1:4
Item 3
23%
(D) 4:1
X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is

1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km?
(A) 1
Q.10
Revenues
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 2
10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this
kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV individuals 89% of the time. A
particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the
individual is actually positive is _______
GATE 2014
SET-2

Q.1
A fair (unbiased) coin was tossed four times in succession and resulted in the following outcomes:
(i) Head, (ii) Head, (iii) Head, (iv) Head. The probability of obtaining a 'Tail' when the coin is
tossed again is
(B)
(A) 0
1
2
Q.2
0
1
The determinant of matrix
2
Q.3
z=
(C)
1
0
3
0
1
5
3
0
is _____________
1
(B) 0.5 + 0.5i

(D) 0.5 + 0.5i
The integrating factor for the differential equation

(A) e k1t
Q.5
(D)
2 3i
can be expressed as
5+i
(A) 0.5 0.5i

(C) 0.5 0.5i
Q.4
2
3
0
1
4
5
(B) e k 2t
dP
+ k 2 P = k1 Lo e k1t is
dt
(C) e k1t
(D) e k2t
If {x} is a continuous, real valued random variable defined over the interval ( , + ) and
occurrence is defined by the density function given as: () =
1 2

2
where
its
'a' and 'b'
are the statistical attributes of the random variable {x}. The value of the integral
(A) 1
1 2
is
(B) 0.5
(C)
(D)
GATE 2014
Q.6
SET-2
Group I contains representative stress-strain curves as shown in the figure, while Group II gives the
list of materials. Match the stress-strain curves with the corresponding materials.
Stress
J
K
Group I
P. Curve J
Q. Curve K
R. Curve L
Group II
1. Cement paste
2. Coarse aggregate
3. Concrete
Strain
(A) P - 1; Q - 3; R - 2
(C) P - 3; Q - 1; R - 2
Q.7
(B) P - 2; Q - 3; R - 1
(D) P - 3; Q - 2; R - 1
The first moment of area about the axis of bending for a beam cross-section is
(A) moment of inertia
(C) shape factor
(B) section modulus

(D) polar moment of inertia
Q.8
Polar moment of inertia (Ip), in cm4, of a rectangular section having width, b = 2 cm and depth,
d = 6 cm is ________________
Q.9
The target mean strength fcm for concrete mix design obtained from the characteristic strength fck
and standard deviation , as defined in IS:456-2000, is
(A) fck + 1.35
(C) fck + 1.55
(B) fck + 1.45

(D) fck + 1.65
Q.10
The flexural tensile strength of M25 grade of concrete, in N/mm2, as per IS:456-2000 is
__________
Q.11
The modulus of elasticity, E = 5000 f ck where f ck is the characteristic compressive strength of

concrete, specified in IS:456-2000 is based on
(A) tangent modulus
(C) secant modulus
(B) initial tangent modulus

(D) chord modulus
GATE 2014
SET-2
Q.12
The static indeterminacy of the two-span continuous beam with an internal hinge, shown below, is
______________
Q.13
As per Indian Standard Soil Classification System (IS: 1498 - 1970), an expression for A-line is
Q.14
(A) Ip = 0.73 (wL 20)
(B) Ip = 0.70 (wL 20)
(C) Ip = 0.73 (wL 10)
(D) Ip = 0.70 (wL 10)
The clay mineral primarily governing the swelling behavior of Black Cotton soil is
(A) Halloysite
Q.15
(B) Illite
(C) Kaolinite
(D) Montmorillonite
The contact pressure for a rigid footing resting on clay at the centre and the edges are respectively
(A) maximum and zero
(C) zero and maximum
(B) maximum and minimum

(D) minimum and maximum
Q.16
A certain soil has the following properties: Gs = 2.71, n = 40% and w = 20%. The degree of
saturation of the soil (rounded off to the nearest percent) is __________
Q.17
A plane flow has velocity components u =
x
y
and w = 0 along x, y and z directions
, v=
T1
T2
respectively, where T1 ( 0) and T2 ( 0) are constants having the dimension of time. The given
flow is incompressible if
(A) T1 = T2
Q.18
(B) T1 =
T2
2
(C) T1 =
T2
2
(D) T1 = T2
Group I lists a few devices while Group II provides information about their uses. Match the devices
with their corresponding use.
Group I
P. Anemometer
Q. Hygrometer
R. Pitot Tube
S. Tensiometer
(A) P - 1; Q -2; R - 3; S - 4
(C) P - 4; Q - 2; R - 1; S - 3
Group II
1. Capillary potential of soil water
2. Fluid velocity at a specific point in the flow stream
3. Water vapour content of air
4. Wind speed
(B) P - 2; Q - 1; R - 4; S- 3
(D) P - 4; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 1
GATE 2014
Q.19
SET-2
An isolated 3-h rainfall event on a small catchment produces a hydrograph peak and point of
inflection on the falling limb of the hydrograph at 7 hours and 8.5 hours respectively, after the start
of the rainfall. Assuming, no losses and no base flow contribution, the time of concentration (in
hours) for this catchment is approximately
(A) 8.5
Q.20
(B) 7.0
(C) 6.5
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.5
(D) 1
The dominating microorganisms in an activated sludge process reactor are

(A) aerobic heterotrophs
(C) autotrophs
Q.22
(D) 5.5
The Muskingum model of routing a flood through a stream reach is expressed as

O2 = K 0 I 2 + K1 I1 + K 2O1 , where K 0 , K1 and K 2 are the routing coefficients for the concerned
reach, I1 and I 2 are the inflows to the reach, and O1 and O2 are the outflows from the reach
corresponding to time steps 1 and 2 respectively. The sum of K 0 , K1 and K 2 of the model is
(A) 1
Q.21
(B) anaerobic heterotrophs

(D) phototrophs
The two air pollution control devices that are usually used to remove very fine particles from the
flue gas are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Cyclone and Venturi Scrubber

Cyclone and Packed Scrubber
Electrostatic Precipitator and Fabric Filter
Settling Chamber and Tray Scrubber
Q.23
The average spacing between vehicles in a traffic stream is 50 m, then the density (in veh/km) of
the stream is ________________
Q.24
A road is being designed for a speed of 110 km/hr on a horizontal curve with a super elevation of
8%. If the coefficient of side friction is 0.10, the minimum radius of the curve (in m) required for
safe vehicular movement is
(A) 115.0
Q.25
(B) 152.3
(C) 264.3
(D) 528.5
The survey carried out to delineate natural features, such as hills, rivers, forests and man-made
features, such as towns, villages, buildings, roads, transmission lines and canals is classified as
(A) engineering survey
(C) land survey
(B) geological survey

(D) topographic survey
GATE 2014
SET-2

Q.26
The expression lim 0

(A) log
(B) 0
is equal to
(C) log
(D)
Q.27
An observer counts 240 veh/h at a specific highway location. Assume that the vehicle arrival at the
location is Poisson distributed, the probability of having one vehicle arriving over a 30-second time
interval is ____________
Q.28
0
4
4
6
The rank of the matrix 2 14 8 18 is _______________

14 14 0 10
Q.29
Water is flowing at a steady rate through a homogeneous and saturated horizontal soil strip of 10 m
length. The strip is being subjected to a constant water head (H) of 5 m at the beginning and 1 m at
d 2H
= 0 (where x is the distance
the end. If the governing equation of flow in the soil strip is
dx 2
along the soil strip), the value of H (in m) at the middle of the strip is ___________
Q.30
The values of axial stress () in kN/m2, bending moment (M) in kNm, and shear force (V) in kN
acting at point P for the arrangement shown in the figure are respectively
Cable
Frictionless
Pulley
Beam
(0.2 m 0.2 m)
3m
50 kN
(A) 1000, 75 and 25

(C) 1500, 225 and 75
(B) 1250, 150 and 50

(D) 1750, 300 and 100
GATE 2014
Q.31
SET-2
The beam of an overall depth 250 mm (shown below) is used in a building subjected to two
different thermal environments. The temperatures at the top and bottom surfaces of the beam are
36C and 72C respectively. Considering coefficient of thermal expansion () as 1.50105 per C,
the vertical deflection of the beam (in mm) at its mid-span due to temperature gradient is ________
36 C
250 mm
72 C
1.5 m
1.5 m
Q.32
The axial load (in kN) in the member PQ for the arrangement/assembly shown in the figure given
below is _______________
P
2m
160 kN
R
Beam
S
2m
Q.33
2m
Considering the symmetry of a rigid frame as shown below, the magnitude of the bending moment
(in kNm) at P (preferably using the moment distribution method) is
24 kN/m
4Ic
6m
Ic
4Ic
Ic
Ic
8m
8m
(A) 170
(B) 172
(C) 176
(D) 178
GATE 2014
Q.34
SET-2
A prismatic beam (as shown below) has plastic moment capacity of Mp, then the collapse load P of
the beam is
P
2
P
L
2
(A)
Q.35
2M p
L
(B)
L
2
4M p
L
3
(C)
6M p
(D)
8M p
L
The tension (in kN) in a 10 m long cable, shown in the figure, neglecting its self-weight is
3m
3m
S
Cable
Cable
R
120 kN
(A) 120
Q.36
(B) 75
(C) 60
(D) 45
For the state of stresses (in MPa) shown in the figure below, the maximum shear stress (in MPa) is
_______________
4
4
2
4
Q.37
An infinitely long slope is made up of a c- soil having the properties: cohesion (c) = 20 kPa, and
dry unit weight (d) = 16 kN/m3. The angle of inclination and critical height of the slope are 40 and
5 m, respectively. To maintain the limiting equilibrium, the angle of internal friction of the soil (in
degrees) is _________________
GATE 2014
Q.38
SET-2
Group I enlists in-situ field tests carried out for soil exploration, while Group II provides a list of
parameters for sub-soil strength characterization. Match the type of tests with the characterization
parameters.
Group I
Group II
P. Pressuremeter Test (PMT)

Q. Static Cone Penetration Test (SCPT)
R. Standard Penetration Test (SPT)
S. Vane Shear Test (VST)
(A) P - 1; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 4
(C) P - 2; Q - 3; R - 4; S - 1
1.
2.
3.
4.
Menards modulus (Em)

Number of blows (N)
Skin resistance (fc)
Undrained cohesion (cu)
(B) P - 1; Q - 2; R - 3; S - 4
(D) P - 4; Q - 1; R - 2; S - 3
Q.39
A single vertical friction pile of diameter 500 mm and length 20 m is subjected to a vertical
compressive load. The pile is embedded in a homogeneous sandy stratum where: angle of internal
friction () = 30, dry unit weight (d) = 20 kN/m3 and angle of wall friction () = 2/3.
Considering the coefficient of lateral earth pressure (K) = 2.7 and the bearing capacity factor
(Nq) = 25, the ultimate bearing capacity of the pile (in kN) is _______________
Q.40
A circular raft foundation of 20 m diameter and 1.6 m thick is provided for a tank that applies a
bearing pressure of 110 kPa on sandy soil with Young's modulus, Es' = 30 MPa and Poisson's ratio,
s = 0.3. The raft is made of concrete (Ec = 30 GPa and c = 0.15). Considering the raft as rigid, the
elastic settlement (in mm) is
(A) 50.96
(B) 53.36
(C) 63.72
(D) 66.71
Q.41
A horizontal nozzle of 30 mm diameter discharges a steady jet of water into the atmosphere at a
rate of 15 litres per second. The diameter of inlet to the nozzle is 100 mm. The jet impinges normal
to a flat stationary plate held close to the nozzle end. Neglecting air friction and considering the
density of water as 1000 kg/m3, the force exerted by the jet (in N) on the plate is _________
Q.42
A venturimeter having a throat diameter of 0.1 m is used to estimate the flow rate of a horizontal
pipe having a diameter of 0.2 m. For an observed pressure difference of 2 m of water head and
coefficient of discharge equal to unity, assuming that the energy losses are negligible, the flow rate
(in m3/s) through the pipe is approximately equal to
(A) 0.500
Q.43
(B) 0.150
(C) 0.050
(D) 0.015
A rectangular channel of 2.5 m width is carrying a discharge of 4 m3/s. Considering that

acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2, the velocity of flow (in m/s) corresponding to the critical
depth (at which the specific energy is minimum) is _______
GATE 2014
SET-2
Q.44
Irrigation water is to be provided to a crop in a field to bring the moisture content of the soil from
the existing 18% to the field capacity of the soil at 28%. The effective root zone of the crop is 70
cm. If the densities of the soil and water are 1.3 g/cm3 and 1.0 g/cm3 respectively, the depth of
irrigation water (in mm) required for irrigating the crop is ________
Q.45
With reference to a standard Cartesian (x, y) plane, the parabolic velocity distribution profile of
fully developed laminar flow in x-direction between two parallel, stationary and identical plates that
are separated by distance, h, is given by the expression
2
2
1 4
In this equation, the y = 0 axis lies equidistant between the plates at a distance h/2 from the two
plates, p is the pressure variable and is the dynamic viscosity term. The maximum and average
velocities are, respectively
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
=
=
and
and
=
3
and
and
=
3
=
8
=
8
Q.46
A suspension of sand like particles in water with particles of diameter 0.10 mm and below is
flowing into a settling tank at 0.10 m3/s. Assume g = 9.81 m/s2, specific gravity of particles = 2.65,
and kinematic viscosity of water =1.0105102 cm2/s. The minimum surface area (in m2) required
for this settling tank to remove particles of size 0.06 mm and above with 100% efficiency is
_______________
Q.47
A surface water treatment plant operates round the clock with a flow rate of 35 m3/min. The water
temperature is 15 oC and jar testing indicated an alum dosage of 25 mg/l with flocculation at a Gt
value of 4104 producing optimal results. The alum quantity required for 30 days (in kg) of
operation of the plant is ____________
Q.48
An effluent at a flow rate of 2670 m3/d from a sewage treatment plant is to be disinfected. The
laboratory data of disinfection studies with a chlorine dosage of 15 mg/l yield the model
N t = N o e 0.145t where Nt = number of micro-organisms surviving at time t (in min.) and
No = number of micro-organisms present initially (at t = 0). The volume of disinfection unit (in m3)
required to achieve a 98% kill of micro-organisms is ______________
GATE 2014
Q.49
SET-2
A waste water stream (flow = 2 m3/s, ultimate BOD = 90 mg/l) is joining a small river (flow =
12 m3/s, ultimate BOD = 5 mg/l). Both water streams get mixed up instantaneously. Crosssectional area of the river is 50 m2. Assuming the de-oxygenation rate constant, k' = 0.25/day, the
BOD (in mg/l) of the river water, 10 km downstream of the mixing point is
(A) 1.68
(B) 12.63
(C) 15.46
(D) 1.37
Q.50
In a Marshall sample, the bulk specific gravity of mix and aggregates are 2.324 and 2.546
respectively. The sample includes 5% of bitumen (by total weight of mix) of specific gravity 1.10.
The theoretical maximum specific gravity of mix is 2.441. The void filled with bitumen (VFB) in
the Marshall sample (in %) is ___________
Q.51
A student riding a bicycle on a 5 km one-way street takes 40 minutes to reach home. The student
stopped for 15 minutes during this ride. 60 vehicles overtook the student (assume the number of
vehicles overtaken by the student is zero) during the ride and 45 vehicles while the student stopped.
The speed of vehicle stream on that road (in km/hr) is
(A) 7.5
Q.52
(B) 12
(C) 40
(D) 60
2
k] ;
3
where is in km/h and is in veh/km. The capacity (in veh/h) of this section of the highway would
be
On a section of a highway the speed-density relationship is linear and is given by v = [80
(A) 1200
(B) 2400
(C) 4800
(D) 9600
Q.53
A pre-timed four phase signal has critical lane flow rate for the first three phases as 200, 187 and
210 veh/hr with saturation flow rate of 1800 veh/hr/lane for all phases. The lost time is given as 4
seconds for each phase. If the cycle length is 60 seconds, the effective green time (in seconds) of
the fourth phase is ______________
Q.54
A tacheometer was placed at point P to estimate the horizontal distances PQ and PR. The
corresponding stadia intercepts with the telescope kept horizontal, are 0.320 m and 0.210 m,
respectively. The QPR is measured to be 61o 30' 30". If the stadia multiplication constant = 100
and stadia addition constant = 0.10 m, the horizontal distance (in m) between the points Q and R is
_________________
Q
P
R
GATE 2014
Q.55
SET-2
The chainage of the intersection point of two straights is 1585.60 m and the angle of intersection is
140o. If the radius of a circular curve is 600.00 m, the tangent distance (in m) and length of the
curve (in m), respectively are
(A) 418.88 and 1466.08
(C) 218.38 and 418.88
(B) 218.38 and 1648.49

(D) 418.88 and 218.38

(SET -2)
Q. No.
1
2
3
4
Key / Range
Q. No.
5
6
7
8
Key / Range
Q. No.
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
Key / Range
B
88 to 88
B
D
B
B
B
40.00 to
40.00
D
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
3.5 to 3.5
B
0 to 0
A
D
D
81.0 to 81.5
D
D
D
D
A
C
25 to 25
Q. No.
9
10
Key / Range
Key / Range
D
A
C
20.0 to 20.0
D
D
A
0.25 to 0.28
Q. No.
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
Key / Range
6150 to 6190
B
318 to 319
C
2.45 to 2.55
91 to 91
A
31.0 to 32.0
28
2.0 to 2.0
47
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
3.0 to 3.0
B
2.38 to 2.45
50.0 to 50.0
C
C
B
5.0 to 5.0
21.0 to 23.0
A
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
37800 to
37800
49.0 to 51.0
C
62 to 66
D
B
14.0 to 18.0
28.0 to 29.0
C
A
A
C
D
C
0.48 to 0.49
Q. No.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
________________________________________________________________

CE:CIVIL ENGINEERING
Maximum Marks:100
Duration: Three Hours
Paper specific instructions:
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or
numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with
only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices
will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
2. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
3. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2marks each.
4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.
5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.
GATE 2013
Q. 1 Q. 25carries one mark each.

Q.1
There is no value of x that can simultaneously satisfy both the given equations.Therefore, find the
least squares error solution to the two equations, i.e., find the value of that minimizes the sum of
squares of the errors in the two equations. __________
Q.2
What is the minimum number of multiplications involved in computing the matrix product PQR?
Matrix has 4 rows and 2 columns, matrix has 2 rows and 4 columns, and matrix has 4 rows and
1 column. __________
Q.3
A 1-h rainfall of 10 cm magnitude at a station has a return period of 50 years. The probability that
a 1-h rainfall of magnitude 10 cm or more will occur in each oftwo successive years is:
(A) 0.04
Q.4
0.2
(C)0.02
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.5
(D) 2.0
As per IS 800:2007, the cross-section in which the extreme fiber can reach the yield stress, but
cannot develop the plastic moment of resistance due to failure by local buckling is classified as
(A) plastic section
(C) semi-compact section
Q.6
(D) 0.0004
Maximum possible value of Compacting Factor for fresh (green) concrete is:
(A) 0.5
Q.5
(B)
(B) compact section

(D) slender section
The creep strains are

(A) caused due to dead loads only
(B) caused due to live loads only
(C) caused due to cyclic loads only
(D) independent of loads
Q.7
As per IS 456:2000 for M20 grade concrete and plain barsin tension the design bond stress
.
.Further, IS 456:2000 permits this design bond stress value to be increased by
%
. Find the
for HSD bars. The stress in theHSDreinforcing steel barsin tension,
required development length, , for HSD barsin terms of the bar diameter, . __________
Q.8
The plane section remains plane assumption in bending theory implies:

(A) strain profile is linear
(B) stress profile is linear
(C) both strain and stress profiles are linear
(D)shear deformations are neglected
GATE 2013
Q.9
) and Q (length
and yield
Two steel columns P (length and yield strength

) have the same cross-sections and end-conditions. The ratio of buckling
strength
load of column P to that of column Q is:
(A) 0.5
Q.10
(B) 1.0
(C) 2.0
(D) 4.0
The pin-jointed 2-D truss is loaded with a horizontal force of

at joint S and another
vertical force at joint U, as shown.Find the force in member RS (in
) and report your answer
taking tension as positive and compression as negative. __________
4m
4m
4m
15
4m
4m
15
W
Q.11
Q.12
A symmetric I-section (with width of each flange

depth of web = 100 mm, and thickness of web
. Find the magnitude of the shear stress(in
flange. __________
In its natural condition, a soil sample has a mass of .

and a volume of .
. After
being completely dried in an oven, the mass of the sample is .
.Specific gravity is . .
Unit weight of water is / . The degree of saturation of the soil is:
(A) 0.65
Q.13
, thickness of each flange

,
) of steel is subjected to a shear force of
in the web at its junction with the top
(B) 0.70
(C) 0.54
(D) 0.61
The ratio Nf/Nd is known as shape factor, where Nf is the number of flow lines and Nd is the
number of equipotential drops. Flow net is always drawn with a constant b/a ratio, where b and a
are distances between two consecutive flow lines and equipotential lines, respectively. Assuming
that b/a ratio remains the same, the shape factor of aflow net will change if the
(A) upstream and downstream heads are interchanged
(B) soil in the flow space is changed
(C) dimensions of the flow space are changed
(D) head difference causing the flow is changed
GATE 2013
Q.14
Following statementsare made on compacted soils, wherein DS stands forthe soils compacted on
dry side of optimum moisture content and WS stands for thesoils compacted on wet side of
optimum moisture content. Identify the incorrect statement.
(A) Soil structure is flocculated onDS and dispersed on WS.
(B) Construction pore water pressure is low on DS and high on WS.
(C)On drying, shrinkage is high on DS and low on WS.
(D)On access to water, swelling is high on DS and low on WS.
Q.15
Four columns of a building are to be located within a plot size of 10 m x 10 m. The expected load
on each column is 4000 kN. Allowable bearing capacity of the soil deposit is 100 kN/m2. The type
of foundation best suited is
(A) isolated footing
(C) pile foundation
Q.16
(B) raft foundation

(D)combined footing
For subcritical flow in an open channel, the control section for gradually varied flow profiles is
(A) at the downstream end
(C) at both upstream and downstream ends
Q.17
(B) at the upstream end

(D) at any intermediate section
Group-I contains dimensionless parameters and Group- II contains the ratios.

Group-I
P. Mach Number
Q. Reynolds Number
R. Weber Number
S. Froude Number
Group -II
1. Ratio of inertial force and gravitational force
2. Ratio of fluid velocity and velocity of sound
3. Ratio of inertial force and viscous force
4. Ratio of inertial force and surface tension force
The correct match of dimensionless parameters in Group- I with ratios in Group-II is:
(A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
Q.18
(B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
For a two dimensional flow field, the stream function is given as
3 2
y x 2 . The
2
magnitude of discharge occurring between the stream lines passing through points (0,3) and (3,4)
is:
(A)
Q.19
(B)
(C)
1.5
(D)
An isohyet is a line joining points of

(A) equal temperature
(C) equal rainfall depth
(B) equal humidity

(D) equal evaporation
GATE 2013
Q.20
Some of the water quality parameters are measured by titrating a water sample with a titrant.
Group-I gives a list of parameters and Group-IIgives the list of titrants.
Group-I
Group-II
P.Alkalinity
Q. Hardness
R. Chloride
S. Dissolved oxygen
1. N/35.5 AgNO3
2. N/40 Na2S2O3
3. N/50 H2SO4
4. N/50 EDTA
The correct match of water quality parameters in Group-I with titrants in Group-II is:
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(C)P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
Q.21
(B)P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
A water treatment plant is designed to treat 1 m3/s of raw water. It has 14 sand filters. Surface area
of each filter is 50 m2. What is the loading rate (in
backwashing? __________
Q.22
) with two filters out of service for routine
Selectthe strength parameter of concrete usedindesign of plain jointed cement concrete pavements
from the following choices:
(A) Tensile strength
(B) Compressive strength
(C) Flexural strength
(D) Shear strength
Q.23
It was observed that 150 vehicles crossed a particular location of a highway ina duration of 30
minutes. Assuming that vehicle arrival follows a negative exponential distribution, find out the
number of time headways greater than 5 seconds in the above observation? __________
Q.24
For two major roads with divided carriageway crossing at right angle,a full clover leaf interchange
with four indirect ramps is provided. Following statements are made on turning movements of
vehiclesto all directions from both roads. Identify the correct statement:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.25
Merging from left is possible,butdiverging to left is notpossible.

Both merging from left and diverging to left arepossible.
Merging from left is not possible,butdiverging to left is possible.
Neithermergingfrom left nordivergingto leftispossible.
The latitude and departure of a line AB are +78 m and -45.1 m, respectively. The whole circle
bearing of the line AB is:
(A) 30
(B) 150
(C) 210
(D) 330
GATE 2013
Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26
The state of 2D-stress at a point is given by the following matrix of stresses:
What is the magnitude of maximum shear stressin MPa?

(A) 50
Q.27
(B) 75
(C) 100
(D) 110
Find the magnitude of the error (correct to two decimal places) in the estimation of following
integral using Simpsons
x
4
1
Rule. Take the step length as 1. __________
3
10 dx
Q.28
The solution for
cos
3 sin 3 6 d is:
(A) 0
Q.29
(B)
(C) 1
(D)
8
3
Find the value of such that the function f (x ) is a valid probability density function. __________
f ( x) ( x 1)(2 x)
0
Q.30
1
15
for 1 x 2
otherwise
Laplace equation for water flow in soils is given below.
2H 2H 2H
0
z 2
y 2
x 2
Head H does not vary in y and z directions.
Boundary conditions are: at x = 0, H = 5;and
dH
1 .
dx
What is the value of H at x = 1.2? __________
GATE 2013
Q.31
All members in the rigid-jointed frame shown are prismatic and have the same flexural stiffness
Find the magnitude of the bending moment at Q (in
) due to the given loading. __________
3m
4m
S
2m
T
R
100 kNm
2m
Q
Q.32
A uniform beam
and free at the end
in the form of a quarter-circle of radius is fixed at end

is applied as shown. The vertical downward displacement,
, where a load
, at the loaded point

places). __________
is given by:
. Find the value of
(correct to 4-decimal
W
R
P
GATE 2013
E
Q.33
u
beam
m weighing
is suupported at E and F by cable ABCD. Determine the tension
A uniform
(in
in segmeent AB of thiis cable (corrrect to 1-deccimal place). Assume thee cables ABC
CD, BE and
CF to be weightless. ___________
Q.34
haas internal hiinges in spanns

and
as shownn. The beam
mmay be sub
bjected to a
Beaam
moving distribuuted verticall load of maaximum intensity

of any leength anywh
here on the
beaam. The maaximum absoolute value of
o the shear force
f
(in
) that can occcur due to this
t loading
justt to the right of support Q shall be:
P
5m
(A
A) 30
Q.35
20 m
5m
(B
B) 40
(C) 45
5m
5m
((D) 55
deep is pre-stresseed by meanss of 16 high

A rectangular
r
c
concrete
beam
m

w
wide
and
tensile wires, each
e
of 7 mm
m diameter, located at
m the bottom
m face of th
he beamat a
from

, what is the maximu
um sagging
givven section. If the effective pre-streess in the wires is
bennding momennt (in
) (correct to 1-decimal
1
plaace) due to live
l
loadthat this sectiono
of the beam
cann withstand without
w
caussing tensile stress
s
at the bottom face of the beam
m? Neglect th
he effect of
deaad load of beam. ___________
GATE 2013
Q.36
The soil profile below a lake with water level at elevation

m and lake bottom at elevation

m is shown in the figure, where k is the permeability coefficient. A piezometer (stand pipe)
installed in the sand layer shows a reading of +10 m elevation. Assume that thepiezometric headis
uniform in the sand layer. The quantity of water (in m3/s) flowing into the lake from the sand layer
through the silt layer per unit area of the lake bed is:
(A) 1.5 x 10-6

(C) 1.0 x 10-6
Q.37
(B) 2.0 x 10-6

(D) 0.5 x 10-6
The soil profile above the rock surface for a 25oinfinite slope is shown in the figure, where su is the
undrained shear strength and t is total unit weight. The slip will occur at a depth of
(A) 8.83 m
(B) 9.79 m
(C) 7.83 m
(D) 6.53 m
GATE 2013
Q.38
Two different soil types (Soil 1 and Soil 2) are used as backfill behind a retaining wall as shown in
the figure, where t is total unit weight, and c' and ' are effective cohesion and effective angle of
shearing resistance. The resultant active earth forceper unit length (in kN/m) acting on the wall is:
Retaining wall
2m
2m
(A) 31.7
Q.39
20.1
(D) 57.0
(B)0.35
(C) 2.52
(D) 1.25
(B) 15.4
(C)
10.5
(D) 17.2
The transplantation of rice requires 10 days and total depth of water required during transplantation
is 48 cm. During transplantation, there is an effective rainfall (useful for irrigation) of 8 cm. The
duty of irrigation water (in hectares/cumec) is:
(A) 612
Q.42
(C) 51.8
The normal depth in a wide rectangular channel is increased by 10%. The percentage increase in
the discharge in the channel is:
(A)
Q.41
Soil 2:
t = 20 kN/m3; c' = 0; ' = 40o
A 2 km long pipe of 0.2 m diameter connects two reservoirs. The difference between water levels
in the reservoirs is 8 m. The Darcy-Weisbachfriction factor of the pipe is 0.04. Accounting for
frictional, entry and exit losses, the velocity in the pipe (in m/s) is:
(A) 0.63
Q.40
(B) 35.2
Soil 1:
t = 15 kN/m3; c' = 0; ' = 30o
(B) 216
(C)300
(D) 108
A settling tank in a water treatment plant is designed for a surface overflow rate of30
Assumespecific gravity of sedimentparticles = 2.65, density of water () = 1000 kg/m3, dynamic

viscosity of water ()=0.001 N.s/m2,and Stokes lawisvalid.The approximate minimum size of
particles that would be completely removed is:
(A) 0.01mm
Q.43
(B) 0.02 mm(C) 0.03 mm(D) 0.04 mm
A student began experiment for determination of 5-day, 20C BOD on Monday. Since the 5thday
fell on Saturday, the final DO readings were taken on next Monday. On calculation, BOD (i.e. 7
day, 20C) was found to be 150 mg/L. What would be the5-day, 20C BOD (in mg/L)? Assume
value of BOD rate constant (k) at standard temperature of 20C as 0.23/day (base e). __________
GATE 2013
Q.44
Elevation and temperature data for a place are tabulated below:

Elevation, m
4
444
Temperature, C
21.25
15.70
Based on the above data, lapse rate can be referred as:

(A) Super-adiabatic
Q.45
(C) Sub-adiabatic
(D) Inversion
The percent voids in mineral aggregate (VMA) and percent air voids (Vv) in a compacted
cylindrical bituminous mix specimen are 15 and 4.5respectively. The percent voids filled with
bitumen (VFB) for this specimen is:
(A) 24
Q.46
(B) Neutral
(B) 30
(C) 54
(D) 70
Following bearings are observed while traversing with a compass.

Line
AB
BC
CD
DE
EA
Fore Bearing
12645
4915
34030
25830
21230
Back Bearing
30800
22730
16145
7830
3145
After applying the correction due to local attraction, the corrected fore bearing of line BC will be:
(A) 4815
Q.47
(B)5015
(C) 4945
(D) 4845
A theodolite is set up at station A and a 3 m long staff is held vertically at station B. The depression
angle reading at 2.5 m marking on the staffis 610. The horizontal distance between A and B is
2200 m. Height of instrument at station A is 1.1 m and R.L. of A is 880.88 m.Apply the curvature
and refraction correction, and determine the R.L. of B (in m). __________
Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
A propped cantilever made of a prismatic steel beam is subjected to a concentrated load P at mid span as
P
shown.
R
1.5m
1.5m
Q.48
If load

__________
Q.49
If the magnitude of load is increased till collapse and the plastic moment carrying capacity of steel
beam section is
, determine reaction (in
)(correct to 1-decimal place) using plastic
analysis. __________
,find the reaction (in
) (correct to 1-decimal place)using elastic analysis.
GATE 2013

For a portion of national highway where a descending gradient of 1 in 25 meets with an ascending gradient
of 1 in 20, a valley curve needs to be designed for a vehicle travelling at 90 kmphbased on the following
conditions.
(i)
(ii)
headlight sight distance equalto the stopping sight distance (SSD) of a level terrain
consideringlength of valley curve> SSD.
comfort condition with allowablerate of change of centrifugal acceleration = 0.5 m/sec3.
Assume total reaction time = 2.5 seconds; coefficient of longitudinal friction of the pavement= 0.35; height
of head light of the vehicle =0.75 m; andbeam angle = 1.
Q.50
What is the length of valley curve (in m) based on the head light sight distance condition?
__________
Q.51
What is the length of valley curve (in m)based on the comfort condition? __________
Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
A multistory building with a basement is to be constructed. The top 4 m consists of loose silt, below which
dense sand layer is present up to a great depth. Ground water table is at the surface. The foundation consists
of the basement slab of 6 m width which will rest on the top of dense sand as shown in the figure. For
dense sand, saturated unit weight = 20kN/m3, and bearing capacity factors Nq = 40 and N = 45. For loose
silt, saturated unit weight = 18kN/m3, Nq = 15 and N = 20.Effective cohesion c' is zero for both soils.Unit
weight of water is 10 kN/m3. Neglect shape factor and depth factor.
Average elastic modulus E and Poissons ratio of dense sand is 60 x 103kN/m2 and 0.3 respectively.
Ground surface
Loose silt
4m
Loose silt
Basement
Foundation slab
6m
Dense sand
Q.52
Using factor of safety = 3, the net safe bearing capacity (in kN/m2) of the foundation is:
(A) 610
Q.53
(B) 320
(C) 983
(D) 693
The foundation slab is subjected to vertical downward stresses equal to net safe bearing capacity
derived in the above question. Using influence factor If = 2.0, and neglecting embedment depth and
rigidity corrections, the immediate settlement of the dense sand layer will be:
(A) 58 mm
(B) 111 mm
(C) 126 mm
(D) 179 mm
GATE 2013
At a station, Storm I of 5 hour duration with intensity 2 cm/h resulted in a runoff of 4 cm and Storm II of 8
hour duration resulted in a runoff of 8.4 cm. Assume that the -index is the same for both the storms.
Q.54
The -index (in cm/h) is:

(A)1.2
Q.55
(B)1.0
(C)1.6
(D) 1.4
(C)1.50
(D)2.25
The intensity of storm II (in cm/h) is:

(A)
2.00
(B)1.75

Q.56
A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is:
(A) 91
Q.57
(C) 89
(D) 96
The professor ordered to the students to go out of the class.

I
II
III
IV
Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is grammatically incorrect?
(A) I
Q.58
(B) 93
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below:
Primeval
(A) Modern
(C) Primitive
Q.59
(B) Historic
(D) Antique
Friendship, no matter how _________it is, has its limitations.

(A) cordial
(B) intimate
(C) secret
(D) pleasant
Q.60
Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
Medicine: Health
(A) Science: Experiment
(C) Education: Knowledge
(B) Wealth: Peace

(D) Money: Happiness
GATE 2013
Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61
X and Y are two positive real numbers such that

,
following values of , the function
and
. For which of the
will give maximum value?
(A) (4/3, 10/3)

(B) (8/3, 20/3)
(C) (8/3, 10/3)
(D) (4/3, 20/3)
Q.62
If |
(A) 2, 1/3
Q.63
then the values of

(B) 1/2, 3
| |
| is:
(C) 3/2, 9
(D) 2/3, 9
Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual expenditure of a firm for two years - 2010
and 2011.
Category
2010
2011
Raw material
5200
6240
Power & fuel
7000
9450
Salary & wages
9000
12600
Plant & machinery
20000
25000
Advertising
15000
19500
Research & Development
22000
26400
In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage?
(A) Raw material and Salary & wages
(B) Salary & wages and Advertising
(C) Power & fuel and Advertising
(D) Raw material and Research & Development
Q.64
A firm is selling its product at Rs. 60 per unit. The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is
earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage the price
should be increased to maintained the same profit level.
(A) 5
Q.65
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 30
Abhishek is elder to Savar.

Savar is younger to Anshul.
Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above
statements?
(A) Abhishek is elder to Anshul
(B) Anshul is elder to Abhishek
(C) Abhishek and Anshul are of the same age
(D) No conclusion follows


Q. No
1
2
3
Key/Range
0.5
16
D
Q. No
23
24
25
Key/Range
Marks to All
B
D
Q. No
45
46
47
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
B
C
A
46 to 47
A
D
0
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
70 to 72
C
C
C
C
A
C
B
C
B
143 to 145
C
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
A
0.52 to 0.55
B
6
3.8
25
0.785 to
0.786
1310 to 1313
C
85.5 to 86.5
D
A
A
A
D
B
B
127 to 132
A
Key/Range
D
D
641.9 to
642.3
25
60
308 to 311
106 to 107
Marks to All
Marks to All
A
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
D
D
B
C
B
C
A
B
D
A
D
________________________________________________________________

CE : CIVIL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours
Maximum Marks: 100
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and
put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks
for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
question paper for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ball point pen.
Name
Registration Number
CE
GATE 2012

1.5
Q.1
The estimate of
dx
obtained using Simpsons rule with three-point function evaluation exceeds
x
0.5
the exact value by

(A) 0.235
Q.2
(D) 0.012
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
x 2 x3 x 4
... corresponds to
2! 3! 4!
(B) ex
(C) cos x
(D) 1+sin2x
The Poissons ratio is defined as

axial stress
lateral stress
(A)
Q.5
(B) 50%
The infinite series 1 x

(A) sec x
Q.4
(C) 0.024
The annual precipitation data of a city is normally distributed with mean and standard deviation as
1000 mm and 200 mm, respectively. The probability that the annual precipitation will be more than
1200 mm is
(A) < 50%
Q.3
(B) 0.068
(B)
lateral strain
axial strain
(C)
lateral stress
axial stress
axial strain
lateral strain
(D)
The following statements are related to bending of beams:

I
II
III
IV
The slope of the bending moment diagram is equal to the shear force.
The slope of the shear force diagram is equal to the load intensity.
The slope of the curvature is equal to the flexural rotation.
The second derivative of the deflection is equal to the curvature.
The only FALSE statement is

(A) I
Q.6
(B) II
(B)
p
2
(C) p
fy
Es
(B)
fy
Es
0.002
(C)
fy
1.15 Es
(D)
fy
1.15Es
0.002
Which one of the following is categorised as a long-term loss of prestress in a prestressed concrete
member?
(A) Loss due to elastic shortening
(C) Loss due to relaxation of strands
Q.9
(D) 2p
As per IS 456:2000, in the Limit State Design of a flexural member, the strain in reinforcing bars
under tension at ultimate state should not be less than
(A)
Q.8
(D) IV
If a small concrete cube is submerged deep in still water in such a way that the pressure exerted on
all faces of the cube is p, then the maximum shear stress developed inside the cube is
(A) 0
Q.7
(C) III
(B) Loss due to friction

(D) Loss due to anchorage slip
In a steel plate with bolted connections, the rupture of the net section is a mode of failure under
(A) tension
(B) compression
(C) flexure
(D) shear
Q.10
The ratio of the theoretical critical buckling load for a column with fixed ends to that of another
column with the same dimensions and material, but with pinned ends, is equal to
(A) 0.5
Q.11
Q.12
(B) 1.0
(C) 2.0
(D) 4.0
The effective stress friction angle of a saturated, cohesionless soil is 38. The ratio of shear stress to
normal effective stress on the failure plane is
(A) 0.781
(B) 0.616
(C) 0.488
(D) 0.438
Two series of compaction tests were performed in the laboratory on an inorganic clayey soil
employing two different levels of compaction energy per unit volume of soil. With regard to the
above tests, the following two statements are made.
I The optimum moisture content is expected to be more for the tests with higher energy.
II The maximum dry density is expected to be more for the tests with higher energy.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is
(A) Only I is TRUE
(C) Both I and II are TRUE
Q.13
Q.14
(B) Only II is TRUE

(D) Neither I nor II is TRUE
As per the Indian Standard soil classification system, a sample of silty clay with liquid limit of 40%
and plasticity index of 28% is classified as
(A) CH
(B) CI
(C) CL
A smooth rigid retaining wall moves as shown in the
sketch causing the backfill material to fail. The
backfill material is homogeneous and isotropic, and
obeys the Mohr-Coulomb failure criterion. The major
principal stress is
(D) CL-ML
(A) parallel to the wall face and acting downwards

(B) normal to the wall face
(C) oblique to the wall face acting downwards
(D) oblique to the wall face acting upwards
Q.15
An embankment is to be constructed with a granular soil (bulk unit weight = 20 kN/m3) on a

saturated clayey silt deposit (undrained shear strength = 25 kPa). Assuming undrained general shear
failure and bearing capacity factor of 5.7, the maximum height (in m) of the embankment at the
point of failure is
Q.16
(A) 7.1
(B) 5.0
(C) 4.5
(D) 2.5
A trapezoidal channel is 10.0 m wide at the base and has a side slope of 4 horizontal to 3 vertical.
The bed slope is 0.002. The channel is lined with smooth concrete (Mannings n = 0.012). The
hydraulic radius (in m) for a depth of flow of 3.0 m is
Q.17
(A) 20.0
(B) 3.5
(C) 3.0
(D) 2.1
A rectangular open channel of width 5.0 m is carrying a discharge of 100 m3/s. The Froude number
of the flow is 0.8. The depth of flow (in m) in the channel is
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 16
(D) 20
GATE 2012
Q.18
The circular water pipes shown in the sketch are

flowing full. The velocity of flow (in m/s) in the
branch pipe R is
dia = 4 m
V = 6 m/s
V = 5 m/s
R
V=?
(A) 3
Q.19
(B) 4
(B) 0.6 to 0.9
(D) 1.0 to 2.0
(B) potassium dichromate

(D) sulphuric acid
Assertion [a]: At a manhole, the crown of the outgoing sewer should not be higher than the crown
of the incoming sewer.
Reason [r]: Transition from a larger diameter incoming sewer to a smaller diameter outgoing
sewer at a manhole should not be made.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.22
(C) 0.0 to 1.0
A sample of domestic sewage is digested with silver sulphate, sulphuric acid, potassium dichromate
and mercuric sulphate in chemical oxygen demand (COD) test. The digested sample is then titrated
with standard ferrous ammonium sulphate (FAS) to determine the un-reacted amount of
(A) mercuric sulphate
(C) silver sulphate
Q.21
(D) 6
The ratio of actual evapo-transpiration to potential evapo-transpiration is in the range

(A) 0.0 to 0.4
Q.20
(C) 5
dia = 2 m
Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
Both [a] and [r] are false
[a] is true but [r] is false
Two major roads with two lanes each are crossing in an urban area to form an un-controlled
intersection. The number of conflict points when both roads are one-way is X and when both
roads are two-way is Y. The ratio of X to Y is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.33
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.75
Q.23
Two bitumen samples X and Y have softening points 45C and 60C, respectively. Consider
the following statements:
I.
I Viscosity of X will be higher than that of Y at the same temperature.

II Penetration value of X will be lesser than that of Y under standard conditions.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is
(A) Both I and II are TRUE
(C) Both I and II are FALSE
Q.24
(B) I is FALSE and II is TRUE

(D) I is TRUE and II is FALSE
Road roughness is measured using

(A) Benkelman beam
(C) Dynamic cone penetrometer
(B) Bump integrator

(D) Falling weight deflectometer
GATE 2012
Q.25
Which of the following errors can be eliminated by reciprocal measurements in differential

leveling?
I Error due to earths curvature
II Error due to atmospheric refraction
(A) Both I and II
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) Neither I nor II
Q. 26 - Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26
The error in
d
for a continuous function estimated with h = 0.03 using the central
f ( x)
dx
x x0
difference formula
f ( x0 h) f ( x0 h)
d
, is 2103. The values of x0 and f(x0) are
f ( x)
dx
2
h
x x0
19.78 and 500.01, respectively. The corresponding error in the central difference estimate for
h = 0.02 is approximately
(A) 1.3104
Q.27
1
32
(B)
(D) 9.0104
2
32
(C)
3
32
(D)
6
32
9 5
The eigenvalues of matrix

are
5 8
(A) -2.42 and 6.86
Q.29
(C) 4.5104
In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The probability of
obtaining at most one negative value in five trials is
(A)
Q.28
(B) 3.0104
(B) 3.48 and 13.53
(C) 4.70 and 6.86
(D) 6.86 and 9.50
For the parallelogram OPQR shown in the sketch, OP a i b j and OR c i d j . The area of the
parallelogram is
Q
R
P
O
Q.30
(A) a d b c
(B) a c + b d
(C) a d + b c
(D) a b c d
The solution of the ordinary differential equation
dy
2 y 0 for the boundary condition, y = 5 at
dx
x = 1 is
(A) y e
Q.31
2x
(B) y 2e2 x
(C) y 10.95 e2 x
(D) y 36.95 e2 x
A simply supported beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of intensity w per unit length,
on half of the span from one end. The length of the span and the flexural stiffness are denoted as l
and EI, respectively. The deflection at mid-span of the beam is
(A)
5 wl 4
6144 EI
(B)
5 wl 4
768 EI
(C)
5 wl 4
384 EI
(D)
5 wl 4
192 EI
GATE 2012
Q.32
The sketch shows a column with a pin at the

base and rollers at the top. It is subjected to an
axial force P and a moment M at mid-height.
The reaction(s) at R is/are
Q
h/2
(A) a vertical force equal to P

(B) a vertical force equal to P/2
(C) a vertical force equal to P and a horizontal
force equal to M/h
(D) a vertical force equal to P/2 and a horizontal
force equal to M/h
Q.33
h/2
R
A concrete beam prestressed with a parabolic tendon is shown in the sketch. The eccentricity of the
tendon is measured from the centroid of the cross-section. The applied prestressing force at service
is 1620 kN. The uniformly distributed load of 45 kN/m includes the self-weight.
500
750
145
Cross-section
(tendon not shown)
7300
Sectional elevation
All dimensions are in mm

The stress (in N/mm2) in the bottom fibre at mid-span is
(A) tensile 2.90
(C) tensile 4.32
Q.34
A symmetric frame PQR consists of two inclined members PQ and QR, connected at Q with a
rigid joint, and hinged at P and R. The horizontal length PR is l. If a weight W is suspended at
Q, the bending moment at Q is
(A)
Q.35
(B) compressive 2.90

(D) compressive 4.32
Wl
2
(B)
Wl
4
(C)
Wl
8
Two plates are connected by fillet welds of size

10 mm and subjected to tension, as shown in the
sketch. The thickness of each plate is 12 mm.
The yield stress and the ultimate tensile stress of
steel are 250 MPa and 410 MPa, respectively.
The welding is done in the workshop
(mw = 1.25). As per the Limit State Method of
IS 800:2007, the minimum length (rounded off
to the nearest higher multiple of 5 mm) of each
weld to transmit a force P equal to 270 kN is
(D) zero
P
100 mm
150 mm
P
(A) 100 mm
(B) 105 mm
(C) 110 mm
(D) 115 mm
GATE 2012
Q.36
Two soil specimens with identical geometric dimensions were subjected to falling head
permeability tests in the laboratory under identical conditions. The fall of water head was measured
after an identical time interval. The ratio of initial to final water heads for the test involving the first
specimen was 1.25. If the coefficient of permeability of the second specimen is 5-times that of the
first, the ratio of initial to final water heads in the test involving the second specimen is
(A) 3.05
Q.37
(B) 9 mm
(C) 14 mm
(D) 16 mm
(B) 15.89
(C) 16.38
2m
Q
R
(D) 18.34
The top width and the depth of flow in a triangular channel were measured as 4 m and 1 m,
respectively. The measured velocities on the centre line at the water surface, 0.2 m and 0.8 m below
the surface are 0.7 m/s, 0.6 m/s and 0.4 m/s, respectively. Using two-point method of velocity
measurement, the discharge (in m3/s) in the channel is
(A) 1.4
Q.40
(D) 6.25
Steady state seepage is taking place through a soil element at Q,

2 m below the ground surface immediately downstream of the
toe of an earthen dam as shown in the sketch. The water level in
a piezometer installed at P, 500 mm above Q, is at the ground
surface. The water level in a piezometer installed at R, 500 mm
below Q, is 100 mm above the ground surface. The bulk
saturated unit weight of the soil is 18 kN/m3 and the unit weight
of water is 9.81 kN/m3. The vertical effective stress (in kPa) at
Q is
(A) 14.42
Q.39
(C) 4.00
A layer of normally consolidated, saturated silty clay of 1 m thickness is subjected to one

dimensional consolidation under a pressure increment of 20 kPa. The properties of the soil are:
specific gravity = 2.7, natural moisture content = 45%, compression index = 0.45, and
recompression index = 0.05. The initial average effective stress within the layer is 100 kPa.
Assuming Terzaghis theory to be applicable, the primary consolidation settlement (rounded off to
the nearest mm) is
(A) 2 mm
Q.38
(B) 3.80
(B) 1.2
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.8
Group I contains parameters and Group II lists methods/instruments.

P.
Q.
R.
S.
Group I
Streamflow velocity
Evapo-transpiration rate
Infiltration rate
Wind velocity
1.
2.
3.
4.
Group II
Anemometer
Penmans method
Hortons method
Current meter
The CORRECT match of Group I with Group II is

(A) P 1, Q 2, R 3, S 4
(C) P 4, Q 2, R 3, S 1
Q.41
Wheat crop requires 55 cm of water during 120 days of base period. The total rainfall during this
period is 100 mm. Assume the irrigation efficiency to be 60%. The area (in ha) of the land which
can be irrigated with a canal flow of 0.01 m3/s is
(A) 13.82
Q.42
(B) P 4, Q 3, R 2, S 1
(D) P 1, Q 3, R 2, S 4
(B) 18.85
(C) 23.04
(D) 230.40
A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in the water sample is
(A) 109.25 moles/L
(C) 0.302 mg/L
(B) 104.75 mmoles/L

(D) 3.020 mg/L
GATE 2012
Q.43
A town is required to treat 4.2 m3/min of raw water for daily domestic supply. Flocculating
particles are to be produced by chemical coagulation. A column analysis indicated that an overflow
rate of 0.2 mm/s will produce satisfactory particle removal in a settling basin at a depth of 3.5 m.
The required surface area (in m2 ) for settling is
(A) 210
Q.44
Q.45
Q.46
Q.47
(B) 350
(C) 1728
(D) 21000
A pavement designer has arrived at a design traffic of 100 million standard axles for a newly
developing national highway as per IRC:37 guidelines using the following data: design life =
15 years, commercial vehicle count before pavement construction = 4500 vehicles/day, annual
traffic growth rate = 8%. The vehicle damage factor used in the calculation was
(A) 1.53
(B) 2.24
(C) 3.66
(D) 4.14
The following data are related to a horizontal curved portion of a two-lane highway: length of
curve = 200 m, radius of curve = 300 m and width of pavement = 7.5 m. In order to provide a
stopping sight distance (SSD) of 80 m, the set back distance (in m) required from the centre line of
the inner lane of the pavement is
(A) 2.54
(B) 4.55
(C) 7.10
(D) 7.96
A two-lane urban road with one-way traffic has a maximum capacity of 1800 vehicles/hour. Under
the jam condition, the average length occupied by the vehicles is 5.0 m. The speed versus density
relationship is linear. For a traffic volume of 1000 vehicles/hour, the density (in vehicles/km) is
(A) 52
(B) 58
(C) 67
(D) 75
The horizontal distance between two stations P and Q is 100 m. The vertical angles from P and Q
to the top of a vertical tower at T are 3 and 5 above horizontal, respectively. The vertical angles
from P and Q to the base of the tower are 0.1 and 0.5 below horizontal, respectively. Stations P,
Q and the tower are in the same vertical plane with P and Q being on the same side of T. Neglecting
earths curvature and atmospheric refraction, the height (in m) of the tower is
(A) 6.972
(B) 12.387
(C) 12.540
(D) 128.745
Common Data Questions

The flow net around a sheet pile wall is shown in the
sketch. The properties of the soil are: permeability
coefficient = 0.09 m/day (isotropic), specific gravity
= 2.70 and void ratio = 0.85. The sheet pile wall and
the bottom of the soil are impermeable.
Q.48
The seepage loss (in m3 per day per unit length of the wall) of water is
(D) 0.54
Q.49
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.38
(C) 0.43
The factor of safety against the occurrence of piping failure is
(A) 3.55
(D) 0.39
(B) 2.93
(C) 2.60
GATE 2012

An activated sludge system (sketched below) is operating at equilibrium with the following information.
Wastewater related data: flow rate = 500 m3/hour, influent BOD = 150 mg/L, effluent BOD = 10 mg/L.
Aeration tank related data: hydraulic retention time = 8 hours, mean-cell-residence time = 240 hours,
volume = 4000 m3, mixed liquor suspended solids = 2000 mg/L.
Influent
Aeration
Tank
Secondary
Clarifier
Effluent
Sludge Recycle
Solids
Wasted
Q.50
The food-to-biomass (F/M) ratio (in kg BOD per kg biomass per day) for the aeration tank is
(A) 0.015
Q.51
(B) 0.210
(C) 0.225
(D) 0.240
The mass (in kg/day) of solids wasted from the system is

(A) 24000
(B) 1000
(C) 800
(D) 33
Linked Answer Questions

1000
The cross-section at mid-span of a beam at the edge of
a slab is shown in the sketch. A portion of the slab is
considered as the effective flange width for the beam.
The grades of concrete and reinforcing steel are M25
and Fe415, respectively. The total area of reinforcing
bars (As) is 4000 mm2. At the ultimate limit state, xu
denotes the depth of the neutral axis from the top
fibre. Treat the section as under-reinforced and
flanged (xu > 100 mm).
Q.52
650
570
As
325
All dimensions are in mm.
The value of xu (in mm) computed as per the Limit State Method of IS 456:2000 is
(A) 200.0
Q.53
100
(B) 223.3
(C) 236.3
(D) 273.6
The ultimate moment capacity (in kNm) of the section, as per the Limit State Method of
IS 456:2000 is
(A) 475.2
(B) 717.0
(C) 756.4
(D) 762.5
GATE 2012

The drainage area of a watershed is 50 km2. The index is 0.5 cm/hour and the base flow at the outlet is
10 m3/s. One hour unit hydrograph (unit depth = 1 cm) of the watershed is triangular in shape with a time
base of 15 hours. The peak ordinate occurs at 5 hours.
Q.54
The peak ordinate (in m3/s/cm) of the unit hydrograph is

(A) 10.00
Q.55
(B) 18.52
(C) 37.03
(D) 185.20
For a storm of depth of 5.5 cm and duration of 1 hour, the peak ordinate (in m3/s) of the hydrograph
is
(A) 55.00
(B) 82.60
(C) 92.60
(D) 102.60
GATE 2012

Q.56 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Despite several the mission succeeded in its attempt to resolve the conflict.
(A) attempts
(B) setbacks
(C) meetings
(D) delegations
Q.57 The cost function for a product in a firm is given by 5q2, where q is the amount of production. The
firm can sell the product at a market price of 50 per unit. The number of units to be produced by
the firm such that the profit is maximized is
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 25
Q.58 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Sureshs dog is the one was hurt in the stampede.
(A) that
(B) which
(C) who
(D) whom
Q.59 Choose the grammatically INCORRECT sentence:

(A) They gave us the money back less the service charges of Three Hundred rupees.
(B) This countrys expenditure is not less than that of Bangladesh.
(C) The committee initially asked for a funding of Fifty Lakh rupees, but later settled for a lesser
sum.
(D) This countrys expenditure on educational reforms is very less.
Q.60 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Mitigate
(A) Diminish
(B) Divulge
(C) Dedicate
(D) Denote
Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 A political party orders an arch for the entrance to the ground in which the annual convention is
being held. The profile of the arch follows the equation y = 2x 0.1x2 where y is the height of the
arch in meters. The maximum possible height of the arch is
(A) 8 meters
(B) 10 meters
(C) 12 meters
(D) 14 meters
Q.62 Wanted Temporary, Part-time persons for the post of Field Interviewer to conduct personal
interviews to collect and collate economic data. Requirements: High School-pass, must be
available for Day, Evening and Saturday work. Transportation paid, expenses reimbursed.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above advertisement?
(A) Gender-discriminatory
(B) Xenophobic
(C) Not designed to make the post attractive
(D) Not gender-discriminatory
GATE 2012
Q.63 Given the sequence of terms, AD CG FK JP, the next term is

(A) OV
(B) OW
(C) PV
(D) PW
Q.64 Which of the following assertions are CORRECT?

P: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the mean of the list
Q: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the standard deviation of the list
R: Doubling each entry in a list doubles the mean of the list
S: Doubling each entry in a list leaves the standard deviation of the list unchanged
(A) P, Q
(B) Q, R
(C) P, R
(D) R, S
Q.65 An automobile plant contracted to buy shock absorbers from two suppliers X and Y. X supplies
60% and Y supplies 40% of the shock absorbers. All shock absorbers are subjected to a quality test.
The ones that pass the quality test are considered reliable. Of Xs shock absorbers, 96% are reliable.
Of Ys shock absorbers, 72% are reliable.
The probability that a randomly chosen shock absorber, which is found to be reliable, is made by Y
is
(A) 0.288
(B) 0.334
(C) 0.667
(D) 0.720

Civil Engineering CE
Q. No.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
Key / Range
D
A
B
B
C
A
D
C
A
D
A
B
B
B
A
D
A
B
C
B
B
Marks to Ali
Q. No.
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
Key / Range
C
B
A
D
D
B
A
D
B
C
B
D
B
A
D
A
C
C
A
C
B
Marks to All
Q. No.
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
Key / Range
Marks to All
C
B
B
C
Marks to All
C
C
B
B
D
B
A
Marks to All
D
A
B
D
A
C
B
________________________________________________________________

GATE Solved Question Papers For Civil Engineering CE by AglaSem Com

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

GATE Solved Question Papers For Civil Engineering CE by AglaSem Com

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

GATE Solved Question Papers For Civil Engineering CE by AglaSem Com

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SOLVED PAPERS

A comprehensive study guide for GATE

Question Paper Pattern

In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This section

Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)

Syllabus for Civil Engineering (CE)

Municipal Solid Wastes: Characteristics, generation, collection and transportation of solid

Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(B) has a slope of +1

Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December

(B) (i) and (iii)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Given the matrices J = 2 4 2 and K = 2 , the product K T JK is ___________

The sum of Eigen values of the matrix, [M] is

215 650 795

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

Match the information given in Group I with those in Group - II.

Factor to decrease ultimate strength to

1 Upper bound on ultimate load

Factor to increase working load to

2 Lower bound on ultimate load

Statical method of ultimate load

3 Material partial safety factor

Kinematical mechanism method of

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

(B) V > 0.7Vs

(C) V > 0.8Vs

(D) V > 0.9Vs

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

(B) Consolidated Undrained (CU) test

(C) Unconfined Compression (UC) test

(D) Unconsolidated Undrained (UU) test

The action of negative skin friction on the pile is to

A conventional flow duration curve is a plot between

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

The dimension for kinematic viscosity is

Some of the nontoxic metals normally found in natural water are

(B) calcium, sodium and silver

(C) cadmium, chromium and copper

(D) iron, manganese and magnesium

The minimum value of 15 minute peak hour factor on a section of a road is

The TRUE statement(s) is(are)

(C) P and Q only

(D) P and R only

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

If a is amplitude constant for y, then

(A) F = 56.389 kN and = 28.28

(B) F = 56.389 kN and = 28.28

(C) F = 9.055 kN and = 1.414

(D) F = 9.055 kN and = 1.414