Quiz Public Health
Quiz Public Health
Quiz Public Health
b) Endemic
c) Pandemic
9) The number of new cases of disease or injury in a population per unit of time is called:
a) Positive predictive value
b) Sensitivity
c) Prevalence
d) Specificity
e) Incidence
10) The total number of cases of disease or injury in a population at a given time is
called:
a) Negative predictive value
b) Sensitivity
c) Prevalence
d) Specificity
e) Incidence
11) The proportion of people with a disease who are correctly classified by a screening
test as positive is called:
a) Positive predictive value
b) Sensitivity
c) Prevalence
d) Specificity
e) Incidence
12) The proportion of well people who are correctly classified by a screening test as
negative is called:
a) Negative predictive value
b) Sensitivity
c) Prevalence
d) Specificity
e) Incidence
13) Along with injury, what is the largest cause of human disease?
a) Obesity
b) Natural disasters
c) Microorganisms
d) Medical errors
e) Genetic disorders
14) Which of the following would be considered primary prevention?
a) Decreasing incidence
b) Risk reduction, such as smoking cessation
c) Screening programs, such as BP screening
d) Treatment programs, such as antibiotics
e) Reoccurrence prevention, such as physical therapy
15) Of the ten leading causes of death in 2008, how many are associated with dietary
factors?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
e) 9
16) Which of the following ethnic groups has the lowest risk for health problems,
especially those involving preventable disease?
a) Caucasians
b) Hispanics
c) Asian Americans
d) African Americans
e) American Indians
5) Which of the following is the diarrheal protozoan disease associated with the
Milwaukee diarrhea epidemic of 1993?
a) Giardia lamblia
b) Entamoeba histolytica
c) Plasmodium knowlesi
d) Cryptosporidium parvum
e) Balantidium coli
6) A young man presents with GI complaints after a wilderness camping trip. He states
the symptoms started after swimming in a river near a beaver dam. The patient complains
of diarrhea and pale, fowl-smelling, greasy stools (steatorrhea). The patient also says
sometimes he has sulphuric burps that taste so bad they cause him to vomit. Lab tests
show lactase deficiency and slight vitamin B12 deficiency. Light microscopy shows a
“clown face” (shown). Which of the following is most likely?
a) Giardia lamblia
b) Entamoeba histolytica
c) Plasmodium knowlesi
d) Cryptosporidium parvum
e) Balantidium coli
7) Which of the following is NOT considered a nematode and has a subgroup called
gladiatorum, which is specifically spread by skin-to-skin contact between wrestlers?
a) Roundworm (Ascaris species)
b) Ringworm (Tinea species)
c) Hookworm (Ancylostoma and Necator species)
d) Whipworm (Trichuris species)
e) Pinworm (Enterobius species)
8) Nematodes, the most common sources of human infection in the world, primarily
infect tissues and the:
a) Blood
b) Lungs
c) Intestines
d) Liver
e) CNS and eyes
9) An early means of germ warfare was devised by European settlers, who gave blankets
to Native American Indians after the blankets were used by settlers suffering from ____.
a) Bubonic plague
b) Small pox
c) Measles
d) Polio
e) Tuberculosis
10) What is the reservoir for bubonic plague (Yersinia pestis)?
a) Bats and dogs
b) Deer ticks
c) Rabbits and cats
d) Rats and fleas
e) Flying squirrels
11) What is the reservoir for rabies (Rhabdoviridae lyssavirus)?
c) Horse
d) Dog
e) Hamster
18) After the measles vaccine first became available, high school and college students
who were vaccinated as babies started getting infected. It is now known that this
immunity “wears off” and thus a booster shot is recommended at what age?
a) 1 to 2-years-old
b) 4 to 6-years-old
c) 10 to 12-years-old
d) 16 to 18-years-old
e) 21-years-old
19) What is the reservoir for smallpox, measles, and polio?
a) Bats and dogs
b) Deer ticks
c) Rabbits and cats
d) Rats and fleas
e) Human only
7) The two ways to infer the population from a sample statistic are a 95% confidence
interval and:
a) Hypothesis testing
b) Chi-squared data
c) P value cutoff
d) Data categorical data
e) Ignoring the data median
8) When interpreting a p-value, a null hypothesis (Ho) can be accepted if there is no
statistically significant difference between the groups, meaning the difference found is
likely due to the chance of random sampling variation. What is the alpha (!) cut-off value
that is generally used?
a) 1%
b) 5%
c) 90%
d) 95%
e) 99%
9) In general, which of the following is NOT true of a cohort study?
a) Can calculate risks
b) Useful for patients with risk factors
c) Less costly overall
d) Can estimate incidences
10) A cohort study of women taking HRT (estrogen) showed that the absolute risk of
coronary heart disease (CHD) was 28% for those exposed to HRT. The absolute risk of
CHD was 18% for those not taking HRT. Which of the following can be said of the
relative risk (RR)?
a) The risk is the same for those taking and those not taking HRT
b) HRT is harmful; 60% higher chance of CHD
c) HRT is protective; 60% lower chance of CHD
d) Nothing can be said of the relative risk (risk ratio)
11) In the above study of women taking HRT, what is the absolute risk reduction?
a) 8%
b) 10%
c) 18%
d) 28%
e) 46%
12) Which of the following is both cost and time efficient and works best for the study of
rare diseases?
a) Case study
b) Cohort study
c) Case-control study
d) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
13) Which of the following is best suited for comparing the weight-loss strategy of a
laparoscopic adjustable gastric band to a low-calorie diet with pharmacotherapy and
lifestyle changes?
a) Case study
b) Cohort study
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c) Case-control study
d) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
14) A study using BMI (weight at a certain height) for results is using what form of data?
a) Nominal (categorical)
b) Ordinal (categorical)
c) Interval (continuous)
d) Ratio (continuous)
15) Which of the following improves statistical power by decreasing dispersion
(removing individual differences)?
a) Independent (unpaired) t-test
b) Paired t-test
c) Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
d) Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test
16) Which of the following is a non-parametric test?
a) Independent (unpaired) t-test
b) Paired t-test
c) Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
d) Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test
17) Which of the following is robust in comparing deviations from normality?
a) Independent (unpaired) t-test
b) Paired t-test
c) Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
d) Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test
18) Which of the following allows more than two groups to be tested?
a) Independent (unpaired) t-test
b) Paired t-test
c) Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
d) Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test
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c) Meat
d) Milk
4) Smoking causes which of the following (the opposite effect seen with vigorous
exercise)?
a) Increases LDL levels
b) Decreases LDL levels
c) Increases HDL levels
d) Decreases HDL levels
5) Which of the following proposed factors in essential hypertension is variable and
probably determined by genetics?
a) Obesity
b) Stress level
c) Salt sensitivity
d) Smoking
6) What component of cigarette smoke is a stimulant that raises blood pressure, increases
pulse rate, and increases the irritability of heart blood vessels?
a) Carbon monoxide and tars
b) Propylene glycol
c) Formaldehyde
d) Nicotine
e) Benzo[a]pyrene
7) Which of the following has been shown to protect against cancer when incorporated
into the diet?
a) Broccoli
b) Fats
c) Cholesterol
d) Fiber
e) Grapefruit
8) Which of the following forms of cancer has been shown to have a viral cause?
a) Cervical
b) Testicular
c) Prostate
d) Cerebellar
e) Lung
9) Which of the following is a characteristic of Type I diabetes only?
a) Closely correlated with obesity
b) Involves insulin production defects
c) Involves insulin resistance
d) Affected by genetics
e) Appears only during childhood
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c) 25
d) 23
e) 21
2) The metric formula for BMI is calculated as weight (kg) / height^2 (m^2). The English
formula is weight (lb) / height^2 (inch^2) times what factor?
a) 307
b) 425
c) 524
d) 703
e) 907
3) Obesity is defined as BMI of what percentage or higher?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 30%
e) 35%
4) Most studies show that weight-associated risks start after BMI is greater than:
a) 26
b) 27
c) 28
d) 29
e) 30
f) 35
5) Approximately what percentage of men and women (separately) aged 20 or older in
the United States are considered overweight according to the National Health and
Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES)?
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
e) 33%
6) Which of the following groups is the least likely to be obese?
a) Hispanics and Native Americans
b) Educated women
c) Uneducated men
d) Uneducated women
e) African American women
7) The California “5 A Day For Better Health” project was aimed at increasing
consumption of which of the following?
a) Whole grains
b) Lean meats
c) Low-fat dairy product
d) Fruits and vegetable
e) Steel oat products
8) Most studies on how to lose weight have found what approach is the most effective?
a) Combination of dieting and physical activity
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a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Trimethoprim
d) Trimoxazole
7) Which of the following should be avoided while traveling to help prevent ETEC
infections?
a) Untreated water including ice cubes
b) Sandwiches with mixed fillings
c) Raw or lightly cooked seafood
d) Chopped fresh fruit
e) All of the above
8) A traveler presents with history of fever that increases daily, headache, abdominal
discomfort, and dry cough. Today, after 7-10 days, the fever has reached a peak and the
patient now has rose spots on his flanks. Labs show Salmonella species bacteria. The
clinician is concerned about the possibility of intestinal bleeding due to deeply ulcerated
Peyer patches. Which of the following is most likely?
a) Cholera
b) Diphtheria
c) Trypanosomiasis
d) Leishmaniasis
e) Typhoid
9) A traveler presents with abrupt onset of severe diarrhea. History reveals he drank well
water and ate shellfish on his recent trip to Bangladesh and India. He states the diarrhea
was originally brown, but then changed to a pale fluid with white mucous-like debris.
The clinician recommends that the patient drink sports drinks to help replace fluid and
electrolytes. If the diarrhea does not resolve, the clinician plans on using oxytetracycline.
Which of the following is most likely?
a) Cholera
b) Diphtheria
c) Trypanosomiasis
d) Leishmaniasis
e) Typhoid
10) A patient from India presents with antibiotic-resistant typhoid fever. Which drug in
standard doses may be effective?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Trimoxazole
d) Ceftriaxone
e) Chloramphenicol
11) An East African man is asked to leave his job after repeatedly falling asleep. He visits
the doctor hoping to cure his somnolence as well as accompanying headache and
dizziness. During the history, the patient explains that he had suffered recurring bouts of
fever and enlarged lymph noted before the sleepiness started. The doctor decides to
perform a lumbar puncture and, after finding a flagellated protozoan in the CSF, plans to
start the patient on melarsoprol. What is the transmission vector involved (African
trypanosomiasis)?
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a) Reduviid bug
b) Aedes aegypti mosquito
c) Haemagogus mosquito
d) Sand fly
e) Tsetse fly
12) A medical student presents with hematuria after a mission trip to Africa. History
reveals the student swam in a small pond at the bottom of a waterfall. A urine sample is
significant for eggs with a “spike” on the tail end, which are associated with Bulinus
snails during their life-cycle. The student is started on praziquantel. Which of the
following is most likely?
a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Taenia saginata
c) Echinococcus granulosus
d) Schistosoma haematobium
e) Strongyloides stercoralis
13) A traveler presents with an open ulcer on his forearm. Blood labs show amastigotes
(Leishman-Donovan bodies). Antimony treatment is started. How was this disease
transmitted?
a) Reduviid bug
b) Aedes aegypti mosquito
c) Haemagogus mosquito
d) Sand fly
e) Tsetse fly
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b) Borrelia burgdorferi
c) Francisella tularensis
d) Bartonella quintana
e) Bartonella henselae
9) A child who lives on a farm presents with photophobia and neck pain. Nuchal rigidity
is found as well as a positive Brudzinski sign. CSF shows Gram-positive cocci. Culture
shows beta-hemolytic streptococcus of Lancefield group R. Treatment with
Benzylpenicillin is begun. What was the diagnosis?
a) Toxoplasma gondii
b) Borrelia burgdorferi
c) Streptococcus zooepidemicus
d) Francisella tularensis
e) Streptococcus suis
10) What is the drug of choice against Francisella tularensis?
a) Doxycyclin
b) Gentamycin
c) Streptomycin
d) Tetracycline
e) Ciprofloxacin
11) What is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?
a) Piglets
b) Ostriches
c) Rabbits
d) Horses
e) Cats
12) A 16-year-old female who lives on a farm presents with a bacteremic infection.
Culture shows beta-hemolytic streptococcus of Lancefield group C. Streptococcus
zooepidemicus is suspected. Treatment with benzylpenicillin and an aminoglycoside is
begun. What animal did this patient most likely come in contact with?
a) Piglets
b) Ostriches
c) Rabbits
d) Horses
e) Cats
13) A patient from Wisconsin presents with Bannworth syndrome involving peripheral
neuritis and Bell palsy. An ECG reveals an AV conduction block. The patient also
complains of joint pain and specific neck pain. Doxycycline therapy is begun. Which of
the following is most likely?
a) Toxoplasma gondii
b) Borrelia burgdorferi
c) Streptococcus zooepidemicus
d) Francisella tularensis
e) Streptococcus suis
14) What is the drug of choice for pregnant patients with Toxoplasma gondii?
a) Pyrimethamine
b) Spiramycin
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c) Sulfadiazine
d) Benzylpenicillin
e) Doxycycline
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7) Approximately what percent of new HIV infections (40,000 annually) occur in the
United States each year in people aged 25 or younger?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
e) 50%
8) The graph shown here represents AIDS in the
United States. Which of the following is likely
represented by the diamond-line, which declines
sharply around 1995?
a) Persons living with AIDS
b) Newly diagnosed AIDS cases
c) AIDS deaths
d) HIV prevalence
e) Estimated HIV transmissions
9) Which of the following statements regarding the creation of vaccines is true?
a) A significant portion of people infected with poliovirus experience serious
complications, making the creation of a vaccine a major hurdle
b) HIV vaccines are difficult to create as even patients on drug therapy for eight
years with undetectable viral loads still reveal the virus in lymphocyte culture
c) There are almost no cases of death due to smallpox virus
d) Vaccines are not a formidable option for HIV and thus research has been
focused solely on the creation of antiretroviral drugs
e) Only about 5% of people infected with smallpox virus recovered
spontaneously, making vaccination the only option against the virus
10) Which of the following kills over 35,000 people in the United States each year, with
over 90% being 65 years or older?
a) Malaria
b) Tuberculosis
c) West Nile virus
d) Influenza
e) SARS
11) Which of the following is related to Ebola and has had outbreaks in Angola recently?
a) West Nile virus
b) Human monkeypox
c) Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis
d) Marburg virus
e) SARS
12) What strain of influenza is associated with Avian Flu, for which a vaccine and an
antiviral (Tamiflu) are effective against?
a) H1N5
b) H2N2
c) H3N2
d) H5N1
e) H7N3
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12) Hospitals are required to participate in community disaster planning for HAZMAT
incidents according to SARA Title III.
a) True
b) False
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James Lamberg
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AnswerKey 6) D Health #6 4) E
Health #1 7) A 1) E 5) C
1) B 8) A 2) D 6) D
2) E 9) C 3) D 7) E
3) C 10) E 4) B 8) C
4) C 11) A 5) E 9) B
5) B 12) D 6) B 10) D
6) C 13) E 7) D 11) D
7) A 14) D 8) A 12) D
8) B 15) D 9) A
9) E 16) C Health #10
10) C 17) A Health #7 1) C
11) B 18) A 1) B 2) A
12) D 2) C 3) D
13) C Health #4 3) B 4) B
14) B 1) A 4) C 5) C
15) C 2) B 5) D 6) B
16) A 3) E 6) A 7) A
4) C 7) E 8) D
Health #2 5) D 8) E
1) E 6) B 9) A Health #11
2) A 7) A 10) D 1) B
3) B 8) B 11) E 2) E
4) A 9) C 12) D 3) C
5) D 10) B 13) D 4) D
6) A 11) B 5) B
7) B 12) C Health #8 6) B
8) C 13) D 1) C 7) C
9) B 14) C 2) A 8) A
10) D 15) B 3) E 9) E
11) A 16) D 4) D 10) B
12) C 17) A 5) C 11) A
13) A 18) C 6) C 12) A
14) C 7) E
15) D Health #5 8) C Health #12
16) E 1) E 9) E 1) E
17) B 2) A 10) B 2) C
18) B 3) B 11) E 3) D
19) E 4) D 12) D 4) B
5) C 13) B 5) A
Health #3 6) D 14) B 6) C
1) B 7) D 7) A
2) C 8) A Health #9 8) D
3) B 9) E 1) B 9) E
4) C 2) E
5) A 3) A
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