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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
2K views15 pages

Bernal 3

bernal

Uploaded by

JosephSauerland
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Project Management, 2e (Pinto)

Chapter 3 Project Selection and Portfolio Management


3.1 True/False
1) Numeric project selection models, by their very nature, employ objective values.
Answer: FALSE
2) Every decision model contains both objective and subjective factors.
Answer: TRUE
3) A simplified scoring model addresses all the weakness of a checklist model for project
screening.
Answer: TRUE
4) The Analytical Hierarchy Process elegantly addresses scaling issues in criteria and negative
utility in alternative scores.
Answer: FALSE
5) The efficient frontier in a profile model is the set of options that offers a maximum return for a
given level of risk or a minimum risk for every level of return.
Answer: TRUE
6) The present value of money is lower the further out in the future I expect to spend it.
Answer: FALSE
7) The reciprocal of the payback period is used to calculate the average rate of return for a
project.
Answer: TRUE
8) Internal rate of return is preferable to net present value because IRR employs a weighted
average cost of capital discount rate that reflects potential reinvestment.
Answer: FALSE
9) An options model could be used when financial criteria would change significantly over time.
Answer: TRUE
10) The most important thing to remember when using project selection models is to be
consistent and objective.
Answer: TRUE
11) Because projects managed under a project portfolio management scheme may be
independent of each other, it is not necessary to consider resource use when deciding to pursue
any single project.
Answer: FALSE
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12) A balanced project portfolio may be interpreted to mean that a single portfolio contains both
high and low risk, low growth and high growth, and risky and safe projects.
Answer: FALSE
13) Successful project management firms rely on home runs and narrowly concentrated efforts
since specialization creates name recognition and market share.
Answer: FALSE
14) Personnel costs comprise one of the highest sources of project expense.
Answer: TRUE
15) If strategy and portfolio are not in sync, the firm is poised on the cusp of success.
Answer: FALSE
3.2 Fill in the Blank
1) A project selection model that is broad enough to be applied to multiple projects has the virtue
of __________.
Answer: comparability
2) Project selection model come in two general classes: __________ and __________.
Answer: numeric, nonnumeric
3) The simplest method of project screening and selection is developing a(n) __________ that
contains criteria that pertain to a choice of projects.
Answer: checklist
4) A simple scoring model assigns __________ to the criteria used to evaluate projects.
Answer: weights
5) The __________ method of project screening generates overall project scores that can be
compared meaningfully against each other.
Answer: Analytical Hierarchy Process (AHP)
6) In project management, the __________ is the set of project portfolio options that offers either
a maximum return for every given level of risk or the minimum risk for every level of return.
Answer: efficient frontier
7) Financial models are all predicated on the __________ principal.
Answer: time value of money
8) The __________ screening method may arrive at multiple solutions, which is one reason it is
used less widely than the net present value technique.
Answer: internal rate of return (IRR)
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9) An organization that has some flexibility in postponing a project and might be able to make a
better decision with information that would be available at a later date might make use of a(n)
__________ for project screening.
Answer: options model
10) __________ is the systematic process of selecting, supporting, and managing a firm's
collection of projects.
Answer: Project portfolio management
11) A firm that offsets risky ventures with more secure projects or new development ventures
with existing product line cash cows is desirous of __________.
Answer: (project portfolio) balance
12) A principle cause of project portfolio underperformance is lack of __________.
Answer: (adequate) resources
3.3 Multiple Choice
1) Souder's project screening criterion that indicates an effective model must reflect organization
objectives, including a firm's strategic goals and mission is called:
A) realism.
B) capability.
C) comparability.
D) ease of use.
Answer: A
2) A selection model that is broad enough to be applied to multiple projects has the benefit of:
A) ease of use.
B) comparability.
C) capability.
D) flexibility.
Answer: B
3) A project screening criterion that allows the company to compare long term versus short term
projects, projects with different technologies, and projects with different commercial objectives
is:
A) flexibility.
B) ease of use
C) capability
D) realistic
Answer: C

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4) If a model can be applied successfully by people in all areas and levels of an organization, it is
said to possess the trait of:
A) capability.
B) ease of use.
C) flexibility.
D) realism.
Answer: B
5) An MBA redesign committee spends the better part of a decade traveling the Caribbean to
benchmark graduate programs at other universities. Whatever screening model is being used
suffers from poor performance on:
A) realism.
B) capability
C) ease of use
D) cost
Answer: D
6) Souder's model selection criterion that encourages ease of adaptation to changes in tax laws,
building codes, among others, is called:
A) ease of use.
B) cost.
C) capability.
D) flexibility.
Answer: D
7) A writer estimates it will take three months to generate spiffy documents to accompany a
seminal work in operations management. He grossly underestimates the time required and misses
his deadline by two months. This estimate was:
A) objective and accurate.
B) subjective and accurate.
C) objective and inaccurate.
D) subjective and inaccurate.
Answer: D
8) A wedding planner allows $10,000 for flowers and three weeks to receive all RSVPs back
from the list of 700 guests. Both estimates are correct within a fraction of a percent. We could
describe this factoid as:
A) numeric and subjective.
B) numeric and objective.
C) non-numeric and subjective.
D) non-numeric and objective.
Answer: A
9) An internal operating issue in project screening and selection is:
A) expected return on investment.
B) change in physical environment.
C) patent protection.
D) the chance that the firm's goodwill will suffer due to the quality of the finished project.
Answer: B
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10) Quality risk refers to the chance that:


A) the project relies on developing new or untested technologies.
B) the firm's reputation may suffer when the product becomes available.
C) the well-being of the users or developers may decline dramatically.
D) the firm may face a lawsuit.
Answer: A
11) One facet of risk in project screening is:
A) the change in manufacturing operations resulting from the project.
B) the initial cash outlay.
C) the potential for lawsuits or legal obligation.
D) the strategic fit of the project with the company.
Answer: C
12) One project factor that directly impacts a firm's internal operations is the:
A) expected return on investment.
B) financial risk.
C) need to develop employees.
D) impact on company's image.
Answer: C
13) A commercial factor in project selection and screening might be:
A) a need to develop employees.
B) the likelihood that users of the project are injured.
C) the long-term market dominance.
D) the impact on the company's image.
Answer: C
14) Which statement regarding project selection is best?
A) Organizational reality can be perfectly captured by most decision-making models.
B) Before selecting any project, the team should identify all the relevant issues that play a role in
project selection.
C) Decision models must contain either objective or subjective factors.
D) Every decision model has both objective and subjective factors.
Answer: D
15) Which statement regarding project selection and screening criteria is best?
A) The most complete model in the world is still only a partial reflection of organization reality.
B) It is possible, given enough time and effort, to identify all relevant issues that play a role in
project selection.
C) Decision models are either objective or subjective.
D) For many projects, more than 80% of the decision criteria are vital.
Answer: A

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16) A checklist screening model does not consider:


A) whether one criterion is more important than another.
B) governmental or stakeholder interference.
C) product durability and future market potential of the product line.
D) the riskiness of the new venture.
Answer: A
17) A simple scoring model for project evaluation requires:
A) importance weights from 1 to 10 assigned to each criterion.
B) score values assigned to each criterion in terms of its rating.
C) a division of weights by scores to arrive at a standardized score for each criterion.
D) a summation for each criterion to achieve an overall criterion score.
Answer: B
18) The simple scoring model has this advantage over a checklist model for screening projects.
A) Scaling from 1 to 5 is extremely accurate.
B) Scaling models ensure a reasonable link between the selected and weighted criteria and the
business objectives that motivated their selection.
C) Scaling models allow decision makers to treat one criterion as more important than another.
D) Scaling models have been proven to make correct decisions better than 95% of the time while
checklists only achieve 80% accuracy.
Answer: C
19) A project manager is using a simple scoring model to decide which of four projects is best,
given the company's limited resources. The criteria, importance weights, and scores for each are
shown in the table. Which project should be chosen?
Project
Greenlight

Criteria

Importance
Weight

Score

1
2
3

1
2
3

3
1
1

1
2
3

1
2
3

2
2
1

1
2
3

1
2
3

2
3
2

1
2
3

1
2
3

2
2
3

Runway

Ilevomit

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A) Project Greenlight
B) Project Runway
C) Project X
D) Project Ilevomit
Answer: D
20) A simple scoring model is used to decide among three projects that we'll call A, B, and C.
The total score for project A is 30, for project B is 20, and for project C is 10. Which of the
following statements is best?
A) If project A is successfully completed, it will yield three times the benefits that project C
would have provided.
B) If project C is chosen, the company would benefit only half as much as if they had chosen
project B.
C) Project C is better than project B for this company at this point in time.
D) Project A is better than project B for this company at this point in time.
Answer: D
21) The first step in the Analytical Hierarchy Process:
A) requires supporting requirements to be combined into level II challenges.
B) is analyzing the process you intend to improve before undertaking any improvement project.
C) requires Saatyfication of the team members.
D) consists of constructing a hierarchy of criteria and subcriteria.
Answer: D
22) The pairwise comparison approach:
A) is a method to split the weights assigned to subcriteria.
B) is a method to compare pairs of hierarchies prior to any further analysis.
C) is a means of achieving all project objectives within the allocated time frame.
D) may be used instead of AHP if time is limited.
Answer: A
23) Which statement about the Analytical Hierarchy Process is false?
A) AHP scores are significant.
B) AHP can be used to capture choice options that do not yield positive outcomes.
C) AHP can improve the process of developing project proposals.
D) AHP groups subcriteria that share the weight of a common higher-level criterion.
Answer: B

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24) The Analytical Hierarchy Process is being employed in a project selection decision. One
major criteria, cost, receives a weighting value of 40%, which is split into short-term (50%),
intermediate term(30%), and long-term (20%). Which of these statements is best?
A) Short-term, intermediate-term, and long-term must receive overall weightings that total
100%.
B) There must be at least one other major criteria that has 40% weighting.
C) Intermediate-term cost receives a weighting of 12%.
D) Long-term cost receives an overall weighting of 80%.
Answer: C
25) The Analytical Hierarchy Process is used to decide among three projects that we'll call A, B,
and C. The total score for project A is .650, for project B is .514, and for project C is .321. Which
of the following statements is best?
A) Project A is twice as good as project C.
B) The analysis must be incorrect because the total scores should sum to 1.00.
C) The analysis must be incorrect because there are two total scores that exceed 0.50.
D) The analysis must be incorrect because project C's total score is odd.
Answer: A
26) The profile model plots a graph on a:
A) perception-reality pair of axes.
B) risk-return pair of axes.
C) efficiency-effectiveness pair of axes.
D) Saxon-Norman pair of axes.
Answer: B
27) The efficient frontier in project management is the set of portfolio options that offer:
A) a minimum return for a minimum risk.
B) a minimum return for a maximum risk.
C) a maximum return for a minimum risk.
D) a maximum return for a maximum risk.
Answer: C
28) Which statement about the use of the profile model is best?
A) The profile model requires careful calculation of the percentage risk for each possible project.
B) The scale used for the profile model can be any two numerical variables that a company
deems important.
C) The efficient frontier in the profile model is where return is 100% (or greater) and risk is 0%.
D) For a given level of risk, a positive move on the return axes would indicate a superior project.
Answer: D
29) Between projects A and B, project A will be considered a superior financial undertaking if it
has:
A) a shorter payback period than project B.
B) a lower average rate of return than project B.
C) a lower net present value than project B.
D) a longer payback period than project B.
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Answer: A
30) Net present value is being used to break the tie among four otherwise equal projects. If the
interest rate is 4%, which of these anticipated four-year flows would yield the greatest net
present value?
A) $10,000 in year 1; $11,000 in year 2; $12,000 in year 3; and $13,000 in year 4
B) $13,000 in year 1; $12,000 in year 2; $11,000 in year 3; and $10,000 in year 4
C) $10,000 in year 1; $10,000 in year 2; $13,000 in year 3; and $13,000 in year 4
D) $11,000 in year 1; $11,000 in year 2; $12,000 in year 3; and $12,000 in year 4
Answer: B
31) A company facing an interest rate of 8% must choose among projects offering the following
four-year cash flows. If the company is employing the net present value criterion, which project
should they choose?
A) $25,000 in year 1; $15,000 in year 2; $10,000 in year 3; and $5,000 in year 4
B) $5,000 in year 1; $5,000 in year 2; $20,000 in year 3; and $30,000 in year 4
C) $15,000 in year 1; $15,000 in year 2; $15,000 in year 3; and $15,000 in year 4
D) $5,000 in year 1; $5,000 in year 2; $25,000 in year 3; and $25,000 in year 4
Answer: C
32) Which of these statements about internal rate of return analysis is best?
A) If the IRR is less than the company's required rate of return, the project is worth funding.
B) Projects having lower IRR are generally superior to those having higher IRR.
C) IRR and NPV calculations always make the same investment recommendations.
D) If net outflows follow a period of net inflows, IRR may give conflicting results.
Answer: D
33) Which of these statements about valuation models is NOT correct?
A) NPV employs a weighted average cost of capital discount rate that reflects potential
reinvestment.
B) IRR and NPV calculations typically make the same investment recommendations only when
the projects are independent of each other.
C) If cash flows are not normal, IRR may arrive at multiple solutions.
D) IRR is a more robust determinant of project viability than NPV.
Answer: D

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34) A project manager is using the internal rate of return method to make the final decision on
which project to undertake. Which of these four projects have the highest internal rate of return?
A) $25,000 initial outlay with $10,000 cash inflows during the following five years
B) $12,500 initial outlay with $10,000 cash inflows during the following five years
C) $25,000 initial outlay with $5,000 cash inflows during the following five years
D) $12,500 initial outlay with $5,000 cash inflows during the following five years
Answer: B
35) A project manager is using the internal rate of return method to make the final decision on
which project to undertake. Which of these four projects have the highest internal rate of return?
A) $100,000 initial outlay with $10,000 cash inflows during the first two years, $20,000 during
the third and fourth years, and $30,000 during the fifth year
B) $100,000 initial outlay with a $5,000 cash inflow during the first year, $15,000 cash inflow
during the second year, and $25,000 cash inflows during years three through five
C) $75,000 initial outlay with a $5,000 cash inflow during the first year, increasing by $5,000 per
year through the fifth year
D) $50,000 initial outlay with $5,000 cash inflows during the first two years, $15,000 during the
third and fourth years, and $20,000 during the fifth year
Answer: D
36) Options models are used to assist in project selection decisions:
A) when IRR calculations are favorable but NPV calculations are unfavorable.
B) when a company may not recover the money it invests in a project.
C) when NPV calculations are favorable but IRR calculations are unfavorable.
D) when a company is guaranteed to recover the money it invests in a project.
Answer: B
37) Regardless of which selection method a firm uses, it should always:
A) be able to predict how much revenue will be returned to the firm each year.
B) know which project will ultimately succeed and which ones will fail.
C) be objective in their selection method.
D) use a weighted scoring technique.
Answer: C
38) The systematic process of selecting, supporting, and managing a firm's collection of projects
is called:
A) heavyweight project management.
B) matrix project organization.
C) profile management.
D) project portfolio management.
Answer: D
39) The concept of project portfolio management holds that firms should:
A) regard all projects as unified assets.
B) manage projects as independent entities.
C) focus on short-term strategic goals.
D) focus on long-term constraints.
Answer: A
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40) A project with the chance for a big payout may be funded if an important criterion is:
A) cost.
B) opportunity.
C) top management pressure.
D) risk.
Answer: B
41) A project is exceptionally risky might still be undertaken by a firm if they have several other
projects underway that are considered more of a sure thing. This approach to project selection is
best described by the criterion called:
A) strategic "fit".
B) risk.
C) desire for portfolio balance.
D) top management pressure.
Answer: C
42) Evaluating projects in terms of their strategic fit with existing project lines or their ability to
augment the current product family is known as:
A) balance.
B) an open criterion
C) weighted criterion.
D) complementarity.
Answer: D
43) Realignment describes:
A) the change in a project portfolio with an addition of a new project.
B) the shifting of project resources from one to another.
C) the change in strategy for a firm.
D) the annual recasting of all project managers.
Answer: A
44) A proactive project portfolio:
A) is as simple as moving from one project opportunity to another project opportunity.
B) is an integrated family of projects with a common strategic goal.
C) is a collection of projects under the umbrella of single project manager carrying the title of
portfolio manager.
D) is developed with respect to short-term operational concerns.
Answer: B

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45) Which of these is NOT a factor in successful project portfolio management?


A) flexible structure and freedom of communication
B) low cost environmental setting
C) emphasis on quality
D) time paced transition
Answer: C
46) Multiple project environments thrive on:
A) multi-layered bureaucracy.
B) rigid development processes.
C) narrow communication channels.
D) improvisation by project teams.
Answer: D
47) A firm is best served if its project portfolio:
A) has a number of low-cost experimental prototypes.
B) devotes significant resources to hit product "home runs".
C) aims to take the marketplace by storm regardless of future trends.
D) represents narrowly concentrated efforts.
Answer: A
48) Successful firms use project portfolio planning routinely to:
A) make quantum jumps from one product to another.
B) develop products with long lead times and plan ahead.
C) move as quickly as possible into new territory.
D) move at glacial pace always within the same product line.
Answer: B
49) If an organization that currently is managing a vast and well-balanced portfolio of projects
decides on a new strategic direction, it will initially face the problem of:
A) scarce resources.
B) a conservative technical community.
C) out-of-sync projects and portfolios.
D) unpromising projects.
Answer: C
50) A principle cause of portfolio underperformance is:
A) conservative technical communities.
B) government intervention.
C) out-of-sync projects.
D) scarce resources.
Answer: D

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51) Project portfolio management is typically NOT used to balance:


A) human and technical resources.
B) risk and return.
C) efficiently run projects and nonperformers.
D) various families of projects.
Answer: A
3.4 Essay
1) Describe or define any four important attributes for screening models used to evaluate
projects.
Answer: Souder identifies five important issues that managers should consider when evaluating
screening models: realism, capability, flexibility, ease of use, and cost, and the text offers up
comparability. Taking these in reverse order, comparability refers to the ability of the criterion to
be applied to multiple projects without bias. Cost can be defined as the expense in either time or
money (or both) that is required to use the model. Ease of use calls for the model to be simple
enough to be used by people in all areas of the organization, both in specific project roles and in
those related to functional positions. Flexibility is the quality of ease of modification if trial
applications require changes. Capability is the ability of the model to respond to changes in the
conditions under which projects are carried out. Finally, realism is the ability of the model to
reflect organizational objectives, including a firm's strategic goals and mission.
2) Provide an example of a numeric and non-numeric project selection model and indicate what
advantage each might hold over the other.
Answer: Project selection models come in two general classes: numeric and non-numeric.
Numeric models seek to use numbers for the decision process involved in selecting projects.
These values can either be derived objectively or subjectively. Non-numeric models do not
employ numbers at decision inputs, relying instead on other data. Each technique has its own
merits and may be employed successfully, and a choice between the two should be tempered by
the adage GIGO. If a numeric model uses objective, external values that are "correct", then a
decision-maker can have a high degree of confidence that the values under study will lead to a
reasonable decision. A non-numeric model might appeal to decision makers that have less of a
quantitative bent or those that operate in a less quantifiable decision arena.
3) Describe any four types of risk that projects may hold.
Answer: Risk factors reflect elements of unpredictability for the firm. Technical risks occur due
to the development of new or untested technologies. Financial risks arise from the financial
exposure caused by investing in the project. Safety risk may arise as the well-being of users or
developers of the project is compromised. Any risks to the firm's goodwill or reputation due to
the quality of the completed project are termed quality risks. Finally, the potential for lawsuits or
legal obligation is legal exposure.

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4) How does a checklist project screening model work?


Answer: The simplest method of project screening and selection is developing a checklist of
criteria that pertain to a choice of projects and then applying them to the projects. Each potential
project is scored against the list of criteria and is rated as performing high, medium, or low with
the project scoring highest overall being selected as the project to undertake.
6) What are the advantages and limitations of simple scoring models?
Answer: The simple scoring model has some useful advantages as a project selection device.
First, it is easy to tie to critical strategic goals for the company and second, it is easy to
comprehend and use. The major limitation of simple scoring models is that the scaling is not very
accurate and is often treated as if ratios and difference in scoring levels have real meaning.
Another drawback of these models is that they depend on the relevance of the selected criteria
and the accuracy of weight given them.
7) How does the Analytical Hierarchy Process differ from a simple scoring model? Is it worth the
extra effort?
Answer: The Analytical Hierarchy Process (AHP) is a four-step process that consists of
structuring the hierarchy of criteria, allocating weights to criteria, assigning numerical values to
evaluation dimensions, and evaluating project proposals. Primary differences between the two
approaches are that AHP takes a more rigorous view of the assignment of criteria weights and
values to the evaluation dimensions. Differences among evaluation scale items are not
necessarily equal and can be adjusted as managers and decision-makers see fit. The resulting
product sums have meaning, unlike the values computed in a simple scoring model. AHP
methodology can dramatically improve the project selection process over use of the simple
scoring model. AHP is not without limitations and does require more effort to configure and use.
The authors caution against using a project screening tool that has a poor cost/benefit ratio, so
determination of the value derived from use of AHP versus a simple scoring model can best be
made on a case-by-case basis.
12) What are options models and when should they be used to evaluate projects? Provide an
example.
Answer: Options models open financial analysis to consider a greater range of alternatives to
immediate investment. Organizations can factor the benefit of postponing decisions (and
projects) until financial models indicate projects are worth pursuing. Examples may vary, but
suppose firm A can wait until more market research is performed or until a supplier solves
quality and logistics issues. The cash flows may be superior to those that would come from
immediate investment if company A had to suffer through those issues with their supplier.
Because company A can wait a year, the project scores better on the NPV calculations, clearing
the company's predetermined financial hurdle and will just have to wait to begin rather than
being counted as too great a financial risk.
Diff: 2
Section: 3.3 Financial Models
Skill: Definition
AACSB Tag: Reflective

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13) What two simple rules should be followed when choosing a project selection approach?
Answer: First and foremost, objectivity and consistency in selection method is paramount.
Achieving both objectivity and consistency allows a firm to avoid the pitfall of tweaking results
and starting projects that are personal favorites but don't merit pursuit. Second, a wide variety of
selection methods may be appropriate for specific companies and project circumstances. As with
most things, over-reliance on one end of a scale, whether it is financial, quantitative, or any
other, is not the best approach. A broad algorithm that embraces both financial and non-financial
considerations is often best.
15) What are three keys to success for project portfolio management? Which is most important?
Answer: The author indicates that the keys to successful project portfolio management are:
flexible structure and freedom of communication; low-cost environmental scanning; and timepaced transition. Answers may vary on the importance ranking. Some may argue that unfettered
experimentation is most important in achieving new project or product breakthroughs. Others
may tout continuous environmental scanning as a vehicle for quickly adapting a firm's project
portfolio and strategy to the changing market conditions. Finally, others may suggest that in both
project portfolio management and comedy, timing is everything. Having a stable of projects that
are time-phased to launch when others are nearing the end of their useful cycle and still others
are bearing maximum fruit will assure a firm of continued success.
Diff: 1
Section: 3.4 Project Portfolio Management
Skill: Factual
AACSB Tag: Reflective
16) Choose any example from recent news media and explain why their project failed.
Answer: Examples will vary and may include product launches, public programs, building
projects, or any number of other projects.
Diff: 2
Section: 3.4 Project Portfolio Management
Skill: Conceptual
AACSB Tag: Reflective
17) Rank the problems in implementing portfolio management from largest to smallest and
justify your rankings.
Answer: Recent research seems to suggest that the following are among the most common
problems in effective portfolio management: conservative technical committees that are
beholden to favorite projects, methods or technologies that no longer fit the market or company's
strategic thrust; out-of-sync projects and portfolios that may contain worthwhile projects but
these projects won't take the company in the direction it is currently targeted; unpromising
projects that won't improve a company's operations or revenues; and scarce resources such as
human labor, cash, and raw materials. Of these, the text suggests that scarce resources may be the
most pernicious problem, although answers will vary in students' rankings.
Diff: 3
Section: 3.4 Project Portfolio Management
Skill: Conceptual
AACSB Tag: Reflective
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